uttar pradesh ntse 2016 question paper & answer key
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7/25/2019 Uttar Pradesh NTSE 2016 Question Paper & Answer Key
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NTSE STAGE-1(PAPER-MAT)
Direction: From question 1 to 7 each question has four Terms. Three terms are alike in some way. One term is
different from three others. Find out the correct term which is different from three others and write its
alternative number on your answer sheet against the proper question number-
1. (1) 2008 (2) 2012 (3) 2016 (4) 2018
1. 4
Sol. Except 2018 all are multiple of 4.
2. (1) S-190 (2) L-144 (3) P-256 (4) T-400
2. 1
Sol. S19
2
19 361
S190 is not correct
3. (1) Magazine (2) Book (3) Copy (4) News-Paper
3. 3
Sol. Except copy all are readings
4. (1) 11, 14, 17 (2) 19, 16, 13 (3) 2, 5, 7 (4) 25, 29, 324. 2
Sol. Except option (2) all are in increasing order.
5. (1) DAC (2) SJG (3) MKB (4) YTE
5. 2
Sol. Except (2) order of middle term difference of extremes
6.
1 2 3 4 6. 4
Sol. Except (4) all the options contain two identical figure.
7.
21 3 4
7. 3Sol. Except (3) all figure have corners
Direction: Question 8 to 12 there are food terms/ figure in each question. The terms right to the symbol: : have
same relationship as the two terms of the left symbol : : Out of the food terms. Figure one is missing,
which is shown bold (?). Four alternative are given for each question. Find out the correct alternative and
write its number against the corresponding question on your answer sheet-
8. News paper: News: : Book: ?
(1) Writer (2) Chapter (3) Knowledge (4) Page
8. 3
Sol. News paper gives news, Book gives knowledge
9. BHC: FLG :: JPK ? (1) MSP (2) NTO (3) EKF (4) SYT
9. 2
Sol. B 4 F
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13. 213, 768, 132, 687,? 876, 213,?
(1) 312, 786 (2) 321, 768 (3) 321, 867 (4) 123, 678
13. 2
Sol. Digits are rotating in cyclic order
14. BA, ZY, DC, XW, FE, VU,TS,JI ?
(1) GH, QR (2) QR, GH (3) HG, RQ (4) GH, RQ14. 3
Sol. B & Y ; A & Z; have same distance from beginning and end respectively and so on.
15. 1, 4, ?, ?, 125, 36,?
(1) 27, 16, 49 (2) 9, 16, 49 (3) 27, 64, 49 (4) 27, 16, 343
15. 4
Sol. 3 2 3 2 3 2 31 ,2 ,3 ,4 ,5 ,6 ,7
16. , ,?, , ,16 13 19 40 52
H K Q T Z
(1) ,25 28
N V (2) ,28 25
N W (3) ,26 20
W M (4) ,24 32
N W
16. 2
Sol.
, , , , , ,2 8 11 2 2 14 17 2 2 20 23 2 2 26
H K N Q T W Z
17.
?
17.
1 2 3 4
17. 2
Sol. Small arrow rotating 90 clockwise in every step and big arrow rotating 45 anticlockwise in every step.
18.
?
18.
1 2 3 4
18. 1Sol. Arrow is rotating 45 anticlockwise and is rotating 135 clockwise and 45anticlockwise alternatively.
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NTSE STAGE-1(PAPER-MAT)
Direction: Question 19 to 21 the letters in column I are coded in the form of numbers. Which are written in column
II, but the order of numbers is different. Read carefully code of letters. Find out correct answer in given
alternative and write its alternative number against the corresponding question number on your answer
sheet-
Column- I Column- II
STE 376
KSN 324
DRQ 815EKR 562
DNR 415
19. What will be code of RKT
(1) 257 (2) 527 (3) 235 (4) 764
19. 2
Sol. S3; K2; R5; T7; Q8; D1; E6; N4;
20. What will be code of SEND ?
(1) 6413 (2) 5614 (3) 3641 (4) 4631
20. 3
Sol. S3; K2; R5; T7; Q8; D1; E6; N4;
21. What will be code of QRK ?
(1) 583 (2) 625 (3) 278 (4) 852
21. 4
Sol. S3; K2; R5; T7; Q8; D1; E6; N4;
22. If in certain code language SATURDAY written as UTASYADR. How is HOSPITAL written in that code?
(1) PSOHLATI (2) HPSOILAT (3) SPOHATLI (4) POSHLTAI
22. 1
Sol. First four and last four letters are written in reverse order.
