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[ 6 ] AnswersSCOREGS

environment, especially the marineecosystem, due to human activity, and is aform of pollution.

• Statement 1 is correct: It leads to oxygendepletion due to the formation of oil slicksat the surface of the water.

• Statement 2 is correct : Impact of oil spillon marine lifea. Oil destroys the insulating ability of fur-

bearing mammals, such as sea otters,and the water repellency of a bird'sfeathers, thus exposing these creaturesto the harsh elements.

b. Without the ability to repel water andinsulate from the cold water, birds andmammals will die from hypothermia.

c. Many birds and animals also ingest oilwhen they try to clean themselves, whichcan poison them.

d. Fish and shellfish may not be exposedimmediately, but can come into contactwith oil if it is mixed into the watercolumn. When exposed to oil, adult fishmay experience reduced growth,enlarged livers, and changes in heart andrespiration rates, f in erosion, andreproduction impairment. Oil alsoadversely affects eggs and larval survival.

Oil cleaning mechanism Oil spill in water can be cleaned with the

help of bregoli- by product of paperindustry resembling dust, oil zappermicroorganism developed by CSIR and suchother bioremediation.

Environmental Sensitivity Index (ESI) mapsprovide a concise summary of coastalresources that are at risk if an oil spill occursnearby. When an oil spill occurs, ESI mapscan help responders meet one of the mainresponses.

Statement 3 is correct: The Indian CoastGuard (ICG) is designated as the CentralCoordinating Agency (CCA) for marine oilspill response activities.

12. Correct Option: (b)

Explanation:About Ecological Succession

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Succession is adirectional process that occurs when a seriesof communities replace one another due tolarge scale destruction (natural ormanmade). This process continues with onecommunity replacing another, until a stable,mature community develops.

• The rate of change, the pattern of changeand the limit of development are determinedby the alteration brought about in thephysical environment by the existingcommunity. Succession is therefore, afundamentally biological process.

• Statement 3 is correct: It produces arelatively stable or climax community whichis in dynamic equilibrium with the climate.It has the maximum heterogeneity,community relationship and biomass whilethe net productivity is minimum. The firstplant to colonize an area is called thepioneer community. The final stage ofsuccession is called the climax community.

• The final or climax community is controlledby climate and not the habitat. Thussuccession beginning water or a rock endsup in similar communities under similarclimates. The phenomenon is calledconvergence.

• Two different types of succession-primaryand secondary-have been distinguished.Primary succession occurs in essentiallylifeless areas-regions in which the soil isincapable of sustaining life as a result of suchfactors as lava flows, newly formed sanddunes, or rocks left from a retreating glacier.Secondary succession occurs in areas wherea community that previously existed hasbeen removed; it is typified by smaller-scaledisturbances that do not eliminate all lifeand nutrients from the environment.


Explanation:

About Green Corridor

• Statement 1 is correct: The Green Corridoris a commitment to clean environmentunder the'Swachh Rail-Swachh Bharat'initiative. The green corridor is aimed atcontributing towards the 'Swachh BharatAbhiyan'.

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Answers [7]SCOREGS

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Trains in thegreen corridor have been fitted with bio-toilets, which ensure zero discharge ofhuman waste on the rail tracks. Railwayshave set the target of providing bio-toiletsin all the coaches by September 2019. Thus,it will completely stop discharge of humanwaste from trains onto the ground which inturn would help in improving cleanliness andhygiene.The initiative is also said to bringdown the maintenance cost significantly.

• The 114 km long Rameswaram-Manamadurai stretch in Tamil Nadu is thecountry's first green rail corridor. The Okha-Kanalus and Porbandar-Wasjaliya railwaysections of Gujarat have also been declaredas green train corridors. Two greener railcorridor have been launched by the IndianRailways. The North Western Railway hasdeclared the Barmer-Munawab and PipadRoad-Bilara rail routes in Rajasthan as GreenCorridors.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Railwaydeveloped the environment friendly bio-toilets in association with the DefenseResearch and Development Organisation(DRDO). Bio-toilets store the discharge in abio digester tank, which has anaerobicbacteria, fitted underneath the train coachin a small space. The bacteria has the abilityto convert human fecal matter into waterand small amount of gases like Methane.

14. Correct Option: (d)Explanation:About Gini Coefficient In economics, the Gini coefficient is a

measure of statistical dispersion intendedto represent the income or wealthdistribution of a nation's residents, andis the most commonly usedmeasurement of inequality. It wasdeveloped by the Italian statistician andsociologist Corrado Gini and published inhis 1912 paper Variability and Mutability

Statement 1 is correct: The Gini coefficientmeasures the inequality among valuesof a frequency distribution (for example,levels of income). A Gini coefficient of zeroexpresses perfect equality, where allvalues are the same (for example, whereeveryone has the same income).

Statements 2 are incorrect: The coefficientranges from zero to one, with zerorepresenting perfect equality and oneshowing perfect inequality.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The more theinequality, the more is Gini Coefficient. Themore is the value of Gini Coefficient, themore is gap between rich and poor.


Explanation:About Fiat Money Fiat money is currency that a government

has declared to be legal tender, but it isnot backed by a physical commodity.The value of fiat money is derived from therelationship between supply and demandrather than the value of the material fromwhich the money is made.

Because fiat money is not linked to physicalreserves, it risks becoming worthless dueto hyperinflation. If people lose faith in anation's paper currency, then money will nolonger hold any value. This differs from gold,which, historically, has been used in jewelleryand decoration and has many moderneconomic uses including its use in themanufacture of electronic devices,computers and aerospace vehicles.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fiat moneyconsist Currency notes and coins only.

Statements 2 are correct: They do nothave intrinsic value like gold or silver coin.They are also called legal tenders as theycannot be refused by any citizen of thecountry for settlement of any kind oftransaction.

16. Correct Option: (d)

Explanation:Inflation control mechanism1. Monetary Measures: Statement 1 is Correct: Credit Control:

One of the important monetary measuresis monetary policy. The central bank of thecountry adopts a number of methods tocontrol the quantity and quality of credit.For this purpose, it raises the bank rates,


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sells securities in the open market, raises thereserve ratio, and adopts a number ofselective credit control measures, such asraising margin requirements and regulatingconsumer credit. Monetary policy may notbe effective in controlling inflation, if inflationis due to cost-push factors. Monetary policycan only be helpful in controlling inflationdue to demand-pull factors.

Demonetisation of Currency: However,one of the monetary measures is todemonetise currency of higherdenominations. Such a measures are usuallyadopted when there is abundance of blackmoney in the country.

Issue of New Currency: The most extrememonetary measure is the issue of newcurrency in place of the old currency. Underthis system, one new note is exchanged fora number of notes of the old currency. Thevalue of bank deposits is also f ixedaccordingly. Such a measure is adoptedwhen there is an excessive issue of notesand there is hyperinflation in the country. Itis a very effective measure. But is inequitablefor its hurts the small depositors the most.

2. Fiscal Measures: Monetary policy alone is incapable of

controlling inflation. It should, therefore, besupplemented by fiscal measures. Fiscalmeasures are highly effective for controllinggovernment expenditure, personalconsumption expenditure, and private andpublic investment.

Reduction in Unnecessary Expenditure:The government should reduce unnecessaryexpenditure on non-development activitiesin order to curb inflation. This will also put acheck on private expenditure which isdependent upon government demand forgoods and services. But it is not easy to cutgovernment expenditure. Though thismeasure is always welcome but it becomesdifficult to distinguish between essentialand non-essential expenditure.

Increase in Taxes: To cut personalconsumption expenditure, the rates ofpersonal, corporate and commodity taxesshould be raised and even new taxes shouldbe levied, but the rates of taxes should notbe as high as to discourage saving,investment and production. Rather, the taxsystem should provide larger incentives tothose who save, invest and produce more.

Statement 2 and 3 are Correct: Thegovernment can take the following FiscalMeasures to contain inflation: ReducingImport Duties, Allowing imports of thecommodities which are scarce in market,Removing levy obligations in case of sugar,Banning exports of commodities such riceand oils, Raising the stock limit of somecommodities. Making available thecommodities via various organizations suchas NAFED and NCCF.


