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1

2 A tree species introduced from another country is called-------- (A) International species B

(B) Exotic species (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species

3 Agriculture can be broadly classified into and (A) Livestock Soil (B) Animal Soil C

(C) Animal Crop (D) Poultry Fruit

4 An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which A

cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry

pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens

5 Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops C

6 Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other non- A

target organisms indiscriminately (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive (C) they

allow target organisms to survive (D) they kill target organisms only

7 Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of C

cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes

8 Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) A

study of Bacteria

Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm

helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip is an example of plant propagated by leaf (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C) D

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE

POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADAN

SCIENCEAGRICULTURAL



9 Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) C

study of Bacteria

10 Olericulture involves the cultivation of helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants C

(c) Vegetables (d) Orchards

11 One of these is a natural agricultural resource (A) water (B) petroleum (C) calcium (D) A

potatoes

12 Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are A

poisoned are called A Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D)

Repellents

13 Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem A

borer (B) aphids (C) cassava mealy bugs (D) cotton stainers

14 Plants that are capable of carrying out photosynthesis contain (A) No Chlorophyll (B) C

Only Xanthophyll (C) Chlorophyll (D) No plant pigment

15 Problems of agriculture in Nigeria include (A) higher education and land (B) poor rural B

infrastructure and low soil fertility (C) human capital and extension services (D) mineral

resources and poor storage facilities

16 Reduction of ten seedlings of pawpaw to two per stand is referred to as (A) pruning (B) B

thinning (C) weeding (D) spacing

17 The equilibrium price rice is the price at which --- (A) its demand exceeds supply (B) its C

supply exceeds demand (C) its supply equals demand (D) its demand encourages supply






18 The following are examples of formulated pesticide product except (A) dusts eg Actellic B

dust (B) active ingredient (C) Emulsifiable Concentrate eg Gammalin 20 (D) Soluble

Concentrate eg Novacron 40

19 The following are micronutrients except (A) Sulphur (B) Iron (C) Copper (D) A

Molybdenum

20 The force which results from attraction between the two unlike materials is called A

Adhesion (B) Cohesion (C) Friction (D) Couple

21 The forest is made up of - (A) Stone rock gravel and trees (B) Animals trees shrubs and B

herbs (C) Teak Elephant paper and fire (D) Wood coal gas and leaves

22 The general name for a plant that is considered to be a pest is (A) tree (B) shrub (C) Weed C

(D) Herb

23 The list below consists of fiber sources which one is not correct (A) Coir wood bast A

asbestos (B) Wool asbestos sisal pineapple (C) Glass Plantain Okra Hemp (D) Banana

flax sisal kenaf

24 The most effective method of controlling or preventing viral diseases in plant is by (A) A

Planting resistant varieties (B) Spraying crops regularly (C) Treating seeds with chemicals

(D) Burning affected crops

25 The process by which green plant manufacture their food is called (A) Osmosis (B) B

Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Respiration

26 The process by which soil gets wetted up is known as (A)Wetting (B) Erosion (C) C

Capillarity (D) swelling

27 The removal of excess water from a plant through the stomata is(A) Transpiration (B) A

Pollination (C) Absorption (D) Photosynthesis

28 The reproductive cells of crops are called (A) gametes (B) genes (C) anthers (D) zygote A

29 Trees can be classified into two classes namely (A) Wood and woodlot (B) Mediterranean C

wood and temperate wood (C) Hardwoods and softwoods (D) Badwoods and Deciduous

wood

30 Virology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) study of B

Bacteria

31 What is mycology (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) D

study of Fungi

32 When species of plant or animal disappears completely from a place where it previously C

existed it is said to be (A) Endangered (B) Threatened (C) Extinct (D) Rare (e) Out

dated

33 Which of the following crops can be propagated by stem cutting (A) Onion (B) Yam (C) D

Lettuce (D) Cassava

34 Which of the following crops exhibits hypogeal germination (A) Millet (B) Cowpea (C) A

Groundnut (D) Soybean

35 Which of the following crops is a raw material for the production of chocolate (A) Kolanut D

(B) Coffee (C) Banana (D) Cocoa






36 Which of the following crops produces latex (A) Mango (B) Citrus (C) Palm tree (D) D

Rubber

37 Which of the following fruits is a capsule (A) mango (B) coconut (C) apple (D) okra D

38 Which of the following is a storage pest of maize (A) Weevil (B) Beetle (C) Grasshopper A

(D) Aphid

39 Which of the following is for body building (A) Protein (B) Fat (C) Minerals (D) A

Water

40 Which of the following is not a factor influencing the availability of agricultural land (A) D

Topography (B) Soil types (C) Population pressure (D) Transportation

41 Which of the following is not a method of controlling pests (A) Quarantine (B) Crop D

rotation (C) Fumigation (D) Mulching

42 Which of the following is not a monocotyledon plant (A) Orange (B) Banana (C) Rice (D) A

Bamboo

43 Which of these is not involved in forest land enforcement (A) Forest guards (B) Forest C

rangers (C) Police officers (D) Forest officers (E) Immigration officers

44 Why should a seed-producing farmer spray an insecticide on his crops only when the bees C

are not around (A) the bees would sting him and he therefore avoids them (B)the

farmer does not want to waste his chemicals (C) bees are important for pollination of his

crops (D) bees are harmless insects

45 Wildlife Management includes one of the following (A) Habitat Conservation (B) Habitat A

Consumption (C) Habitat Liberation

46 Yam stored in a barn should be inspected at least once a week to (A) remove rotting D

tubers (B) remove sprout from the yam (C) prevent termite attack (D) remove sprout

and rotten tuber

47 is to manipulate soil to obtain a desired soil tilth for seed placement its B

germination and emergence (A) Ploughing (B) Tillage (C) Harrowing (D) Harvesting

48 An example of sprayers used in crop protection is (A) Nasdac (B) Nafdac (C) Knapsack (D) C

Capsack

49 An example of a stem tuber is (A) Cassava (B) Yam (C) Groundnut (D) Maringa B

50 An example of fungal disease of stored grains is (A) rosette (B) mould (C) soft rot (D) B

damping off

51 Horticulture is a branch of Agriculture that involves (A) Rearing of animals (B) Cultivation D

of food crops (C) Study of farm machines and tools (D) Cultivation of fruit vegetables and

ornamental plants

52 If a crop requires 15kg phosphorus per hectare how many kg of manure will be required C

per hectare if 1kg of manure contains 05kg of phosphorus (A) 252 (B) 295 (C) 30

(D) 415

53 Maize grow best on (A) sandy soil (B) sand-clay soil (C) loamy soil (D) clayey-loam soil C

54 Root knot of tomato is caused by a (A) fungus (B) bacterium (C) protozoon (D) nematode D






55 Soil textural class can be determined using (A) Meter rule (B) Vernier caliper (C) Textural C

Triangle (D) Rain gauge

56 The average seed rate for maize is 25kg per hectare Allowing for seed wastage of 5 B

percent how many kilograms of seeds would be required in planting 2 hectares of farm

land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275

57 The correct definition of a soil profile is (A) Horizontal section of the earth crust showing all C

the layers of soil (B) Diagonal representation of the soil from top to bottom (C) Vertical

section of the soil from the soil surface to the top of the parent materials showing the

horizons (D) Perpendicular cross section of the soil showing all the layers from the top of

the subsoil

58 The mosaic symptom commonly associated with viral diseases of crops can be best C

observed on (A) roots (B) stem (C) leaves (D) fruits

59 The most important part of a crop plant to a horticulturist are the(A) Roots (B)Leaves (C) B

Buds (D) Branches

60 The pest designated as a national pest by Nigerian Agricultural Advisory Council is (A) A

variegated grasshopper (B) thrips (C) weevil (D) cricket

61 The process by which plant nutrients are washed down beyond the root zone in the soil is B

known as (A) Bleaching (B) Leaching (C) Infiltration (D) Erosion

62 The process of additional source of water in nursery practices for seedlings is called (A) B

Fertilization (B) Irrigation (c) Ploughing (d) Espacement

63 The use of Chemical pesticides is being discouraged because they (A) Degrade the D

environment (B) Pollute the environment and kill non target organisms in the

environment (C) They contaminate water bodies (D) All of the above

64 Vertical description of soil column is called (A) Soil tilth (B) Soil profile (C) Soil B

moisture (D) Soil compaction

65 What are the 3 basic types of rock (A) Metamorphic granite and Igneous (B) Sedimentary C

Igneous and slate (C)Igneous metamorphic and Sedimentary (D) Igneous metamorphic and

slate

66 What is soil texture (A) The proportion of sand silt and gravel in the soil (B) The D

percentages of all the components of the soil (C) The average composition of the soil

particles (D) The proportion of sand silt and clay in the soil

67 What is the process by which soil particles are washed away (A) Leaching (B) Erosion B

(C) Ponding (D) Wetting

68 Which of the following diseases of crops causes stunting in maize (A) blast (B) rosette (C) D

blight (D) streak

69 Which of the following is not an effect on man of the various preventive and control D

measures of diseases and pest of crops (A) air pollution (B) water poisoning (C) poor

health (D) poor utilization

70 A strain is a chicken breeding stock bearing a given value and produced by a breeder D

through at least generations of closed breeding (A) two (B) three (C)

four (D) five






71 A term used to designate groups of breeds which have been developed in a particular area C

is (A) Breed (B) Variety (C) Class (D) Strain

72 All except are bred for their meat quality (A) Australorp (B) New Hampshire D

(C) Rhode Island Red (D) Minorca

73 All of these are poultry except (A) Chicken (B) Duck (c) Pet (d) Turkey C

74 Chindulla is a breed of (A) Goat (B) Gorilla (C) Rabbit (D) Grasscutter (E) Pig C

75 Fowl pox is commonly transmitted by helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A)Testes fly (B) Bees (C) Mosquitoes C

(D) Rats

76 In which of the following farm animals is the need for protein supplement in the diet not D

critical (A) Rabbit (B) Poultry (C) Pigs (D) Cattle

77 One of the animals that has been successfully domesticated in Nigeria is (A) Cockroach (B) C

Earthworm (C) Grasscutter

78 One of the branches of the poultry industry is (A) Backward farming (B) Poultry housing (C) D

Disease control (D) Integrated companies

79 Salmonella and Mycoplasma can only be controlled through (A) Vaccination (B) Proper B

sanitation (C) Bio-security (D) Destruction of contaminated breeders

80 The contains enzymes that helps to dissolve the membrane of the yolk before D

fertilization takes place (A) Ovary (B) Sperm (C) Seminal fluid (D) Acrosome

81 The female sheep is known as (A) ewe (B) lamb (C) sow (D) mare A

82 The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D

(C) Uterus (D) Magnum

83 The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone (B) Testis (C) Thiamine (D) A

Globulin (E) Progesterone

84 The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C

Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading

85 The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) 10mls (B) 50mls (c) C

05mls (d) 010mls

86 What is poultry science (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A

Study of cattle

87 What is the gestation period of a cow (A) 5 months (B) 18frac12 months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C

months (E) 15 weeks

88 Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed C

(A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry

equipment

89 Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A

Nigeria (A) Sun-drying (B) Gas drying (C) Oven drying

90 Which of the following is monogastric animal (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C

91 A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15000 in 2004 at the end of fifth year he sold it for B

N5000 What is the salvage value (A) N10000 (B) N5000 (C) N15000 (D) N

3000






92 Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B

to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these

93 Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B

supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity

supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D)

the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price

94 Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A

Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives

95 One of the factors that influence supply is (A) Income (B) prices of other products (C) D

social capital (D) level of technology

96 People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D

grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community

approach (D) bottom up approach

97 The law of demand states that (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B

higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a

commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above

98 The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C

(A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value

99 Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria (A) Lack of C

transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D)

Lack of good packaging and processing facilities

100 Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics (A) Agribusiness C

management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural

development and policy



UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN IBADANPOST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS amp ANSWERS

BIOLOGY

1

1 ____________ is an end product of digestion of fat (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D)Fructose (E) Galactose

B

2 Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b Fragmentation cBudding d Separation (E) Regeneration

C

3 Benedictrsquos solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E)Minerals

C

4 Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A) Starch (B) Sugar (C) Lipid (D) Fat (E) Protein E

5 The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called ndashndash (A)Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion

B

6 The enzyme that curdles milk is_____________ (A) Pepsin (B) Ptyalin (C) Renin (D) Amylase(E) Trypsin

C

7 Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C)Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase

A

8 A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B)biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment

C

9 A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a commonboundary (B) a place in which plants and animals live (C) a community living together in thesame place (D) different areas with a common animal and plant population (E) None of theabove

B

10 A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism iscalled ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition

A

11 An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A)symbiosis (B) commensalism (C) ammensalism (D) mutualism (E) saprophytism

D

12 An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) awind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer

D

13 At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals At other times hyenasthemselves kill animals for food Therefore hyenas may best be described as ndashndash (A) scavengersand herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores andpredators e herbivores and parasites

C

14 Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and theirenvironment (B) same species of organisms and their environment (C) organisms in theatmosphere (D) organisms under the earthrsquos surface (E)None of the above

B

15 Autotrophs are also described as ndashndash (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D)Producers (E) Herbivores

D

16 If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay sand and loamy soilsrespectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A)Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil(D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil

E

17 In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as ndashndash (A) producers (B) consumers (C)scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers

E




BIOLOGY

2

18 Puddles Ponds Rivers Seas and Oceans are grouped together as ndashndash (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere(C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment

C

19 The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is calledhelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C)Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology

B

20 The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a givenarea over a period of time until a stable community is established is called ndashndash (A)Transformational change (B) ecological succession (C) survival of the fittest (D) weatherchange (E) environmental change

B

21 The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains while 0 is used where anorganism is unaffected An association indicated as +0 is known as ndashndash (A) predation (B)commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism

B

22 The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology (B)ecosystem (C) habit (D) habitat (E) niche

E

23 Which of the following factors does not control population growth (A) Food shortage (B)Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster

D

24 Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem (A) A place where livingorganisms can live successfully (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and thenon-living part of the environment (C) A biological association between a plant and ananimal (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat (E) None of the above

B

25 Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature (A) Crustacea rarr diatom rarrfish rarr man (B) Diatom rarr crustacea rarr fish rarr man (C) Fish rarr crustacea rarr man rarr diatom (D) Diatom rarr fish rarr crustacea rarr man (E) None of the above

B

26 ___________ is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during theprocess of____________ (A) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuolePhagocytosis (C) Food vacuole Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole Pinocytosis (E) Cell membranePinocytosis

A

27 ______________ is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C)Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle

C

28 A heart with four chambers is found in______________ (A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats(E) Worms

D

29 Animal cell does not have a ____________ (A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cellwall (E) Golgi body

D

30 Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin_____________ (A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E

31 Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jellyfish

D

32 Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 22 c22 pm22 m33 (B) i11 c22 pm22 m33 (C)i22 c11 pm32 m22 (D) i22 c11 pm22 m22 (E) i22 c11 pm22 m33

E

33 During digestion of food passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become awatery liquid called__________ (A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Solublefood (E) Dissolved food

C




BIOLOGY

3

34 Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______________ (A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D)Maltase (E) Bile

E

35 Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) FourKidneys (E) None of the above

C

36 Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination(D) Excretion (E) Evacuation

B

37 Glomerulus is found in the______________ (A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e)Stomach

D

38 In the respiratory system of man diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C)Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above

C

39 Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E)Crushing food

B

40 Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C)Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods

D

41 One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis(D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D

D

42 Open circulatory system is found in _____________ (A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E)Chicken

D

43 Ovary is to the female reproductive system as________ is to the male reproductive system (A)Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowperrsquos gland (E) Prostate gland

C

44 Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D)Amphibians (E) All of the above

A

45 Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C

46 The excretory organ in the earthworm ishelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C)Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills

C

47 The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called ndashndash (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves(C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves

E


E

49 The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Controlthe activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E)Increased metabolism

B

50 The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B)Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard

E

51 The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential iscalled ndashndash (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window

D

52 The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of __________ vertebrae (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4(D) 12 (E) 10

D

53 Which of the animal below is poikilothemic (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A




BIOLOGY

4

54 Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D)Claws (E) All of the above

A

55 Which of these animals is photosynthetic (A) Paramecium sp (B) Amoeba sp (C) Euglena sp(D) Hydra sp (E) None of the above

C

56 Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen(D) Lung (E) Pancreas

E

57 The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D)Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation

C

58 The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remainconstant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis(E) oogenesis

C

59 Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms (A) Inbreeding (B)Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance

D

60 ____________ is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin A

61 ____________ is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E)Beetle

D

62 _____________ are flatworms (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Nematoda (D) Diplopoda (E)Chilopoda

A

63 _____________ is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp (B) Hydra sp (C) Ascarissp (D) Taenia sp (E) Obelia sp

A

64 _____________ level is the highest level of organization in animals (A) System (B) Tissue (C)Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic

A

65 Crocodiles are _____________ (A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of theabove

E

66 The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo deVrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes

D

67 The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin andWallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin

B

68 Which is the odd animal in the list below (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E

69 Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution (A) Fossil records B Comparativeanatomy C Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above

D

70 _______________ is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E)Tsetse fly

B

71 The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A

72 In lower plants like mosses the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plantsis called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli

D




BIOLOGY

5

73 One common feature of fungi algae mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B)show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E)conjugate

D

74 The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C)Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta

B

75 _____________is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D)Conjugation (E) Regeneration

D

76 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D)Reproduction (E) Mutualism

C

77 The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D)chloroplast (E) gene

E

78 All are necessary for photosynthesis except_____________ (A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C)Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen

E

79 Growing yam tendrils climb for support This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism(C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism

A

80 Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups (A)Bacteria rarr ferns rarr algae rarr mosses rarr seed plants (B) Bacteria rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr seed plants (C) Bacteria rarr algae rarr mosses rarr ferns rarr seed plants (D) Bacteria rarr mosses rarr algae rarr ferns rarr seed plants (E) Seed plants rarr ferns rarr mosses rarr algae rarr bacteria

C

81 ------------ is not part of the whorls of a flower(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D)Antheridium (E)Gynoecium

D

82 A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B)aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp

E

83 A dry indehiscent winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B)Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle

C

84 A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) afertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and otherfloral parts

B

85 Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D

86 One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnospermsare borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule

A

87 Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D)mesocarp (E) all parts

C

88 What type of fruit is a mango fruit (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C

89 Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon(D) Lantana (E) Dahlia

A

90 Which of these plants has an emerginate apex (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E)Terminalia

A

91 Which plant stores food in its roots (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E)yam

A




BIOLOGY

6

92 An example of Vascular tissues is -------------- (A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis(E) Parenchyma

B

93 The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D)cytoplasm

B

94 Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C)cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade

B

95 A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals sugars salts pigments and crystals (B) wasteproducts of metabolism DNA RNA and crystals (C) pigments crystals DNA and waste productsof metabolism (D) RNA DNA sugars and salts

A

96 Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D)Excretion

C

97 Starch granules in plants is equivalent to _____________ granules in animals (A) Food (B)Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen

E

98 Which of the following is a plant excretory product (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D)amino acids (E) gibberellins

C

99 A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called ndashndash (A) aparasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey

C

100 Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B)mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes

C




CHEMISTRY

1

1 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II)oxide When cooled the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3 Estimate the percentage ofoxygen in the air (A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 21 (D) 19

C

2 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container Calculate the newpressure if temperature is kept constant (A) 67 atm (B) 150 atm (C) 600 (D) 660

B

3 Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding

A

4 A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B)dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene

B

5 A mixture of sand ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A)sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition ofwater and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) additionof water followed by crystallization and sublimation

A

6 A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range oftemperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature asthe impure one

B

7 A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube the solidgradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases Later a white cloudy deposit wasobserved on the cooler part of the test tube The ammonium chloride is said to haveundergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation

B

8 CH4 has this geometry (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear C

9 Chlorine consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37 has an atomic mass of 355The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75

B

10 Elements P Q R S have 6 11 15 and 17 electrons respectively therefore (A) P will form anelectrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalentbond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S

D

11 In the oil drop experiment Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B)mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton

C

12 One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C

13 Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20 oxygen by volume Which ofthe reactants was in excess (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen

A

14 The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalentbonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding

E

15 The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A)electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency

C

16 The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C)chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides

C




CHEMISTRY

2

17 The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A

18 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) theAvogadrorsquos number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant

B

19 The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B)number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity

C

20 The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period(C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number

E

21 The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg If the total Pr pressure 780mmHg what is the mole fraction of the oxygen (A) 064 [B (B) 573 (C) 156 (D) 070 (E) 054

A

22 The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their(A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers

D

23 The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C)dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction

D

24 The shapes of CO2 H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent linear and tetrahedral (B) benttetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral linear and bent (D) linear bent and tetrahedral

D

25 This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF C

26 This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A)hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding

B

27 Which one of the following changes is physical (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B)Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydratedsalt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice

D

28 A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated(C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes

D

29 Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C)reactive (D) basic (E) acidic

B

30 Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid andcitric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclicacid (E) Sulphuric acid

A

31 Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid isdispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid

C

32 The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain(A) CO2 SO3 and N2O (B) CO2 COand N2O (C) SO2 CO and NO2 (D) PH3 H2O and CO2

C

33 The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that whilecolloids (A) do not scatter light suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration suspensionscannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane suspensions cannot (D) do notsettle out on standing suspensions do

D

34 The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) aceticacid (D) NaCl (E) C and D

E




CHEMISTRY

3

35 The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution(D) hot solution (E) all of the above

A

36 The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S SO2 andoxides of nitrogen (B)NH3 HCl and CO (C) CO2 NH3 and H2S (D) dust NO and Cl2

A

37 What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A

38 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B)Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide

D

39 Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount (A) Ca2+ (B)Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+

B

40 Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3

(E) NaClB

41 016g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C) what isthe heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 42 Jg-10C-1 (CH4=16) (A)1160kJmol-1 (B) 1180kJmol-1 (C) 1560kJmol-1 (D) 1600kJmol-1 (E) 1680kJmol-1

E

42 A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___energy (A) Chemical electrical (B) mechanical chemical (C) heat mechanical (D) lightelectrical (E) light heat

A

43 Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper The reaction isan example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C)oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization

A

44 For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant there is an oxygen atomwhich acts as a an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor

B

45 Given the change of phase CO2(g) changes to CO2(s) the entropy of the system (A) decreases(B) increases (C) remains the same

A

46 In which of the following is the entropy change positive (A) Reaction between an acid and abase (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water(D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride

C

47 One of these elements is the best reducing agent (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B

48 The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride

B

49 The oxidation state of P in H2P2072- is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D

50 The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6 C

51 The oxidizing agent in the reaction 3Br2 + 6OH- = BrO3- + 5Br- + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C)

BrO3- (D) e- (E) H2OA

52 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction the reaction is said to be ___(A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic

D




CHEMISTRY

4

53 Given the reaction at equilibrium 2CO(g) + O2(g) harr 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected tostress a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants only (B) products only (C)both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products