23. If in a certain code language TABLE written as SBAMD. How is COVER written in that code?
(1) DPWFQ (2) BQUDS (3) BQUFD (4) BPUFQ23. 4
Sol. 1T S
1
A B
1
B A
1
L M
1
E D
24. If in certain code language ROPE is written as 6821 and CHAIR as 73456. How will be CRAPE written in
that code ?
(1) 77246 (2) 76421 (3) 73456 (4) 7321424. 2
Sol. R6
O8
P2
E1
C7
H3
A4
I5
Direction: From Question 25 to 30 the equations have become wrong because of the wrong order of signs. Choosethe correct order of signs from the four options given below so as to make the equations right. Write the
alternative number of the correct option on the answer sheet against the corresponding question
number-
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25. 11 2 1 10 (1) (2) (3) (4)
25. 1
Sol. 112 + 1 = 10
26. 15 3 5 50 (1) (2) (3) (4)
26. 2
Sol. 15 3 + 5 = 50
27. 93 7 13 113 (1) (2) (3) (4)
27. 3
Sol. 93 + 7 + 13 = 113
28. 27 5 11 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
28. 4
Sol. 275 = 11 2
29. 72 8 12 21 (1) (2) (3) (4)
29. 1
Sol. 72 8 12 21
30. 12 4 12 3 9
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30. 4
Sol. 12 4 2 3 9
Direction:Question 31 to 36 numbers are placed in figure on the basis of some rules. One place is vacant which is
indicated as (?). figer out the correct alternative for the vacant place and write its number against the
proper question number on your answer sheet-
31.
31 26 15
27 ? 9
(1) 13 (2) 24 (3) 18 (4) 12
31. 3Sol. (31(3+1))= 27
(15(1+5)) = 9
(26-(2+6)) = 18
32. 2 3
1 2 1 1
12
3 4
4 0
15 12 ?
(1) 7 (2) 13 (3) 1 (4) 8
32. 1
Sol. (3 + 2) (2 + 1) = 15
(4 + 2) (1 + 1) = 12
(1 + 0) (3 + 4) = 7
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Direction: Each of the following question 37 to 42 has a group of the words which are related to each other in
some way. This relationship can be represented by one of the four figure alternative given in the
beginning. Find out the correct figure alternative and write its number against the corresponding
questions on your answer sheet-
1 23
4
37. Rose Lion Animal
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3
37. 4
Sol. Lion is a Animal
38. Police Teacher School
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
38. 2
Sol. Teacher is a part of school.
39. Dog Fish Bird
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
39. 1
Sol. All are different.
40. Doctor Nurse Hospital
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
40. 3
Sol. Doctor & Nurse both the parts of Hospital, but both jobs are different
41. Library Almirah Book
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
41. 4
Sol. Books are in Almirah and Almirah are in Library.
42. Family Brother Sister
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
42. 1
Sol. Both Brother and Sister are the parts of family.
Direction: In Question 43 to 46 are based on the diagram given below. In the diagram Triangle represents
students, circle represents player and square represents boys. Read carefully the digits written within the
diagram to choose the correct answer from given alternative and write its numbers against the proper
question number on your answer sheet-
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50. Which boys do not play Volley- ball-?
(1) Ram- Harish (2) Shyam- Deepak (3) Anil- Shyam (4) Shyam- Harish
50. 4
Sol. for Q.47 to Q.50.
Football Hockey Volleyball Cricket Badminton
Ram
Shyam
Anil
Deepak
Harish
47. (3)
48. (2)
49. (1)
50. (4)
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101. The sky appears blue due to:
(1) reflection of light (2) refraction of light
(3) total internal reflection of light (4) scattering of light
101. 4
101. Due to scattering of light.
102. 2 3 2 32 2Fe O Al Al O Fe , this reaction is an example of a:
(1) combination reaction (2) double displacement reaction
(3) decomposition reaction (4) displacement reaction
102. 4
102.2 3 2 3
Fe O 2Al Al O 2Fe
This reaction is an example of displacement reaction.
103. The chemical formula of banking soda is:
(1)3
NaHCO (2)2 3Na CO
(3)2
CaOCl (4)4CaSO
103. 1
103.3
NaHCO , sodium bicarbonate is commonly called as baking soda.
104. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion:
(1) antibiotic (2) analgesic
(3) antacid (4) antiseptic
104. 3
104. Antacids like 2
Mg OH Milk of magnesia are used for treating indigestion.