Explanation:

About Bitcoin Statement 1 is correct: Bitcoin is a crypto

currency, a form of electronic cash. It is adecentralized digital currency without acentral bank or single administrator that canbe sent from user to user on the peer-to-peer bitcoin network without the need forintermediaries.

Statement 2 is correct: Bitcoin is one ofthe first digital currencies to use peer-to-peer technology to facilitate instantpayments. The independent individuals andcompanies who own the governingcomputing power and participate in theBitcoin network, also known as "miners," aremotivated by rewards (the release of newbitcoin) and transaction fees paid in bitcoin.

Statement 3 is correct: RBI points outthose users who expose themselves topotential financial, legal and security-relatedrisks when they deal in virtual currencies likebitcoin.

Transactions are verified by network nodesthrough cryptography and recorded in apublic distributed ledger called a block chain.Bitcoin was invented by an unknown personor group of people using the name SatoshiNakamoto]and released as open-sourcesoftware in 2009.

Bitcoins are created as a reward for a processknown as mining. They can be exchangedfor other currencies, products, and services.Research produced by the University ofCambridge estimates that in 2017, therewere 2.9 to 5.8 million unique users using acrypto currency wallet, most of them usingbitcoin.


Answers [9]SCOREGS

Bitcoin is a form of digital currency, createdand held electronically. They aren't printed,like rupees or dollars.Satoshi Nakamotoproposed bitcoin, which was an electronicpayment system based on mathematicalproof.Bitcoin is created digitally, by acommunity of people that anyone can join.Bitcoins are 'mined', using computing powerin a distributed network. It's the f irstexample of a growing category of moneyknown as crypto currency.


Explanation:About Mass movementMass movement, also known as slopemovement or masswasting, is the geomorphicprocess by which soil, sand, regolith, and rockmove downslope typically as a solid, continuousor discontinuous mass, largely under the forceof gravity, but frequently with characteristicsof a flow as in debris flows and mudflows. Thefour main types are landslides, mudflows, soilcreep and slump.

Factors affecting mass movement are:• Statement 1 is correct

Slope. - Gravity provides the energy to movethe materials. The steeper the slope, thestronger the friction or rock strength mustbe to resist down slope motion. The

steepest angle a slope can be before theground will slide is about 35 degrees, calledthe angle of repose.

• Statement 2 is correct.Vegetation. - Lack of vegetation cover andother binding agents from over the originalslope surfaces reduces the soil cohesion andincreases the susceptibility of massmovement.

• Statement 3 is correct

Water. -The amount of water in the soil is amajor factor in the stability of a slope. Thatis because water has surface tension. So alittle water can actually prevent slopes fromsliding. But too much water lubricates theindividual grains of sediment decreasingfriction between each grain, so the possibilityof mass wasting increases. The increase ofwater within the soils can come from overwatering, pipe or swimming pool leaks, orprolonged stormy weather. In Utah andmany mountainous regions, spring runoffof snow melt increases the water contentwithin the soil.

• Rock structure. - Joints dipping downslopeusually assists landslides, rock falls, rockslide,rock creep..... etc.

• Vibrations - loosening of soil particles.

Erosion at theslop toe

HeavyRainfall

Weathering

Persistent rainfallHeavy

Rainfall

OverloadingUpper Slope

TriggeringCausal Factors

Preparatorycausal factors

STABLE MARGINALLYSTABLE

ACTIVELYUNSTABLE

FAILURE


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Other pre-requisites for mass movement are:(i) Removal of support from below to materials

above through natural or artificial means;

(ii) Overloading through addition of materialsnaturally or by artificial filling; (iii) occurrenceof earthquakes, explosions or machinery;(iv)heavy drawdown of water from lakes,reservoirs and rivers leading to slow outflowof water from under the slopes or riverbanks;


Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Meanders are

formed when load carrying capacity of theriver decreases drastically. They are typicalof the middle and lower course of a river.This is because vertical erosion is replacedby a sideways form of erosion called lateralerosion, plus deposition within thefloodplain.

About Meanders Statement 3 is correct. A meander is a

curve in a river. Meanders form a snake-like pattern as the river flows across a fairlyflat valley floor. The position of the curveschanges over time. The river erodessediment on the outside of the curves anddrops it on the inside of curves. This isbecause the water moves fastest on theoutside of a turn. Water does this becauseit tries to find the path with the weakestresistance. Slip off slopes are formed on theinside or the convex side of the bend fromdeposition and river cliffs or cut off banksare formed on the outside or the concaveof the bend from erosion.

Statement 2 is correct. Further asmeanders grows into deep loops,the samemay get cut-off due to erosion at theinflection points and turn into ox-bow lakeswith two outside bending together to makea shorter route for the water flow.

20. Correct Option: (d)Explanation:About Coriolis force Statement 1 is correct. Coriolis force is an

apparent force that as a result of the earth’srotation about its axis deflects movingobjects (such as projectiles or air currents)to the right in the northern hemisphere andto the left in the southern hemisphere in

accordance to the Ferrell’s law .Thisdeflection is more when the wind velocity ishigh.

The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to thepressure gradient force. The pressuregradient force is perpendicular to an isobar.The higher the pressure gradient force, themore is the velocity of the wind and thelarger is the deflection in the direction ofwind.


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As a result of these two forces operatingperpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it.

Statement 2 is correct. The Coriolis forceis directly proportional to the angle oflatitude. The rate of change of rotationalspeed is zero at equator and increases polewards being maximum at the poles. Hence,Coriolis Effect is zero at equator andmaximum at poles.

Statement 3 is correct. At the equator, theCoriolis force is zero and the wind blowsperpendicular to the isobars. The air tendsto flow straight into low pressure centresand low pressure gets f illed instead ofgetting intensified. That is the reason whytropical cyclones are not formed near theequator.

21. Correct Option: (d)Explanation:About Deltas Statement 1 is correct. When a river

reaches a lake or the sea the water slowsdown and loses the power tocarry sediment. The sediment is dropped atthe mouth of the river. Some rivers drop somuch sediment that waves and tides can’tcarry it all away. It builds up in layers forminga delta.

Some deltas are so large that people canlive on them. The Nile delta is a veryimportant farming area in Egypt.

Deltas have a fairly flat section called a deltaplain that is above water. The river cuts manysmall channels through the delta plain.These channels are called distributaries. Newsections of delta build up at the mouths ofthe distributaries.

The rest of the delta is under water. There isa steeply sloping delta front that faces thelake or ocean. The prodelta is furthest awayfrom the mouth of the river and is deepestunder water.

Deltas have different shapes depending onhow much sediment is deposited by the rivercompared to how much sediment is erodedand redeposited by waves and tides.

A river dominated delta, such as theMississippi delta, Louisiana, USA, issometimes called a bird’s foot delta becauseof its shape. Long, narrow mounds of

sediment called levees build up along thesides of the narrow distributary channels

Tide dominated deltas have long andnarrow offshore bars or islands at the mouthof the river, such as in Western Papua NewGuinea.

Wave dominated deltas look like a flattenedtriangle. The lines running across the deltaare ridges that formed as the delta built upin Caravelas, Brazil.

About Point Bars Statement 2 is correct. Pointbar is a

depositional feature made of alluvium thataccumulates on the inside bendof streams and rivers below the slip-offslope in a linear fashion. Point bars are foundin abundance in mature or meanderingstreams.

They are crescent-shaped and located onthe inside of a stream bend, being verysimilar to, though often smallerthan, towheads, or river islands.

They are almost uniform in profile and inwidth and contain mixed sizes of sediments.These sediments are well sorted andrepresent the overall capacity of river.

They also have a very gentle slope andan elevation very close to water level. Sincethey are low-lying, they are often overtakenby floods and can accumulate driftwood andother debris during times of high waterlevels. Due to their near flat topography andthe fact that the water speed is slow in theshallows of the point bar they are popularrest stops for boaters and rafters.

Similar to point bar is an erosional featurecut bank. As a river flows across the land, iterodes the soil and makes banks. This cut

Cut bank

Cut bank



bank also known as river cliff or a river-cutcliff is a bank that is nearly vertical banksare formed on the outside of a bend in ariver. These are caused the by the movingwater of the river wearing away the earth.

About Alluvial Fans An alluvial fan is a triangle-

shaped deposit of gravel, sand, and evensmaller pieces of sediment, such as silt. Thissediment is called alluvium.

