10-01-15 sr.iit-z (iz) co-spark jee main ctm-6 q'paper

38
NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY INDIA Sec:Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK REVISION CTMM-6 Dt: 10-01-15 Name of the Student: ___________________ I.D. NO: IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration. 3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Maths having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

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Page 1: 10-01-15 Sr.iit-z (Iz) Co-spark Jee Main Ctm-6 q'Paper

NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY

INDIASec:Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK REVISION CTMM-6

Dt: 10-01-15

Name of the Student: ___________________ I.D. NO:

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball

Point Pen. Use of

pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Maths having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4

(four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct

response of each question. (1/4) (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating

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Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made

if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response

in any question

will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted

accordingly as per

instruction 5 above.

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PHYSICS1. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is doubled and

again heated at constant pressure until its volume is doubled. The average molar heat capacity for the whole process is :

1) 2) 3) 4)

2. Two plane mirrors are joined together as shown in figure. Two point objects O1 and O2 are placed symmetrically such that AO1 = AO2. The image of the two objects is

common if :

1) = 60º 2) = 90º 3) = 30º 4) = 45º3. A half-wave rectifier is used to convert ‘n’ Hz a.c into d.c, then the number of pulses

per second present in the rectified voltage is 1) n 2) n/2 3) 2n 4) 4n

4. Which of the following logic gates the given truth table represents

A B Y0 0 10 1 01 0 01 1 0

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1) XOR gate 2) NOR gate 3) AND gate 4) OR gate5. In the figure shown find the total magnification after two successive reflections first on

M1 & then on M2

1) +1 2) –2 3) +2 4) –1

6. The gate represented by the block diagram is :

Y

A

B

1) AND 2) NOT 3) NAND 4) NOR

7. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is two times the half-life of another radioactive

substance B. Initially the number of nuclei of A and B are and respectively.

After three half lives of A number of nuclei of both are equal. Then the ratio is:

1) 1/4 2) 1/8 3) 4/1 4) 8/1

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8. A uniform rod of length L is moved with constant velocity V in a uniform magnetic

field over the rails as shown in fig. Which of the following directions represents the

direction of magnetic force on an electron moving along the rod.( Uniform magnetic

field is into the plane of the paper).

1) 2) 3) 4)

9. On an X temperature scale, water freezes at – 125.0o X and boils at 375.0o X. On a Y

temperature scale, water freezes at – 70.0o Y and boils at – 30.0o Y. The value of

temperature on X-scale to the temperature of 50.0o Y on Y-scale is :

1) 455.0o X 2) –125.0o X 3) 1375.0o X 4) 1500.0o X

10. The current through a coil of self – inductance is given by at time t.

How long it will take to make the emf zero?

1) 1 s 2) 2 s 3) 3 s 4) 4 s

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11. The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 18KV. The maximum mass of photon emitted

by the X-ray tube will be:

1) 2 X 10–13kg 2) 3.2 X 10–36kg 3) 3.2 X 10–32kg 4) 9.1 X 10–31kg

12. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength , the fastest electron has speed

v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to the speed of the fastest emitted electron

will become

1) 2) 3) less than 4) greater than

13. P-T diagram is shown below then choose the corresponding V-T diagram

1) 2) 3) 4)

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14. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments

of mass number 80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV

and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively, then the energy released in

the decay will be:

1) 200 MeV 2) –220 MeV 3) 220 MeV 4) 180 MeV

15. Switch S is closed for a long time, and at t = 0 it is opened, then :

1) total heat produced in resistor R after opening the switch is

2) total heat produced in resistor R1 after opening the switch is

3) heat produced in resistor R1 after opening the switch is

4) no heat will be produced in R1.

16. A vertical rod of length is moved with constant velocity v towards East. The vertical

component of the earth's magnetic field is B and the angle of dip is . The induced

e.m.f. in the rod is:

1) B v cot 2) B v sin 3) B v tan 4) B v cos Sr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 7

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17. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of wavelength 200 nm can be stopped before travelling 1 m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4 N/C. The work function of the surface is :1) 4 eV 2) 6.2 eV 3) 2 eV 4) 2.2 eV

18. Which of the following frequencies will be suitable for beyond the horizon communication using sky waves?1) 10 KHz 2) 10 MHz 3) 1 GHz 4) 1000 GHz

19. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire in the form of a semicircular loop of

radius r rotates about the diameter of the circle with constant angular frequency . The

axis of rotation is perpendicular to the field . If the total resistance of the semicircular

loop is R, the mean electric power generated per period of rotation is :

1) 2) 3) 4)

20. A circuit containing capacitors C1 and C2 as shown in the figure are in steady state with

key K1 closed and K2 is opened. At the instant t = 0, if K1 is opened and K2 is closed

then the maximum current in the circuit will be :