105. The kidney in human being are a part of the system for:
(1) nutrition (2) respiration
(3) excretion (4) transportation
105. 3
105. The filtration of blood takes place in kidney.
106. The xylem in plants are responsible for:
(1) transport of water (2) transport of food
(3) transport of amino acid (4) transport of oxygen
106. 1
106. Transport of water in plants is through Xylem.
107. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about:
(1) 25 meter (2) 2.5 cm
(3) 25 cm (4) 2.5 meter
107. 3
107. 25 cm
108. The plant hormone is:
(1) insulin (2) thyroxine
(3) oestrogen (4) cytokinin
108. 4
108. The plant hormones include Auxin, Cytokinin, Gibberellins, Abscisic acid, ethylene.
109. The gap between two neurons is called a:
(1) dendrite (2) synapse
(3) axon (4) impulse
109. 2
109. The gap between two neurons is called synapse.
110. The device used for measuring electric current is:
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(1) generator (2) galvanometer
(3) ammeter (4) motor
110. 3
110. ammetre
111. The image produced by a concave lens is always:
(1) real (2) virtual
(3) inverted (4) enlarged111. 2
111. Virtual
112. The unit of electrical energy is:
(1) watt (2) kilowatt
(3) kilowatt per hour (4) kilowatt hour
112. 4
112. kilowatt hours.
113. A solution turns red litmus into blue, its pH is likely to be:
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 10113. 4
113. A solution of pH 10 would be basic and will turn red litmus into blue.
114. The anther contains:
(1) sepals (2) ovules
(3) carpel (4) pollengrains
114. 4
114. Anther is the male part of a flower and contains male gametes in pollen grains.
115. The main factor of depletion of ozone layer is:
(1) chlorofluorocarbons (2) oxygen
(3) sulphur (4) nitrogen115. 1
115. CFCs react with ozone 3O and thus deplete the ozone layer.
116. Which part of the human brain is most developed:
(1) cerebrum (2) cerebellum
(3) hypothalamus (4) medulla oblangeta
116. 1
116. Since birth, cerebrum is the most developed part of the human brain.
117. The full form of T. S. H is:
(1) thyroxin stimulating hormone (2) thymein stimulating hormone(3) tyrocin stimulating hormone (4) thyroid stimulating hormone
117. 4
117. TSH = Thyroid Stimulation Hormone
118. The drugs obtain from plant is:
(1) caolin (2) insulin
(3) magnesium sulphate (4) morphine
118. 4
118. It is an analgesic and narcotic drug obtained from opium (poppy plant)
119. Artificial soap is:
(1) sodium stearate (2) lloril sulphuric acid(3) lloril alcohol (4) sodium lloril sulphate
119. 4
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119. Sodium lauryl sulphate. Soaps are sodium salts of fally acids whereas as detergents are sulphate salts of fallyacids.
120. The example of thermosetting plastic is:
(1) polythene (2) polyvionyl chloride
(3) bakelite (4) polystyrene
120. 3
120. Thermosetting plastics are those which cannot be remoulded. Eg. Bakelite
121. The suitable catalyst in hydrogenation of oil is:
(1) Fe (2) Pt
(3) Ni (4) Mo
121. 3
121.2
H adsorbed on Ni, Pt or Pd is used for the hydrogenation of vegetable oil to vegetable ghee.
122. Sphygmomanometer measure:
(1) blood pressure (2) pulse-rate
(3) heart beat (4) sugar level
122. 1
122. Sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure.
123. A lens have power +5D. This lens will be:
(1) a convex lens of focal length 0.20 m (2) a concave lens of focal length 0.20 m
(3) a convex lens of focal length 0.20 m (4) a concave lens of focal length 0.05 m
123. 3
123. A convex lens of focal length 0.20 m as 1
P Df m
124. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carry current:
(1) is zero (2) decreases as we move towards its end(3) increases as we move towards its end (4) is the same at all points
124. 4
124. Is same for all points0ni
125. Which of the following is incorrect:
(1) 1 ampere 1 second = 1 coulomb (2) 1 coulomb 1 joule = 1 volt
(3) 1 volt 1 coulomb = 1 joule (4) 1 volt 1 ampere = 1 joule per second
125. 2
125. As W = QV 1C 1J 1 volt. So option 2 is in correct.
126. Gene are present:
(1) in cell (2) in nucleus(3) in mitochondria (4) on chromosomes
126. 4
126. Genes are segement of DNA present on chromosomes.
127. Which of the following is made in anaerobic respiration:
(1) ethyl alcohol (2) ethylene
(3) glucose (4) glycerol
127. 1
6 12 6 2 5 22 2 2
Glucose EthylAlcohol
C H O C H OH CO ATP
128. Explosive material is:
(1) picric acid (2) tetracycline
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(3) cellulose nitrate (4) Bakelite
128. 1, 3
128. Both picric acid and cellulose nitrate are used as explosives.
129. A simple pendulum perform 18 oscillation per second the mechanical wave produced by it will be:
(1) sound wave (2) ultrasonic wave
(3) subsonic wave (4) electromagnetic wave
129. 1129. Sound wave but of frequency which is less then audible range.