C

54 Given the reaction at equilibrium N2(g) + O2(g) harr 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g)increases the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D)vanishes (E) pours away

A

55 If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder it means that (A) The reaction is in astate of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a largedecrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static

B

56 In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A isreduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) ifthe concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture

E

57 In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reversereaction (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one (B) The product of two isexpected to be one (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical (D) The product of thetwo is always greater than one

C

58 In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the systemis increased (A) C(s) + O2(g) harr CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) harr CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) harr 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) harr2H2O(g)

B

59 The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV)(B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate(IV)

D

60 Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium (A) The amount of products isgreater than the amount of reactants (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount ofreactants (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction(D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction

D

61 Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemicalreaction (A) Decrease in temperature increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase intemperature addition of a catalyst decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase intemperature increase in concentration addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface areaof the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature concentration and surface area of the reactants(E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light

C

62 ldquoQuicklimerdquo has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO42H2O (E) CaCl2 B

63 A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octetconfiguration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons(E) it has no electron in the d-orbital

D

64 Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C)neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acidson bleaching powder

B




CHEMISTRY

5

65 Chlorine bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) reactviolently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) aregases (E) are liquids

A

66 Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus(B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane

D

67 One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E)water B

68 One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C

69 One of these reactions represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen (A) C(s) + H2O(l)rarr CO(g) + H2(g) (B) 2 Na(s) + 2H20(1) rarr 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (C) Cu(s) + H2O(l) rarr CuO(s) + H2(g) (D)2Al(s) + 3H2O(l) rarr Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g) (E) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) rarr ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

E

70 The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upperatmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these

A

71 The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B)chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine

B

72 The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur(B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur

B

73 The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balancedarehellipHNO3 + Ca(OH)2 rarr ______ (A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O(D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O

B

74 What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production (A) dehydrating agent(B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent

B

75 When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water the solution becomes milky dueformation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4

B

76 Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall (A)Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide

D

77 Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buckminsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above

E

78 Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric) (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D

79 Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extractmagnesium ions This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B)most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ionshas great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion (E) None of theabove

B

80 ___________ can be used to test for reducing sugars (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C)Fehlingrsquos solution (D) de-ionized water

C




CHEMISTRY

6

81 2CH3COOH + Zn rarr The product of this reaction is (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 +Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4

C

82 A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitrosocompound (D) an oxime

D

83 Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C)RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-

B

84 An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180oC is dehydratedto give mostly (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane

B

85 Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Brominewater (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide

B

86 Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the followingreasons except that (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B)detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is lessexpensive

D

87 In the manufacture of soap industrially brine is used to__________the acid salt (A) oxidise(B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate

D

88 Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation2CO(g) + 2H2(g) rarr CH4(g) + CO2(g) Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 875 x 1025

molecules of CH4 At masses C=12011 H= 1008 O = 15999 Avogadrorsquos no 6022 x1023molecules mole (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 3200g (E) 2035g

A

89 Potassium ethanoate is formed when (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acidreacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH

B

90 Saponification is defined as (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil(C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess ofsimple alkanol

B

91 Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of thefatty acid in detergent is replaced by (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester(D) acids

B

92 The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding(C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding

C

93 Two important sources of detergent are (A) fatoils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C)pulp and wood (D) water and gas

A

94 What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap (A) Esterification (B)Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification

B

95 When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst inthe presence of air the product is (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid

D

96 When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap it has the following advantagesexcept it gives (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) moresoluble soap

B




CHEMISTRY

7

97 When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days it goes sour The bacteria in the airoxidises________ in palm wine to _________ (A) ethanol ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acidethanol (C) ester ethanoic acid (D) ether ethanol

A

98 Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can bemanufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimesreadily

C

99 Which of the following reactions is correct (A) C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B)C6H5COOH + CaO rarr C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 rarr C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH +C2H5OH rarr C6H6 + C3H8COOH

B

100 Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acidbut weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It issoluble in cold water

C





CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES

1 Behold the people of Israel are too many come let us deal shrewdly with them lest they D

multiply In the statement the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all

Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male

children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens

2 I will go out as at other times and shake myself free When Samson made the statement C

above he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze

fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D) his eyes had been gouged out

3 Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place and let the dry land D

appear In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B)

firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas

4 Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her Saul A

made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C)

Amalekites (D) Moabites

5 Why did you bring trouble on us The LORD brings trouble on you todayrdquo What happened to C

Achan after the statement above by Joshua (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain

(C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly

6 An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D

the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour

7 David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon C

8 For worshipping the molten calf God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C

unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people

9 God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A

work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D)

human beings were recreated on that day

10 God called Abraham when he was how many years old (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A

100 years old (D) 120 years old

11 In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai C

they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments

everyday (D) not to go near a woman

12 Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potipharrsquos wife (B) he C

was very lazy (C) Potipharrsquos wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaohrsquos cup

13 Samuels lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A

untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David

as king

14 Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D

Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied

concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne






15 The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B

man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel

16 The rainbow as the sign of Gods covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C

(C) mercy (D) Redemption

17 What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B

LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great

18 What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwisemdash Policies (A) Jeroboam was

empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he

built (C) He raised up Hadad the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was

torn from him and given to his servant D

19 What was Samsons major achievement as Israels leadermdash (A) He suppressed the Philistines

(B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He

secured permanent independence for Israel A

20 When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites he resisted because he could not speak and D

he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with

Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him

21 When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speakingmdash to it God said to him that

he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise

land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years

B

22 When the Israelites left Egypt God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of

the Philistines becausemdash (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might

go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to

suffer and appreciate Him B

23 Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared

King Agagmdash (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin

(B) David was a man after Gods heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of

praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn

D

24 And in the last days it shall be God declares that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B

flesh Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C)

Jeremiah (D) Isaiah

25 Am I God to kill and to make alive that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B

leprosy Prophet Elisha responded to the kings reaction in the statement above by (A)

directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C)

directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice

26 Behold I am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement C

above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable






27 Behold 1 am the LORD the God of all flesh is anything too hard for me The statement B

above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable

28 Do you understand what you are reading Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D

above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D)

Isaiah

29 My spirit shall not abide in man forever for he is flesh When God made the statement He D

concluded that mans days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years

(C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years

30 Test your servants for ten days let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink In the C

statement above Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the

steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes

31 According to Amos what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew A

(A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed

for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD

32 According to Prophet Jeremiah one of the promises of God was that He would give the D

Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds

after His own heart

33 According to Proverbs a son that is attentive to a fathers instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C

eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins

34 Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel God declared that (A) He

would require the blood of Naboth from Ahabrsquos hand (B) Ahabs descendants would never

ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahabs blood where they had licked Naboth (D)

the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab

C

35 Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins they would (A) A

Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from

captivity

36 God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonahs message (B) the C

king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way (D) they

made sacrifices of sin offering to God

37 Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel Elijah prayed and God answered him with B

(A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm

38 In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon King Cyrus ordered for (A) A

free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish slaves in the

empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in

Babylon

39 Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom

and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for

his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C






40 Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D

prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two

years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water

41 Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C

would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply

their descendants

42 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A)

kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel

D

43 Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D


44 Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call whenmdash (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King

Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity

B

45 Saul learnt from Samuels spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A

(B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaacs future wife (D) pardon his iniquity

46 The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiahs death

(B) Josiahs reforms (C) Israels stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiahs rebellion against Babylon

C

47 The effect that the faith of Shadrach Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D

and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were

converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver

48 The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D

(B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last

two kings made unwise policies

49 The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C

to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his

grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign

50 The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B

Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected

type of sacrifice

51 What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord(A) He removed all the idols of his A

father (B) He killed all the priests of Baal (C) His reign was peaceful (D) He killed all the

Baal worshippers

52 What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem (A) They D

praised God for sending him to rebuild Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah

about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged

one another to rise up and build the walls






53 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C

from what is strangled and from blood The statement above was made at the Council of

Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter

54 His office let another take The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B

(C) Barnabas (D) John Mark

55 Truly I say to you not even In Israel have I found such faith The statement above by D

Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D) centurions

servant

56 Depart from me for I am a sinful man O Lord This statement was uttered by Peter at C

the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration

57 If I tell you you will not believe and if I ask you you will not answer Jesus statement B

above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C)

Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees

58 If you are the Son of God throw yourself down from here for it is written He will give his A

angels charge of youhellip According to Luke the statement above was made by Satan during

Jesus(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation

59 Teacher do you not care if we perish Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D

asked (A) On the sea walking (B) In the wilderness (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the

ship asleep

60 Truly I say to you today you will be with me in paradise Jesus made the statement D

above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his

partner (D) was repentant

61 Unbind him and let him go The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A

the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurions

servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him

62 Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you cannot be saved The D

statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in

Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem

63 You son of the devil you enemy of all righteousness full of all deceit and villainy This A

statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas the magician (B) Paulus the proconsul (C)

Simon the Magician (D) Demetrius the silversmith

64 lsquo As long as I am in the world I am the light of the worldrsquo Jesus made the statement above A

on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C)

restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break

65 According to Luke the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B

Jordan (D) in Bethlehem

66 According to Luke when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration they spoke of A

Jesusrsquo (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials






67 According to Matthew the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A

Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John

68 According to Romans salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B

true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lords vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness

69 According to the Gospel of John Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B

Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother

70 And they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow for it was already D

evening In the statement above the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B)

Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas

71 Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D

looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth his wife (D)

did not believe Gods words

72 Following the death of Stephen the only group of believers not scattered by the great B

persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples

73 Following the resurrection of Jesus the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A

guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away

from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately

to the rulers

74 In His Sermon on the Mount Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C

be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit

the earth

75 In Luke at the Last Supper Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C

love for His disciples (D) ascension

76 In the country of the Gerasenes Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A

at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man

77 In the mission of the seventy Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D

wolves implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep

(C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties

78 In the story of the Transfiguration Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C

Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age

79 Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C

know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the

mother (D) loved the young man that died

80 Jesus reply to the devils first temptation of Him was _ (A) Him only shall you serve (B)

Man shall not live by bread alone (C) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (D)

You shall worship the Lord your God B

81 Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D

rejoice with those who rejoice (B) no person can hide from God (C) Gods love is unlimited

(D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents






82 Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B

(B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of

wine

83 Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C

forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devils power

84 The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher D

85 The impact of Jesus miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C

astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people

glorified God

86 Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B

woman(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to

buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him

87 According to Ephesians children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C

to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great

88 According to Peter God shows no partiality but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B

diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him

89 According to Romans the new life is comparable to Jesus (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A

ascension (D) crucifixion

90 According to Thessalonians the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C

(B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first

91 Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A)

pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal

to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters

B

92 In his teaching on partiality James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A

righteousness (C) grace (D) faith

93 In Pauls arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians the last is (A) the utterance of B

wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues

94 In Romans Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B

(A) greediness (B) wickedness (C) sadness (D) foolishness

95 In Timothy Paul urges Christians to pray for kings and those in authority for the achievement D

of (A) a successful Christian life (B) godly and acceptable life (C) peace and exaltation in life

(D) quiet and peaceable life

96 Paul in Romans enjoins all Christians to cast off works of darkness end put on the (A) armour A

of light (B) armour of faith (C) works of grace (D) works of light

97 Peter admonishes that Christians should endure suffering because anyone who has suffered A

in the flesh (A) shall live the rest of his life in peace (B) shall clothe himself with humility (C)

has ceased from sin (D) has overcome death






98 Peter enjoins Christians to wait in expectation of the new heavens and the new earth in which D

(A) evil will be destroyed (B) there will be no more corruption (C) there will be perfection (D)

righteousness dwell

99 What does Paul advise Roman Christians to do to those who persecute them (A) Give them C

drink when thirsty (B) Forgive them (C) Bless them (D) Feed them when hungry

100 Which of the following are opposed to each other according to Galatians (A) Believers and D

unbelievers (B) Freedmen and salves (C) Jews and Gentiles (D) Flesh and Spirit





ECONOMICS

1 helliphelliphelliphelliphellipis the term that describes the cost of one product in terms of forgone D

productionacquisition of others (A) Marginal cost (B) Productionacquisition cost (C)

Optimum cost (D) Opportunity cost (E) Implicit cost

2 An activity does not have a cost when (A) the activity does not require the giving up of A

any other activity or thing (B) the government pays for it (C) it is carried out by a non-

governmental organisation (D) it is not priced (E) it is easy to undertake

3 Choices arise on account of helliphellip (A) numerous wants (B) enough money to undertake D

effective demand (C) scale of preference (D) human wants being numerous but the

time money and influence to satisfy them are limited (E) needs

4 Economics is best defined as (A) the study of allocation of resources to satisfy human D

wants (B) the study of human behaviour in the process of buying and selling (C) study

of how nations grow and improve their welfare (D) the study of how to allocate scarce

resources to satisfy human wants (E) all of the above

5 Economics may be described as (A) the study of demand and supply of things in our C

environment (B) the study of production and distribution (C) the study of human

behaviour in the allocation of scarce resources (D) the study of the employment of

labour capital land and capital (E) the study of money and banking

6 From an economics point of view an activity does not have cost when (A) someone else C

pays for it (B) the returns are greater than costs (C) the choice involves given up

nothing (D) government pays for it (E) it is paid for from gift

7 Opportunity cost is a term which describes (A) initial cost of setting up a business C

venture (B) a study of the ways man devices to satisfy his unlimited wants from limited

resources (C) cost of one product in terms of forgone production of others (D) the

mandatory equivalent of the utility of a commodity (E) cost related to an optimum level

of production

8 Scarcity in economics means (A) a period of scarce things (B) when things are costly to E

acquire (C) monopolisation of available resources by a few (D) nationalisation of

natural resources such as petroleum in Venezuela (E) none of the above

9 Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any want in the sense of the alternative that B

has to be forgone (A) variable cost (B) opportunity cost (C) total cost (D) prime cost

(E) marginal cost

10 Economic analyses and conclusions can be divided into (A) consumption and production B

(B) positive and normative (C) microeconomics and macroeconomics (D) demand and

supply (E) none of the above

11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency (A) mean (B) median (C) E

Mode (D) average (E) standard deviation

12 Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion (A) standard deviation (B) E

mean deviation (C) variance (D) range (E) mean

13 A normal good with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand (A) C

between zero and one (B) equal to unity (C) greater than unity (D) less than unity

(E) none of the above

14 Demand for a factor of production is (A) A composite demand (B) ajoint demand (C) C

a derived demand (D) an elasticity of demand (E) cross elasticity of demand

15 Given Demand function Qd = 5P + 10 Supply function Qs = 7P ndash 5 If the price is at N5 the D

excess demand is (A) 35 (B) 30 (C) 10 (D) 5 (E) 65





ECONOMICS

16 If an increase in the price of a commodity leads to an increase in total revenue then it C

follows that the demand for the commodity is (A) normal (B) elastic (C) inelastic (D)

abnormal (E) unitary

17 If the price of a commodity rises the quantity demanded of the commodity remains the D

same then the demand for the commodity is (A) static (B) infinitely elastic (C)

externally determined (D) perfectly inelastic (E) perfectly elastic

18 The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of B

commodity B is best explained using the concept of (A) price-elasticity of demand (B)

cross-price elasticity of demand (C) income elasticity of demand (D) elasticity of

substitution (E) A-price elasticity of demand for B

19 The change that is due to a movement from one supply curve to another along the same A

price is called (A) change in supply (B) change in quantity supplied (C) elasticity

change (D) control price effect (E) change in equilibrium quantity

20 When the supply of a commodity is fixed its price elasticity of supply is said to be (A) B

perfectly elastic (B) perfectly inelastic (C) undefined (D) elastic (E) inelastic

21 Given Demand function Qd = 5P + 10 Supply function Qs = 7P ndash 5 The equilibrium D

quantity is (A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 755 (D) 475 (E) 555

22 In market economies resources are allocated through the (A) government authorities B

(B) price system (C) banking system (D) central planning bureau (E) revenue

allocation formula

23 In the operation of market forces the market is in equilibrium at the point where (A) D

demand and supply curve intersects in more than one point (B) the excess in the market

can be conveniently stored (C) excess demand is positive (D) demand and supply

curves intersect (E) excess demand is negative

24 The basic feature of a market economy is (A) the reduction in the power of sellers (B) B

the enthronement of consumer sovereignty (C) the dismantling of barriers to trade

(D) the perfectly elastic price for every transaction (E) the intersection of demand and

supply curves

25 The following are the conditions that must be fulfilled for price determination EXCEPT A

(A) market merger (B) market segmentation (C) demand elasticities (D) product

differentiation (E) none of the above

26 The main function of price mechanism is to (A) limit consumer demand (B) enable C

producers make profits (C)allocate scarce resources among competing ends (D) ensure

consumer sovereignty (E) achieve excess capacity

27 When government intervenes in price-setting the regulated price is usually (A) higher D

than the last price (B) lower than the last price (C) higher than the equilibrium price

(D) lower than the equilibrium price (E) higher than the ceiling price

28 A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until (A) their factor B

prices are equal (B) their marginal products are equal to the factor prices (C) their

marginal products are each equal to zero (D) the ratios of their marginal product equals

the ratio of their prices (E) none of the above

29 A production possibility curve shows (A) how much of resources a society uses to D

produce a particular commodity (B) the rate of inflation (C) the rate of unemployment

in an economy (D) the various combinations of the commodities that can be produced

(E) all of the above





ECONOMICS

30 A rightward shift in the production possibility frontier may be due to (A) use of inferior C

inputs (B) inefficiency (C) improvement in production techniques and practices (D)

changes in the product mix (E) changes in consumer taste

31 Direct payment incurred for producing a commodity is called (A) implicit cost (B) real E

cost (C) opportunity cost (D) due cost (E) explicit cost

32 Diseconomies of scale can be caused by the following EXCEPT (A) managerial inefficiency C

(B) increased resource-cost (C) large market (D) inefficient business environment (E)

technology

33 Diseconomies of scale operates when (A) doubling inputs brings about more than C

proportionate increase in output (B) doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output (C)

doubling input brings about less than proportionate increase in output (D) decrease in

profit (E) increase in revenue

34 Economic efficiency means (A) obtaining maximum output from available resources D

(B) equitable distribution of nationrsquos resources (C) carrying out production without any

waste (D) producing the maximum output from available resources at the lowest

possible cost (E) efficient utilisation of the nationrsquos resources

35 External economies are (A) the advantages accruing to firm as a result of its expansion B

(B) the advantages accruing to one firm as a result of the existence of other firms in the

same locality (C) benefits derived by a firm as a result of its own external economies

policy (D) economies reaped only by firms that are externally focused (E) bound to

increase the cost of production

36 If a firm doubles its output and its costs increase by 60 the firm is experiencing (A) B

increasing costs (B) economies of scale (C) decreasing returns (D) decreasing costs


37 In economics production is complete when (A) Goods are produced in the factories (B) E

Goods are sold to the wholesaler (C) Goods and services are produced by the

government (D) Prices are fixed for goods and services (E) Goods and services finally

reach the consumer

38 In the study of economics land labour capital and entrepreneur are referred to as C

factors of production These factors produce commodities only if they are mdash (A)

profitable to the production process (B) purchased for the purpose of production (C)

combined in the production process (D) produced adequately for the production process

(E) brought into factory

39 Production that takes place within the production possibility curve is said to be (A) A

inefficient (B) possible (C) with increased output (D) x-efficient (E) pareto-compliant

40 The act of combining factor inputs in order to obtain specific output is known as (A) E

factor procurement (B) manufacturing (C) investment (D) industrialisation (E)

production

41 The additional output obtained by using one more unit of a factor is called (A) marginal E

income (B) additional product (C) marginal revenue (D) average product (E)

marginal physical product

42 The amount of labour a producer hires relative to other factor input depends on the (A) B

price of labour or its wage (B) price of labour machinery and other inputs (C) price of

machinery (D) price of other inputs (E) type of machinery





ECONOMICS

43 The concept of economic efficiency primarily refers to (A) obtaining the maximum A

output from available resources at the lowest possible cost (B) conservation of our

petroleum resources (C) equity in the distribution of the nationrsquos wealth (D) producing

without waste (E) none of the above

44 The law of diminishing returns often operates in the mdash (A) long run (B) short run (C) B

medium term (D) small scale production (E) none of the above

45 The main economic objective behind the production of goods and services in an economy A

is to (A) maximise profits (B) satisfy human wants (C) become self-reliant (D) create

job opportunities (E) make people wealthy

46 The residual of production which accrues to the ownership of land after all other expenses C

have been met is called (A) wages (B) profit (C) rent (D) interest (E) discount

47 Average fixed cost is (A) average total cost less the sum of average variable cost (B) C

half the sum of all costs (C) total fixed cost divided by the level of output (D) total fixed

cost plus marginal cost (E) total variable cost divided by output

48 Average fixed cost is a rectangular hyperbola (A) since unit cost increases as output C

increases (B) unit cost increases as output decreases (C) unit cost decreases as output

increases (D) unit cost remains the same as output increases (E) none of the above

49 Long run cost is U-shaped because of the operation of (A) economies of scale on the A

left hand side and diseconomies of scale on the right hand side (B) diseconomies of scale

on the left and right hand sides (C) economies of scale on the left and right hand sides

(D) constant return to scale (E) diseconomies of scale of the left hand side and

economies of scale of the right hand side

50 Marginal cost is the cost (A) the lowest cost of producing goods (B) the cost of D

production of the most efficient firm in an industry (C) the cost of production of the

most inefficient firm in an industry (D) the cost of production of the last unit of goods

produced by a firm (E) the cost of production at which minimum profit is obtained by

the firm

51 Which of the following is NOT part of the fixed cost of a firm (A) interest on loans (B) E

rent on buildings (C) depreciation reserves (D) management expenditure (E) wages

52 Which of the following is used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess of C

transfer earnings (A) interest rates (B) opportunity costs (C) economic rent (D)

indirect costs (E) wages

53 A perfectly competitive firm produces the most profitable output where its (A) marginal D

revenue equals average cost (B) price equals average cost (C) price equals marginal

cost (D) marginal cost equals marginal revenue (E) average revenue equals average

cost

54 Advertising is the main technique used for effecting in a monopolistic competition (A) B

market segmentation (B) product differentiation (C) price (D) profit (E) supply

55 Output of a monopolist is usually determined at a point where (A) P=MC (B) MR=MC B

(C) AR=AC (D) marginal cost is rising (E) marginal revenue is rising





ECONOMICS

56 Product homogeneity is one of the characteristics of (A) perfect competition (B) A

monopoly (C) monopolistic competition (D) oligopoly (E) competition

57 Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market (A) B

demand is inelastic (B) demand is infinitely elastic (C) marginal cost is falling (D) price

is greater than marginal cost (E) price is less than marginal cost

58 The difference between gross national product and net national product is equal to (A) D

Gross investment (B) Net investment (C) Net foreign income (D) Capital depreciation