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1) 1 A 2) 3) 2A 4)

21. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from state A to state B by three different processes,

a) ACB (b) ADB (c) AEB as shown in the P – V diagram. The heat absorbed by the gas

is:

P B

E

A V

DC

1) greater in process (b) then in (a) 2) the least in process (b)

3) the same in (a) and (c) 4) less in (c) then in (b)

22. In the figure shown, the image of a real object O is formed at point I. AB is the

principal axis of the mirror, the mirror must be:

1) concave & placed towards right of I

2) concave & placed towards left of I

3) convex & placed towards right of I

4) convex & placed towards left of I

23. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility

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[(Imax–Imin)/(Imax+Imin)] of the fringes is

1) 4 2) 4/5 3) 3/5 4) 9

24. Interference fringes were produced using a light of wavelength 4800 A0 in a double slit

arrangement. When sheet of uniform thickness of refractive index 1.6 (relative to air) is

placed in the path of light from one of the slits, the central fringe moves some distance.

This distance is equal to the width of 30 interference bands. The thickness (in ) of

sheet is:

1) 90 2) 12 3) 14 4) 2425. Electrons with energy 80 keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X-ray tube.

K – shell electrons of tungsten have 72.5 keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube

contain only:

1) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of

2) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all wavelengths

3) the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten

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4) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of

and the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten

26. In a L-R growth circuit, inductance and resistance used are 1 H and respectively. If at t = 50 millisecond, current in the circuit is 3.165 A then applied direct current emf is:1) 200 V 2) 100 V3) 50 V 4) Data is insufficient to find out the value.

27. A bulb is rated at 100V, 100W, it can be treated as a resistor. Find out the inductance of an inductor (called choke coil) that should be connected in series with the bulb to operate the bulb at its rated power with the help of an source of 200V and 50 Hz.

1) 2) 100 H 3) 4)

28. The value of current in two series LCR circuits at resonance is same when connected across the same sinusoidal voltage source. Then:1) both circuits must be having same value of capacitance and inductor2) in both circuits ratio of L and C will be same3) for both the circuits XL/XC must be same at resonance frequency

4) both circuits must have same impedance at all frequencies.

29. The secondary coil of an ideal step down transformer is delivering 500 watt power at

12.5 A current. If the ratio of turns in the primary to the secondary is

5: 1, then the current flowing in the primary coil will be :

1) 62.5 A 2) 2.5 A 3) 6 A 4) 0.4 A

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30. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses and having non-

zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wave lengths of the particles is:

1) 2) 3) 4)

MATHEMATICS

31. The value of is

1) 22 2) 24 3) 26 4) 28

32. Let , then equals

1) 2) 3) 4)

33. The number of solutions of the equation in is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

34. The number of positive integral values of ‘n’ satisfying the equation

is1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

35. If , then the value of is

1) 0 2) 3) 4)

36. If , then

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1) 2) 3) 0 4)

37. The remainder when divided by 343 is

1) 0 2) 48 3) 102 4) 342

38. In a triangle ABC, if the median AD makes an angle with AC and AB = 2AD then

1) 2) 3) 4) 39. If D is a point of the base BC of an isosceles triangle ABC such that AD is

perpendicular to AC, then a =

1) 2) 3) 4)

40. If 1 2 3, , ,..... nx x x x  are in A.P. whose common difference is , then the value of

1 2 2 3 1sin [sec sec sec sec ..... sec sec ]n nx x x x x x =

1) 1

sin

cos cosn

n

x x

2) 1

sin( 1)

cos cosn

n

x x

3) 1

sin( 1)

cos cosn

n

x x

4) 1

cos( 1)

cos cosn

n

x x

41. Sum of the series is

1) 2) 3) 4)

42. If , then equals

1) 2) 3) 4)

43. If 2sinx – cos2x = 1, then cos2x + cos4x is equal toSr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 13

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1) 1 2) -1 3) 4)

44. The sum of the factors of 9! Which are odd and are of the form , where m is a

natural number is

1) 40 2) 45 3) 51 4) 44

45. The remainder when is divided by 240, is

1) 153 2) 33 3) 73 4) 187

46. Sum of the series is

1) 2) 3) 4)

47. The number of ways of selecting 4 cards of an ordinary pack of playing cards so that

exactly 3 of them are of the same denomination is

1) 2496 2) 3) 4) 2296

48. If three six-faced fair dice are thrown together, the probability that the sum of the

numbers appearing on the dice is 16 is

1) 1/36 2) 1/11 3) 1/2 4) 5/36

49. Out of 21 tickets marked with numbers 1,2, ....,21, three are drawn at random without

replacement. The probability that these numbers are in A.P. is

1) 2) 3) 4)

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50. While shuffling a pack of playing cards, four are accidently dropped. The probability

that the cards that are dropped are one from each suit is

1) 2) 3) 4)

51. The number of points inside or on the circle satisfying

is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

52. If ‘m’ is a natural number such that , then the probability that the quadratic

equation has real roots is?