130. The power of electric power station is 200 mega watt, the electrical energy produced by it daily, will be:
(1) 200 mega watt hour (2) 4800 mega watt hour
(3) 4800 mega watt (4) 48 joule
130. 2
130. Energy produced in 61S 200 10 J.
Energy produced in 1 day6200 10 86400S
101728 10 J
In KWHs =
10
6
1728 1048003.6 10
megawatt hour
131.4MPO is the formula of phosphate of an element. The molecular formula of its nitrate will be:
(1)3
MNO (2) 3 3M NO
(3) 2 3M NO (4) 3 2M NO 131. 2
131. The valeney of the metal is 3. The cation formed is 3M , thus the formula of its nitrate will be 3 3M NO
132. It is written 100 watt250 volt on any bulb its resistance will be:
(1) 25000 ohm (2) 625 ohm(3) 25 ohm (4) 2.5 ohm
132. 2
132.2
/P V R
133. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because:
(1) zinc is costier than tin (2) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(3) zinc is more reactive than tin (4) zinc is less reactive than tin
133. 3
133. As zinc is more reactive than tin thus food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc.
134. The refractive index of glass is maximum for:
(1) red colour (2) yellow colour
(3) violet colour (4) green colour
134. 3
134. Refractive index increases as wave length decreases
135. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye-lens. This
is due to:
(1) presbyopia (2) near-sightedness
(3) accommodation (4) far-sightedness
135. 3
136. Which one of the following is not an acidic salt:(1) 4NaHSO (2) 2 4NaH PO
(3) 3 4Na PO (4) 2 2Na HPO
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136. 3
136.3 4
Na PO is a simple or normal salt. As it does not release H ions in solution.
137. The water solution of2
SO is:
(1) sulphurous acid (2) sulphuric acid
(3) pyrosulphuric acid (4) None of these
137. 1
137.2
SO on dissolving in water forms sulphurous acid
2 2 2 3H O SO H SO
38. Which one of the following is not a semiconductor:
(1) pure silicon (2) pure germanium
(3) germanium with arsenic (4) silver
138. 4
138. Silver is the best conductor of electricity.
139. By which reaction metals are obtained from metal oxide:
(1) liquefaction (2) reduction
(3) calcinaton (4) roasting139. 2
139. Metal oxides on reduction with a suitable reducing agent are converted into metals.
140. One nano meter is equal to:
(1) 109meter (2) 10
6meter
(3) 10-9
meter (4) 10-6
meter
140. 3
140. One nano meter 91nm 10 m
141. By whom Saka Era was start:
(1) Kanishka (2) Ashoka
(3) Harshvardhan (4) Chandra Gupta Second
141. 1
141. Shaka Era was started by Kanishka.
142. Avesta belongs to which religion:
(1) Muslim (2) Hindu
(3) Parsis (4) Christian
142. 3
142. Avesta belongs to Parsis.
143. Which city was founded by Sikandar:
(1) Allahabad (2) Sikandrabad
(3) Jaunpur (4) Agra
143. 4
143. Agra was founded by Sikander Lodi in 1504.
144. Din-E-lllahi was related to:
(1) Akbar (2) Jhangir
(3) Shahjahan (4) Shershah
144. 1
144. Din-e-Illahi was started by Akhar.
145. Who devided the Bengal:
(1) Lord Curzon (2) Lord Minto
(3) Lord Erwin (4) Lord Mountbettan
145. 1
145. Lord Curzon divided Bengal in 1905.
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146. Who among the following was associated with news paper Kesari:
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Subhas Chandra Bose (4) A. O. Hume
146. 2
146. Bal Gangadhar Tilak started the news paper Kesari.
147. Who wrote Chandrakanta:(1) Srinivas Dass (2) Deviki Nandan Khatri
(3) raja ram mohan ray (4) mahatma Gandhi
147. 2
147 Devki Nandan Khati wrote Chandrakanta Santati.
148. Who is called the Grand Old Man of India:
(1) Surendra Nath Banerjee (2) Firozshah Metha
(3) Dadabhai Navroji (4) Motila Nehru
148. 3
148. Dadabhai Navraji was also called Grand Old Man of India.
149. The first women President of the Indian National Congress was:(1) Sucheta Kriplani (2) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(3) Sarojini Naidu (4) Annie Besant
149. 4
149. Annie Besant was the first woman President of Congress in 1917 session of Calcutta.
150. Sankhya Darhan is related with:
(1) Kapil (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Patanjali
150. 1
150. Sankhya Darshan is related with Kapil.
151. The Chipko Movement is associated with:(1) Women rights (2) Child rights
(3) Political rights (4) Forest conservation
151. 4
151. Chipko Movement is associated with Forest conservation.
152. The father of Green Revolution in India is:
(1) Nagarjun (2) M. S. Swaminathan
(3) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (4) Ramanujam
152. 2
152. M.S. Swaminathan is the father of Green Revolution in India.
153. Jharia, Raniganj & Bokaro are famous for:(1) Petroleum (2) Bauxite
(3) Coal (4) Diamond
153. 3.