(E) Net and gross

59 The difference between the Gross Domestic Product and the Gross National Product is the D

(A) Allowance for total depreciation (B) Total interest payments (C) Total tax and

interest payments (D) Net income from abroad (E) none of the above

60 The multiplier is defined as (A) The ratio of the change in income to the change in A

investment (B) The change in investment divided by the change in income (C) 1(MPC)

(D) 1(1-MPS) (E) Process of multiplying initial increase in income

61 A decrease in aggregate spending in an economy will ultimately lead to (A) Boom (B) B

Deflation (C) Inflation (D) Recession (E) stagnation

62 Money serves well as a store of value in an environment devoid of (A) unemployment D

(B) bank robbery (C) development-oriented centralreserve bank (D) inflationary

pressure (E) substitutes like ATMs cheques and bank draft

63 The ability of deposit money banks to create money is mainly affected by (A) A

reserve ratio (B) liquidity ratio (C) capital base (D) monetary policy rate (E) all of

the above

64 A document that shows the details of government revenue and expenditure in a year is A

called (A) budget (B) development plan (C) rolling plan (D) perspective plan (E)

financial plan

65 The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is (A) C

national budget appropriation (B) State-Local Government joint account (C) revenue

allocation from the federation account (D) federal road projects (E) federal character

principle

66 The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is (A) Mining rents and royalties E

(B) Company income tax (C) Import duties (D) Export duties (E) Petroleum profits tax

67 A major obstacle to economic development is (A) A rise in industrial output (B) Low B

farm productivity (C) Free trade (D) Ineffective trade unions (E) corruption

68 A sustained increase in the per capita income of a country over a period of time is called A

(A) Economic growth (B) Economic development (C) Structural change (D) Stagflation

(E) Sustainable income growth

69 In recent years Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth inhelliphellip C

Sector in the last ten years (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D)

transport (E) distribution





ECONOMICS

70 Nigeria being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara has put together a C

development blue-print called Vision 202020 which can ensure that the country becomes

(A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic lsquoTigerrsquo

by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020

(D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of

the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020

71 The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D

of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase

aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E)

Increase access to education

72 The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B

Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International

development index

73 Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria (A) Operation B

Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and

cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of

agriculture

74 Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B

labour in the country (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and

petroleum (E) Transport and communications

75 Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B

raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational

facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above

76 Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D

introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily

protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E)

Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence

77 The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C

imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for

domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries

78 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries (A) Reaping of E

external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C)

Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth

of conurbations

79 The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B

availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to

source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports

80 The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nationrsquos revenue (B) The C

oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the

decline in the nationrsquos foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC

81 In a limited liability company the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C

(B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E)

Board of directors





ECONOMICS

82 In a public company shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C

Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief

Executive (E) none of the above

83 The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows (A) It is always successful (B) C

Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are

easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured

84 The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D

Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested

85 Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D

divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total

population divided by the total area (E) All of the above

86 To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a countryrsquos population one has to know D

the countryrsquos annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of

immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual

death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country

87 Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population A It is possible B

for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to

make the most effective use of its other factors B The quantity of labour which

combines with other factors gives the minimum output is known as optimum population

C The quantity of labour which combined with the other factors gives the maximum

output is known as optimum population D The test of over-population is whether it

exceeds the optimum E It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over-

populated if it has a poor supply of other factors

88 Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E

growth (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of

population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above

89 Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country (A) Increase in death A

rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities

90 An improvement in the Nigeriarsquos terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A

imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria

goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeriarsquos domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to

an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeriarsquos exports of

petroleum

91 By lsquotrade by barterrsquo we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D

goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade

of the Middle Ages

92 Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A

Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above

93 International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B

advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within

regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the

world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above





ECONOMICS

94 Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B

Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget

surplus (E) None of the above

95 The expression lsquoTerms of Tradersquo is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D

direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate

at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing

96 The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C

exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price

97 Under a system of freely floating exchange rates an increase in the international value of B

a countryrsquos currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to

flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation

98 When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A

currency that exchanges for another currency there is (A) devaluation (B)

depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above

99 Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D

transaction (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D)

Tourism (E) Import of building materials

100 A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A

Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E)

Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast




USE OF ENGLISH

1

Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow

PASSAGE AEvery discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo Houselast week Only a few days before reports were rife about the AC reaching out tosome PDP legislators to cross-carpet The intention being to gain a majority andthen assume the Speakership with the least constraint Zakawanu Garuba the thenSpeaker retorted with a fiat threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defectorThis in spite of the constitutional support for such action as evidenced forexample by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State The party has twofactional chairmen in the state even though one is more vociferousThe desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speakerrsquos chair is condemnable Hewas not being recalled from the legislature and so he still has his seat as a floormember As speaker he was only first among equals The Speakership is not hisbirthright With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC the legislaturereconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker whileimpeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others They are to be probed

(Adapted from The Guardian Thursday March 4 2011 p14)

1 Why did AC woo PDP membersA they are few in numberB they want speakership without stressC PDP members are faithfulD The House is tough

2 The legislators impeachedA GarubaB PDP lawmakersC Garuba and some PDP lawmakersD Garuba and some lawmwkers

3 According to the passage the constitution supportsA The speakerB DefectingC Edo StateD Factional chairmen

4 The lawmakers reconvenedA After the defection of a PDP memberB After the bloodbathC After suspending the SpeakerD After electing a protem Speaker

B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2

5 At the end what happened to GarubaA He was vindicatedB He was indictedC He was honouredD He was humiliated

6 To cross-carpet as used in the passage means toA change partyB renew membership of a partyC change onersquos carpetD buy new carpet

7 The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted byA The lawmakersB Edo State indigenesC The protem SpeakerD All conscious observers

B

C

A

PASSAGE B

Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms thathopefully should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownershipand management of generation and distribution In this transitory phase it is crucialto lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for theindustry That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gassub-sector where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum as revealed bythe Petroleum Technology Development FundThe PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement ofequipment and materials but what is playing out is an institutional orientationevinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeriarsquosaspiration for local content development In 1998 the defunct National ElectricPower Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel AlhajiBashir Dalhatu to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries some ofwhich are of high standards Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in thefoundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange the Minister appliedappropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustratedThe acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from thefact that the only local manufacturer then the Federal Government-ownedelectricity Meter Company in Zaria Kaduna State established in 1976 but sold toDantata Investments Limited in December 2002 is not performing(Adapted from The Punch Wednesday May 25 2011 Pg 18)

8 Why is there shortage of meterA Non-performance of PHCNB Non-performance of NEPAC Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity

C




USE OF ENGLISH

3

Meter CompanyD Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd

9 According to the passage the solution to the problem in the power sector lies inA Sourcing for materials locallyB Getting costable componentsC Obeying the ministerD Getting $ 16 billion per annum

10 From the passage it is clear thatA There is money in the countryB There is shortage of electricity meterC NEPA is better than PHCND NEPA was formed in 1998

11 Which of these is not true of the power sectorA There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meterB The power sector is undergoing reformsC The problem of the power sector cannot be solvedD there was procurement of equipment and materials

12 Which of these is undergoing reformsA NEPAB PHCNC NigeriaD The power sector

13 A suitable title for this passage isA Nigeria and her problemsB NEPA versus PHCNC Electricity meterD Problems in the power sector

A

B

C

D

D

Choose the option that best completes the gap14 University students helliphelliphelliphelliphellipbehave well (A) can (B) should (C) may (D)

mustB

15 Gloria helliphelliphelliphellip have finished the project two days ago (A) must (B) may (C)can (D) supposed to

A

16 You are Goodluck (A) are you (B) arenrsquot you (C) arersquont you (D) donrsquotyou

B

17 He helliphelliphelliphelliphellip not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C18 Janet to know that we are all here (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is

supposed (D) should supposeC

19 Let it be that there was no king in Ayegun (A)know (B) knew (C) known(D) knows

C

20 We shall see you soon (A) shall we (B) shanrsquot we (C) shouldnrsquot we (D)should we

B




USE OF ENGLISH

4

21 Neither of the presidential candidates suitable (A) are (B) is (C) is been(D) are been suitable

B

22 Ten miles ____ a great distance (A) is (B) are (C) is been A23 If I were the president I ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would

(D) canC

24 I will see you after I spoken with your supervisor (A) might have (B) have(C) will have (D) would have

B

25 ldquoYou - now see the directorrdquo the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B)may (C) should (D) would

B

26 She isnrsquot Gloria (A) is she (B) isnrsquot she (C) arenrsquot she (D) doesnrsquot she A27 We have a bus (A) didnrsquot we (B) havenrsquot we (C) doesnrsquot we (D) hasnrsquot

weB

28 I knew David let us down (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C29 You helliphelliphellip me last week (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to

have seen (D) had to have seenC

30 Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B31 The pests ____ our farm every year (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A32 If I were the Governor I ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would

(D) canC

33 When helliphellip the Cleric today (A) doesarrives (B) doesarrived (C)doesarrive (D) do arrive

C


B

35 You missed the match (A) donrsquot you (B) didnrsquot you (C) hadnrsquot you (D)doesnrsquot you

B

36 Walk the dog right now (A) walknrsquot you (B) will you (C)shall you(D)would you

B

37 I am a student (A) Irsquom I (B) arenrsquot I (C) isnrsquot I (D) wouldnrsquot I BPick out the oddwrong expression in each of the following

38 (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) Iheard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology

D

39 (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) Isuppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way

B

40 (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travelnext week (D) I should travel next week

C41 (A) Having discovered the error he apologized (B) Having discovered the

error the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error he apologised(D) Having found out the error he tendered an apology B

42 (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They havedone the job (D) They can have done the job

D

43 (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project twodays ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought tohave finished the project two days ago

B

44 (A) If I went in there I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there Iwould beat the security officer (C) If I go in there I will beat the securityofficer (D) If I go in there I can beat the security officer

B




USE OF ENGLISH

5

Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in theunderlined expression

45 My friendrsquos parentrsquos are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable andlovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy

C

46 My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient(C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful

C

47 There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B)old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings

C

48 Post UME is a hurdle to cross (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) anunnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam topass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass

D

49 His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of novalue (C) of little value (D) can not be valued

A

50 That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D)immodest

B

51 Concerning my admission I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for thebest (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk

A

52 My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes(C) not decided (D) not concerned

D

53 We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B)advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary

D

54 The studentrsquos reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B)showed (C) reduced (D) increased

C

55 His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C)above average (D) excellent

C

56 That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D)ineffective

C

57 On the matter of worship some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) aredecisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided

D

Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined58 In this matter we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty (A)

inquisitiveness (B) weakness (C) profligacy (D) innovationB

59 I detest his lackadaisical attitude (A) carefree (B) lazy (C) supercilious (D)disloyal

A

60 Nobody will endure such profligate spending habits (A) generous (B)arrogant (C) wasteful (D) mindless

C

61 Is he oblivious of the political situation in his community (A) unconscious (B)conscious (C) afraid (D) intolerant

A

62 Many people look into the future with trepidation (A) certainty (B)uncertainty (C) fear (D) faith

C

63 Can you marry such a lanky man (A) tall and thin (B) sturdy (C) fat and short(D) tall and short

A

64 The election system we adopted was his brainchild (A) undoing factor (B)invention (C) power (D) fabrication

B

Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word underlined65 Peter always approaches issues optimistically (A) realistically (B) B




USE OF ENGLISH

6

pessimistically (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically66 Why should Dixon be evasive in answering the question (A) indirect (B)

direct (C) guessing (D) sureB

67 John and Ahmedrsquos ideas were speculative (A) stipulative (B) superlative (C)factual (D) attractive

C

68 Henry was admitted to the hospital with profuse bleeding (A) much (B) little(C) internal (D) continuous

B

69 Many people regard him as prolific (A) diplomatic (B) productive (C)unproductive (D) unacademic

C

70 Our success is paramount in his mind (A) unimportant (B) important (C)certain (D) uncertain

A

71 In all I consider the behaviour unpalatable (A) unacceptable (B) offensive (C)acceptable (D) inoffensive

C

72 Her action will certainly exacerbate the situation (A) ameliorate (B) worsen(C) aggravate (D) clarify

A

73 Is he really behaving oddly (A) abnormally (B) normally (C) evenly (D)properly

D

74 He always approaches issues optimistically (A) realistically (B) pessimistically(C) carelessly (D) unrealistically

B

75 Her health deteriorated rapidly (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D)declined

B

Which of the following sentences is correct76 (A) One should mind his business (B) One should mind onersquos business (C) One

should mind her businessB

77 (A) This case is between you and I (B) This case is between you and me (C)This case is between the two both of us

B

78 (A) With them around we have a great problem on our hands (B) With themaround we have a great problem on our hand (C) With them around wehave a great problem on hand

A

79 (A) The dog wagged itrsquos tail (B) The dog wagged its tail (C) The dog waggeditsrsquo tail

B

80 (A) A ten year old boy is missing (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing (C) A tenyear-old boy is missing

B

81 Choose the option that sounds the same with two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D)to

B

82 Choose the option that sounds the same with bear (A) bare (B) beer (C)bared (D) beard

B

83 Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word Key (A) kiss(B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed

B

Choose the word that is correctly spelled84 (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B85 (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A86 (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A87 As soon as Joy arrived she started looking for food The underlined

expression is an ----------- (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clauseof reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time

D




USE OF ENGLISH

7

88 My friend a brilliant lecturer won many prizes The underlined expression isa(n) (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D)subject of lsquowonrsquo

C

89 I passed very well because I studied hard The underlined expression is a (A)relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D)subordinating conjunction

D

90 Bello and I love each other (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) nounphrase (D) adjectival phrase

B

91 I prefer writing to acting The underlined expressions is a(n) -------- (A) verb(B) participle (C) gerund (D) object

C

92 Having finished my assignment I started watching television The underlinedexpression is a(n) -------- (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participialphrase (D) noun clause

C

93 If you leave early yoursquoll meet Sola at home The underlined expression is a ----------- (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D)adjectival clause

C

94 Wounded by a lion the hunter trudged home The underlined expression is a-----------(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D)adjectival clause

C

95 Irsquom proud of you The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositionalcomplement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbalcomplement

B

96 A noun phrase lacks one of the following (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D)adverb

B

97 Eve gave Adam an apple An apple in the sentence functions as------------(A)subject of the verb lsquogaversquo (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object ofthe verb (D) object complement

B

98 I wonder if you know where he lives This sentence is a(n) (A) thoughtfulstatement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation

A

99 An example of gradable adjectives is hellip (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D)live

B

100 A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains helliphelliphellip (A) a largernumber of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non-finite verb

C



Information

the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit accounting is useful in making decisions (B) accounting plays an important role in a society (C)

Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting is that (A) theinformation providedby A 8

concept (B) periodicity concept (C) going concern concept (D) realization concept

The assumption that a business has perpetual existence is recognized by (A) entity C 7

accounting (B) management accounting (C) financial accounting (D) data processing

The art of collecting recording presenting and interpreting accounting data is (A) cost C 6

duality

credit entryisrecognizedas concept (A) realization (B) entity (C) going concern (D)

Theaccountingprinciplewhichstatesthatforeverydebit entrythereisacorresponding D 5

(d) does not give room for double entry procedure

financial transactions (b) is futuristic in nature (c) accepts responsibility for all wrong posting

One of the major featuresof bookkeeping is that it (a) provides permanent records for all A 4

the same person (B) having business relationship (C) separate legal entities (D) partners

In preparing accounting records the owners of a business and the business are treated as (A) C 3

controlling a companys affairs (C) investing in a company(D) assessing acompanys liquidity

Creditors use accounting information for the purpose of (A) planning sales to a company (B) D 2

to manage the business (d) know how to record transactions in T account

business(b)knowwhytransactionscauseincreasesand decreasesinasset(c) adviceonhow

Afinancialanalyst needsaccountsinformationto(a)maintaintheproductionsectionofthe C 1

FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING



ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL



9 Which of the following accounting conventions suggests that accountants should use a method A

of valuation that understates rather than overstates results (a) Conservatism (b) Historical

(c) Monetary (d) Cost

10 Which of the following concepts is expected to hold when a proprietor makes a drawing of A

goods or cash from the business (A) Business entity (B) Realization (C) Going concern (D)

Dual-aspect

11 A payment of cash of N20 to John was entered on the receipt side of the cash book in error A

and credited to Johns account Which of the following journal entries can be used to correct

the error (A) John N40 Dr Cash 40 Cr (B) Cash N40 (C) John N20 Dr Cash N20 Cr (D)

Cash 20 Dr John N20 Cr

12 A Sales Day Book is used for recording (A) credit sales (B) sales returns (C) hire purchase A

(D) cash sales

13 A trial balance is usually prepared by an accountant from account balances in the ledger for B

the purpose of (A) classifying in the ledger (B)Testing arithmetical accuracies of the ledger

account balance (C) identifying the balance sheet items (D) providing a basis for establishing

the accountants competence

14 Bola UTCs regular customer owed NI 000 on account of a radio bought If he sent in a cheque A

for N500 UTC would send him a (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) journal voucher (D) way bill

15 Books of original entry are used for (A) recording business transactions (B) the adjustment of A

accounts (C) reminding the book keeper to-post transactions in the ledger (D) informing the

bookkeeper about the state of affairs






16 If salary account is debited instead of stationery account the error committed is that of (a) A

commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) compensation

17 Ledger account is mainly classified into (a) nominal real and personal accounts (b) fixed and A

current accounts (c) management financial and public sector accounting (d) bankand cash

accounts

18 One major advantage of a ledger is that it (A) is a book of original entry (B) is only accessible to D

shareholders during distribution (C) removes the need for preparing a balance sheet after each

transaction (D) can be used by any type of business

19 Return inwards is also known as (A) purchases returns (B) sales returns (C) goods on sale B

or return (D) goods in transit

20 The account which refers to the tangible assets of a company that is of permanent nature is B

the (a) personal account (b) real account (c) nominal account (d) cash account

21 The document that is used to acknowledge the acceptance of the return of goods by the seller A

from the buyer is known as (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) invoice (D) voucher

22 The effect of payment of a liability is that it (A) increases both assets and liabilities (B) D

increases assets and decreases liabilities (C) decreases assets and increases liabilities (D)

decreases both assets and liabilities

23 The term posting in accounting refers to (A) recording entries in the journal (B) transferring the D

balances in the ledger to the trial balance (C) tracing amounts from the journal to the ledger to

find errors (D) transferring entries to the ledger from the journal

24 Which of the following is not a real account (A) Buildings account (B) Motor vehicle account C

(C) Patents account (D) Furniture account

25 Which of the following is not a revenue account (A) Sales (B) Purchases (C) Discount received B

(D) Interest received

26 Which of the following is the basic accounting equation (A) Assets= Capital + Liabilities (B) A

Capital= Assets + Liabilities (C) Liabilities= Assets + Capital (D) Assets= Liabilities ndash Equity

27 A system where a separate cash book is maintained for small payments is (A) single entry B

(B) imprest (C) float (D) reimbursement

28 An analytical cash book is used to (A) indicate sources of cash received (B) Categorise B

petty cash payment (C) separate cash and bank balance (D) analyse amounts due from

debtors

29 The sum of money given to a petty cashier out of which small payments are made is called D

(A) bonus (B) loan (C) advance (D) float

30 A rent of 250000 was paid by John to his landlord by cheque The double entry in Johnrsquos books A

is (A) debit Rent account credit Bank account (B) debit Rent account credit Johnrsquos

account (C) debit Bank account credit Rent account (D) debit Johnrsquos account credit Rent

account

31 Items in the bank statement of a business but not in the cash book before preparation of bank C

reconciliation statement do not include (A) Bank charges (B) Standing order (C) presented

cheque (D) interest on overdraft

32 The correct sequence in data processing is (A) input rarrprocessrarr output (B) inputrarr A

output rarrprocess (C) processrarr inputrarr output (D) processrarr outputrarr input

33 When a sum of money appears on the credit side of the cash book but not on the debit side of D

the bank statement the sum is regarded as (A) uncredited cheques (B) dishonoured cheques

(C) direct remitance to the bank (D) unpresented cheques

34 Which of the following is not a data processing method (A) Manual (B) Mechanical (C) D

Electronic (D) Formatting






35 Fatima withdraws goods from the business for personal use The accounting treatment is to B

debit (a) stock account and credit profit and loss account (b) drawings account and credit

stock account (c) Profit and loss account and credit drawings account (d) Stock account and

credit drawings account

36 Given N - Net Profit 25000 Cost of sales 25000 Sales 85000 Determine the total expenses B

(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000

37 The objective of a trading account is to establish the (a)cost of goods sold (b) gross profit (c) B

manufacturing profit (d) net profit

38 The process of allocating the cost of an intangible asset over its useful life is known as (A) D

depreciation (B) extraction (C) depletion (D) amortization

39 The profit of a sole trader increases his (A) stock (B) asset (C) liability (D) capital D

40 The recording of wages due but not yet paid is an example of an adjustment for (A) B

apportionment of revenue between two periods (B) recognizing accrued expenses (C)

recognizing unaccounted revenue (D) recognizing prepaid expenses

41 The trial balance showed wages N2500 and a note stated that N500 wages were due but A

unpaid When preparing final accounts and balance sheet it is required to debit profit and

loss account with (A) N3000 and show wages accrued N500 in the balance sheet (B) N2000

and show ages accrued N500 in the balanced sheet (C) N3000 and show wages prepaid N500

in the balance sheet (D) N2000 and show wages paid in advance N500 in the balance sheet

42 Which of the following is the effect of an increase in the provision for discount allowed (A) C

Increase in net profit (B) Decrease in gross profit (C) Decrease in net profit (D) Increase in gross

profit

43 Why are adjustments in the profit loss account necessary (A) To cover some expenses of the B

following year (B) To ascertain the actual expenses during the year (C) To show the

provisions made during the year (D) To show the total expenses paid and income received

during the year

44 A seller of vegetables and fruits should be encouraged to value his stock at the end of a period C

using the (a) weighted average method (b) simple average method (c) FIFO method (d) LIFO

method

45 Stock valuation is useful because it informs the sales department on the (a) prices of the B

competing goods (b) prices that will affect profitability (c) number of goods to produce (d)

number of goods to sell

46 Which of the following stock valuation methods is suitable under inflationary conditions (A) A

FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Simple average (D) Weighted average

47 In the absence of a sales day book or sales account credit sales can be computed from (A) B

creditor control account (B) debtors control account (C) opening figures of the balance sheet

(D) closing figures of the balance sheet

48 Sales ledger control account contains the total amount in respect of (A) Creditors (B) Debtors B

(C) Investors (D) Shareholders

49 The difference in the sales ledger control account is transferred to the (a) profit and loss B

account (b) sales account (c) balance sheet (d) trading account






50 The following represents extracts from the trading account of a retail outlet for a given month B

Opening stock 2400 Closing stock 6400 Other expenses 2000 Sales 11000 Profit 900

What is the purchase figure for the month (A) N13000 (B) N12 100 (C) N12000 (D) N11 200