Statement 3 is Correct. Alluvial fans areusually created as flowing water interactswith mountains, hills, or the steep wallsof canyons. Streams carrying alluvium canbe trickles of rainwater, a fast-moving creek,a powerful river, or even runoff fromagriculture or industry. As a stream flowsdown a hill, it picks up sand and otherparticles—alluvium.

The rushing water carries alluvium to aflat plain, where the stream leavesits channel to spread out. Alluvium isdeposited as the stream fans out, creatingthe familiar triangle-shaped feature.

A bajada is the convergence, or blending, ofmany alluvial fans. Bajadas are common indry climates and can be narrow, from theflow of two or three streams of water, orthey can be wide, where dozens of alluvialfans converge.

Alluvial fans and bajadas are often foundin deserts, where flash floods wash alluviumdown from nearby hills. They can also befound in wetter climates, where streams aremore common.

Alluvial fans are even found underwater.A subaqueous fan is created as anunderwater current deposits alluvium froma submarine hill or glacier.

Sometimes, fans are formed without the aidof water. These are called colluvial fans.Colluvial fans are created by masswasting. Mass wasting is simply thedownward movement of rock, soil, or othermaterial. Alluvium is material transported bywater, while colluvium is materialtransported by mass wasting. Landslides arean instance of mass wasting that oftencreate colluvial fans.

A debris cone is a type of alluvial fan with asteep slope, closer to the shape of a half-cone than a flat fan. Debris cones can be

created by the slow accumulation ofalluvium over many centuries. They can alsoform as boulders and other large materialsgather during landslides, floods, or otherinstances of mass wasting.

22. Correct Option: (a)Explanation:About Velds Veld is a type of wide open rural landscape

in Southern Africa. Particularly, it is a flat area covered in grass

or low scrub, especially in the countries ofSouth Africa, Lesotho, Swaziland, Zimbabweand Botswana. Discontinuous grassesexpose the barren surfaces.

A certain sub-tropical woodland ecoregionof Southern Africa has been officially definedas the Bushveld by the World Wide Fundfor Nature.

Trees are found only in a few places-frost,fire and grazing animals allow grass to growbut prevent the growth of trees.

The soils are not very fertile in the Veldsbecause the climate of Velds is highlyvariable. It does not receive much rainfall.The rainfall received is only in summers thattoo in the form of high energythunderstorms.

Damaging drought affects at least half thearea about once every three or four years;it reduces plant and animal biomass tosustainable levels again. Everywhere theaverage number of hours of annualsunshine varies from 60 to 80 percent ofthe total amount possible.

Where the land is fertile crops are grown.The main crops are maize, wheat, barley, oatsand potato. Cash crops like tobacco,sugarcane and cotton are also grown.

The mineral content of the land is also notsuch as to support forests and thickvegetation which requires high fertility. TheVelds are therefore only grassland region.

23. Correct Option: (c)

Explanation:Shangri-La Dialogue: Statement 1 is correct: It is an inter-

governmental security forum held annually


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by an independent think tank, theInternational Institute for Strategic Studies(IISS) which is attended by defenseministers, permanent heads of ministriesand military chiefs of 28 Asia-Pacific states.

Statement 2 is correct: The IISS convenedthe 17th Asia Security Summit: The IISSShangri-La Dialogue, from 1-3 June 2018in Singapore.

The forum gets its name from the Shangri-La Hotel in Singapore where it has been heldsince 2002.

The summit serves to cultivate a sense ofcommunity among the most importantpolicymakers in the defense and securitycommunity in the region.

Member Countries: Australia, Brunei, Burma(Myanmar), Cambodia, Canada, Chile,France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Japan,Laos, Malaysia, Mongolia, New Zealand,Pakistan, China, Philippines, Russia, SouthKorea, Sri Lanka, Singapore, Sweden,Thailand, East T imor, United Kingdom,United States and Vietnam.

Significance: Shangri-La has contributed tothe enhancement of defense diplomacy byparticipating countries, in part by inspiringsimilar forums in other regions (e.g. theHalifax International Security Forum).


Explanation:

Global Peace Index:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a reportproduced by the Institute for Economics andPeace (IEP) with data collected and collatedby the Economist Intelligence Unit.

Statement 2 is correct. India has movedup four places to the 137th rank among163 countries on the 2018 Global PeaceIndex. In 2018, when the year 2017 isassessed, India’s rank moved up to 136. Itis due to a reduction in the level of violentcrime driven by increased law enforcement,according to a report.

GPI measures the relative position ofnations’ and regions’ peacefulness. It ranks163 independent states and territoriesaccording to their levels of peacefulness.

Iceland remains the most peaceful countryin the world, a position it has held since2008.

New Zealand, Austria, Portugal andDenmark also sit in the top five mostpeaceful rankings.

Nepal moved up from 93 to 84. Sri Lankamoved up from 80 to 67. Pakistan movedfrom 152 to 151.

However Bhutan has slipped from 13 to 19and Bangladesh moved from 84 to 93.

Syria remains the least peaceful country inthe world, a position it has held for the pastfive years.

25. Correct Option: (a)

Explanation:

S-400 Triumf air defence systems:

India is planning to buy five S-400 Triumfair defence systems for around $4.5 billionfrom Russia. The United States is trying todiscourage India from buying large defencesystems from Russia, an action that mayattract sanctions.

US President Donald Trump in August 2017,signed the Countering America’s Adversariesthrough Sanction Act or CAATSA thatimposes sanctions on a country or utilityfor any significant purchase of militaryequipment from Russia.

The S-400 Triumf air defence systems:

– It is an anti-aircraft weapon systemdeveloped in the 1990s by Russia.

– It is long-range air defence missile systemis one of most advanced long-range defencesystems in the world.

Statement 1 is correct. It has capability todestroy incoming all airborne targets atranges of up to 400 km.

– The S-400 uses four missiles to fill itsperformance envelope: the very-long-range40N6 (400 km), the long-range 48N6 (250km), the medium-range 9M96E2 (120 km)and the short-range 9M96E (40 km).

Statement 2 is Incorrect. China was firstforeign country to seal a government-to-



government deal with Russia to procure thislethal missile system in 2014.


Explanation:Dam Rehabilitation and ImprovementProject (DRIP): It is proposed to extend DRIP for a period

of two year i.e. up to June 2020 in view ofanticipated complexities in some of theimportant activities of DRIP.

Statement 1 is correct. Objective: Toimprove the safety and operationalperformance of selected existing dams andassociated additions in a sustainablemanner, and to strengthen the dam safetyinstitutional setup of participating States /Implementing Agencies.

Project was started in April 2012 andscheduled completion is June 2018.

The projects operate across the seven statesof India, namely Jharkhand (DVC),Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha,Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand (UJVNL).

Statement 2 is incorrect. It is an externally-aided project. 80 per cent of the total projectis provided by the World Bank as loan/creditand remaining 20 per cent is borne by theStates / Central Government (for CWC).

Statement 3 is correct. It is implementedunder the Ministry of Water Resources, RiverDevelopment and Ganga Rejuvenation.

The scope of project includes thedevelopment of appropriate institutionalmechanisms for safe operation andmaintenance of all large dams inparticipating states.

Strengthening of the institutional setup fornational level dam safety surveillance andguidance would be taken up in CentralWater Commission.

Implementation Agencies: Water ResourcesDepartments and State Electricity Boards inthe participating States and Central WaterCommission at Central Level.

The over progress of DRIP is beingmonitored by National Level SteeringCommittee (NLSC).


Explanation:Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): Statement 3 is correct. India was the only

member state dissenting voice against theBelt and Road Initiative (BRI) programme inthe joint declaration that was signed on 10June 2018 following the conclusion of theShanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)summit in Qingdao, China.

Statement 1 is correct. It is a Eurasianpolitical, economic, and security organizationestablished on 19 September 2003.

Member Countries: China, Kazakhstan,Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, andUzbekistan.

The original six nations, with the exceptionof Uzbekistan, were previously members ofthe Shanghai Five Group, founded on 26April 1996 in Shanghai.

Statement 2 is incorrect. India andPakistan joined SCO as full members on 9June 2017 at a summit in Astana,Kazakhstan.