153. Jharia, Raniganj & Bakaro are famous for Coal.
154. When was the Project Tiger launched:
(1) 1973 (2) 1976
(3) 1978 (4) 1980
154. 1
154. Project Tiger was launched in 1973.
155. Nepanagar is situated at:
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Bihar (4) Rajasthan
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155. 2
155. Nepanagar is situated in Madhya Pradesh.
156. Extreme heat is found on
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Equator
(3) Tropic of Capricorn (4) Antarctic line
156. 2
156. Extreme heat is found on equator.
157. The worlds highest peak is found in
(1) Asia (2) South America
(3) North America (4) Europe
157. 1
157. Worlds largest peak is found in Asia.
158. It is called the Earths twin sister
(1) Mars (2) Saturn
(3) Pluto (4) Venus
158. 4
158. Venus is called as Earths twin sister.
159. Gift of Nile river is called
(1) China (2) Ethophiya
(3) Egypt (4) Sudan
159. 3
159. Egypt is called as gift of Nile river.
160. Air pressure is commonly measured by an instrument called
(1) Speedometer (2) Windvane
(3) Barometer (4) Anemometer
160. 3
160. Air pressure is measured by Barometer.
161. Etna volcano is situated at
(1) Chile (2) Sicily Island
(3) Japan (4) Philippines
161. 2
161. Etna Volcano is situated in Sicily Islands, Italy.
162. The deep narrow valley found in mountaneous region is know as
(1) Gorge (2) Meander
(3) Cliff (4) None of these
162. 1
162. Deep Narrow valley in mountaneous region is called as Gorge.
163. Who was the first chairman of planning commission
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) Lal Bahadur Shastri
163. 2
163. Nehru was the first chairman of Planning Commission.
164. The lowest level of trilevel Panchayati raj is
(1) Nyay Panchayat (2) Block Panchayat
(3) Village Panchayat (4) Zila Panchayat
164. 3
164. Village panchayat is the lowest level of Tri level Panchayati Raj.
165. United Nations organization was founded in
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(1) 24 September 1943 (2) 28 September 1944
(3) 1 November 1944 (4) 24 October 1945
165. 4
165. UN was founded on 24thOctober 1945.
166. How many seats are there in Rajaya Sabha
(1) 250 (2) 245
(3) 233 (4) 145166. 2
166. Rajya Sabha has maximum 250 seats but now at present it is 245 seats.
167. Which of the following is not the fundamental right
(1) Right against exploitation (2) Right to property
(3) Right of freedom of religion (4) Right of equality
167. 2
167. Right to property is not the fundamental right but it is a legal right (Article 300A).
168. Which is the 29th
state of India
(1) Telangana (2) Purvanchal
(3) Uttaranchal (4) Jharkhan168. 1
168. Telangana is the 29thstate of India.
169. The First Indian Scientist who got Noble Prize was
(1) Prafulla Chand Roy (2) Meghanath Saha
(3) Birbal Sahani (4) C.V. Raman
169. 4
169. C.V. Raman was the first Indian Scientist who got Noble prize.
170. Who among the following has been Vice President of India
(1) Justice H.J. Kania (2) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(3) Justice M. Hidayatulla (4) Justice M.N. Venkatchelianh170. 3