51 The objective of the purchases ledger control account is to establish the (a) credit purchases A

(b) net profit (c) total purchase (d) gross profit

52 The principal use of control accounts is to (A) localise errors within the ledgers (B) prevent A

fraud (C) Increase Sales (D) record assets and liabilities

53 The purchases ledger control account of a company had an opening balance of N45 600 and B

closing balance of N72600 credit The company made payments of N437 000 to credit

suppliers during the period and had discount received of N18 600 on this account What were

the credit purchases for the period (A) N509 600 (B) N482 600 (C) N428 600 (D) N418 400

54 The total of the creditors at the beginning of the year was N4600 and at the end of the year D

N5250 During the year N26500 was paid to suppliers and N130 was received in discounts

from these suppliers The purchases for the year Would be (A) N26630 (B) N27 038 (C) N27

150 (D) N27 280

55 Tunde purchased goods from Femi by cash worth N1000 with 10 cash discount Tundersquos A

purchases ledger control account it to be (a) debit by N100 (b) credited by N100 (c) credited

by N1000 (d) debited by N1000

56 Which of the following conditions best represents the net effect of discount allowed on credit A

sales on the accounts of a business (A) Decrease in the closing balance of sales ledger control

account (B) Increase in net profit (C) Increase in the value of sales (D) Decrease in the

value of purchases in the trading account

57 Given N - Capital at the beginning 20000 Drawings 3000 Capital at end 30000 New B

capital introduced 8000 What is the profit for the period (A) N4000 (B)N5000 (C) N6000

(D) 8000

58 Sundry debtors in the balance sheet of Onoja Bakery and Sons totaled N800000 A provision B

of 2was made for discount and 5 provision for bad and doubtful debts Find the amount for

sundry debtors after provision (a) N 760000 (b)N N744800 (c) N 744000 (d)N 784000

59 The starting point for the production of accounts from incomplete records is to (A) D

ascertain the total sales (B) compute the opening stock of goods sold (C) verify the total

purchases (D) prepare an opening statement of affairs

60 A factory cost excluding prime cost is (A) overhead (B) material cost (C) fixed cost (D) A

administration cost

61 Given N - Prime cost 220000 Factory cost 32000 Work in progress at beginning 25000 C

Work In progress at close 19000 Administrative expenses 21000 Determine the

production cost (A) N296000 (B) N277000 (C) N258000 (D)N246000

62 Given N - Direct material 10000 Direct labour 5000 Direct expenses 2000 Factory B

overhead 4000 What is the prime cost (A)N21000 (B) N17000 (C) N15000 (D) N6000






63 The difference between a trading account and a manufacturing account is that while C

manufacturing account (A) has no particular period the trading account has (B) does not

consider cost of goods involved the trading account does (C) is concerned with the cost of

production the trading account is not (D) is not concerned with stock of raw materials the

trading account is

64 The factory cost of goods produced is made up of (A) prime cost and factory overhead (B) A

prime cost and office overhead (C) raw materials consumed and fixed cost (D) raw materials

and administrative overhead

65 The following information is provided for Amusa Company Ltd a manufacturer N- Prime cost D

999000 Manufacturing overhead 132000 Closing work in progress 75000 Value of finished

goods- Transferred to the Trading Account 1116000 If included in the manufacturing

overhead were rents of 5000 paid in advance what is the opening work in progress for the

period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000

66 The manufacturing account is prepared to determine the cost of (A) trading (B) B

production (C) factory overhead (D) raw materials used

67 Subscription in arrears are (A) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a C

liability in the balance sheet (B) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as

an asset in the balance sheet (C) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown

as an asset in the balance sheet (D) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown

as a liability in the balance sheet

68 Where a non-profit organization prepares the accounts using accruals basis of reporting the C

statement showing how well the organization is doing is the (A) appropriation account (B)

balance sheet (C) income and expenditure account (D) receipt and payment account

69 Departmental accounts are maintained to ascertain the (A) profits of the entire organization B

(B) contribution of each department (C) expenses of each department (D) sales of each

department

70 The gross profit disclosed in the branch stock adjustment account represents (a) Head office D

profit (b) unrealized profit (c) estimated profit (d) branch profit

71 A partnership on admitting a new member revalued the business land and building from N30 C

000 to N70 000 The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account

(B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited

to profit and loss appropriate account

72 Adamu Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 321 D

Their respective capitals are N20000 N15000 N5000 on which they are entitled to interest

at 5 per annum The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to

N5500 Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1000 (C) N1167 (D) N1750

73 In a partnership business the net profit serves as opening figure for (A) trading account D

(B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account

74 In the absence of a partnership agreement profits and losses are shared (A) in the ratio of B

capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered

5






75 Interest on a partners drawings is debited to the (A) partners current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited

to the partners current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partners

account (D) partners current account and credited to the profit and loss account

76 Partnersrsquo share of profit is credited to (a) a partnerrsquos current account (b) a partnerrsquos capital A

account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account

77 Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership (A) The life of the partnership is B

generally assumed to be indefinite (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the

business The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The

partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements

78 A bond acknowledging a loan to a company under the companyrsquos seal bearing a fixed rate of D

interest is known as (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture

79 Alabede (Nig) Limited issued 50000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N250 each C

The share premium is (A) N125000 (B) N100000 (C) N75000 (D) N50000

80 All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves (A) Share premium (B) D

Revaluation surplus (C) Pre-incorporation profit (D) debenture premium

81 Holders of ordinary shares do not have the right to (A) participate in additional issue of D

shares (B) vote at annual general meetings (C) elect the board of directors (D) receive

dividend at a predetermined rate

82 In company accounts profit after tax is shared in the account (A) appropriation (B) A

revaluation (C) current (D) profit realization

83 The amount set aside out of profits earned by a company which is not meant for liability or D

contingency are (A) dividends (B) provisions (C) retained profits (D) reserves

84 Which of the following attracts a fixed rate of dividend (A) Ordinary shares (B) Foundersrsquo C

shares (C) Preference shares (D) Deferred shares

85 Which Of the following ratios gives an idea of the liquidity of a firm (A) Turnover ratio (B) B

Quick ratio (C) Debt ratio (D) Dividend yield

86 A pension granted to any past president or vice-president shall be charged to the (a) B

consolidated revenue fund (b) special pension fund (c) contingency fund (d) development

fund

87 Public sector accounting is practiced in A public limited companies (B) government B

organizations (C) profit making organizations (D) public trading companies

88 The basis of accounting which eliminates debtors and creditors is (A) cash basis (B) A

accrual basis (C) fund basis (D) commitment basis

89 Which of the following is a source of revenue to a local government authority (A) Poll tax (B) A

Excise duty (C) PAYE tax (D) Value added tax

90 Adamas bank account showed an overdraft of N600 on 31st March On going through the D

account it was discovered that the 1 080 paid into the account on 29th march had not been

credited What should be the balance in Adamarsquo s cash accounts (A) N1680 Dr (B) N1080 Cr

(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY

1 A map drawn to a scale of 1180 000 is reduced three times What is the scale of the new map D

(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000

2 A map with a scale of 160000 was reduced by frac12 the scale of the new map will be B

(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000

3 Closed (circular) contours with increasing height inwards indicate a (A) Valley(B)Conical hill (C) B

Spur (D) Waterfall

4 If the distance between two points on a map with a scale 150 000 is 35mm what is the C

distance between them on the ground (A) 150km (B) 155km (C) 175km (D) 185km

5 Lines joining places of equal sunshine hours on a map are called (A) isobars (B) isotherms (C) C

isohels (D) isohyets

6 The topographical map is a (A) map showing physical and socio-cultural features of a rather A

small area b Maps generally published in the books and atlases(C)Large sized wall map of

large territories showing political and economic detail (D) Large scale map using a variety of

colours and shades to show economic activities

7 The main purpose of any ground survey is to (A) measure and record lines and angles of places D

(B) derive accurate baseline data for urban planning (C) have a detailed knowledge of the

geology of a place (D) make an accurate map of a part of the earthrsquos surface

8 The main use of Abney level in survey is to determine the (A)Angle of inclination(B)Relative A

GEOGRAPHY



location (C) Area coverage (D) Spot height

9 Two points on a river are 104 km apart and one stands 400 meters above the other What is C

the gradient along the river between the points (A) 1 in 20 b 1 in 24 (C) 1 in 32 (D) 1 in 36

10 Which of the following scales should show the greatest amount of detail on a map (A) 1 D

2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12

11 A major feature of the tropical continental climates is the (A) relatively low annual range of C

temperature (B) regular and reliable rainfall (C) excess of evaporation over rainfall (D) excess

of rainfall over evaporation 0

12 A ship radioed message on the high sea at 545 pm was heard at Abidjan (5 W) at 1115 am on D 0 0 0 0

the same day Find the position of the ship (A) 90 E(B) 92 30E (C) 95 E(D) 87 30E

13 A soil sample consisting of 49 sand 28 silt and 23 clay is classified as (A) sand (B) loam (C) A

sandy clay (D) clay

14 A solution to wind erosion in semi-arid areas is the establishment of (A) Crop strips (B) C

Terrace bounds (C) Shelter belts (D) Diversion channels

15 A traveler crossing the International Date Line from America to Asia at 12 midnight on Sunday B

would have to change his watch to 12 midnight on (A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D)

Saturday

16 After condensation the rate of cooling of a rising air mass decreases because it becomes (A) C

stable (B) lighter (C) denser (D) warm

17 All the following are causes of mechanical weathering exceptmdash(A) Temperature changes (B) B

Rain action (C) Alternate wetting and drying (D) Frost action (E) Action of plants and animals

1





GEOGRAPHY

18 An example of a set of chemically formed sedimentary rocks is (A) sandstone and grit (B) B

dolomite and gypsum (C) peat and coal (D) flint and shale

19 An avalanche is a (A) mass of glacial debris transported to the sea (B)mass of snow and rocks B

moving downslope under gravity (C)broad crack in the upper part of a glacier (D)steep rock in

the coastal area made by wave erosion

20 At which of the following latitudes would you expect more than 24 hours of continuous D 0 0 0

sunshine or darkness at a particular time of the year (A) 40 N and S (B) 50 N and S (C) 60 N 0

and S (D) 70 N and S

21 Basaltic plateau are usually formed by a lava that is (A) basic and fluid (B) acidic and fluid (C) D

acidic and viscous (D) basic and viscous

22 Geomorphology is the study of (A) Surface features of the earth (B) Interior of the earth (C) A

The earth as biosphere (D) Earth as a planet

23 In the hydrological cycle the transfer of water from the earth surface to the atmosphere is C

(A) precipitation (B) infiltration (C) evaporation (D) condensation

24 In the interior of the earth (A) The temperature falls with increasing depth (B) The pressure C

falls with increasing depth (C) The temperature rises with increasing depth (D) Pressure

remains constant with varying depth

25 Koppenrsquos classification of climate is based on (A) Temperature and pressure (B) Pressure only C

(C) Precipitation and temperature (D) Rainfall only (E) Temperature only

26 Lakes formed as a result of landslides screes or avalanches are known as (A) Man-made lakes B

(B) Barrier lakes (C) Caldera lakes (D) Rock-hollow lakes

27 Mountains formed as a result of compressional forces in the earthrsquos crust are (A) Block B

mountain (B) Fold mountain (C) Volcanic mountain (D) Residual mountain (E) Rocky mountain

28 Plant growth normally ceases when the temperature falls below (A) 00C (B) 6

0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C

29 Rainfall caused by the movement of air over a mountain is called (A) Orographic rainfall A

(B)Cyclonic rainfall (C)Frontal rainfall (D)Thunder shower

30 Rotation of the earth is (A) The movement of the earth in the atmosphere (B) The movement B

of the earth on its axis (C) The movement of the earth round the sun (D) The movement of

the moon round the earth

31 Seasons are recognized within the tropics primarily on the basis of (A) air masses (B) C

temperature (C) rainfall (D) evaporation (E) wind velocity

32 Soil formation includes 1 Weathering 2 organic activity 3 Erosion 4 leaching (A) 1 and 2 D

(B) 1 and 3 (C) 12 and 4 (D) all the four

33 Temperature is usually depicted by the line graph because it is a property that (A) fluctuates B

over space (B) varies continuously over time (C) measures sensible heat(D) is measured in

terms of quantity

34 The circulations of the oceans and the atmosphere primarily help to redistribute and equalize A

global (A) Heat (B) Flora (C) Oxygen (D) Fauna





GEOGRAPHY

35 The cold current that flows northwards through the coast of West Africa is known as (A) A

Canaries current (B) Cayenne current (C) Benguela current (D) South equatorial current

36 The fundamental role played by the decomposers in the functioning of the ecosystem is the B

(A) disposal of plant and animal waste products (B) release of energy and nutrients locked up

in organic litter (C) precipitation of organic and mineral elements from the soil (D) cycling of

water and chemical elements

37 The Gulf stream is a (A) cold current in southern Atlantic (B) warm current in north Pacific (C) C

warm current in north Atlantic (D) cold current in southern Pacific

38 The intensity of the sunrsquos heat is not much in polar regions because (A) the earth is flat at the C

poles (B) the atmosphere is thick at the poles (C) the angle of insolation is low (D) the angle of

insolation is high

39 The major constituents of a typical soil are (A) gravel sand silt and clay(B) mineral matter B

organic matter air and water(C) stone mineral matter pore spaces and micro- organism (D)

calcium magnesium potassium and sodium

40 The most important environmental resource that sustains natural processes in an ecosystem is B

(A) light (B) water (C) air (D) energy

41 The north pole experience continuous dark at the time of (A)Summer solstice (B) Winter B

solstice (C) Vernal equinox (D) Autumnal equinox

42 The pedogenic regime of podzolization is typical in areas of (A) coniferous forests (B) high A

temperature and humidity (C) dry climate (D) tropical monsoon regions

43 The period when the earth is furthest from the sun is (A) Aphelion (B) Summer (C) Perihelion A

(D) Spring

44 The polar radius of the earth measures (A) 6400km (B) 6357km (C) 6227km (D) 6340km B

45 The portion of the earth that contains life is the (A) atmosphere (B) hydrosphere (C) D

lithosphere (D) biosphere

46 The processes by which materials are physically transferred from one soil layer to another is A

called (A) leaching (B) physical weathering (C) illuviation (D) eluviation

47 The processes of weathering include all but one of the following (A) Alternate heating and D

cooling of rocks (B) Peeling off of exposed layers of rounded crystalline rocks (C) Rock rotting

because of chemical changes (D) Movement of rock particles downslope because of pull of

gravity

48 The stars are not scattered regularly in space but occur in clusters described as (A) Elliptical B

bank (B) Galaxies (C) Solar system (D) Star Condensation (E) The milky way

49 The sun is vertical over the Tropic of Cancer on (A) March 21 (B) June 22 (C) Sept 23 (D) Dec B

22

50 The term lsquocatenarsquo describes the (A) effect of topography on soil series (B) sequence of A

modified soils along a slope profile (C) changes in soil fertility along a slope profile (D) colour

differences in soils along a slope profile

51 The time difference between new Orleans on longitude 900W and Cairo on longitude 30

0E is B

(A) 4 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 16 hours





GEOGRAPHY

52 The vegetation belt associated with valuable hardwood is the (A) Sahel savannah (B) Tropical B

rainforest (C) Coniferous forest (D) Mediterranean forest (E) Swampy forest

53 The wind system that brings the harmattan to West Africa is called (A) The north-east trade (B) A

The north-west trade (C) The south-west trade (D) The south-east trade

54 What do the Canaries and Guinea currents have in common (A) they are warm currents (B) C

they are cold currents (C) they wash the western coast (D) they flow away from the equator

55 What is an estuary (A) stream valley continuing into sea making no delta (B) a part of the A

stream valley separating delta from sea (C) sand clogged mouth of a river (D) mouth of an

aggrading stream

56 What is the length of the equatorial diameter of the earth (A) 12737 km (B) 12 797km (C) D

12 717km (D) 12 757km

57 What is the most accurate description of the shape of the earth (A) A circle (B) A sphere (C) A C

geoid (D) An oblate sphere

58 What is the most important element of climate (A) rainfall (B) temperature (C) pressure (D) B

humidity

59 What is the point of origin of an earthquake called (A) Quakecentre (B) Epicentre (C) C

Seismic focus (D) Tectonic point

60 What is the scale of measurement of earthquake based on the amount of energy released C

during earthquake (A) Rossi-Forril scale (B) Mercalli scale (C) Richter scale (D) Beufort scale

61 When condensation occurs in a rising air mass Latent heat is (A) absorbed by carbon dioxide B

(B) lost to the atmosphere (C) stored in the water molecules (D) released as sensible heat

62 Which of the following climates is characterized by an alternate hot season wet season and D

dry season (A) Equatorial (B) Mediterranean (C) Tropical desert (D) Tropical Monsoon (E)

Temperate

63 Which of the following best explains why wind action is more predominant in arid regions than A

in humid regions (A) Loose surface materials and the absence of vegetation cover (B)

Excessively high temperatures during the day and night (C) Insufficient and unreliable rainfall

(D) Lack of surface drainage and the presence of strong winds (E) Gently rolling terrain and

fast-flowing rivers

64 Which of the following environmental hazards is predominant in the southern Coastlands of C

Nigeria (A) Drought (B) Deforestation (C) Pollution (D) Flooding (E) Cyclones

65 Which of the following features is associated with glacial erosion (A) Esker (B) Moraine D

(C) Erratic (D) Cirque

66 Which of the following is a passive soil former(A) Temperature (B) moisture (C) time (D) C

organisms

67 Which of the following is associated with a rejuvenated river (A) waterfall (B) meander (C) B

sand deposits (D) wide U-shaped valley





GEOGRAPHY

68 Which of the following is not a form of precipitation (A) Snow (B) Sleet (C) Fog (D) Haze D

69 Which of the following rocks is composed of the skeletons of microscopic sea plants and C

animals (A) sandstone (B) slate (C) Chalk (D) Clay

70 Which planet has the largest number known of satellites (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Uranus (D) A

Neptune

71 In Nigeria geographical location poses the greatest hindrance to economic development in B

the (A) Eastern scarplands (B) Eastern highlands (C) Western highlands (D) Niger-Benue

Trough

72 Nigeriarsquos Federal capital territory shares boundaries with four states namely (A) Benue C

KwaraNiger and Kaduna (B) Kano Kaduna Niger and kwara (C) Nasarawa Kogi Niger and

Kaduna (D) Gongola Bauchi kwara and Niger

73 The highest highland area in Nigeria is found in the (a) Eastern part(B)North Central (C) North C

Eastern (D) South Western

74 The sequence of savanna vegetation zones in Nigeria towards the northern part is (A) Derived B

Sahel Guinea and Sudan (B) Derived Guinea Sudan and Sahel (C) Derived Sudan Guinea

and sahel (D) Derived Guinea Sahel and Sudan

75 Which of the following best describes the relief of West Africa (A) Swamps and lowlands (B) D

hills and mountains (C) scarp slopes and dip slopes (D) plains and plateau

76 Which of the following best explains the increasing importation of food to West African B

countries (A) Bad soils which cannot produce enough food (B) Progressive neglect of food

production (C) Unfavourable climates for enough food production (D) too large populations

which cannot be satisfied locally

77 Three land-locked countries in West Africa are (A) Republic of Benin Mauritania and Niger C

(B) Togo Ghana and Chad (C) Mali Burkina Faso Niger (D) Mali Chad Senegal

78 A country well known for the production of copper in Africa is (A) Egypt (B) Ghana (C) Republic D

of Benin (D) Zambia

79 Tropical Africa is slow in industrial development because of (A) Adequate skilled labour (B) B

Inadequate capital (C) Inadequate essential social services (D) Unavailability of raw materials

80 A city may be differentiated from a rural settlement by considering its (A) population size and C

age structure (B) skilled and unskilled manpower (C) population and functions (D) road

network and industrial estates

81 A good example of tertiary industry is (A) Transportation (B) Manufacturing (C) Mining (D) A

Fishing

82 A hinterland is (A) the central part of a country (B) an area which is far from the coast (C) a B

landlocked country (D) an area surrounding a city

83 A rural settlement is a settlement classified by (A) Site (B) Attitude (C) Pattern (D) Function D

84 A type of industry that is carried on usually at or near the residence and based on largely D

native skills and simple technology is referred to as a (A) local industry (B) light industry (C)

consumer industry (D) cottage industry

85 Air transportation has a low patronage because it (A) Is fast (B) Is irregular (C) Is useful in war D

time only (D) Is costly





GEOGRAPHY

86 An agricultural practice where water has to be artificially provided during the rainy season is C

known as (A) full irrigation (B) supplementary irrigation (C) sprinkler irrigation (D) flood

irrigation

87 In a chain of communities in a succession each community is a (A) link (B) step (C) sere (D) C

climax

88 One relative advantage of water transport over road transport is its(A) Capacity for passenger C

traffic only(B) Ability to link all parts of any country (C) Suitability for bulky and heavy cargo (D)

Great speed over long distances

89 OPEC countries trade in international trade is majorly on (A) Agricultural resources (B) B

Petroleum resources (C) Platinum (D) Electronics

90 The area served by a given city is called its (A) Sphere of influence (B) Hinterland (C) Territory A

(D) Satellite

91 The driving of cattle from valleys to the pastures on the mountains especially in summer is C

known as (A) Trans-location of cattle (B) Trans-movement of cattle (C) Transhumance(D)

Summer movement of cattle

92 The G7 the worldrsquos top seven trading nations are (A) USA South Africa Japan UK Italy C

Canada France (B) UK Nigeria USA Japan Columbia Spain Argentina (C) USA Germany

Japan France UK Italy Canada (D) USA Zimbabwe Germany France Russia South Korea

93 The greatest worldrsquos rice producer is (A) China (B) Indonesia (C) India (D) Japan A

94 The level of utilization of resources in a country does not depend only on the population size A

but also on the (A) Standard of living (B) Population density (C) Life expectancy (D) Population

mobility

95 The worldrsquos principal fishing regions are located on continental shelves where (A) there are no C

noticeable ocean currents (B) there are cold ocean currents (C) there are warm ocean currents

(D) cold and warm currents meet

96 Which of the following are the advanced market economies of the world (A) EU the USA and A

Japan(B)The USA Nigeria and France(C)Japan South Africa and Bangladesh (D) Libya Scotland

and Russia

97 Which of the following groups of industries can be classified as light (A) textiles clothing A

footwear and printing (B) Iron and steel cement and sugar (C) Non-metallic products and

chemicals (D) Tobacco chemicals and automobiles

98 Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions (A) D

Accelerated erosion (B) Water pollution (C) Frost damage (D) Acid rain

99 Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B

materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital

100 Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C

school gains admission to the university in the town (B) Moving to the urban centre for

medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets

transferred from one town to another

6




GOVERNMENT

1

1 A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system (B) Patriotism (C) Quota system(D) Transparency

A

2 A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by membersof the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D)competition from private firms