It is the largest regional organisation in theworld in terms of geographical coverage andpopulation, covering three-fifths of theEurasian continent and nearly half of thehuman population.

It is one of the world’s most powerful andinfluential organisations.


Explanation:Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency: Economic Survey 2016-17 stressed on the

need to establish a centralised Public SectorAsset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) in viewof rising bank NPAs and declining creditgrowth.

Twin Balance Sheet problem indicate theweakened financial positions of the Public-Sector Banks (PSBs) and some largecorporate houses. The Survey, whileexamining the failure of existing initiativeslike (ARCs, JLF, SDR, S4A etc.), argues forthe creation of a dedicated government runasset reconstruction agency.


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The PARA is proposed as a governmentowned and managed agency that deals withbad assets of PSBs.

It is set up to buy bad loans from state-runbanks so that the lenders can be relieved ofa problem that has been weighing on theirperformance, and can shift focus to lending.

Working:– It will be an independent entity that will

identify the largest and most troublesomeNPA accounts held by banks and willpurchase the loans of the over-indebtedinfrastructure and steel firms.

– Then it will try to work out using severalmethodologies, one of them being theprofessional assessment of value-maximizing strategy to come to a conclusionas to how these debts can be paid andwritten off.

By consolidating problem accounts acrossbanks, the PARA is expected to solve twoproblems:

– It can effect speedier settlements withborrowers by cutting out individual banks.

– As a single large lender, it can drive a betterbargain with borrowers and take morestringent enforcement action against them.

PARA is expected to raise capital for its buy-outs by issuing government securities,tapping the capital markets or receiving acapital infusion from the RBI.

Such a step will help the economy to tideover the bad asset problem which ishindering Indian's economic growth.


Explanation:Statement 1 is Incorrect: Rishabhadeva orAdinatha was the f irst tir thankaras.Parshwnatha was tirthankaras just beforeMahaviraAbout Mahavira: He is considered the last Tirthankara. He was born at Kundagrama near Vaisali. His parents were Kshatriyas. Father -

Siddhartha (Head of Jnatrika Clan); Mother- Trishala (Sister of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka).(Chetaka's daughter married Haryanka KingBimbisara).

He was married to Yasoda and had adaughter Anojja or Priyadarsana.

At the age of 30, Vardhaman renounced hishome and became a wandering ascetic.

He also observed self-mortification.

After 13 years of penance, he attained thehighest spiritual knowledge called KevalaJnan. He attained this at Jimbhikagramavillage under a sal tree aged 42. This is calledKaivalya. Thereafter, he was called Mahavira,Jina, Jitendriya (one who conquered hissenses), Nigrantha (free from all bonds) andKevalin.

He preached his teachings for 30 years anddied at Pava (near Rajagriha) aged 72.

Statement 2 is Correct. Mahavira addedonly 5th teaching of Brahmacharya (chastity)in Parshwanatha's teachings.Parshwanatha's teachings were Ahimsa,Satya, Asteya and aprarigraha.

Mahavira rejected Vedic principles.

He did not believe in God's existence.According to him, the universe is a productof the natural phenomenon of cause andeffect.

Statement 3 is Correct. He believed inKarma and transmigration of the soul. Thebody dies but soul does not.

One will be punished or rewarded as perone's karma.

Advocated a life of austerity and non-violence.

Stressed on equality but did not reject thecaste system unlike Buddhism. But he alsosaid that man may be 'good' or 'bad' as perhis actions and not birth.

Asceticism was taken to a great length.Starvation, nudity and self-mortificationwere expounded.

Two elements of the world: Jiva (conscious)and Atma (unconscious).


Explanation:Statement 1 is Incorrect: The BardoliSatyagraha was organized to reduce thesufferings of Kali Paraj peasants.



The Hali system, though was prevalent in southGujarat, was a speciality of Bardoli. This systemis based on the tribal agricultural labourers andthe high caste landlords, that is, Patidars. TheHali system was largely responsible for Bardolisatyagraha.About The Bardoli Satyagraha: Statement 2 is Correct. The movement

was led by Vallabhbhai Patel, and its successgave rise to Patel becoming one of the mainleaders of the independence movement. Itwas a major episode of civil disobedience.

In 1925, the taluka of Bardoli in Gujaratsuffered from floods and famine, causingcrop production to suffer and leavingfarmers facing great financial troubles.

However, the government of the BombayPresidency had raised the tax rate by 30%that year, and despite petitions from civicgroups, refused to cancel the rise in the faceof the calamities.

The situation for the farmers was graveenough that they barely had enoughproperty and crops to pay off the tax, letalone for feeding themselves afterwards.

An extensive network of mobilising thepeasants was made. Regular meetings,speeches, distribution of pamphlets, door-to-door persuasion and other things ofpropaganda were taken up by thevolunteers. The important point is that theorganisation of movement was so very wellexecuted that the peasants of the wholetaluka demonstrated their strengththrough rallies and strikes to thegovernment.

The government of Bombay became sternand took all repressive measures such asattachment of land, and crops, andconfiscation of cattle and other movableproperty. The government forfeited a largechunk of land, say 50,000 acres.

At their level, the agitating peasantsboycotted all government officials andpurchasers of auctioned property. And, thus,drove them to desperation. In short, thegovernment's handling of Bardoli agitationwas both impolite and crude.

The British government thus had highstakes in the Bardoli agitation. The SimonCommission was about to come in Indiaand the Congress declared that it would

have nation-wide boycott of the SimonCommission. Looking to the nationalimportance of Bardoli the Britishgovernment took a soft-line. Sardar Patelwas contacted and some kind of agreementwas struck.


Explanation:

About the Mahalwari System: Statement 1 is Correct. This kind of

tenancy was introduced during the Britishrule. It was introduced in Agra, Awadh(Oudh), Central parts of India, Punjab, partsof Gangetic valley etc during regime ofWilliam Bentick.

Muslim tradition was instrumental in theemergence of the Mahalwari system.

So far as the Mahalwari tenure wasconcerned, the village lands were held jointlyby the village communities.

Statement 2 is Correct. Mahal refers toan estate with many cultivators. InMahalwari system, all the proprieties of aMahal were jointly and severally responsible,in their persons and property, for the sumassessed by the government on that Mahal.

The ruralites were jointly and severallyresponsible for the payment of landrevenue.

The lands held by the village communitieswere either cultivated by the members ofthe village communities themselves, or wereleased out to others on rent. Period of'settlement', fixation of the land revenue etc.were different in different mahalwari areas.

The village headman was entrusted with theresponsibility of collecting the land revenueand depositing it in the treasury.

In return he received 5 per cent ascommission. The greatest drawback of theMahalwari system was that through thepresence of certain intermediaries itcontributed to the presence of absenteelandlords.

The Zamindari as well as the Ryotwari Systemcould not fulfill the expectations of thepolicymakers.


Answers [17]SCOREGS


Explanation: Statement 3 is Incorrect: Under the

Pallavas Buddhism and Jainism graduallylost importance and Hinduism and theirsects gained importanceFacts About the Pallavas

Statement 1 is Correct. Most of theinscriptions of the Pallavas were written inSanskrit and Kanchi was the seat of Sanskritlearning in the south.

Statement 2 is Correct. Dandi was thecourt poet of NarshimhaVarman II.

During the Pallava rule the Jain and Buddhistteachers lost their importance. Shaivism andVaishnavism gained importance.

Mahendravarman-I was a great patron ofart and architecture and built thePancharathas of Mahabalipuram. He alsowrote Mattavilasa Prahasana or 'The Farceof Drunken Sport', a celebrated ancientIndian satirical play. Further, the rock cuttemples at Mahabalipuram were alsoexcavated by the Pallavas most probablyunder Mahendravarman I.

His son Narsimhmvarman-I defeated andkilled his Chalukyan counterpart Pulkesin IIin 642 AD. After this victory, he assumedthe title "Vatapikonda" after sacking thecapital Vatapi (Badami) of Chalukyas.

Huen Tsang visited the Pallava kingdomduring the reign of Narsimhavarman-I.


Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect: Ardeshrir Dalal

was the Chairman of Planning Board set upin 1944 and not B R Ambedkar.About B R Ambedkar:

Ambedkar set up All India Schedule CasteFederation, National Labour Party andRepublican Party of India.