1)1/5 2) 2/3 3) 3/5 4) 1/5

53. The least number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at

least one head is at least 0.95 is

1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 12

54. If three positive real numbers a, b, c are in A.P. such that abc = 4, then the minimum

possible value of ‘b’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)

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55. If upto , then value of up to is

1) 2) 3) 4)

56. If for and , then equals

1) -1 2) 1 3) 0 4) 2

57. If a, b, c are real and , then the roots of the equation

(are)

1) real and equal 2) real and unequal

3) purely imaginary 4) Cannot be decided

58. Let a > 0, b > 0 and c > 0. Then both the roots of the equation .

1) are real and negative 2) have negative real parts

3) have positive real parts 4) Cannot be decided

59. Let be the roots of and be the roots of . If

are in G.P. then the integral values of p and q respectively, are

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1) -2, -32 2) -2, 3 3) -6, 3 4) -6, -32

60. If , then the equation has

1) real and distinct roots 2) real and equal roots

3) purely imaginary roots 4) Non real roots

CHEMISTRY61. Which alkene will give only optically active product upon catalytic hydrogenation

?

1) 2) 3) 4)

62. Predict the product of the reaction of 1-pentyne and excess HCl in the presence of

hydrogen peroxide.

1) 1,1- dichloropentane 2) 1,2-dichloropentane

3) 2,2-dichloropentane 4) 2-chloro-1-pentene

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63.

1) 2) 3) 4)

C O

O

64. What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

1) 2) 3) 4) 65.

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Compare rate of EAS :

1) 2) 3) 4)

66. Cumene is prepared by :

1) 2)

3) 4) All of these67. Which of the following isomeric hexachlorocylohexanes is least reactive in -

dehydrochlorination on treatment with strong base?

1) 2)

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3) 4) All three are equally reactive

68. Compare rate of reaction with :

i) ii) iii)

1) 2) 3) 4)

69.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

70.

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1) 2)

3) 4) 71. What are the major products from the following reaction ?

1) 2)

3) 4) 72. Which of the following reactions can be used to prepare 3-methyl-3-hexanol,

?

1) 2) Sr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 21

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3) 4) all of these

73.

Product obtained in above reaction are:

1) , 2) ,

3) , 4) EtOH,

74. What is the product of the following reaction?

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1) 2)

3) 4) 75. What is the product of the following reaction?

1) 2) 3) 4) 76. Which of the following compounds is the least reactive towards nucleophilic acyl

substitution?

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1) 2) 3) 4) 77. The Keq values in HCN addition to following aldehydes are in the order:

1) 2) 3) 4) 78. What is the product of the following reaction?

?

1) 2)

3) 4) 79. What is the product of the following reaction?Sr.IIT-Z (IZ)_JEE-MAIN space for rough work Page 24

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1) 2)

3) 4) All of these

80. Consider the reaction

1) 2)

3) 4)

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81. Which of the following is most reactive towards Hoffmann bromamide reaction?

1) 2) 3) 4) 82.

1) 2) 3) 4)

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83. What is the major structure of aspartic acid present at pH = 7 in aqueous solution having PKa

1=2.10, PKa2=3.86 and PKa

3=9.82?

1) 2)

3) 4) 84. Which of the following compounds is a nonreducing sugar?

1) i 2) ii 3) iii 4) iv

85. Which of the following pair will form same osazone?

1) D-Glucose, D-Allose 2) D-Glucose, D-Altrose

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3) D-allose, D-Altrose 4) D-Fructose, D-Galactose

86. In elastomer, intermolecular forces are:

1) Nil 2) Weak 3) Strong 4) Very strong

87. Which of the following polymer, not having C - C bond formation during

polymerisation.

1) Teflon 2) Bakelite 3) Natural rubber 4) Buna-s

88. Absolute alcohol cannot be obtained by simple fractional distillation because:

1) Pure is unstable

2) do not form hydrogen bonds with water

3) Boiling point is very close to that of water

4) Constant boiling azeotropic mixture is formed with water

89. Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid and antihistamines

are used to prevent the action of histamines. Among the following which are

antihistamines?

1) Ranitidine 2) Terfenadine 3) Brompheniramine 4) All of these

90.Above drug is an example of:

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1) Sulpha drug 2) Morphine 3) Analgesic 4) Tranquilizer

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