C

3 A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Publiccorporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C)Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations arenot involved in production of tangible goods

C

4 A primary agency of political socialization is (A) the government B the family C the massmedia D the School

B

5 A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to privateindividuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C)Privatization (D) Acquisition

C

6 Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote (B) All adult males canvote (C) All men can vote (D) All adults can vote B

7 All of the following are obligations of citizens except (A) Obedience to laws (B) Voting (C)Giving alms to beggars (D) Payment of taxes

C

8 An electoral district is (A) A local government area (B) A ward (C) A polling booth (D) Aconstituency

D

9 Fascism was practiced in Italy under (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) BenitoMussolini (D) Benito Mandela

C

10 Governmental powers are _________ in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated(B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D

11 In a democracy franchise is limited by (A) Age (B) Sex (C) Wealth (D) Education A

12 In the civil service anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit orblame for any good (B) Serve any government impartially (C) Avoid nepotism andfavouritism (D) Be politically neutral

A

13 In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated (A)Nigeria and Ghana (B) The United States and the United Kingdom (C) France and Germany(D) India and China

B

14 One of the advantages of direct election is that (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct(B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable tothe electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money

C

15 One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Populationof People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty

A

16 One of the following is not a source of constitution (A) Customs and conventions (B) civilservice regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents

B

17 One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption (B) Preventrigging (C) Provide alternatives (D) Avoid ethnicity

C

18 Political sovereignty lies with (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament(D) the electorate

D




GOVERNMENT

2

19 Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raiserevenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote publicaccountability

C

20 Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy (B) Monitor theeconomic situation in the country (C) Punish opposition to its policies (D) Develop thecountry in line with the peoplersquos aspirations

D

21 Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections (B)Duties (C) Rights (D) Services

B

22 Separation of powers denotes __________________ (A) Separation of governmental powersbut not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation ofpersons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only

B

23 The assent of the President is required to convert aan ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C)Proclamation (D) Decree A

24 The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as (A) the bureaucracy(B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media

B

25 The capitalist economy is dictated by (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumersrsquorequirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply

D

26 The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as --------------------------- (A) NationalAssembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress

C

27 The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was (A)Chief PC Asiodu (B) Chief Edwin Clerk (C) Chief Allison Ayida (D) Chief Simeon Adebo

C

28 The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre (B) Administrative cadre(C) Technical cadre (D) Clerical cadre

B

29 The law of libel limits a citizenrsquos right to freedom of (A) Association (B) Expression (C)Worship (D) Movement

B

30 The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter(B) It is faster than other systems (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting (D) It extendsthe franchise to all adults

A

31 The permanent executive includes (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servantsand politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected andappointed politicians

C

32 The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called(A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group

D

33 The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life liberty and property (B) Salvationproperty freedom of thought (C) Employment property and social security (D) Freeeducation employment and property

A

34 When a constitution is not difficult to amend it is said to be (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C)Flexible (D) Federal

C

35 Which of the following best describes a sovereign state (A) a member of the African Union(B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military political and

economic independence

D




GOVERNMENT

3

36 Which of these is an element of state power (A) Geographical location population ampeconomic resources (B) Geographical location elite interests amp economic resources (C)Geographical location ethnicity amp economic resources (D) Geographical location politicalcrisis amp economic resources

A

37 Which of these is not a method of election (A) Simple majority (B) Proportionalrepresentation (C) Primary election (D) Co-option

D

38 ___________ plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature(C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary

D

39 A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multipartyfunctions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operateby law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties

D

40 An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade(B) Ozo-title holders (C) Council of Chiefs (D) Assembly of lineage heads

A

41 Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not makeprovisions for them (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome (C) Made traditional rulers toopowerful (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive

C

42 Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B)unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy

B

43 In Nigeria the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution (B)Richard constitution (C) Clifford constitution (D) Lyttleton constitution B

44 In the Hausa pre-colonial political system sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir(C) Waziri (D) Galadima

B

45 In the pre-Colonial HausaFulani system the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate wasapproved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu (B) Galadima and the Waziri (C)Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima

A

46 Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A)Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain (B) Of the return of the educated elite fromabroad (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation (D) Africans were nominated to theexecutive council

B47 Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford

constitution (B) 1946 Richard constitution (C) 1953 London conference (D) 1954 Lyteltonconstitution

D

48 Nigeriarsquos First Constitution (A) Lytelton constitution (B) Clifford constitution (C)Macpherson Constitution (D) Independence constitution

B

49 One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A)Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation

C

50 One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform ofthe civil service was (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries (B) Changefrom Permanent Secretary to Director General (C) Change from Director General toPermanent Administrators (D) Permanent Professionals

A

51 The helliphelliphellipLocal government reforms recognized local government as the third tier ofgovernment (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989

B

52 The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A)NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP

A




GOVERNMENT

4

53 The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr Nnamdi Azikiwe (B) Sir Abubakar TafawaBalewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari

D

54 The first military coup in Nigeria took place on mdash (A) July 15 1966 (B) July 27 1967 (C)January 15 1966 (D) January 13 1966 C

55 The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN ANPPand PDP (B) AD APP and PDP (C) PPA PDP CAN (D) APGA CAN and PDPB B

56 The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) Moremilitary institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civilunrest in the North

D

57 The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court (B) Civil ServiceCommission (C) Police Affairs Commission (D) Public Complaints Commission

A

58 The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress(B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress

B

59 The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid-Western state (D) North central state

C

60 The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties amongthese (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) NigerianNational Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalitionand Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern ElementsProgressive Union

B

61 Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total ofhelliphelliphellip Localgovernment councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D

62 Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system (A)Hausa Fulani (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Edo

C

63 which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficientfunding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levelsof government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number oflocal government

D

64 Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government mdash(A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limitedresources D

65 Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) NigerianRailway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank ofNigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation

C

66 Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Bothhad provisions for the office of the president (B) Both had provision for the office of theconstitutional president (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president(D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president

A

67 Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment ofECOWAS (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa

B

68 In 1975 Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisisin Angola (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico

C




GOVERNMENT

5

69 Nigeriarsquos non ndash aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non ndash Proliferation Treaty(B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo ndash Nigeria Defence Pact

D

70 The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was(A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war inSudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries

B

71 The head of Nigeriarsquos foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressedas (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative

C

72 What determines Nigeriarsquos relations with other countries (A) Its national interest (B) Itslevel of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture

A

73 Which of the following best defines foreign policy (A) The ways in which some actors on thedomestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B)The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regardsto the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed toachieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state

C74 Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy (A)

Gowon administration (B) Murtala Mohammed administration (C) Sani Abacha regime (D)Abubakar regime

B

75 Which of these is an example of Nigeriarsquos external cultural relations (A) Exchange of studentswith friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economicassistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries

A

76 Which of these is correct about Nigeriarsquos foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It waspro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French

A

77 Which of these is NOT part of a countryrsquos core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B)Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha

D

78 Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy (A) Promotion and defence of a nationrsquosvital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nationrsquos strategic interest (C) Protection andpromotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence ofthe economic interest of a nation

C

79 Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC (A) AlhajiRilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen Ike Nwachukwu

A

80 Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D)1961

A

81 A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B)lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democraticleadership A

82 An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation ofinternational trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C)Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developingcountries

C

83 In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible (A)ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth

B




GOVERNMENT

6

84 Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as theHead of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen asthe Head of all independent states

B85 One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be

reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oilprice (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non ndashOPEC members

A

86 One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana andZaire (B) Guinea Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D)Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C

87 The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban South Africa (B) On8th July 2003 at Abuja Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at AccraGhana

A

88 The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B)Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D

89 The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2 2004 at Addis AbabaEthiopia (B) On February 3 2003 at Addis Ababa Ethiopia (C) On February 3 2003 at AbujaNigeria (D) On February 2 2004 at Lagos Nigeria

B

90 The Non-aligned Movement was established at----------- in ---------- (A) Bombay 1955 (B)Bandung 1955 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Addis Ababa 1955

B

91 The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo

D92 The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The

Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) TheTrusteeship Council

C

93 To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU (A)Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group

B

94 What is the full meaning of ECOWAS (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B)Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West AfricanStates (D) Economic Community for West African States C

95 Where and when was the African Union inaugurated (A) Durban 2000 (B) Addis Ababa1963 (C) Lagos 1972 (D) Tripoli 2001

A

96 Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A)Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D)African Union

C

97 Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU (A) The Assembly Conference (B) TheExecutive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission

C

98 Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations (A) voluntaryassociation of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of freenations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independentAfrican States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the Frenchcolonial empire

A




GOVERNMENT

7

99 Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council(C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly

A

100 Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations (A) International LabourOrganization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU

B





HISTORY

1 is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B

2 was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A

the Muni the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries (A)

Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad

3 Before getting to Nigeria River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A

Morocco

4 Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A

5 The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C

Oyo empire (B) Benin empire (C) Dahomey Kingdom (D)Ghana

6 The Form of economy of pre-colonial Nigerian peoples was (A) capitalist (B) socialist D

(C) communist (D) subsistence

7 The Fulani Jihadists were halted in 1840 at the battle of (A) Tondibi (B) Ngala (C) Adowa D

(D) Oshogbo

8 The god of thunder and lightning in the Yoruba Pantheon is called (A) Oduduwa (B) C

Oramiyan (C) Sango (D) Afonja

9 The Igbo in the pre-colonial era had (A) dictatorial government (B) government of C

chiefs (C) no central government (D) warrant chiefs

10 The language of the Fulani is (A) Hausa (B) Kush (C) Mereo (D) Fulfude D

11 The leader of the Jihad that took place in northern Nigeria between 1804 and 1805 was A

(A) Uthman dan Fodio (B) Elkenemi (C) Ahmadu Bello (D) Tafawa Balewa

12 The longest Dynasty in West Africa was (A) Saifawa of Kanem-Born (B) Umayid of Arab A

(C) Oranmiyan of Oyo (D) Bayajidda of Daura

13 The name of the traditional head of Nupe is called (A) Etsu (B) Emir (C) El Kanem (D) A

Obong

14 The old Oyo empire had as its capital (A) Katunga (B) Ijabe (C) Igboho (D) Sepeteri A

15 The original home of the Fulani was (A) Niger (B) Senegambia (C) Egypt (D) Chad B

16 The original home of the Kanuri people in Borno is said to be in (A) Kenem (B) Buganda A

(C) Kenya (D) Zulu

17 The political head of Yoruba towns is known as (A) Oba (B) Alaafin (C) Obi (D) Emir A

18 The provinces and towns under Oyo were headed by local chiefs known as the (A) Oyo Mesi (B) B

Baale (C) Oba (D) Baba kekere

19 was the capital of the Western Region in the colonial period (A) Ife (B) Ibadan (C) Oyo B

(D) Abeokuta

20 It was through the activities of that the Niger area became a British sphere of influence D

(A) Lord Lugard (B) The United Africa Company (C)Herbert Macaulay (D) The Royal Niger

company

21 Nigeria as we know it today is a product of amalgamation of northern and southern D

protectorates in the year (A) 1906 (B) 1910 (C) 1912 (D) 1914

22 Nigeria became a Republic in (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1965 (D) 1962 B

23 Palm Produce was heavily concentrated in (A) Northern Nigeria (B) North Eastern Nigeria D

(C) North western Nigeria (D) Southern Nigeria





HISTORY

24 The first nationalist political party in post-world war II Nigeria was (A) NEPU (B) NPC (C) NCNC B

(D) AG

25 The First railway in Nigeria was constructed in (A) 1916 (B) 1898 (C) 1914 (D) 1960 B

26 The headquarters of Department of Agriculture in colonial Nigeria was (A) Kaduna (B) C

Sokoto (C) Ibadan (D) Lagos

27 The missionary responsible for the abolition of killing of twins in Calabar was (A) Mary Slessor A

(B) Magaret Thatcha (C) Lindsa Lisau (D) Judith By field

28 The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded in (A) 1920 (B) 1922 (C) 1936 (D) 1937 C

29 The system of administration used by the British in Nigeria was rule (A) direct (B) B

indirect (C) divide and (D) warrant

E The three well known nationalist leaders in Nigeria between 1948 and 1966 weremdash (A) Dr

NnamdiAziwe Chief ObafemiAwolowo and AlhajiAhmadu Bello (B) Lord Lugard Sir Arthur

Richards and Sir John Macpherson (C) Herbert Macaulay Earnest Ikoli and OkonkwoNkem (D)

Alhaji Isa Kaita Dr KO Mbadiwe and chief SL Akintola ANS A A

31 The trading company which conquered most of the northern Nigeria was (A) UAA (B)

Royal Niger Company (C) PZ (D) John Holt

B

32 The University College Ibadan was established in (A) 1960 (B) 1958 (C) 1948 (D) 1900 C

33 Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria (A) Dora Akunyuli (B) Farida Waziri (C) Laila

Dongoyaro (D) Funmilayo Ransome kuti

D

34 was not part of the policy of General Gowonrsquos administration immediately after the

Nigerian Civil War (A) redistrcution (B) rehabilitation (C) reconciliation (D) reconstruction

A

35 National Institute of Social and Economic Research is located in (A) Abuja (B) Ibadan (C)

Lagos (D) Enugu

B

36 Nigeria became a federation of 19 states in (A) 1875 (B) 1976 (C) 1967 (D) 1978 B

37 Nigeria was divided into 12 states in (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1967 (D) 1970 C

38 Oodua peoplersquos Congress is a cultural organization in (A) Southwestern Nigeria (B)

Southeastern Nigeria (C) North Central Nigeria (D) North eastern Nigeria

A

39 The Attorney General of the Federation that was assassinated in Nigeria during Obasanjorsquos

Administration was (A) Bola Ige (B) Babawale Idowu (C) Patrick Ndoka (D) Dele Olawale

A

40 The capital of Taraba state is (A) Dutse (B) Jalingo (C) Yola (D) Damaturu C

41 The first Governor-General of Independent Nigeria was (A) Okoti Eboh (B) Nnamdi

Azikwe (C) Tafawa Balewa (D) Obafemi Awolowo

B

42 The former Capital of Nigeria was (A) Calabar (B) Lagos (C) Abuja (D) Ibadan B

43 The head of the electoral body that conducted the June 12 1993 Election was (A) Humphrey

Nwosu (B) Ovie whiskey (C) Eme Awa (D) Dagogo Jack

A

44 The Lingua franca of the peoples of Nigeria is (A) English (B) Yoruba (D) Hausa (D) French A

45 The Niger Delta Environmentalist that was killed with eight others in Nigeria is (A) Leedum

mitee (B)Ken Saro wiwa (C) Isaac Boro (D) Nana olomu

B

46 The question of the Nigerian civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the OAU in

September 1967 in (A) Kampala (B) Kinshasa (C) Nairobi (D) Lagos

B





HISTORY

47 The winner of annulled electoion of 1993 was (A) Alhaji Bashiru Tofa (B) Chief MKO B

Abiola (C) Dr Alex Ekwueme (D) Fashola

48 War against indiscipline was a brainchild of (A) Ibrahim Babangida (C) Sani Abacha (C) C

Gen Muhammadu Buhari (D) Aninu Kano

49 Who was the military Head of State that transferred power to Civilian regime in 1999 (A) C

Ibrahim Babangida (B) Sanni Abacha (C) Abubakar Abdul Salam (D) Yakubu Gowon

50 Who was the military Head of State that was killed in the second bloody coup of 1966 in Nigeria

(A) Gen Sanni Abacha (B) Gen shehu Yaradua (C) Gen Murthala Muhammed (D) Major Gen

D

Aguiyi Ironsi

51 Acculturation in colonial administration was associated with the (A) French policy of

Assimilation (B) British policy of direct rule (C) French policy of Association (D) British indirect

A

rule system

52 Banjul is the capital of (A) Niger Republic (B) Britain (C) France (D) Gambia D

53 ECOMOG is a peace monitoring organ of the (A) ECOWAS (B) UNO (C) AU (D) EU A

54 Ghana and Mali were known for production before European incursion (A) basket (B) B

gold (C) tin (D) salt

55 Gold Coast was the former name of which of these countries (A) Nigeria (B) Namibia (C) D

Mozambique (D) Ghana

56 Idris Aloma was a revered king of (A) Kebbi (B) Katsina (C) Kanem-Borno (D) Zauzau C

57 Maghrib is a name used to describes countries in North Africa except (A) Algeria (B) D

Morocco (C) Tunisia (D) Egypt

58 Mansa Musa is the name of the king of (A) Tekular (B) Gobir (C) Mali (D) Kanem C

59 Nationalist movements started late in French West Africa because (A) Africans were allowed to

enlist in the army (B) Africans felt they were free (C) France suppressed political associations

C

and parties (D) France did not allow Africans to travel abroad

60 Policy of assimilation was used in West Africa by the (A) French (B) British (C) Dutch (D) A

Italians

61 The Berlin Conference of 1884 was convened at the instance of (A) Winston Churchill (B) Otto B

von Bismarck (C) Woodrow Wilson (D) Mussolini

62 The first Country to regain Independence in West Africa is (A) Cameroon (B) Senegal (C) Ghana C

(D) Gambia

63 The first European explorers to navigate the shores of the Atlantic ocean into the West African C

coasts were the (A) Swedish (B) Dutch (C) Portuguese (D) Spanish

64 The French policy of Assimilation in West Africa was a form of (A) Indirect rule (B) direct B

rule (C) democracy (D) monarchy

65 The Italians were defeated by the Ethiopians at the battle of Adowa under the leadership of C

(A) Emperor Theodore (B) Emperor Yoahnes (C) Emperor Menelik (D) Emperor Jesuit



66 The Mande speaking people could be found in (B)a Gambia (B) Sierra Leone (C) Mali (D) Nigeria B

67 The militant group formed by Abdullahi Ibn Yacin was known as the (A) Almorarids A

(B) Sijilmesa (C) Tartars (D) Mameluks





HISTORY

68 The pioneered institution of Higher Education in West Africa is (A) Fourah Bay college (B) A

Baptist Academy (C)Birch Freeman (D) Hope Waddel Institute

69 The Suez canal in Egypt was constructed in (A) 1840 (B) 1875 (C) 1869 (D) 1890 C

70 The treaty of Ucciali was signed between and (A) Italy and Libya (B) Italy and B

Ethiopia (C) Italy and Morocco (D) Italy and Tunisia

71 The use of forced labour was one of the features of (A) British Colonial policy (B) French B

colonial policy (C) American colonial policy (D) Japanese colonial policy

72 Which of the following countries was not involved in the peace ndashkeeping effort in Liberia (A) B

Sierra Leone (B) Togo (C) Nigeria (D) Cameroon

73 Who was the king of the Mali empire that displayed wealth in Gold in the Middle East while on C

pilgrimage to Mecca (A) Muhmmed Askia (B) Sonni Ali (C) Mansa Musa (D) Sundiata

74 In the mid nineteen century the king of Buganda that accommodated the first Arab and B

Swanhili traders was (A) Kaberaga (B) Kabaka (C) Katriko (D) Lat Dior

75 In the Nineteenth Century Gold and Diamonds were discovered in commercial quantities in C

which of these territories in Africa (A) Nairobi (B) Lagos (C) Kimeberley (D) Cairo

76 Namibia is a country in (A) Europe (B) Asia (C) North America (D) Africa D

77 Shaka was a brave warrior in (A) Zulu land (B) Ndebele (C) Mexico (D) Tripoli A

78 The majority of the slaves were taken from all but except one of these African countries (A) Gold D

Coast (B) Dahomey (C) Nigeria (D) Zambia

79 The progress in the Economy of Zanzibar in the first decade of the nineteenth century is A

synonymous with (A) Sayyid Said (B) Mamoud Iraq (C) Kabir Muktar (D) Muhammed Ali

80 Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is one of the specilised agencies of the (A) B

AU (B) UNO (C) ECOWAS (D) EEC

81 How many Continents are in the world (A) 10 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9 B

82 Indirect rule as a British Colonial policy was first introduced in (A) India (B) Uganda (C) Ghana A

(D) Nigeria

83 One of these could be used as a tool to understand the African past (A) Microscope (B) Satellite D

(C) Internet (D) Archaeology

84 Sahara desert was maintained during the trans-Saharan trade by the (A) Berbers (B) B

Tuaregs (C) Fulanis (D) Marauders

85 The explorer who discovered the new world was (A) Christopher Columbus (B) Henry the A

Navigator (C) Queen Isabela (D) John Cabot

86 The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is at (A) New York (B) Geneva (C) C

The Hague (D) Moscow

87 The most ndashspoken language in Africa is (A) Igbo (B) Hausa (C) Yoruba (D) Ki-Swahili D

88 The place in the desert where travelers stop by to refresh themselves is called (A) Oasis A

(B) Eldorado (C) Paradise (D) Aso Rock

89 The principle of non-alignment means that a country (A) is neutral in international trade (B) C

does not belong to any world organization (C) does not belong to any of the power blocs (D) has

no diplomatic missions abroad





HISTORY

90 The resolutions and programmes of the AU are executed by the (A) secretariat (B) B

council of ministers (C) secretary general (D) commission of mediation

91 The second most-spoken language in Africa is (A) Hausa (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Ki-Swahili A

92 The Second World War ended in (A) 1944 (B) 1945 (C) 1950 (D) 1960 B

93 The United Nations Organisation has its headquarters in (A) British (B) USSR (C) USA (D) C

China

94 Which of the following bodies is the most representative organ of the United Nations

Organization (A) The Security Council (B) The Trusteeship council (C) The General Assembly (D)

C

The International Court of Justice

95 Which of the following countries did not join the League of Nations (A) France (B) Britain (C) D

Spain (D) USA

96 Which of the following countries have the right to veto the decision of the Security Council (A) C

Australia (B) Switzerland (C) China (D) Canada

97 Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the security council of the UNO (A) C

India (B) Canada (C) China (D) Italy

98 Which of the following was not a colony of Britain in Africa (A)Nigeria (B) Gambia (C) Sierra- D

Leone (D) Senegal

99 Which of the following was once Nigeriarsquos Permanent Representative at the United Nations (A)

Professor Bolaji Akinyemi (B) Major General Ike Nwachukwu (C) Professor Jubril Aminu (D)

D

Major General Joseph Garba

100 Within the United Nations the veto power is exercised by (A)UNESCO (B) WHO (C) D

General Assembly (D) Security Council

5




HOME ECONOMICS

1

1 Adequate meal contains (A) All the food nutrients (B) Some of the food nutrients (C) Fewfood nutrients (D) Essential food nutrients

A

2 All these factors affect food habit except (A) Religious belief (B) Cultural belief (C) Economicfactors (D) Carbohydrate factor