Ambedkar was part of Advisory Committeeon Defence and Labour Minister in ExecutiveCouncil. (All India Untouchability league wasestablished by Kanshi Ram. All Indiadepressed class league was established byMK Gandhi).

In January, 1920, Ambedkar had alsostarted a weekly paper called 'Mooknayak'(Leader of the Dumb) to champion thecause of the depressed classes in India.

Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was the firstorganization formed by Dr. Ambedkar in1924.

He attended all three round tableconferences conducted by the Britishgovernment.

In July 1942, Ambedkar was appointed themember of Executive Council of Viceroy asa Labour member. He resigned from this postin May 1946.

Statement 3 is Correct. The Reserve Bankof India (RBI), was based on the ideas thatAmbedkar presented to the Hilton YoungCommission.

Statement 2 is Correct. Ambedkar wastrained as an economist, and was aprofessional economist until 1921, when hebecame a political leader. He was also thefirst law minister of independent India.

He wrote three scholarly books oneconomics:

Administration and Finance of the East IndiaCompany

The Evolution of Provincial Finance in BritishIndia

The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin andIts Solution.


Explanation:

About the English East India Company:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: English Companywas private enterprise- this created a senseof enthusiasm and self-confidence amongpeople.

With less government control over it, thiscompany could take instant decisions whenneeded.

They were a public company which couldraise the money very easily.

The British government merely providedarmy and navy when required but itsexecutive control was held by the companyitself which made it more effective.



About the French East India Company:

Statement 2 is Incorrect: French Companywas state sponsored, controlled by Frenchgovernment hemmed in by governmentpolitics and delays in decision making.

French revolution also created hindrancesto its decision making.

It was affected with corruption since theofficials were directly appointed by thegovernment.


Explanation:Education during British India Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Orientalists

opined that western sciences andliterature should be taught to preparestudents to take up jobs, emphasis shouldbe placed on expansion of traditional Indianlearning.

Statement 2 is correct: Even the Anglicistswere divided over the question of mediumof instruction-one faction was for Englishlanguage as the medium, while the otherfaction was for Indian languages(vernaculars) for the purpose.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Hunter'sCommission strongly recommended thepromotion of both technical and women'seducation in India.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: Universities ofCalcutta, Madras and Bombay wereestablished on the recommendations ofWood's Dispatch.

Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), this famousminute settled the row in favor of Anglicists-the limited government resources were tobe devoted to teaching of western sciencesand literature through the medium ofEnglish language alone. Lord Macaulay heldthe view that "Indian learning was inferiorto European learning"-which was true as faras physical and social sciences in thecontemporary stage were concerned.

The Government soon made English as themedium of instruction in its schools andcolleges and opened a few English schoolsand colleges instead of a large number ofelementary schools, thus neglecting masseducation.

About Wood's Dispatch:

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a dispatch onan educational system for India. Considered the"Magna Carta of English Education in India",this document was the first comprehensiveplan for the spread of education in India.

It asked the Government of India to assumeresponsibility for education of the masses,thus repudiating the 'downward filtrationtheory', at least on paper.

It systematised the hierarchy fromvernacular primary schools in villages atbottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular HighSchools and an affiliated college at thedistrict level, and affiliating universities in thepresidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay andMadras.

It recommended English as the medium ofinstruction for higher studies andvernaculars at school level.

It laid stress on female and vocational,education, and on teachers' training.

It laid down that the education imparted ingovernment institutions should be secular.

It recommended a system of grants-in-aidto encourage private enterprise.

About Hunter's Commission:

The Hunter Commission mostly confined itsrecommendations to primary and secondaryeducation. The commission-

Emphasised that state's special care isrequired for extension and improvement ofprimary education, and that primaryeducation should be imparted throughvernacular.

Recommended transfer of control of primaryeducation to newly set up district andmunicipal boards.

Recommended that secondary (HighSchool) education should have twodivisions- literary-leading upto universityand vocational-for commercial careers.

Drew attention to inadequate facilities forfemale education, especially outsidepresidency towns and maderecommendations for its spread.


Answers [19]SCOREGS


Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution

has declared Hindi and English to be thelanguages for transacting business in theParliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The presidingoff icer can permit any member (notnecessarily minister) to address the Housein his mother-tongue

Functioning of the Indian Parliament:Language in Parliament:The Constitution has declared Hindi andEnglish to be the languages for transactingbusiness in the Parliament. However, thepresiding officer can permit a member toaddress the House in his mother-tongue.

In both the Houses, arrangements aremade for simultaneous translation. ThoughEnglish was to be discontinued as a floorlanguage after the expiration of fifteen yearsfrom the commencement of theConstitution (that is, in 1965), the OfficialLanguages Act (1963) allowed English to becontinued along with Hindi.

Rights of Ministers and AttorneyGeneral:

Statement 3 is Correct. In addition to themembers of a House, every minister andthe attorney general of India have the rightto speak and take part in the proceedingsof either House, any joint sitting of both theHouses and any committee of Parliamentof which he is a member, without beingentitled to vote.

There are two reasons underlying thisconstitutional provision:

a. A minister can participate in the proceedingsof a House, of which he is not a member. Inother words, a minister belonging to the LokSabha can participate in the proceedings ofthe Rajya Sabha and vice-versa.

b. A minister, who is not a member of eitherHouse, can participate in the proceedingsof both the Houses. It should be noted herethat a person can remain a minister for sixmonths, without being a member of eitherHouse of Parliament.

37. Correct Option : (c)

Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352President can declare national emergency whensecurity of India threatened by war or externalaggression. He can declare national emergencyeven before actual occurrence of war.

Emergency powers of President:

Under Article 352, the President can declarea national emergency when the security ofIndia or a part of it is threatened by war orexternal aggression or armed rebellion.

The president can declare a nationalemergency even before the actualoccurrence of war or external aggression orarmed rebellion, if he is satisfied that thereis an imminent danger.

The President can also issue differentproclamations on grounds of war, externalaggression, armed rebellion, or imminentdanger thereof, whether or not there is aproclamation already issued by him andsuch proclamation is in operation. Thisprovision was added by the 38thAmendment Act of 1975.

Statement 2 is correct. The President canproclaim a national emergency only afterreceiving a written recommendation fromthe cabinet. This means that the emergencycan be declared only on the concurrence ofthe cabinet and not merely on the advice ofthe prime minister.

Statement 3 is correct. The President cansuspend Fundamental Rights duringNational Emergency. Article 358 deals withthe suspension of the Fundamental Rightsguaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359deals with the suspension of otherFundamental Rights (except thoseguaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Judicial Review isnot mentioned anywhere in the constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Ninth Schedule wasadded by the 1st Constitutional AmendmentAct of 1951.



Indian Constitution: The provisions of several Articles explicitly

confer the power of judicial review on theSupreme Court and the High Courts.

Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedulewas added by the 1st ConstitutionalAmendment Act of 1951.

Statement 3 is correct. In a significantjudgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case(2007), the Supreme Court ruled that therecould not be any blanket immunity fromjudicial review of laws included in the NinthSchedule.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: The UPSC consistsof a chairman and other members appointedby the president of India. The Constitution,without specifying the strength of theCommission has left the matter to the discretionof the president, who determines itscomposition. Usually, the Commission consistsof nine to eleven members including thechairman.Statement 2 is incorrect: Members of UPSCsubmit resignation to the President.Statement 3 is incorrect: UPSC is notconsulted for-making reservations ofappointments or posts in favor of any backwardclass of citizens.Union Public Service Commission: The UPSC is the central recruiting agency in

India. It is an independent constitutionalbody in the sense that it has been directlycreated by the Constitution.

Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of theConstitution contain elaborate provisionsregarding the composition, appointmentand removal of members along with theindependence, powers and functions of theUPSC.

The UPSC consists of a chairman and othermembers appointed by the president ofIndia.

The chairman and members of theCommission hold office for a term of sixyears or until they attain the age of 65 years,whichever is earlier. However, they can

relinquish their off ices at any time byaddressing their resignation to thepresident.

They can also be removed before the expiryof their term by the president in the manneras provided in the Constitution.