170. Justice M. Hidayatulla has been appointed vice-president of India.
171. The retirement age of Supreme Court judges is
(1) 60 Years (2) 62 Years
(3) 65 years (4) 68 years
171. 3
171. The retirement age of supreme court judge is 65 years.
172. The Pradhanmantri Jan-Dhan Yojna is related to
(1) Road Construction (2) Education
(3) Banking (4) Drinking water172. 3
172. Pradhanmantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is related to Banking.
173. When did the community development programme start in India
(1) 1951 (2) 1952
(3) 1958 (3) 1961
173. 2
173. Community development programme started in 1952 in India.
174. The chairman of Neeti Aayog is
(1) Prime Minister (2) President
(3) Vice President (4) Finance Minister174. 1
174. Prime minister is the chairman of Neeti Aayog.
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175. The duration of the 12th
five year plan in India is
(1) 2012-2017 (2) 2014-2019
(3) 2013-2018 (4) 2015-2020
175. 1
175. Duration of 12thfive years plan is India is 2012-2017.
176. Who built the Khajuraho temple(1) Holkars (2) Parmar
(3) Pallav (4) Chandela
176. 4
176. Chandela rulers built Khajuraho Temple.
177. Which of the following is not a source of income of central Government
(1) Custom Duty (2) Income Tax
(3) Central Excise Duty (4) Land Revenue
177. 4
177. Land revenue goes to state government.
178. Which among the following is a developing country(1) France (2) Japan
(3) Argentina (4) Britain
178. 3
178. Among the following Argentina is a developing Country.
179. A crop grown in Zaid is
(1) Water mealon (2) Wheat
(3) Maize (4) Jute
179. 1
179. Water Mealon is a Zaid Crop.
180. White revolution is related with(1) Agricultural (2) Dairy
(3) Fisheries (4) Poultry
180. 2
180. White revolution is related with Dairy.
181. The value of
2
2
1sin
1 tan
is
(1)2sin (2)
2cos
(3)2Sec (4) 1
181. 4
181. 2 2 2 22 21 1sin sin sin cos 1.1 tan sec
182. If sec tan P then the value of2
2
1
1
P
P
is
(1) cos ec (2) sin
(3)tan
sec
(4) 1
182. 2 or 3
182. 2 2 2 2P 1 sec tan 2sec tan 1 2tan 2sec tan
2 tan sec tan
2P 1 2 sec sec tan
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2
2
2 tan sec tanP 1 tansin .
2sec sec tan secP 1
183. If tan a
b then the value of
sin cos
sin cos
b a
b a
is
(1) 1 (2)
2 2
2 2
a b
a b
(3)
2 2
2 2
b a
b a
(4) 0
183. 4
183.b sin a cos
b sin a cos
Dividing Nr. & Dr. by cos
ab a
b tan a 0b 0.ab tan a 2a
b ab
184. If4
sin5
, then value of cos2 is
(1) 8 / 5 (2) 3 / 5
(3) 7 / 3 5 (4) 7 / 2 5 184. 4
184.4
sin5
2 16
sin25
2
cos 2 1 2 sin
161 2
25
7
25
185. Each exterior angle of a regular Polygon of m sides is
(1)360
m
degree (2)360
m
degree
(3)2180
m
degree (4)180
m
degree
185. 2
185. Sum of exterior angles of regular polygon of m sides = 360.
Each exterior angle360
m
186. If two equal circles of radius r passes through centre of the other, then the length of their common chord
is
(1)3
r (2) 3r
(3) 3r (4)2
r 186. 2
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186. In right angled AMO2 2 2OM AM r ... (1)
In right angled AMO
2 2 2MO AM r ... (2) ( OA O A given)
From (1) and (2)
rOM O M
2
22 2r AM r
4 from (1)
2 23AM r4
3AM r
2
AB 3 r
A
O OM
B
Alternate solution
Since 'OAO is an equilateral triangle
3
2
r
AM
2 3AB AM r
187. The H.C.F. of expression 2
1 1x x and 2
1 1x x is
(1) 1 1x x (2) 2
1x
(3) 2
1x (4) 2 2
1 1x x
187. 1
187. Let 2
f x x 1 x 1 and 2
g x x 1 x 1
HCF = (x + 1)(x 1)
188. If a, b and c are any positive real number then the value of1 1 1. .a b b c c a is
(1) 1/ 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1
188. 3
188. 1 1 1 b c a
a b b c c a 1 1.a b c
189. If roots of equation2
2 8 0x x c are equal. Then the value of c will be(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8189. 4
189. Roots of the equation in equal.
2
2
b 4ac 0
8 4 2 c 0
64 8c 0
c 8
190. If mean of 5,10,15,P,20,35,40 is 21. Then the value of P will be
(1) 18 (2) 22
(3) 25 (4) 30
190. 2
190. Mean5 10 15 P 20 35 40
7
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21 7 =125 + P
147 125 = P
P = 22
191. The median of first 10 prime numbers will be
(1) 5 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
191. 3
191. First 10 prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29
Medium
th th
th th
10 101
5 6 11 132 212
2 2 2
192. The equation of a line which passes through points P (4,0) and Q(0,-3) will be
(1) 14 3
x y (2) 7
3 4
x y
(3) 1
4 3
x y (4) 7
3 4
x y
192. 3
192. Using intercept form
x y1
a b Here, a = 4, b = 3
Equation of line will bex y
1.4 3
193. If a numbers is divided by 6, the remainder is 3 then what will be the remainder when the square of the
same numbers is divided by 6 again
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3193. 4
193. Let P be the number
P = 6q + 3
22P 6q 3
2 2
2
36q 36q 9 36q 36q 6 3
6 6q 6q 1 3
Remainder = 3
194. The radius of a sphere is r and radius of base of a cylinder is r and height is 2r. The ratio of their volumes
will be
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
194. 1
194.