D

3 Another name for vitamin A (A) Retinol (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Cobalamin A

4 Another name for vitamin C is (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin C

5 Food contains chemical substances called (A) Nutrition (B) Carbohydrate (C) Nutrients(D)Water

C

6 Food poisoning occur when (A) Food is covered (B) Food is warm (C) Food is frozen (D)Food is infected

D

7 Fried foods aremdash (A) Easy to digest (B) Not hard to digest (C) Not easy to digest (D) None ofthe above

C

8 Kwashiorkor is mainly due to Lack of (A) Carbohydrate (B) Fat and oil (C) Protein (D) Minerals C

9 Rechauffe dishes are (A) Freshly prepared foods (B) Cold foods (C) Vegetable foods (D) Leftover foods

D

10 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D

11 The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D)Promote too much eating

A

12 The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A B E and K (B) A D E and K (C) A C E and K (D) A D C and K B

13 The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of theabove

D

14 Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D)Diabetes

D

15 Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formationof bones (D) Formation and digestion

C

16 Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D

17 Water soluble vitamins are (A) A C and B complex (B) A E and B complex (C) C and Bcomplex (D) A and B complex

C

18 What is an appetizer(A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eatenas the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal

C

19 What is steaming (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cookingwith dry heat (D) All of the above

A

20 What is under nutrition (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption ofadequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods

A




HOME ECONOMICS

2

21 Which is not a communicable disease (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D)Tuberculosis

B

22 Which is not a type of food storage (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage(D) Freezer storage

A

23 Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C)Steaming (D) Frying

C

24 Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is tobuild the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital forlife

A

25 Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C)Calcium (D) Cobalamin

C

26 A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B)Society (C) Home (D) Family

D

27 Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week(D) Once a week

B

28 Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society(D) Entire society

C

29 Home Management involves (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort andhappiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C)Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (D) Dedicating a home andmaking it a place of comfort and happiness

C

30 Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning organizing implementingEvaluation (B) Organizing planning implementing Evaluation (C) Implementing Planningorganizing Evaluation (D) Planning implementing organizing Evaluation

A

31 In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except (A) Colour of the wall (B)Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours

D

32 In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except (A) Open the windows (B) Close thewindows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor

B

33 Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Healthstatus of family members (D) All of the above

D

34 Money management depend on all except one (A) How money is dedicated (B) How moneyis utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent

A

35 Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Moneyspent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget

A

36 Steps in making family budget does not include (A) List all the commodities and servicesneeded (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent

D

37 Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C)Polyandry family (D) Extended family

C

38 Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C)Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage

C




HOME ECONOMICS

3

39 Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminatesfatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task

C

40 Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam(D) English seam

C

41 Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is thefabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the notthe fabric used in sewing

B

42 Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D

43 Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of theabove

D

44 Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D)None of the above

C

45 Tie-dye involves (A) Wax tying (B) Dye tying (C) Fabric tying (D) Stick tying C

46 Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D

47 Which of these is a basic stitch (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shellhem

A

48 Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C)Figure shoe (D) Figure choice

A

49 Which of these is not used in tie-dye (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C

50 Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D

51 Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B)Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester

D

52 In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology

C

53 In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics

A

54 In law of heat as applied to toaster iron Home Economics is related to ------------ discipline (A)Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology

B

55 Someone who studied Family and child development can work as (A) Childhood Caterer inschools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhoodeducator

D

56 Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D)Vendor

A

57 The scope of Home Economics include (A) Food and Nutrition Home Economics Clothingand textile (B) Food and Nutrition Home management Clothing and textile (C) Food andNutrition Home management Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition Home Design Clothingand textile

B




HOME ECONOMICS

4

58 What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods andservices used by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needsof the individual family institution and community (C) How to become responsiblemember of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improveindividual family institution and community

D

59 What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and servicesused by individuals families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of theindividual family institution and community (C) How to become responsible member offamilies and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual familyinstitution and community

D

60 A pregnant woman is carrying -------------- in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D)Pregnancy

C




LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

1

1 Conceits more rich in matter than in wordsBrags of his substance not of ornament (ActIISCIV) The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of (A) paradoxicalstructure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis

D

2 A drama form that teaches godliness righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers andordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroicfarce (D) satire

A

3 A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B)Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert

B

4 A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque

C

5 A play is a tragedy when------------------ (A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B)the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) aweakness in the main character leads to his downfall

D

6 A play that ends on a sad note is a ----------- (A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D)farce

C

7 A play that stirs readers to pity fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C)absurd (D) melodrama

A

8 A play that tells a single story has one setting and takes place within a specified period is saidto-------- (A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D)have tragic elements

C

9 A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called----(A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce

D

10 A play with a single character is called (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama(C) play let (D) All of the above

D

11 A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c)unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed

C

12 A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy(B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy

A

13 A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment with characters who areusually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D)burlesque

B

14 According to Aristotle the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C)representation(D) plot

A

15 Aristotlersquos word for a tragic herorsquos shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement(d) dilemma

B

16 As a comic dramatic piece a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are(A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor

A

17 Both comedy and tragedy have ------------- (A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happyending

A

18 Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by----------- (A) movement from serious tothe light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D)gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B





2

19 In ----- the major character is selfish devilish wicked and exploitative (A) Comedy (B)Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama

D

20 In a play tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversalrecognition and suffering (B) weakness suffering and resolution (C) flaw fear andrecognition (D) reversal suffering and conclusion

A

21 In de Graftrsquos Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with (A) ridicule (B)dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle

B

22 In drama a flashback occurs when (A) a characterrsquos inner mind isrevealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a characterrsquos past (C) a character dropsan idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past

D

23 In drama light furniture custom and make-up are part of (A) stage deacutecor (B)stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics

A

24 In most of Shakespearersquos drama when a character speaks in aside the act is referred to as (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue

C

25 In Romeo and Juliet Romeo died (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered byFriar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins

A

26 In Sons and Daughters Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C)youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy

A

27 In Sons and Daughters the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C)new values (D) wealth

B

28 In tragedy everything must be artistically balanced this means that (A) the setting must bein one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) characterand action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters

B29 -------------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens (A)

Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) SatireA

30 -----------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences areresolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce

A

31 --------------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minorproblems (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D Comedy

D

32 Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) SierraLeone

A

33 Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over(A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A

34 One basic feature of melodrama is (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C)triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good

C

35 One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------------ (A) humour (B) satire (C)sarcasm (D) action

D

36 Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of thesociety (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate

A





3

37 The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a playrsquos (A) envoy (B)exposition (C) rising action (D) climax

B

38 The most basic feature of drama is helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action(D) plot

C

39 The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) streetfight (D) secret marriage

C

40 The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C)satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy

B

41 The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity(B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot

A

42 The tragic herorsquos flaw is called (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D)peripeteia B

43 The word ldquocastrdquo in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All theactors (D) An exclusive social class in the play

C

44 Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B)ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic

B

45 Tragecomedies developed in which century (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21st C C46 When a play includes witty and graceful situation it can be classified as (A) comedy of

manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurdB

47 When the plot of a play begins in the middle and only unfolds the past through flashback it iscalled (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of theforegoing

B

48 Which of the following is true of Opera (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They areplays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B

D

49 Which of the following statements best describes comedy (A) A play in which nobody dies(B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which endshappily

D

50 A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B)fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable

A

51 Considering the way Nnu Egorsquos life ends in The Joys of Motherhood the title of the novel canbe said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic

A

52 In lsquoThe Old Man and the Medalrsquo when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof

B53 In a novel the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C

54 In Nineteen Eighty-four the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith(B) Julia (C) OrsquoBrien (D) Big Brother

A

55 In Nineteen Eighty-Four the poet is (A) OrsquoBrien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B





4

56 In The Joys of Motherhood Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running awayfrom his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving himjobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure

B

57 In The Joys of MotherhoodNnu Ego at one point tried to commit suicide because (A)someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear theshame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaifersquos appearance

B

58 In The Old Man and the Medal when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelaraanswered ldquoI counted the matting in the roofrdquo she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) shewas awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D)there was a hole in the roof

B

59 Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C)tragedy (D) chronicle

A

60 The expression ldquoto break the leg of an anteloperdquo which is found in The Old Man and the Medalmeans______ (A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting

D

61 The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers andhusbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciatehardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands

A

62 The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economicemancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism

C

63 ldquoThe piercing chill I feel My dead wifersquos comb in our bedroom Under my heelrdquo(trans ByHarold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D)quatrain A

64 A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B

65 A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a________ (A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet(D) quatrain

C

66 From David Rubadirirsquos ldquoAn African Thunderstormrdquo ldquoClouds come hurrying with the windrdquocontains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme

A

67 In poetry double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D)conclusion

A

68 The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C

69 The tone in lsquoHeritage of Liberationrsquo is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory(D) melancholic

B

70 The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) abab cdcd efef gg (B) abab cdcd eeffgg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg

A

71 The words ldquoproverdquo and ldquoaboverdquo are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye(D) slant

C

72 When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way it is referred to as________ (A) rhyme(B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism

B

73 Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D)Elegy

A





5

74 ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A)Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron

B

75 A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock(D) dynamic

B

76 A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry witha rhythmic effect is called_______ (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D)euphemism

A

77 A literary work that appropriates matter andor manner from a previous work is (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text

C

78 A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents(C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action

D

79 An expression or word which stands for a whole is called_______ (A) metonymy (B) allegory(C) synecdoche (D) repetition

C

80 Assonance refers to the _______ (A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetitionof vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonantsounds in a line

B

81 Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called (A)Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters

C

82 Identical vowel sounds create one of the following (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C)alliteration (D) assonance

D

83 Identify the odd one out of the following helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative(D) Stage

C

84 Identify the odd one out of the following (A) Deacutecor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime D

85 In a novel the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject(D) setting

D

86 Point out the odd item (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo andJuliet

C

87 Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as ldquopregnantrdquo because (A)no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D)they move clumsily

C

88 The antagonist in a tragedy is ------------ (A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of theprotagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition tothe main character D

89 The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A)foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue

B

90 The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) presenttense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns ldquoIrdquo and ldquowerdquo

D

91 The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is (A) plot (B) imitation (C)character (D) action

C





6

92 The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B)climax (C) imagery (D) plot

D

93 When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships it is called (A)episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above

B

94 I would Love you ten years before the Flood And you should if you please refuse Tillthe conversion of the Jews The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B)innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A

95 ldquoThat pierced the fearful hollow of thine earrdquo is an example of (A) relativeclause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D

96 ldquoWilt thou be gone It is not yet near day It was the nightingale and not the lark That piercedthe fearful hollow of thine earrdquo The first sentence here is an example of (A)interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request

C

97 From Andrew Marvellrsquos ldquoTo His Coy Mistressrdquo Had we but world enough and time Thiscoyness lady were no crime We could sit down and think which way To walk and pass ourlong loversquos day This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C)ballad (D) dramatic monologue

D

98 Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C

99 In the village Screams of delighted children Toss and turn In the din of whirling wind Women Babies clinging on their backs Dart about In and out Madly The Wind whistlesby Whilst trees bend to let it pass In the above extract the movement of the women is (A)leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow

B100 Tossing up things on its tail Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example

of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradoxB




MATHEMATICS

1

1 (128 x 104 ) divide (64 x 102 ) equals(A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105

D

2 A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400 The woman had 10 of the cost andthe man 40 of the remainder How much did they have altogether(A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100

C

3 Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of 318 If the resulting fraction isfrac12 then the number added is(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 (E) 11

D

4 After getting a rise of 15 a manrsquos new monthly salary is N345 How much per monthdid he earn before the increase(A) N330 (B) N39675 (C) N300 (D) N29325 (E) N360

C

5 Assuming loge 44 = 14816 and loge 77 = 20142 then the value of loge frac14 is(A) 05326 (B) 34958 (C) 04816 (D) 00142 (E) 13594

A

6 Evaluate ൫2 + 4ଵଶ൯ଶ

(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C

7 Evaluate correct to 4 decimal places 82751 x 0015(A) 88415 (B) 124127 (C) 1241265 (D) 124120(E) 1141265

B

8 Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour(A) 78 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7800000(D) 468 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6

B

9 Find the square root of 170-20radic30 (A) 2radic10-5radic3 (B) 3radic5-8radic6 (C) 2radic5-5radic6 (D) 5radic5-2radic6 (E) 5radic10-2radic3

C

10 If (25)x-1 = 64(5frasl2)6 then x has the value(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 32 (D) 64 (E) 5

B

11 If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in theratio 25 in what ratio is the surface area reduced(A) 8125 (B) 25 (C) 825 (D) 425 (E) 410

D

12 In base ten the number 101101 (base 2) equals(A) 15 (B) 4 (C) 45 (D) 32 (E) 90

C

13 Simplifyହ ୶ ଶହ౮షభ

ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C

14 Simplify(ଵ)൫రయାଵమళ൯

(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E

15 Simplify ଵଶଶℎଵଷ divide ହଶℎଷ

(A) ( ℎ)ଶ (B) ହଶℎ (C) ହସℎଽ (D)మ

ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A

17 Solve the system of equations 2௫ା௬ = 32 3ଷ௬௫ = 27(A) (3 2) (B) (-3 2) (C) (3 -2) (D) (-3 -2) (E) (2 2)

A

18 The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and Bin the ratio 35 If B receives N3000 more than A the total profit was(A) N5000 (B) N1800 (C) N12000 (D) N24000 (E) N8000

C

19 The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 2340cm to four significant figures What is D




MATHEMATICS

2

the maximum error in the measurement(A) 005cm (B) 05cm (C) 0045cm (D) 0005cm (E) 0004cm

20 The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r t in1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25 and that of a packet of sugar by 10 Their newratio is now(A) 40r50t (B) 44r50t (C) 50r44t (D) 55r44t (E) 44r55t

C

21 The sum of 378 and 113 is less than the difference between 38 and 123 by (A) 323 (B)5frac14 (C) 6frac12 (D) 0 (E) 818

C

22 Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre ofthe circle Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio

(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D

23 What is (49) minus ଵ(001)

(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D

24 What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 3482(A) 2236 (B) 02228 (C) 2235 (D)

2237 (E) 002229

E

25 When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8 What did he pay for thebicycle

(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C

26 Write the decimal number 39 to base 2(A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 195

A

27 A father is now three times as old as his son Twelve years ago he was six times as old ashis son How old are the son and the father(A) 20 and 45 (B) 100 and 150 (C) 45 and 65 (D) 35 and 75 (E) 20 and 60

E

28 A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm If thecylinder is now filled with water what is the volume of the water in the cylinder(A) cm3ߨ443 (B) 12 cm3ߨ (C) 383 cm3ߨ (D) 403 cm3ߨ (E) 3233 cm3ߨ

A

29 Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the unitsdigit and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits(A) 24 (B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72

D

30 Find the roots of the equation minusଶݔ10 minusݔ13 3 = 0(A) x = 35 or ndashfrac12 (B) x = 310 or -1 (C) x = -310 or 1 (D) x = 15 or -32 (E) x= -15 or 32

E

31 If a function is defined by +ݔ) 1) = minusଶݔ3 +ݔ 4 find (0)(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 8 (E) 2

D

32 If sin x equals cosine x what is x in radians(A) π2 (B) π3 (C) π4 (D) π6 (E) π12

C

33 If x2 + 4 = 0 then x =(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these

E

34 In a geometric progression the first term is 153 and the sixth term is 1727 the sum of thefirst four terms is(A) 8603 (B) 6803 (C) 6083 (D) 8063 (E) 68027

B

35 List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality minus1 lt minusݔ2 5 le 5(A) 2345 (B) 25 (C) 345 (D) 234 (E) 34

C

36 Make c the subject of the equation (+ ) +ହ

ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3

(A) = 2minus 5 minus (B) = 5 minus 2minus (C) = 5 minus 2minus (D) = 2minus 5 minus (E) = 2minus minus 5

37 Multiply +ݔ3) +ݕ5 (ݖ4 by minusݔ2) +ݕ3 (ݖ(A) ଶݔ6 + minusݕݔ ଶݕ15 + ଶݖ4 + minusݖݔ11 ݖݕ7(B) ଶݔ6 + minusݕݔ3 ଶݕ15 + ଶݖ4 + minusݖݔ11 ݖݕ5(C) ଶݔ6 + minusݕݔ3 ଶݕ15 + ଶݖ4 + minusݖݔ13 ݖݕ8(D) ଶݔ6 + minusݕݔ5 ଶݕ15 + ଶݖ4 + +ݖݔ13 ݖݕ6(E) ଶݔ6 + minusݕݔ ଶݕ15 + ଶݖ4 + minusݕݔ13 ݖݕ7

A

38 Multiply +ݔ) +ݕ3 5) by ଶݔ2) + +ݕ5 2)(A) ଷݔ2 + ଶݔݕ3 + +ݕݔ10 ଶݕ15 + +ݕ13 ଶݔ10 + +ݔ2 10(B) ଷݔ2 + ଶݔݕ6 + +ݕݔ5 ଶݕ15 + +ݕ31 ଶݔ10 + +ݔ2 10(C) ଷݔ2 + ଶݔݕ3 + +ݕݔ5 ଶݕ10 + +ݕ13 ଶݔ5 + +ݔ2 10(D) ଷݔ2 + ଶݔݕ6 + +ݕݔ5 ଶݕ15 + +ݕ13 ଶݔ10 + +ݔ2 10(E) ଷݔ2 + ଶݔݕ2 + +ݕݔ10 ଶݕ10 + +ݕ31 ଶݔ5 + +ݔ2 10

B

39 Multiply ଶݔ + +ݔ 1 by minusଶݔ +ݔ 1(A) ସݔ + ଶݔ3 + +ݔ 1 (B) ସݔ + ଶݔ + 1 (C) ସݔ + minusଶݔ4 +ݔ6 1 (D) minusସݔminusଶݔ6 +ݔ4 1 (E) minusସݔ minusଷݔ ଶݔ + +ݔ 1

B

40 The factors of minusݔ6 5 minus ଶݔ are

(A) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(3 2) (B) minusݔ) minusݔ)(5 1)

(C) ndash +ݔ) +ݔ)(5 1) (D) minusݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ (E) +ݔ) 5)(1 minus (ݔ

D

41 The quantity (x + y) is a factor of A(A) ଶݔ + ଶݕ (B) minusଷݔ ଷݕ (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݕݔ3 minusଶݕ +ݔ 1(D) ଷݔ2 + minusݕଶݔ2 +ݕݔ minusݔ3 ଶݕ + ݕ3 (E) minusହݔ ହݕ

D

42 The set of values of x and y which satisfies the equations ltigtxltsupgt2ltsupgt - y - 1 = 0ltigt and ltigty ndash 2x + 2 = 0ltigt(A) 1 0 (B) 1 1 (C) 2 2 (D) 0 2 (E) 1 2

A

43 The solution of the equation minusଶݔ =ݔ2 8 is(A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4 (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4

B

44 The solution of the quadratic equation ଶݔ + +ݔ = 0 is given by

(A) =ݔplusmnξ మସ

ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ

(D) =ݔplusmnradicమାସ

ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A

45 The sum of the root of a quadratic equation isହ

ଶand the product of its roots is 4 The

quadratic equation is(A) ଶݔ2 + +ݔ5 8 = 0 (B) minusଶݔ2 +ݔ5 8 = 0 (C) minusଶݔ2 +ݔ8 5 = 0

(D) ଶݔ2 + minusݔ8 5 = 0 (E) ଶݔ2 + minusݔ5 8 = 0

B

46 Three numbers x y and z are connected by the relationships =ݕସ

ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1

If x = 99 find z(A) 613 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 17649 (E) None of the above

C

47 What factor is common to all the expressions minusଶݔ ݔ ଶݔ2 + minusݔ 1 and minusଶݔ 1(A) x (B) x ndash 1 (C) x + 1 (D) No common factor (E) (2x ndash 1)

D

48 A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m If water of uniformdensity 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute the adjacentsea is

A




MATHEMATICS

4

(A) 100000 (B) 1000000 (C) 120000 (D) 30000 (E) 35000049 A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm What is its height

(A) 9cm (B) radic65cm (C) 4radic2cm (D) 7cm (E) 65cm

B

50 A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end Its surface area is(A) 2πrh (B) πr2h (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D) πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2

E

51 A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid The figure has(A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges

E

52 A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm longand 18cm wide Find the perimeter of the remaining figure(A) 38cm (B) (38 + (ߨ12 (C) (86 minus (ߨ12 (D) (86minus (ߨ6 (E) (86 +(ߨ12

B

53 A rectangular picture 6cm by 8cm is enclosed by a frame frac12cm wide Calculate the area ofthe frame(A) 15sqcm (B) 20sqcm (C) 13sqcm (D) 16sqcm (E) 17sqcm

A

54 A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm The area of thehexagon is

(A) ߨ36 ଶ (B) 36 ߨ ଶ (C) 54radic3cm2 (D) 54radic3cm2 (E) cm2ݔ3radic54

C



C

56 A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface area of 36πcm2 Find its height(A) 2cm (B) 3cm (C) 4cm (D) 5cm (E) 6cm

B

57 A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long What isthe area of the board(A) 20sqcm (B) 25sqcm (C) 36sqcm (D) 100sqcm (E) 16sqcm

B

58 A triangle has angles 300 150 and 1350 the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cmThe side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to

(A) 12cm (B) 6cm (C) 6radic2cm (D) 12radic2cm (E) 6radic3cm

C

59 An isosceles triangle of sides 13cm 13cm 10cm is inscribed in a circle What is theradius of the circle

(A) 7ଵ

ଶସcm (B) 12cm (C) 8cm (D) 7cm (E) radic69cm

A

60Differentiate ቀݔଶminus

ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x

(A) minusଷݔ4 2 minus ଷݔ2

(B) minusଷݔ4 2 + ଷݔ2 (C) minusଷݔ4 +ݔ3 ݔ2 (D) minusଷݔ4 minusݔ4 ݔ2 (E) minusଷݔ4 +6 +ଷݔ2

E

61 Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6cm and whoseheight is 8cm (Take π = 227) (A) 18857cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 18808cm2 (E) 100cm2

A

62 Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2radic3cm and slanting side 4radic3cm

(A) cm3ߨ3radic8 (B) cm3ߨ24 (C) cm3ߨ3radic15 (D) cm3ߨ36 (E) cm3ߨ30

D

63 If the four interior angles of a quadrilateral are (p+10)0(p-30)0(2p-45)0 and (p+15)0 thenp is(A) 1250 (B) 820 (C) 1350 (D) 1050 (E) 600

B

64 If the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle is 2 what is the length of each of theother sides

(A) radic2 (B) 1radic2 (C) 2radic2 (D) 1 (E) radic2minus 1

A

65 If the value of π is taken to be 227 the area of a semicircle of diameter 42m is E




MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2

66 In a circle of radius 10cm a cord of length 10cm is xcm from its centre where x is

(A) 10radic2 (B) 5radic3 (C) 10radic3 (D) 5radic2 (E) 10

B

67 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle If PQS = 150 findQRS(A) 750 (B) 37frac120 (C) 127frac120 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above

D

68 The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is135cm2 What is the length(A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm

C

69 At what value of x does the function y= -3 ndash 2x +x2 attain a minimum value(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1