UPSC is not consulted on the followingmatters:

a. While making reservations of appointmentsor posts in favour of any backward class ofcitizens.

b. While taking into consideration the claimsof scheduled castes and scheduled tribes inmaking appointments to services and posts.


Explanation:About Joint Forest Management Statement 1 is correct: Forest

Management (JFM), embracing thephilosophy of forest conservation andlivelihood improvement throughcooperation between state and civil society,has emerged over the past decades bothas a specific paradigm of forest governancein India and as India's largest communityforestry program creating massive people'smovement through involvement of villagecommittees for the protection, regenerationand development of degraded forest lands.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The JFMprogram, evolved during early 1970scovering a few forest villages as a model forreversing the trend of degraded as well asthe good forest ecosystem (except theprotected area network) through the activeprotection by local villagers. Under jointforest management (JFM), villagecommunities are entrusted with theprotection and management of nearbyforests. The areas concerned are usuallydegraded or even deforested areas.However, in Andhra Pradesh and MadhyaPradesh all village fringe forests can comeunder JFM. The communities are requiredto organize forest protection committees,village forest committees, village forestconservation and development societies,etc. Each of these bodies has an executivecommittee that manages its day-to-dayaffairs


Answers [21]SCOREGS

The JFM program is implemented currentlyby 106,482 Joint Forest ManagementCommittees (JFMC) and it covers 22 millionha of forests spread across 28 constituentstates of India and union territories.

Considering the immense potential andgenuine need for women's participation inJFM programme, following guidelines aresuggested for ensuring meaningfulparticipation of women in JFM.

i) Statement 2 is correct: At least 50%members of the JFM general body shouldbe women. For the general body meeting,the presence of at least 50% womenmembers should be a prerequisite forholding the general body meeting.

ii) At least 33% of the membership in the JFMExecutive Committee/ ManagementCommittee should be filled from amongstthe women members. The quorum forholding meeting of such Executive/Management Committee should be one-third of women executive members or aminimum of one whichever is more. One ofthe posts of office bearer i.e. President/ Vice-President/ Secretary should be filled by awomen members of the Committee.


Explanation:

About Soil Salinization Statement 1 is correct: Soil salinization is

the accumulation of water-soluble saltswithin top soil layers above a certain levelthat adversely affects crop production,environmental health, and economic welfare.Soil salinity is described and characterizedin terms of the concentration andcomposition of the soluble salts.

Even though soluble salts are inherent in allsoils, there are many processes that cancontribute to the build-up of salts in a givensoil layer. Weathering of soil minerals, saltsadded through rain, agronomic practicessuch as fertilizer and pesticide application,saline groundwater intrusion with watertable fluctuations, irrigation with saline watersourced from bore, recycled or waste waters,dumping of industrial and municipal wastesinto soils, and other soil conditions leadingto reduced leaching of salts from the soillayer-all can lead to soil salinization. Seawaterintrusiononto land when sea levels increasecan deposit a large amount of salts in soilsof coastal lands.



Statement 2 is incorrect: In the earlystages, salinity affects the metabolism of soilorganisms and reduces soil productivity, butin advanced stages it destroys all vegetationand other organisms living in the soil,consequently transforming fertile andproductive land into barren and desertifiedlands.

Statement 3 is correct: Irrigation salinityoccurs due to increased rates of leakage andgroundwater recharge causing the watertable to rise. Rising water tables can bringsalts into the plant root zone which affectsboth plant growth and soil structure. Thesalt remains behind in the soil when wateris taken up by plants or lost to evaporation.Recharge rates in irrigation areas can bemuch higher than dry land areas due toleakage from both rainfall and irrigation.This causes potentially very high salinizationrates. Water tables within two metres of thesoil surface indicate the potential for saltsto accumulate at the soil surface.

42. Correct Option: (c)Explanation:About Coral Bleaching Statement 1 is correct: Many types of coral

have a special symbiotic relationship with atiny marine algae (zooxanthellae) that liveinside corals tissue and are very efficient foodproducers that provide up to 90 per cent ofthe energy corals require to grow andreproduce. Coral bleaching occurs when therelationship between the coral host andzooxanthellae, which give coral much of theircolour, breaks down. Without thezooxanthellae, the tissue of the coral animalappears transparent and the coral's brightwhite skeleton is revealed.

Corals begin to starve once they bleach.While some corals are able to feedthemselves, most corals struggle to survivewithout their zooxanthellae.

Statement 2 is correct: The main cause ofcoral bleaching is heat stress resulting fromhigh sea temperatures. Temperatureincreases of only one degree Celsius for onlyfour weeks can trigger bleaching events. Ifthese temperatures persist for longerperiods (eight weeks or more) corals begin

to die. High water temperatures can affectreefs at regional and global scale.

Other stressors can also cause bleaching,including freshwater inundation (low salinity)and poor water quality from sediment orpollutant run-off.

Statement 3 is incorrect: If conditionsreturn to normal, corals can regain theirzooxanthellae, return to their normal colourand survive. However, this stress is likely tocause decreased coral growth andreproduction, and increased susceptibility todisease.


Explanation:

About Kigali Agreement All the statements are correct: In the 28th

meeting of the Parties to the MontrealProtocol, negotiators from 197 nations havesigned a historic agreement to amend theMontreal Protocol in Kigali, a capital city ofa tiny African country, Rwanda on 15thOctober 2016.

As per the agreement, 197 countriesincluding India are expected to reduce themanufacture and use ofHydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by roughly 80-85% from their respective baselines, till 2045.

This phase down is expected to arrest theglobal average temperature rise up to 0.5oC by 2100.

Kigali agreement is an amendment toMontreal Protocol.

It is a legally binding agreement betweenthe signatory parties with non-compliancemeasures.Penal provisions are incorporatedfor non-compliance.

It will come into effect from 1st January2019 provided it is ratified by at least 20member parties by then.

It has divided the signatory parties intothree groups-

a. The first group consists of rich anddeveloped economies like USA, UK and EUcountries who will start to phase down HFCsby 2019 and reduce it to 15% of 2012 levelsby 2036.


Answers [23]SCOREGS

b. The second group consists of emergingeconomies like China, Brazil as well as someAfrican countries who will start phase downby 2024 and reduce it to 20% of 2021 levelsby 2045.

c. The third group consists of developingeconomies and some of the hottest climaticcountries like India, Pakistan, Iran, and SaudiArabia who will start phasing down HFCsby 2028 and reduce it to 15% of 2024-2026levels till 2047.

It also has a provision for a multilateral fundfor developing countries for adaptation andmitigation.

The Technology and Energy AssessmentPanel (TEAP) will take a periodic review ofthe alternative technologies and productsfor their energy eff iciency and safetystandards.


Explanation:

About Environmental (Protection) Act,1986 In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the

Government of India enacted theEnvironment Protection Act of 1986 underArticle 253 of the Constitution. Passed inMarch 1986, it came into force on 19November 1986.The purpose of the Act is

to implement the decisions of the UnitedNations Conference on the HumanEnvironments. They relate to the protectionand improvement of the humanenvironment and the prevention of hazardsto human beings, other living creatures,plants and property. The Act is an "umbrella"legislation designed to provide a frameworkfor central government coordination of theactivities of various central and stateauthorities established under previous laws,such as the Water Act and the Air Act.

Statement 1 is correct: The genesis of theEnvironmental (Protection) Act, 1986, is inArticle 48A (Directive Principles of StatePolicy) and Article 51A (g), (FundamentalDuties) of the Indian Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: The Environment{Protection) Act, 1986 has relaxed the ruleof "Locus Standi" and because of suchrelaxation even a common citizen canapproach the Court provided he has givena notice of sixty days of the alleged offenceand his intention to make a complaint tothe Central Government or any othercompetent authority.

Statement 3 is correct: The CentralGovernment or any other person dulyauthorized is empowered to collect thesamples of air, water, soil or othersubstances as evidence of the offences underthe Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.




Explanation:About Thermal Pollution Statement 4 is correct: Thermal pollution

is defined as sudden increase in or decreasetemperature of a natural body of waterwhich may be ocean, lake, river or pond byhuman influence. This normally occurs whena plant or facility takes in water from anatural resource and puts it back with analtered temperature. Usually, these facilitiesuse it as a cooling method for theirmachinery or to help better produce theirproducts. Thus it can also be caused by therelease of very cold water from the base ofreservoirs into warmer rivers.