3 3
2 3
4 4r r
Volume of sphere 23 3 2 : 3Volume of cylinder 3r h 2 r
195. In two spheres, the radius of first is half than second. Then what will be volume of second in comparison
of first
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(3) 8 times (4)
22
7 times
195. 3
195. Let 1R r
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2R 2r
33
22
311
4R
V 2r3 84V r
R3
2 1V 8V
196. The length of line segment is 3 which is perpendicular on line 4 3 0x y C from the origin. Thenvalue of c will be
(1) 0 (2) 7
(3) 10 (4) 15
196. 4
196. Length of perpendicular from point 1 1P x , y to line ax + by + c is given by
1 1
2 2
ax by cd
a b
d = 3, Point (0, 0)
line 4x + 3y + c = 0
2 24 0 3 0 c3
3 4
c3 c 15
25
197. if 3 8x , then 2 21
xx
will be
(1) 38 (2) 36
(3) 34 (4) 30
197. 3
197.x 3 8
13 8
x
1x 3 8 3 8 6
x
2
2
2
2
1x 2 36
x
1x 34
x
198. If
1 3x xa b
b a
then the value of x will be
(1) 1 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3
198. 3
198.
x 1 x 3a b
b a
x 1 3 xa a
b b
On comparing the exponent, as base is same
x 1 = 3 x
2x = 4
x = 2
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199. If 5, 24x y xy then the value of 2 2x y will be(1) 23 (2) 73
(3) 65 (4) 74
199. 2
199. x y =5. xy = 24
2
x y 25
2 2
2 2
2 2
x y 2xy 25
x y 25 48
x y 73
200. If mode of any series is 9 and median is 7 then mean of that series will be
(1) 6 (2) 6(3) 5 / 3 (4) 5 / 3
200. 2
200. Using formula
mode = 3 median 2 mean.
2 mean = 3 median mode
mean3 7 9
2
mean = 6
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5156 Read the following passages and answer the question that follow:-
Do you know how blueberries grow? They grow on bushes. Each blueberry is small and round. Many
blueberries can grow on one bush. At first the blueberries are green. The green berries are not ready to
eat yet. They need a lot of sun and rain to help then become fat and sweet. When the berries turn blue,
they are ripe and ready to be picked.
Some farmers grow blueberries in big fields. The people who live nearby can earn money by helping to pick
the blueberries. Each one takes a pail out to the field and fills it with blueberries. They work fast so that
they can fill many pails. They want to earn as much money as they can. When they are done picking theirfingers are blue from the juice of the berries!
After the blueberries are picked, they are put into boxes and sent to stores. People buy the blueberries and
take them home to eat. Some people like to wash the berries and eat them one by one. Other people like
to cook with blueberries. They make blueberries muffins and pancakes. No matter how you eat them,
blueberries taste great!
51. The word earn is
(1) Verb (2) Adjective
(3) Adverb (4) Noun
51. 1
52. What is the colour of blueberries before they are ready to be picked?
(1) blue (2) red
(3) green (4) brown
52. 1
53. Where do the blueberry pickers work:
(1) in a barn (2) in a filed
(3) in a forest (4) near a stream
53. 2
54. What happens to blueberries after they are picked:
(1) they are put into boxes (2) they need sun and rain
(3) farmers plant them (4) they become sweet and ripe
54. 1
55. What is the opposite of the word Sweet:
(1) juicy (2) sour
(3) dry (4) sugary
55. 2
56. What could be title for this story:
(1) all about blueberries (2) how to cook with blueberries
(3) eatingblueberries (4) all about strawberries56. 1
5761Based on the notes given complete the biography to present a report
Chanakya
Political shrewdness and diplomacy
helped in establishing the Mauryan empire
Wrote a book called Arthashastra
From poor Brahmin family
Born and educated in Taxila
Chanakya 57.. into a poor Brahmin family. He was born in Taxila and ..58 there. Politically .59
and a great 60., he .61. the book Arthashastra.57. (1) was born (2) educated (3) shrewd (4) diplomat
57. 1
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58. (1) born (2) was educated (3) shrewd (4) diplomat
58. 2
59. (1) was born (2) educated (3) shrewd (4) diplomat
59. 3
60. (1) was born (2) authored/ wrote (3) shrewd (4) diplomat
60. 4
61. (1) was born (2) authored/ wrote (3) shrewd (4) diplomat
61. 2
6271 Fill in the blanks with correct words from the option given below:-
I dont know why, but62 I travel by public transport, the buses are always crowded and ..63 I have to
stand up on the way to work. It may be better 64 I were to leave home earlier. As it is, many
passengers are left behind, ..65. they force those standing to move further down the aisle, I ..66..