E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x

(A) minusଷݔ4 2 minus ଷݔ2 (B) minusଷݔ4 2 + ଷݔ2 (C) minusଷݔ4 +ݔ3 ݔ2 (D) minusଷݔ4minusݔ4 ݔ2 (E) minusଷݔ4 +6 + ଷݔ2

E

71 Evaluate int minusଶݔ) ݔ(ݔ2ଷ

ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C

72 Find the derivative of =ݕ ݏ ଶݔ2) + minusݔ3 4)(A) minus ଷݔ2)ݏ + minusݔ3 4) (B) ଶݔ6)minus + 3) ଷݔ2)ݏ + minusݔ3 4) (C) ଷݔ2)ݏ +minusݔ3 4) (D) ଶݔ6) + 3) ଷݔ2)ݏ + minusݔ3 4) (E) ଷݔ2)ݏ + minusݔ3 4)

D

73 Ifௗ௬

ௗ௫= +ݔ cos ݔ find y

(A) +ݔଶ2minussinݔ (B) minusଶݔ sinݔ+ (C)௫మ

ଶ+ sinݔ+

(D) ଶݔ + sinݔ+ (E) ଶ4ݔ + sinݔ+

C

74 If the maximum value of y = 1+ hx -3x2 is 13 find h(A) 13 (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 10 (E) 14

B

75 If =ݏ (2 + minusݐ5)(ݐ3 4) findௗ௦

ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ

(A) 0 unit per sec (B) 15 units per sec (C) 22 units per sec (D) 26 units persec (E) 24 units per sec

C

76 If =ݕ (1 minus ଷ(ݔ2 find the value ofௗ௬

ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C

77 If =ݕ 3 cos ݔ4ௗ௬

ௗ௫equals

(A) 6sin8x (B) -24sin4x (C) 12sin4x (D) -12sin4x (E) 24sin4x

D

78 Integrateଵ௫

௫యwith respect to x

(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

80 The derivative of cosec x is B




MATHEMATICS

6

(A) tanx cosec x (B) ndashcot x cosec x (C) tan x sec x (D) ndashcot x sec x (E) cot xcosec x

81 The minimum value of y in the equation =ݕ minusଶݔ +ݔ6 8(A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) -1 (E) 5

D

82 The slope of the tangent to the curve =ݕ minusଶݔ2 +ݔ2 5 at the point (1 6) is(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 5 (E) 3

C

83 Two variables x and y are such thatௗ௬

ௗ௫= minusݔ4 3 and y = 5 when x = 2 Find y in terms of

x(A) minusଶݔ2 +ݔ3 5 (B) minusଶݔ2 +ݔ3 3 (C) minusଶݔ2 ݔ3 (D) 4 (E) 6

B

84 7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years If 6new pupils of average age 11 years join the class what is the average age of the pupils nowin the class(A) 13years (B) 12years 7frac12months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months(E) 11 years

A

85 A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls Two balls are taken from the bag withoutreplacement What is the probability that they are both red(A) 13 (B) 29 (C) 215 (D) 15 (E) 35

E

86 Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300 What is the probability that thenumber is divisible by 4(A) 13 (B) frac14 (C) 15 (D) 4300 (E) 1300

B

87 Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the followingfrequency distribution

Monthly salary FrequencyN2000000 10N3250000 5N1000000 20N1200000 2N600000 10N800000 3

(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B

88 Find the mean deviation of 1 2 3 and 4(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 15 (E) 12

C

89 If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5 9 3 5 7 5 8then (M D) is(A) (6 5) (B) (5 8) (C) (5 7) (D) (5 5) (E) (7 5)

D

90 In a basket of fruits there are 6 grapes 11 bananas and 13 oranges If one fruit is chosen atrandom what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana

(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A

91 In a school 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both 125 offer Biology and 110Mathematics How many offer Biology but not Mathematics

(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D

92 In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B The mean score for class2A in an English literature examination is 600 and that for 2B in the same paper is 525Find to one place of decimals the mean for the combined classes

B




MATHEMATICS

7

(A) 15 (B) 560 (C) 562 (D) 563 (E) 56593 In a soccer competition in one season a club had scored the following goals 2 0 3 3 2

1 4 0 0 5 1 0 2 2 1 3 1 4 and 1 The mean median and mode are respectively(A) 1 18 and 15 (B) 18 15 and 1 (C) 18 1 and 15 (D) 15 1 and 18 (E)15 18 and 1

B

94 In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debatingcompetition (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E)16 ways

D

95 The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 153 years One boy leaves theclass and one girl is enrolled and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes152 years How much older is the boy than the girl

(A) 30 years (B) 6 years (C) 9 years (D) 3 years (E) 1 year

D

96 The letters of the word ldquoMATRICULATIONrdquo are cut and put into a box One letter isdrawn at random from the box Find the probability of drawing a vowel(A) 713 (B) 513 (C) 613 (D) 813 (E) 413

C

97 The mean of the numbers 3 6 4 x and 7 is 5 Find the standard deviation

(A) radic2 (B) radic3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5

A

98 The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows 6 9 5 7 6 7 5 8 9 5 7 58 7 8 7 56 5 7 6 9 9 7 8 8 7 8 9 8 The mode is(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7 (E) 10

D

99 Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test The mean of the boysrsquo scores and that of the girlswere respectively 6 and 8 Find x if the total score was 468(A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 22 (E) 41

C

100 Two fair dice are rolled What is the probability that both show up the same number ofpoints (A) 136 (B) 736 (C) frac12 (D) 13 (E) 16

E




BIOLOGY

1


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USE OF ENGLISH

1








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PASSAGE B



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PHYSICS

1

1 A ball is thrown up into the air At the highest point of its trajectory the ball (A) Is acceleratingdownwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards

B

2 A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 ms collides and sticks with another ball ofmass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 ms What is the common velocity ofthe balls after the collision (A) 56 ms-1 (B) 28 ms-1 (C) 112 ms-1 (D) 14 ms-1

A

3 A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball if the boy whirls theball in a horizontal circle keeping his hand still If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at apoint on the circle in what direction will the ball move (A) towards the hand of the boy Baway from the hand of the boy C in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point ofbreak D None of the above

C

4 A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make ablock of mass 4 kg set for motion Find the acceleration when the force is doubled (A) 2 ms-2

(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C

5 A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north His displacement is (A) 1 km N15degE (B) 1km N30degE (C) radic2 km N45degE (D) 2 km N75degE

C

6 A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers adisplacement of 50 m Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and theground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 03 (B) 06 (C) 05 (D) 04

D

7 A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with aninitial speed of 100 ms The instant before the stone hits the ground below it is traveling ata speed of 300 ms If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward fromthe cliff instead with the same initial speed of 100 ms what is the magnitude of the velocityof the stone just before it hits the ground(A) 100 ms (B) 200 ms (C) 300 ms (D) 400 ms

C

8 A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unitlength Which of the following is its SI unit (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1

C

9 A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flatsurface What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface (A) 8166 Nm-2

(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C

10 A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in mostcommon liquids It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly Which of thefollowing is NOT correct (A) When placed in a liquid it displaces exactly its own weight of theliquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid it displacesexactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquiddisplaced is equal to its mass

C

11 A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 22 s How deep is the well (Takeg=10ms) (A) 404 m (B) 24 m (C) 484 m (D) 242 m

D

12 A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 24 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw At what distance fromthe fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw (A) 28 m (B) 24 m (C) 32 m (D)38 m

A




PHYSICS

2

13 An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface Which of the following is trueabout its mass and density as it rises (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constantwhile its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant (D) Its mass is constant whileits density increases

B

14 Complete the following sentence The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A)Pascals principle B Archimedesrsquo principle (C) Bernoullis principle (D) irrotational flow

A

15 Complete the following statement Today the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) thedistance from the earthrsquos equator to the north pole (B) the wavelength of light emitted from akrypton atom (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom (D) the speed of light

D

16 Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20000 cmmin (B) 180000cmmin (C) 120000 cmmin (D) 150000 cmmin

B

17 During a football match player A kicks the ball 40 m 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it30 m 60o E of N What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball (A) 30 m (B)40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m

C

18 How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth planethat is inclined at 30o to the horizontal (g = 98 ms-2) (A) 98 J (B) 198 J (C) 162 J (D) 49 J

D

19 If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r what is itskinetic energy (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r2 (C) m ω r22 (D) m ω 2r22

D

20 In free fall two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height If the ball withthe smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s what is the difference between the time thetwo balls reach the ground (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s

C

21 In what distance can a 1500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speedis 20 ms and the coefficient of sliding friction is 07 between the tyres and the ground(A) 9810 m (B) 7167 m (C) 2915 m (D) 2010 m

C

22 The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as itswings to and fro between the two extreme ends At what velocity does it swing past thelowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical (take g = 10 ms2) (A) 1 ms (B) 2ms (C) 5 ms (D) 10 ms

A

23 Three vectors A B and C add together to yield zero A + B + C = 0 The vectors A and C point inopposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression A = 2C Which one ofthe following conclusions is correct (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in oppositedirections (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction (C) B and Chave equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions (D) A and B point in the samedirection but A has twice the magnitude of B

B

24 Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force (A) Energydistance (B)Energy x distance (C) Energytime (D) Momentum x distance

A

25 Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid(A) Surface area of the liquid (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below thesurface (D) Strength of the gravitational field

A




PHYSICS

3

26 Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity (A) Displacementacceleration (B) Force kinetic energy (C) Momentum velocity (D) Power speed

B

27 Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniformvelocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non-zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration

C

28 Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers (A) 20 cm (B)200 cm (C) 2000 cm (D) 20000 cm

B

29 Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived I Area II Thrust IIIPressure IV Mass (A) I II III and IV (B) I II and III only (C) I II and IV only (D) I and II only

B

30 Which one of the following situations is not possibleA A body has zero velocity and non-zero accelerationB A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward accelerationC A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying accelerationD A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity

C

31If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity then (A)C= sm (B) S = Cm (C) C = Sm (D) DS = ms

C

32 A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it ishot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heatersinstalled in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them

B

33 A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct soundeasily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of currentflowing through them (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surroundingatmosphere

D

34 A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC If its linear expansivity is18 times10-4 k its new length is (A) 1666 cm (B) 1016 cm (C) 1806 (D) 108 cm

B

35 A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 degC What is the final temperature of thegas if both the pressure and volume are doubled (A) 5 degC (B) 80 degC (C) 20 degC (D) 899 degC

B

36 A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water(C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium

A

37 Complete the following statement A temperature decrease of 30 Cdeg is equal to a temperaturedecrease of (A) 30 Fdeg (B) 17 Fdeg (C) 30 K (D) 86 Fdeg

D

38 Complete the following statement Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electricappliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass (B) volume (C) length(D) expansion coefficients

D

39 Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other endwhich is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D)Evaporation

A




PHYSICS

4

40 Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change intemperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat

C

41 How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphereand temperature -20oC be after it has been compressed to frac12 litre at 40oC A 247 atm(B) 45 atm (C) 80 atm (D) 38 atm (E) 168 atm

A

42 On a cold day a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because(A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conductsheat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y

D

43 The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the externalpressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above

C

44 The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectivelyWhat will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a(D) 34a

D

45 The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively Its reading at60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88

D

46 The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container isheated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of thecontainer is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases

B

47 The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C)steel (D) conductor

B

48 Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC Which of the following is correct (A)Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreasesbetween 0oC and 4oC

D

49 What is the Celsius equivalent of 500deg F (A) 10deg C (B) 20deg C (C) 30deg C (D) 40deg C A

50 When water is heated in a glass vessel the level first falls and then rises because (A) Theapparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases (B) There is anomalousexpansion of water (C)The glass vessel does not expand (D)Glass vessel expands first beforewater starts a more rapid expansion

D

51 Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heatcontent at melting point (A) 05 kg of water at 3oC (B) 02 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0005 kg ofwater at 80oC (D) 01 kg of water at 12oC

B

52 Which would cause a more serious burn 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water both at 100 degC

and why is this so

(A) Water because it is denser than steam (B) Steam because of its specific heat capacity

(C) Steam because of its latent heat of vaporization (D) Water because its specific heat is

greater than that of steam

C




PHYSICS

5

53 A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years How long will it take the activity tobecome frac14 of its original(A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years

B

54 A plane progressive wave is represented by xty 20100sin2 where all the symbols

have their usual meanings What is the velocity of the wave

(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A

55 A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node(B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude

A

56 A uniform wave has a speed of 10ms and a period of 05 s The distance between two nearestcrests is (A) 02 m (B) 20 m (C) 2 m (D) 5 m

D

57 A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of whenݖܪ200 plucked in themiddle When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 thefrequency becomes(A) ݖܪ1600 (B) ݖܪ800 (C) ܪ400 (D) ݖܪ200

C

58 An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long Determine the frequency of the fundamentalnote assuming that the speed of sound in air is 340ms (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (D)106Hz

D

59 As transverse wave moves through a medium the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in apath parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular tothe path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave

C

60 The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo(B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration

A

61 Which of the following properties is not common to all waves (A) Reflection (B) interference(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization

D

62 Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves (A) They arelongitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travelat the same speed in a vacuum

D

63 Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false (A)Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energythrough space (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell (D)Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance

A

64 Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false (A) A wave can have bothtransverse and longitudinal components (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another(C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium (D) A transversewave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel

D

65 A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot(B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina

D




PHYSICS

6

66 A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm anda real image is produced Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance (A) 6cm(B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm

D

67 An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm The image formed is(A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity

B

68 How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erectimage is four times its natural size (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm

C

69 How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that areinclined at angle 30o to each other (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12

C

70 Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 025 ms Determine thespeed of the image relative to him(A) 013 ms (B) 050 ms (C) 025 ms (D) 075 ms

B

71 The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense

medium is 90deg is called a

(A) Critical angle (B) Reflected angle (C) Incident angle (D) Emergent angle

A

72 The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick planemirror

B

73 The following are types of a converging lens except(A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus

C

74 When the Sun the earth and the moon are in line during their movement with the earth beingthe opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Totaleclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse

A

75 Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun (A)Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant

D

76 Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors (A)Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope

B

77 Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines(A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces

interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinctshadows of opaque objects

D

78Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission It is (A) the splitting of a heavynucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in acontrolled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) thespontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms

A

79 A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 02eV areejected If the work function of the metal is 03eV what is the value of E (A) 010eV (B)006eV (C) 050eV (D) 150eV

C




PHYSICS

7

80 A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficientto hold nuclear particles together (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has nosignificant mass

B

81 A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years If its activity today is 200 dps its activity in 8years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps

A

82 A substance has a half-life of 3min After 6min the count rate was observed to be 400Whatwas its count rate at zero time (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600

D

83 An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C)protons (D) irons

B

84 Complete the following sentence When electrons from a heated filament accelerate throughvacuum toward a positive plate (A) only an electric field will be produced (B) only amagnetic field will be produced (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced (D) longitudinalwaves will be produced

C

85 Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earthelements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation

D

86 The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D)neutrons

A

87 Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend (A) mass(B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency

D

88 Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray (A) It moves in a straight line (B) Itcauses fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles

D

89 Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus (A) J J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C)Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie

C

90 X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detectfinger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art

B

91 1 farad is equivalent to (A) 1 coulombvolt (B) 1 voltcoulomb (C) 1 joulescoulomb (D) 1amperesec (E) volts per unit charge

A

92 A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10Aammeter by using (A) 003ohm series resistor (B) 999ohm shunt resistor (C) 003ohm shuntresistor (D) 999ohm series resistor

C

93 A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V The terminal voltage when a loadof 20 Ω is connected across it is (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V

B

94 A conducting sphere has a net charge of 48 1017 C What is the approximate number ofexcess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -16 x 10-19C (A) 100 (B)300 (C) 200 (D) 400

B

95 A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D)the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing

C

96 An ac voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω inductance 3 mH and acapacitance of 005 microF Calculate the resonance frequency (A) 110 kHz (B) 120 kHz (C)130 kHz (D) 140 kHz

C




PHYSICS

8

97 An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100efficiency The power produced is (A) 05 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W

A

98 Complete the following statement The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potentialdifference between the terminals of a battery (B) the force that accelerates electrons througha wire when a battery is connected to it (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wirewhen a battery is connected to it (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of abattery

A

99 If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane what is the general direction ofthe resulting magnetic field (A) In the plane of the circle (B) At an angle 45o to the plane ofmotion (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle (D) Along thetangent to the circle

C

100 If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled then the ratio of theold current to the new current is (A) 13 (B) 31 (C) 61 (D) 16

D

101 The angle between the earthrsquos magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A)declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination

B

102 The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of themagnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft ironarmature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangularcoil in the

B

103 The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing itThis is a statement of (A) Faradayrsquos Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Amperersquos law

B

104 The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude If Ohmrsquos law isobeyed one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true (A) Theresistance is one half of its original value (B) The resistance is twice its original value (C) Theresistance is not changed (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four

C

105 The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A)Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening

A

106 Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volumeand density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity

C

107 Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B)Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire

A

108 Which of the following devices is odd in the list (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) dcgenerator (D) solar cell

B

109 Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses (A)high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity

C




PHYSICS

9

110 Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle ina magnetic field is true (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary (B) It is a maximum ifthe particle moves parallel to the field (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positivelycharged particle (D) It depends on the component of the particles velocity that isperpendicular to the field

D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D



1

2 A tree species introduced from another country is called-------- (A) International species B

(B) Exotic species (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species

3 Agriculture can be broadly classified into and (A) Livestock Soil (B) Animal Soil C

(C) Animal Crop (D) Poultry Fruit

4 An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which A

cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry

pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens

5 Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops C

6 Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other non- A

target organisms indiscriminately (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive (C) they

allow target organisms to survive (D) they kill target organisms only

7 Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of C

cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes

8 Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) A

study of Bacteria

Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm

helliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphelliphellip is an example of plant propagated by leaf (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C) D