Statement 1 is correct: The warmtemperature reduces the levels of DO(Dissolved Oxygen) in water. The warm waterholds relatively less oxygen than cold water.The decrease in DO can create suffocationfor plants and animals such as f ish,amphibians and copepods, which may giverise to anaerobic conditions. Warmer waterallows algae to flourish on surface of waterand over the long term growing algae candecrease oxygen levels in the water.

Statement 2 is correct: Thermal pollutionincreases the metabolic rate of organismsas increasing enzyme activity occurs thatcauses organisms to consume more foodthan what is normally required, if theirenvironment were not changed. It disruptsthe stability of food chain and alter thebalance of species composition.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It increases theenzyme activity in aquatic organism.Increased enzyme activity can causeproblems such as the inability to break downlipids, which leads to malnutrition.Smallwater temperature increases the level ofactivity while higher temperature decreasesthe level of activity. Many aquatic speciesare sensitive to small temperature changessuch as one degree Celsius that can causesignificant changes in organism metabolismand other adverse cellular biology effects.


Explanation:About UN Convention to CombatDesertification

Established in 1994, the United Nations toCombat Desertification (UNCCD) is the solelegally binding international agreementlinking environment and development tosustainable land management. TheConvention addresses specifically the arid,semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, knownas the dry lands, where some of the mostvulnerable ecosystems and peoples can befound.

The Convention's 197 parties work togetherto improve the living conditions for peoplein dry lands, to maintain and restore landand soil productivity, and to mitigate theeffects of drought. The UNCCD isparticularly committed to a bottom-upapproach, encouraging the participation oflocal people in combating desertificationand land degradation. The UNCCDsecretariat facilitates cooperation betweendeveloped and developing countries,particularly around knowledge andtechnology transfer for sustainable landmanagement.

Statement 1 is correct: India is a party tothe UN Convention to CombatDesertification (UNCCD).

Statement 2 is incorrect: MoEF- Ministryof environment and forest is the NationalCoordinating Agency for theimplementation of the UNCCD in thecountry.

Statement 3 is correct: As an affectedparty, a 20 years comprehensive NationalAction Programme (NAP) to combatdesertif ication in the country has beenprepared. The objectives are:-

– Community based approach todevelopment,

– Activities to improve the quality of life ofthe local communities,

– Awareness raising,

– Drought management preparedness andmitigation,

– R&D initiatives and interventions which arelocally suited,

– Strengthening self-governance leading toempowerment of local communities.


Answers [25]SCOREGS


Explanation:Statement 3 is correct. The population isgenerally older on average, as the country haslong life expectancy, a low death rate, but alsoa low birth rate.

About Population Pyramid A populationpyramid, also called an “age-

sex pyramid”, is a graphical illustration thatshows the distribution ofvarious age groups in a population(typically that of a country or region of theworld), which forms the shape ofa pyramid when thepopulation is growing.

This tool can be used to visualize and ageof a particular population. It is also used inecology to determine the overall agedistribution of a population; an indicationof the reproductive capabilities andlikelihood of the continuation of a species.Types of Population PyramidsEach country will have different or uniquepopulation pyramids. However, mostpopulation pyramids will be defined as thefollowing: Stationary, expansive, orconstrictive. These types have beenidentified by the fertility and mortality ratesof a country.

“Stationary” pyramidStatement 2 is Incorrect. statement Apyramid can be described as stationary ifthe percentages of population (age and sex)remains constant over time. Stationarypopulation is when a population containsequal birth rates and death rates. This givesa rectangular appearance.

“Expansive” pyramidStatement 3 is Correct. A populationpyramid that is very wide at the youngerages, characteristic of countries with highbirth rate and low life expectancy. Thepopulation is said to be fast-growing, andthe size of each birth cohort gets larger thanthe size of the previous year.In developing countries, having largerfamilies may be more of a guarantee ofsupport or care in later life. There may betraditional reasons for marrying and havingchildren and there may be fewer careeroptions in some cases. Birth control might

be less widely available or evencircumscribed. That said, family sizes havebeen dropping worldwide. Previously, oneof the main reasons for having lots ofchildren was the likelihood that manychildren would die before they reachedmaturity. With more access to vaccines,antibiotics, clean water and better medicalcare, this is less of a concern nowadays- butthere are still areas of the world where thisremains a problem.

“Constrictive” pyramidStatement 1 is Incorrect. A populationpyramid that is narrowed at the bottom.The population is generally older on average,as the country has long life expectancy, alow death rate, but also a low birthrate. However, the percentage of youngerpopulation are extremely low, this can causeissues with dependency ratio of thepopulation. This pyramid is more commonwhen immigrants are factored out. This is atypical pattern for a very developed country,a high level of education, easy access to andincentive to use birth control, good healthcare, and few negative environmentalfactors.


Explanation:Statement 3 is incorrect. The winds blowingfrom the land towards the oceans drive warmsurface water away from the coast resulting inthe upwelling of cold water from below. Itresults into the longitudinal variation in thetemperature. Contrary to this, the onshorewinds pile up warm water near the coast andthis raises the temperature.About Temperature difference in Oceans Ocean waters get heated up by the solar

energy just as land. The process of heatingand cooling of the oceanic water is slowerthan land.

age



The factors which affect the distribution oftemperature of ocean water are :

(i) Statement 1 is correct. Latitude: thetemperature of surface water decreases fromthe equator towards the poles because theamount of insolation decreases poleward.

(ii) Statement 2 is correct. Unequaldistribution of land and water: the oceansin the northern hemisphere receive moreheat due to their contact with larger extentof land than the oceans in the southernhemisphere.

(iii) Prevailing wind: the winds blowing from theland towards the oceans drive warm surfacewater away from the coast resulting in theupwelling of cold water from below. It resultsinto the longitudinal variation in thetemperature. Contrary to this, the onshorewinds pile up warm water near the coastand this raises the temperature.

(iv)Ocean currents: warm ocean currents raisethe temperature in cold areas while the coldcurrents decrease the temperature in warmocean areas. Gulf Stream (warm current)raises the temperature near the easterncoast of North America and the West Coastof Europe while the Labrador Current (coldcurrent) lowers the temperature near thenorth-east coast of North America. All thesefactors influence the temperature of theocean currents locally. The enclosed seas inthe low latitudes record relatively highertemperature than the open seas; whereasthe enclosed seas in the high latitudes havelower temperature than the open seas.


Explanation:Statement 4 is incorrect. Inversion is usuallyof short duration. Surface inversion promotesstability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.Smoke and dust particles get collected beneaththe inversion layer and spread horizontally tofill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Densefogs in mornings are common occurrencesespecially during winter season. This inversioncommonly lasts for few hours until the suncomes up and beings to warm the earthAbout Temperature Inversion Temperature inversion, is a reversal of the

normal behaviour of temperature in the

troposphere, in which a layer of cool air atthe surface is overlain by a layer of warmerair. (Under normal conditions,temperature usually decreases withheight).

Temperatureinversions are a result of otherweather conditions in an area. They occurmost often when a warm, less dense air massmoves over a dense, cold air mass. ... Thiscold air then pushes under the warmer airrising from the valley, creating theinversion.

Statement 1 is correct. Ideal conditionsfor temperature inversion are long nights,so that the outgoing radiation is greaterthan the incoming radiation ; Clear skies,which allow unobstructed escape ofradiation; Calm and stable air, so that thereis no vertical mixing at lower levels.

Statement 2 is Correct. Temperatureinversion over polar areas is generallynormal owing to less amount of insolationreceived on the poles owing to naturalinclination of the earth.

Statement 3 is Correct. The inversion takesplace in hills and mountains due to airdrainage. Cold air at the hills and mountains,produced during night, flows under theinfluence of gravity. Being heavy and dense,the cold air acts almost like water and movesdown the slope to pile up deeply in pocketsand valley bottoms with warm air above.This is called air drainage. It protects plantsfrom frost damages


Explanation:About Equatorial climate Equatorial climate is found between 5°-10°

north and south latitudes of the equator. Regions between these latitudes include-

Amazon basin, Congo basin, Niger basin andSouth East Asia.