have wait for upto twenty minutes for another bus ..67. the one that arrives is full. .68. I have been
late to work a few times. My manager is .69.. sympathetic, I dont think it will be long 70..,
before he beings to lose his patience. Perhaps I should purchase 71. a motorbike or a small car.62. (1) whenever (2) however (3) therefore (4) either
62. 1
63. (1) but (2) if (3) however (4) therefore
63. 4
64. (1) but (2) if (3) else (4) because
64. 2
65. (1) because (2) unless (3) but (4) however
65. 2
66. (1) whenever (2) seldom (3) sometimes (4) either
66. 3
67. (1) else (2) because (3) when (4) therefore
67. 2
68. (1) either (2) if (3) when (4) consequently
68. 4
69. (1) usually (2) but (3) because (4) either
69. 1
70. (1) however (2) whenever (3) while (4) when
70. 3
71. (1) unless (2) although (3) either (4) usually
71. 3
7274 Fill in the blanks with suitable Nounsto complete the sentence-
The girl could not understand .72. inspite of her teachers 73. It was not because of ..74. but
she seemed to lack confidence
72. (1) multiply (2) multiplication (3) to multiply (4) multiplied72. 2
73. (1) explain (2) explained (3) explanation (4) explanatory
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73. 3
74. (1) lazy (2) being lazy (3) laziness (4) weak
74. 3
7585 Read the passages and fill in the blanks with suitable preposition:
One night I was very upset. I decided to go ..75.. a walk. I walked 76.. the lake for a long time.
When I looked ..77..my watch I realized I had been walking for two hours. As I was ..78. my wayback home without realizing I started walking ..79 Sameers house. When I reached sameers room, I
switched ..80. the light. I saw Sameer sitting ..81. his bed 82. Seeing me he raised his head. He
looked very sick. I stood .83.. his bed and he grabbed me .84 both arms. I could see tears..
85. his eyes:
75. (1) off (2) for (3) at (4) on
75. 2
76. (1) At (2) From (3) Along (4) In
76. 3
77. (1) In (2) By (3) At (4) On
77. 3
78. (1) On (2) At (3) Along (4) From
78. 1
79. (1) At (2) Towards (3) On (4) Along
79. 2
80. (1) In (2) Off (3) On (4) By
80. 3
81. (1) In (2) On (3) By (4) At
81. 2
82. (1) At (2) From (3) Of (4) On
82. 4
83. (1) Beside (2) At (3) Between (4) Off
83. 4
84. (1) In (2) From (3) By (4) With
84. 4
85. (1) At (2) On (3) In (4) From
85. 3
Choose the correct spelt word
86. Dificient (2) Deficient (3) Defecient (4) Defisient
86. 2
Select the meaning of given phrasal verbs
87. Break in
(1) disappear (2) destroy (3) enter by force (4) cutting into peices87. 3
Keep on
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88. (1) admit (2) attend (3) over flow (4) continue
88. 4
Do away with
89. (1) retain (2) abolish (3) distribute (4) consider
89. 2
Choose the correct option90. One who knows many language is called
(1) misogynist (2) polyglot (3) Epicure (4) All of these
90. 2
91-94 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternative. When I was speaking to
Ravi over the phone suddenly we were
91. (1) hung up (2) run out (3) broken down (4) cut off
91. 4
92. The farmer had....................land and many servants.
(1) very little (2) some (3) a lot of (4) many92. 3
93. When he got married he............................a life insurance policy
(1) took up (2) took out (3) took in (4) took over
93. 1
94. By the time I reach America, it ....................morning
(1) is (2) would be (3) must be (4) was
94. 2
Select the word which means the opposite of the given word.
95. Despair
(1) belief (2) trust (3) hope (4) faith
95. 3
96. Arrogant
(1) simple (2) timid (3) civilized (4) modest
96. 4
97. Shimmering
(1) Gloomy (2) Glimmering (3) Refreshing (4) Repining
97. 1
98. Dauntless
(1) Daring (2) Forgiving (3) Harsh (4) Timid
98. 4
99. Select the meaning of given phrases/idioms.
Red letter day
(1) Colourful day (2) fatal day (3) Happy less day (4) happy less day
99. 3
100. Turn a deaf ear.
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