SCIENCEAGRICULTURAL




study of Bacteria




potatoes



Repellents





















Molybdenum






(D) Herb



flax sisal kenaf













wood


Bacteria


study of Fungi



dated


Lettuce (D) Cassava











Rubber



(D) Aphid


Water






Bamboo











and rotten tuber




Capsack



damping off



ornamental plants



(D) 415












land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275





the subsoil




Buds (D) Branches














slate







blight (D) streak






four (D) five













(D) Rats



















05mls (d) 010mls


Study of cattle


months (E) 15 weeks



equipment






3000

































BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C







































as king




























B









D



Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
















Isaiah












after His own heart







C



captivity









Babylon














their descendants



D





B





C












type of sacrifice



Baal worshippers

















servant











ship asleep










































to the rulers



the earth


























wine






glorified God















B






















righteousness dwell









ECONOMICS

























of production






(E) marginal cost



















ECONOMICS




















allocation formula








supply curves






















ECONOMICS








technology




















reach the consumer










production











ECONOMICS



























the firm









cost









ECONOMICS








(E) Net and gross














the above



financial plan




principle















ECONOMICS













development index




agriculture

















of conurbations









Board of directors





ECONOMICS

































petroleum



of the Middle Ages











ECONOMICS
























USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C



Information







duality
















ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL








Dual-aspect






(D) cash sales



















accounts


























debtors






account





















(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000
















profit




during the year



method
































150 (D) N27 280










(D) 8000








administration cost















trading account is








period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000













department















5


































fund










(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY


(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000


(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000


Spur (D) Waterfall













GEOGRAPHY







2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12







sandy clay (D) clay





Saturday





1





GEOGRAPHY

























0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C












terms of quantity







GEOGRAPHY











insolation is high











(D) Spring









gravity




22





0E is B






GEOGRAPHY









aggrading stream


12 717km (D) 12 757km




humidity









Temperate





fast-flowing rivers






organisms







GEOGRAPHY





Neptune



Trough


















of Benin (D) Zambia







Fishing













GEOGRAPHY



irrigation


climax







(D) Satellite










mobility






and Russia












6




GOVERNMENT

1


A


C


C


B


C



C


D


C




A


B


C


A


B


C


D




GOVERNMENT

2


C


D


B


B



B


D


C


C


B


B


A


C


D


A


C



D




GOVERNMENT

3


A


D


D


D


A


C


B



B


A




D


B


C


A


B


A




GOVERNMENT

4


D




D


A


B


C


B



C


D



C


A


B


C




GOVERNMENT

5


D


B


C


A




B


A


A


D


C


A


A



C


B




GOVERNMENT

6




A



A



B


B




C


B



A


C


C


A




GOVERNMENT

7


A


B





HISTORY






Morocco







(D) Oshogbo











Obong




(C) Kenya (D) Zulu





(D) Abeokuta



company










HISTORY


(D) AG















B




D



A


Lagos (D) Enugu

B





A



A




B




A




B



B





HISTORY









D

Aguiyi Ironsi



A

rule system













C



Italians




(D) Gambia
















HISTORY


























(D) Nigeria



















HISTORY






China



C



Spain (D) USA






Leone (D) Senegal



D




5




HOME ECONOMICS

1


A


D




C


D


C



D



A



D


D


C



C


C


A


A




HOME ECONOMICS

2


B


A


C


A


C


D


B


C


C


A


D


B


D


A


A


D


C


C




HOME ECONOMICS

3


C


C


B



D


C




A


A




D


C


A


B


D


A


B




HOME ECONOMICS

4


D


D


C





1


D


A


B


C


D


C


A


C


D


D


C


A


B


A


B


A


A






2


D


A


B


D


A


C


A


A


B





A


D


A



C


D


A





3


B


C


C


B


A



C


B




B


D


D


A


A




A






4


B


B


B


A


D


A


C




C


A


A



B


A


C


B


A





5


B


B


A


C


D


C


B


C


D


C



D


C


C



B


D


C





6


D


B




C


D








MATHEMATICS

1


D


C


D


C


A


(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C


B


B


C


B


D


C


ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C


(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E



ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A


A


C





MATHEMATICS

2



C


C


(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D


(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D


2237 (E) 002229

E


(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C


A


E


A


D


E


D


C


E


B


C


ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3



A


B


B




D


D


A


B



ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ


ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A





B


ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1


C


D


A




MATHEMATICS

4



B


E


E


B


A



C



C


B


B



C


(A) 7ଵ


A


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x



E


A



D


B



A





MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2



B


D


C


E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x


E


ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C


D

73 Ifௗ௬



ଶ+ sinݔ+


C


B


ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ


C


ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C


ௗ௫equals


D

78 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E





MATHEMATICS

6



D


C




B


A


E


B



(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B


C


D


(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A


(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D


B




MATHEMATICS

7



B


D



D


C



A


D


C


E




BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C




USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




study of Bacteria




potatoes



Repellents





















Molybdenum






(D) Herb



flax sisal kenaf













wood


Bacteria


study of Fungi



dated


Lettuce (D) Cassava











Rubber



(D) Aphid


Water






Bamboo











and rotten tuber




Capsack



damping off



ornamental plants



(D) 415












land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275





the subsoil




Buds (D) Branches














slate







blight (D) streak






four (D) five













(D) Rats



















05mls (d) 010mls


Study of cattle


months (E) 15 weeks



equipment






3000

































BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C







































as king




























B









D



Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
















Isaiah












after His own heart







C



captivity









Babylon














their descendants



D





B





C












type of sacrifice



Baal worshippers

















servant











ship asleep










































to the rulers



the earth


























wine






glorified God















B






















righteousness dwell









ECONOMICS

























of production






(E) marginal cost



















ECONOMICS




















allocation formula








supply curves






















ECONOMICS








technology




















reach the consumer










production











ECONOMICS



























the firm









cost









ECONOMICS








(E) Net and gross














the above



financial plan




principle















ECONOMICS













development index




agriculture

















of conurbations









Board of directors





ECONOMICS

































petroleum



of the Middle Ages











ECONOMICS
























USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C



Information







duality
















ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL








Dual-aspect






(D) cash sales



















accounts


























debtors






account





















(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000
















profit




during the year



method
































150 (D) N27 280










(D) 8000








administration cost















trading account is








period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000













department















5


































fund










(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY


(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000


(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000


Spur (D) Waterfall













GEOGRAPHY







2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12







sandy clay (D) clay





Saturday





1





GEOGRAPHY

























0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C












terms of quantity







GEOGRAPHY











insolation is high











(D) Spring









gravity




22





0E is B






GEOGRAPHY









aggrading stream


12 717km (D) 12 757km




humidity









Temperate





fast-flowing rivers






organisms







GEOGRAPHY





Neptune



Trough


















of Benin (D) Zambia







Fishing













GEOGRAPHY



irrigation


climax







(D) Satellite










mobility






and Russia












6




GOVERNMENT

1


A


C


C


B


C



C


D


C




A


B


C


A


B


C


D




GOVERNMENT

2


C


D


B


B



B


D


C


C


B


B


A


C


D


A


C



D




GOVERNMENT

3


A


D


D


D


A


C


B



B


A




D


B


C


A


B


A




GOVERNMENT

4


D




D


A


B


C


B



C


D



C


A


B


C




GOVERNMENT

5


D


B


C


A




B


A


A


D


C


A


A



C


B




GOVERNMENT

6




A



A



B


B




C


B



A


C


C


A




GOVERNMENT

7


A


B





HISTORY






Morocco







(D) Oshogbo











Obong




(C) Kenya (D) Zulu





(D) Abeokuta



company










HISTORY


(D) AG















B




D



A


Lagos (D) Enugu

B





A



A




B




A




B



B





HISTORY









D

Aguiyi Ironsi



A

rule system













C



Italians




(D) Gambia
















HISTORY


























(D) Nigeria



















HISTORY






China



C



Spain (D) USA






Leone (D) Senegal



D




5




HOME ECONOMICS

1


A


D




C


D


C



D



A



D


D


C



C


C


A


A




HOME ECONOMICS

2


B


A


C


A


C


D


B


C


C


A


D


B


D


A


A


D


C


C




HOME ECONOMICS

3


C


C


B



D


C




A


A




D


C


A


B


D


A


B




HOME ECONOMICS

4


D


D


C





1


D


A


B


C


D


C


A


C


D


D


C


A


B


A


B


A


A






2


D


A


B


D


A


C


A


A


B





A


D


A



C


D


A





3


B


C


C


B


A



C


B




B


D


D


A


A




A






4


B


B


B


A


D


A


C




C


A


A



B


A


C


B


A





5


B


B


A


C


D


C


B


C


D


C



D


C


C



B


D


C





6


D


B




C


D








MATHEMATICS

1


D


C


D


C


A


(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C


B


B


C


B


D


C


ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C


(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E



ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A


A


C





MATHEMATICS

2



C


C


(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D


(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D


2237 (E) 002229

E


(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C


A


E


A


D


E


D


C


E


B


C


ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3



A


B


B




D


D


A


B



ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ


ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A





B


ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1


C


D


A




MATHEMATICS

4



B


E


E


B


A



C



C


B


B



C


(A) 7ଵ


A


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x



E


A



D


B



A





MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2



B


D


C


E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x


E


ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C


D

73 Ifௗ௬



ଶ+ sinݔ+


C


B


ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ


C


ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C


ௗ௫equals


D

78 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E





MATHEMATICS

6



D


C




B


A


E


B



(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B


C


D


(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A


(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D


B




MATHEMATICS

7



B


D



D


C



A


D


C


E




BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C




USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D










Molybdenum






(D) Herb



flax sisal kenaf













wood


Bacteria


study of Fungi



dated


Lettuce (D) Cassava











Rubber



(D) Aphid


Water






Bamboo











and rotten tuber




Capsack



damping off



ornamental plants



(D) 415












land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275





the subsoil




Buds (D) Branches














slate







blight (D) streak






four (D) five













(D) Rats



















05mls (d) 010mls


Study of cattle


months (E) 15 weeks



equipment






3000

































BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C







































as king




























B









D



Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
















Isaiah












after His own heart







C



captivity









Babylon














their descendants



D





B





C












type of sacrifice



Baal worshippers

















servant











ship asleep










































to the rulers



the earth


























wine






glorified God















B






















righteousness dwell









ECONOMICS

























of production






(E) marginal cost



















ECONOMICS




















allocation formula








supply curves






















ECONOMICS








technology




















reach the consumer










production











ECONOMICS



























the firm









cost









ECONOMICS








(E) Net and gross














the above



financial plan




principle















ECONOMICS













development index




agriculture

















of conurbations









Board of directors





ECONOMICS

































petroleum



of the Middle Ages











ECONOMICS
























USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C



Information







duality
















ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL








Dual-aspect






(D) cash sales



















accounts


























debtors






account





















(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000
















profit




during the year



method
































150 (D) N27 280










(D) 8000








administration cost















trading account is








period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000













department















5


































fund










(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY


(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000


(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000


Spur (D) Waterfall













GEOGRAPHY







2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12







sandy clay (D) clay





Saturday





1





GEOGRAPHY

























0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C












terms of quantity







GEOGRAPHY











insolation is high











(D) Spring









gravity




22





0E is B






GEOGRAPHY









aggrading stream


12 717km (D) 12 757km




humidity









Temperate





fast-flowing rivers






organisms







GEOGRAPHY





Neptune



Trough


















of Benin (D) Zambia







Fishing













GEOGRAPHY



irrigation


climax







(D) Satellite










mobility






and Russia












6




GOVERNMENT

1


A


C


C


B


C



C


D


C




A


B


C


A


B


C


D




GOVERNMENT

2


C


D


B


B



B


D


C


C


B


B


A


C


D


A


C



D




GOVERNMENT

3


A


D


D


D


A


C


B



B


A




D


B


C


A


B


A




GOVERNMENT

4


D




D


A


B


C


B



C


D



C


A


B


C




GOVERNMENT

5


D


B


C


A




B


A


A


D


C


A


A



C


B




GOVERNMENT

6




A



A



B


B




C


B



A


C


C


A




GOVERNMENT

7


A


B





HISTORY






Morocco







(D) Oshogbo











Obong




(C) Kenya (D) Zulu





(D) Abeokuta



company










HISTORY


(D) AG















B




D



A


Lagos (D) Enugu

B





A



A




B




A




B



B





HISTORY









D

Aguiyi Ironsi



A

rule system













C



Italians




(D) Gambia
















HISTORY


























(D) Nigeria



















HISTORY






China



C



Spain (D) USA






Leone (D) Senegal



D




5




HOME ECONOMICS

1


A


D




C


D


C



D



A



D


D


C



C


C


A


A




HOME ECONOMICS

2


B


A


C


A


C


D


B


C


C


A


D


B


D


A


A


D


C


C




HOME ECONOMICS

3


C


C


B



D


C




A


A




D


C


A


B


D


A


B




HOME ECONOMICS

4


D


D


C





1


D


A


B


C


D


C


A


C


D


D


C


A


B


A


B


A


A






2


D


A


B


D


A


C


A


A


B





A


D


A



C


D


A





3


B


C


C


B


A



C


B




B


D


D


A


A




A






4


B


B


B


A


D


A


C




C


A


A



B


A


C


B


A





5


B


B


A


C


D


C


B


C


D


C



D


C


C



B


D


C





6


D


B




C


D








MATHEMATICS

1


D


C


D


C


A


(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C


B


B


C


B


D


C


ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C


(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E



ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A


A


C





MATHEMATICS

2



C


C


(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D


(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D


2237 (E) 002229

E


(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C


A


E


A


D


E


D


C


E


B


C


ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3



A


B


B




D


D


A


B



ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ


ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A





B


ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1


C


D


A




MATHEMATICS

4



B


E


E


B


A



C



C


B


B



C


(A) 7ଵ


A


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x



E


A



D


B



A





MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2



B


D


C


E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x


E


ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C


D

73 Ifௗ௬



ଶ+ sinݔ+


C


B


ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ


C


ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C


ௗ௫equals


D

78 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E





MATHEMATICS

6



D


C




B


A


E


B



(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B


C


D


(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A


(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D


B




MATHEMATICS

7



B


D



D


C



A


D


C


E




BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C




USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D







Rubber



(D) Aphid


Water






Bamboo











and rotten tuber




Capsack



damping off



ornamental plants



(D) 415












land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275





the subsoil




Buds (D) Branches














slate







blight (D) streak






four (D) five













(D) Rats



















05mls (d) 010mls


Study of cattle


months (E) 15 weeks



equipment






3000

































BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C







































as king




























B









D



Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
















Isaiah












after His own heart







C



captivity









Babylon














their descendants



D





B





C












type of sacrifice



Baal worshippers

















servant











ship asleep










































to the rulers



the earth


























wine






glorified God















B






















righteousness dwell









ECONOMICS

























of production






(E) marginal cost



















ECONOMICS




















allocation formula








supply curves






















ECONOMICS








technology




















reach the consumer










production











ECONOMICS



























the firm









cost









ECONOMICS








(E) Net and gross














the above



financial plan




principle















ECONOMICS













development index




agriculture

















of conurbations









Board of directors





ECONOMICS

































petroleum



of the Middle Ages











ECONOMICS
























USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C



Information







duality
















ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL








Dual-aspect






(D) cash sales



















accounts


























debtors






account





















(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000
















profit




during the year



method
































150 (D) N27 280










(D) 8000








administration cost















trading account is








period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000













department















5


































fund










(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY


(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000


(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000


Spur (D) Waterfall













GEOGRAPHY







2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12







sandy clay (D) clay





Saturday





1





GEOGRAPHY

























0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C












terms of quantity







GEOGRAPHY











insolation is high











(D) Spring









gravity




22





0E is B






GEOGRAPHY









aggrading stream


12 717km (D) 12 757km




humidity









Temperate





fast-flowing rivers






organisms







GEOGRAPHY





Neptune



Trough


















of Benin (D) Zambia







Fishing













GEOGRAPHY



irrigation


climax







(D) Satellite










mobility






and Russia












6




GOVERNMENT

1


A


C


C


B


C



C


D


C




A


B


C


A


B


C


D




GOVERNMENT

2


C


D


B


B



B


D


C


C


B


B


A


C


D


A


C



D




GOVERNMENT

3


A


D


D


D


A


C


B



B


A




D


B


C


A


B


A




GOVERNMENT

4


D




D


A


B


C


B



C


D



C


A


B


C




GOVERNMENT

5


D


B


C


A




B


A


A


D


C


A


A



C


B




GOVERNMENT

6




A



A



B


B




C


B



A


C


C


A




GOVERNMENT

7


A


B





HISTORY






Morocco







(D) Oshogbo











Obong




(C) Kenya (D) Zulu





(D) Abeokuta



company










HISTORY


(D) AG















B




D



A


Lagos (D) Enugu

B





A



A




B




A




B



B





HISTORY









D

Aguiyi Ironsi



A

rule system













C



Italians




(D) Gambia
















HISTORY


























(D) Nigeria



















HISTORY






China



C



Spain (D) USA






Leone (D) Senegal



D




5




HOME ECONOMICS

1


A


D




C


D


C



D



A



D


D


C



C


C


A


A




HOME ECONOMICS

2


B


A


C


A


C


D


B


C


C


A


D


B


D


A


A


D


C


C




HOME ECONOMICS

3


C


C


B



D


C




A


A




D


C


A


B


D


A


B




HOME ECONOMICS

4


D


D


C





1


D


A


B


C


D


C


A


C


D


D


C


A


B


A


B


A


A






2


D


A


B


D


A


C


A


A


B





A


D


A



C


D


A





3


B


C


C


B


A



C


B




B


D


D


A


A




A






4


B


B


B


A


D


A


C




C


A


A



B


A


C


B


A





5


B


B


A


C


D


C


B


C


D


C



D


C


C



B


D


C





6


D


B




C


D








MATHEMATICS

1


D


C


D


C


A


(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C


B


B


C


B


D


C


ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C


(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E



ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A


A


C





MATHEMATICS

2



C


C


(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D


(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D


2237 (E) 002229

E


(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C


A


E


A


D


E


D


C


E


B


C


ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3



A


B


B




D


D


A


B



ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ


ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A





B


ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1


C


D


A




MATHEMATICS

4



B


E


E


B


A



C



C


B


B



C


(A) 7ଵ


A


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x



E


A



D


B



A





MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2



B


D


C


E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x


E


ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C


D

73 Ifௗ௬



ଶ+ sinݔ+


C


B


ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ


C


ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C


ௗ௫equals


D

78 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E





MATHEMATICS

6



D


C




B


A


E


B



(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B


C


D


(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A


(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D


B




MATHEMATICS

7



B


D



D


C



A


D


C


E




BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C




USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D










land (A) 4075 (B) 4750 (C) 5005 (D) 5275





the subsoil




Buds (D) Branches














slate







blight (D) streak






four (D) five













(D) Rats



















05mls (d) 010mls


Study of cattle


months (E) 15 weeks



equipment






3000

































BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C







































as king




























B









D



Jeremiah (D) Isaiah
















Isaiah












after His own heart







C



captivity









Babylon














their descendants



D





B





C












type of sacrifice



Baal worshippers

















servant











ship asleep










































to the rulers



the earth


























wine






glorified God















B






















righteousness dwell









ECONOMICS

























of production






(E) marginal cost



















ECONOMICS




















allocation formula








supply curves






















ECONOMICS








technology




















reach the consumer










production











ECONOMICS



























the firm









cost









ECONOMICS








(E) Net and gross














the above



financial plan




principle















ECONOMICS













development index




agriculture

















of conurbations









Board of directors





ECONOMICS

































petroleum



of the Middle Ages











ECONOMICS
























USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C



Information







duality
















ACCOUNTINGFINANCIAL








Dual-aspect






(D) cash sales



















accounts


























debtors






account





















(A) N45000 (B) N35000 (C) N25000 (D) N15000
















profit




during the year



method
































150 (D) N27 280










(D) 8000








administration cost















trading account is








period (A) N85000 (B) N80000 (C) N70000 (D) N65000













department















5


































fund










(C)N600 Dr (D) N480 Cr





GEOGRAPHY


(A) 160 000 (B) 190 000 (C) 1 360 000 (D) 1540 000


(A)190000(B)1120000 (C) 130000 (D) 160000 (E) 1 40000


Spur (D) Waterfall













GEOGRAPHY







2500 000 (B)1 63 360(C)132 (D)12







sandy clay (D) clay





Saturday





1





GEOGRAPHY

























0C (C) 10

0C (D) A

0 15 C












terms of quantity







GEOGRAPHY











insolation is high











(D) Spring









gravity




22





0E is B






GEOGRAPHY









aggrading stream


12 717km (D) 12 757km




humidity









Temperate





fast-flowing rivers






organisms







GEOGRAPHY





Neptune



Trough


















of Benin (D) Zambia







Fishing













GEOGRAPHY



irrigation


climax







(D) Satellite










mobility






and Russia












6




GOVERNMENT

1


A


C


C


B


C



C


D


C




A


B


C


A


B


C


D




GOVERNMENT

2


C


D


B


B



B


D


C


C


B


B


A


C


D


A


C



D




GOVERNMENT

3


A


D


D


D


A


C


B



B


A




D


B


C


A


B


A




GOVERNMENT

4


D




D


A


B


C


B



C


D



C


A


B


C




GOVERNMENT

5


D


B


C


A




B


A


A


D


C


A


A



C


B




GOVERNMENT

6




A



A



B


B




C


B



A


C


C


A




GOVERNMENT

7


A


B





HISTORY






Morocco







(D) Oshogbo











Obong




(C) Kenya (D) Zulu





(D) Abeokuta



company










HISTORY


(D) AG















B




D



A


Lagos (D) Enugu

B





A



A




B




A




B



B





HISTORY









D

Aguiyi Ironsi



A

rule system













C



Italians




(D) Gambia
















HISTORY


























(D) Nigeria



















HISTORY






China



C



Spain (D) USA






Leone (D) Senegal



D




5




HOME ECONOMICS

1


A


D




C


D


C



D



A



D


D


C



C


C


A


A




HOME ECONOMICS

2


B


A


C


A


C


D


B


C


C


A


D


B


D


A


A


D


C


C




HOME ECONOMICS

3


C


C


B



D


C




A


A




D


C


A


B


D


A


B




HOME ECONOMICS

4


D


D


C





1


D


A


B


C


D


C


A


C


D


D


C


A


B


A


B


A


A






2


D


A


B


D


A


C


A


A


B





A


D


A



C


D


A





3


B


C


C


B


A



C


B




B


D


D


A


A




A






4


B


B


B


A


D


A


C




C


A


A



B


A


C


B


A





5


B


B


A


C


D


C


B


C


D


C



D


C


C



B


D


C





6


D


B




C


D








MATHEMATICS

1


D


C


D


C


A


(A) frac14 (B) 54 (C) 94 (D) 4 (E) 9

C


B


B


C


B


D


C


ଵଶହ౮శభ

(A) 5ଶ୶ ଵ (B) 5୶ାଶ (C) 5ହ (D) 5୶ାଵ (E) 5ଷ

C


(మଵమ)

(A) ଶଷ (B) ଵଷ (C) ଶ + 1 (D) a (E) ଵଷ

E



ఱళ(E)

ଵ

మమ

A

16 Simplify 2ହ

ଵଶminus 1

x

ହ

(A) 16 (B) 1320 (C) 1130 (D) 94 (E) 53

A


A


C





MATHEMATICS

2



C


C


(A) 1100 (B) 31 (C) 52 (D) 103 (E) 1330

D


(A) 49 100frasl (B) 2 + 2 (C) 7ଶ + 2 (D) 2+ 2 (E)2 2

D


2237 (E) 002229

E


(A) N73 (B) N7452 (C) N75 (D) N7552 (E)N8748

C


A


E


A


D


E


D


C


E


B


C


ௗminus 2 = 0 D




MATHEMATICS

3



A


B


B




D


D


A


B



ଶ(B) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ(C) =ݔ

plusmnξ మସ

ଶ


ଶ(E) =ݔ

plusmnradicమସ

ଶ

A





B


ଽ+ݔ 1 and =ݖ

ସ

ଽ+ݕ 1


C


D


A




MATHEMATICS

4



B


E


E


B


A



C



C


B


B



C


(A) 7ଵ


A


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x



E


A



D


B



A





MATHEMATICS

5

(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2



B


D


C


E


ଵ

௫ቁଶ

with respect to x


E


ଶ

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C)ସ

ଷ(D)

ଵ

ଷ(E)

ଵ

ହ

C


D

73 Ifௗ௬



ଶ+ sinݔ+


C


B


ௗ௧when =ݐ

ସ

ହݏ


C


ௗ௫at x = -1

(A) -6 (B) 57 (C) -54 (D) 27 (E) -27

C


ௗ௫equals


D

78 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E

79 Integrateଵ௫


(A)௫௫మ

௫ర+ (B)

ସ

௫రminus

ଷ

௫య+ (C)

ଵ

௫+

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+ (D)

ଵ

ଷ௫మminus

ଵ

ଶ௫+

(E)ଵ

௫minus

ଵ

ଶ௫మ+

E





MATHEMATICS

6



D


C




B


A


E


B



(A) N2150030 (B) N1340010 (C) N1430010 (D) N800000 (E)N500030

B


C


D


(A) 1730 (B) 1130 (C) 630 (D) 530 (E) 73

A


(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120

D


B




MATHEMATICS

7



B


D



D


C



A


D


C


E




BIOLOGY

1


B


C


C



B


C


A


C


B


A


D


D


C


B


D


E


E




BIOLOGY

2


C


B


B


B


E


D


B


B


A


C


D


D



D


E


C




BIOLOGY

3


E


C


B


D


C


B


D


D


D


C


A



C


E


E


B


E


D


D





BIOLOGY

4


A


C


E


C


C


D



D


A


A


A


E


D


B



D


B



D




BIOLOGY

5


D


B


D


C


E


E


A


C


D


E


C


B



A


C



A


A


A




BIOLOGY

6


B


B


B


A


C


E


C


C


C




CHEMISTRY

1


C


B


A


B


A


B


B



B


D


C



A


E


C


C




CHEMISTRY

2



B


C


E


A


D


D


D



B


D


D


B


A


C


C


D


E




CHEMISTRY

3


A


A



D


B


(E) NaClB


E


A


A


B


A


C



B






D




CHEMISTRY

4


C


A


B


E


C


B


D


D


C



D


B




CHEMISTRY

5


A


D




E


A


B


B


B


B


B


D


E



B


C




CHEMISTRY

6


C


D


B


B


B


D


D



A


B


B


B


C


A


B


D


B




CHEMISTRY

7


A


C


B


C




USE OF ENGLISH

1








B

A

D

B




USE OF ENGLISH

2




B

C

A

PASSAGE B



C




USE OF ENGLISH

3







A

B

C

D

D


mustB


A


B




C


B




USE OF ENGLISH

4


B


(D) canC


B


B


weB




(D) canC


C


B


B


B



D


B





D


B


B




USE OF ENGLISH

5



C


C


C


D


A


B


A


D


D


C


C


C


D




A


C


A


C


A


B





USE OF ENGLISH

6




C


B


C


A


C


A


D


B


B




B


A


B


B


B


B


B



D




USE OF ENGLISH

7


C


D


B


C


C


C


C


B


B


B


A


B


C




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D




PHYSICS

1


B


A


C


(B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2

C


C


D


C


C


(B) 816 6 Nm2 (C) 4083 Nm-2 (D) 6084 Nm

C


C


D


A




PHYSICS

2


B


A


D


B


C


D


D


C


C


A


B


A


A




PHYSICS

3


B


C


B


B


C


C


B


D


B


B


A


D


D


A




PHYSICS

4


C


A


D


C


D


D


B


B


D



D


B


and why is this so




C




PHYSICS

5


B



(A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1

A


A


D


C


D


C


A


D


D


A


D


D




PHYSICS

6


D


B


C


C


B




A


B


C


A


D


B



D


A


C




PHYSICS

7


B


A


D


B


C


D


A


D


D


C


B


A


C


B


B


C


C




PHYSICS

8


A


A


C


D


B


B


B


C


A


C


A


B


C




PHYSICS

9


D



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