Temperature: - temperature generallyremains high throughout the year with veryless diurnal, seasonal and annual changes.Average annual temperature is 30°-35° Cwith little variation and no winters

Average humidity: - also remains highbecause of high temperature and vast seasurface. It results in higher evaporation.Average humidity is 85–95%.


Answers [27]SCOREGS

Precipitation: - is also very high becauseof high humidity. 60–100 inches is averagerainfall spread uniformly throughout theyear?

Equatorial regions are dominated byequatorial trough. Weak and variable windsmostly from west.

There are no distinct seasons. Climaticcharacteristics remain same throughout theyear.

About Humid Sub-tropical climate

A humid subtropical climate is a zoneof climate characterized by hot and humidsummers, and mild to winters.These climates normally lie on thesoutheast side of all continents, generallybetween latitudes 25° and 35° and arelocated poleward from adjacenttropical climates.

There are two main seasons ina tropical marine climate: the wet seasonand the dry season. The annual rainfall is1000 to over 1500 mm.The temperature ranges from 20 °C to 35°C. The trade winds blow all year round andare moist, as they pass over warm seas.

While many subtropical climates tend to belocated at or near coastal locations, in somecases they extend inland, most notablyin China and the United States.

This climate features mean temperatures inthe coldest month between 0 °C (32 °F) (or“3 °C (27 °F)) and 18 °C (64 °F) and meantemperatures in the warmest month 22 °C(72 °F) or higher.

Under the Köppen climate classification, Cfaand Cwa climates are either described ashumid subtropical climates or mildtemperate climates.

About Tropical Savanna Climate Tropical savanna climate or tropical wet

and dry climate is a type of climate thatcorresponds to theKöppen climate classification categories“Aw” and “As”. In essence, a tropical savannaclimate tends to either see less rainfall thana tropical monsoon climate or have morepronounced dry season(s).

Tropical savanna climates have monthlymean temperatures above 18 °C (64 °F) in

every month of the year and typically apronounced dry season, with the driestmonth having less than 60 mm (2.36inches) of precipitation and also less than100 – [total annual precipitation {mm}/25]of precipitation.

Tropical savanna climates are mostcommonly found in Africa, Asia andnorthern South America. The climate is alsoprevalent in sections of Central America,northern Australia, the Pacific Islands andsouthern North America, specifically insections of Mexico and the stateof Florida in the United States, and someislands in the Caribbean.


Explanation:

About Duars

Statement 1 is correct. The Dooars orDuars are the alluvial floodplains innortheastern India that lie south of theouter foothills of the Himalayas and northof the Brahmaputra River basin. This regionis about 30 km wide and stretches overabout 350 km from the Teesta River in WestBengal to the Dhanshiri River in Assam. Theregion forms the gateway to Bhutan. It ispart of the Terai-Duar savanna andgrasslands ecoregion.

Dooars means ‘doors’ in Assamese, Bengali,Maithili, Bhojpuri, and Magahi languages.There are 18 passages or gateways betweenthe hills in Bhutan and the plains in India.

Statement 3 is correct. This region isdivided by the Sankosh River into Easternand Western Dooars, consisting of an areaof 880 km2 (340 sq mi). Innumerablestreams and rivers flow through these fertileplains from the mountains of Bhutan. InAssam, the major rivers arethe Brahmaputra and Manas. In northernWest Bengal, the major river isthe Teesta besides many others likethe Jaldhaka, Murti, Torsha, Sankosh,Dyna, Karatoya, Raidak, and Kaljani rivers,among others.

The Western Dooars are also known as theBengal Dooars, and the Eastern Dooars alsoas the Assam Dooars.



Dooars is analogous with the Terai innorthern India and southern Nepal.

Statement 2 is Correct. The economy ofDooars is based on three “T”s – Tea, Tourismand Timber. The main industry of the Dooarsregion is the tea industry. Thousands ofpeople are engaged in the tea estates andfactories. Several people are also engagedin the cultivation of orchidsand bettlenuts which also contributes to theeconomy. Cultivation of other crops is donemainly for local consumption.

The Dooars act as doorways to Bhutan;thus, the export-import industry alsoflourishes in the area. The towns of Jaigaon,Siliguri and Phuentsholing are importanthubs of the export-import industry.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect. The instable coldfront forms cumulonimbus clouds

About Cold front A cold front is the leading edge of a cooler

mass of air, replacing at ground level awarmer mass of air, which lies within a fairlysharp surface trough of low pressure. Itforms in the wake of an extra tropicalcyclone, at the leading edge of its cold airadvection pattern, which is also known asthe cyclone's dry conveyor belt circulation.Temperature changes across the boundarycan exceed 30 °C

Statement 1 is incorrect. When enoughmoisture is present, rain can occur along theboundary. If there is significant instabilityalong the boundary, cumulonimbus cloudsmay form and a line of thunderstorms canform along the frontal zone. If instability isless, a broad shield of rain can move inbehind the front, which increases thetemperature difference across the boundary.

Cold fronts are stronger in the fall andspring transition seasons and weakestduring the summer. When a cold frontcatches up with the preceding warm front,the portion of the boundary that does so isthen known as an occluded front.

In the northern hemisphere, a cold frontusually causes a shift of wind from

southwest to northwest clockwise, alsoknown as veering, and in the southernhemisphere a shift from northwest tosouthwest (anticlockwise, backing)

Statement 2 is correct. Because air is liftedinstead of being pressed down, themovement of a cold front through a warmfront is usually called a low-pressure system.Low-pressuresystems often cause severerainfall or thunderstorms. Warm frontsusually show up on the tail end ofprecipitation and fog.


Explanation:About Demand Pull Inflammation Demand Pull Inflation involves inflation

rising as real Gross Domestic Productrises and unemployment falls, as theeconomy moves along the Phillips Curve.Demand Pull Inflation is commonlydescribed as "too much money chasing toofew goods".

More accurately, it should be described asinvolving since only money that is spent ongoods and services can cause inflation. "Toomuch money spent chasing too fewgoods", this is not expected to happenunless the economy is already at a fullemployment level. The term demand-pullinflation is mostly associated with Keynesianeconomics.

Statement 1 is correct: Demand-pullinflation is caused by increases in aggregatedemand due to increased private andgovernment spending, etc.Demand PullFactors are Rise in population, Black money,Rise in income, Excessive governmentexpenditure.

Statement 2 is correct: To counter demandpull inflation, governments, and centralbanks would have to implement tightmonetary and fiscal policy like increasing theinterest rate or lowering governmentspending or raising taxes. An increase in theinterest rate would make consumers spendless on durable goods and housing. It wouldalso increase investment spending by firmsand businesses. In demand pull inflation,Aggregate Demand D is rising too fast, sothese contractionary policies would lower


Answers [29]SCOREGS

the rise, meaning inflation would still occurbut at a lower rate.


Explanation: Treasury Bills (TBs): This instrument of the

money market though present sinceIndependence got organized only in 1986.They are used by the Central Governmentto fulfill its short-term liquidity requirementup to the period of 364 days.

Certificate of Deposit: by banks issued tothe depositors for a specified period rangingless than one year-they are negotiable andtradable in the money market. Since 1993the RBI allowed the financial institutions tooperate in it- IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (IIBI since 1997)and the Exim Bank-they can issue CDs forthe maturity periods above one year andup to three years.

Commercial Bill (CB): Organized in 1990,a CB is issued by the All India FinancialInstitutions (AIFIs), Non-Banking FinanceCompanies (NBFCs), Scheduled CommercialBanks, Merchant Banks, Co-operative Banksand the Mutual Funds. It replaced the oldBill Market available since 1952 in thecountry.


Explanation: The money market is a market for short-

term funds, which deals in financialassets whose period of maturity is up toone year. It deals with securities liketreasury bills, commercial paper, bills ofexchange, and certificate of deposits.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Capital Marketis an institutional arrangement forborrowing medium and long-term fundsand which provides facilities for marketingand trading of securities. So it constitutesall long-term borrowings from banksand financial institutions, borrowings fromforeign markets and raising of capital.Stockbrokers, under writers, mutual funds,individual investors, financial institutions canparticipate in this market.

Statement 2 is incorrect : Participants ofmoney market -1.Treasury department

2.Central banks 3.Commercial banks4.Business

Statement 3 is correct The Reserve Bankof India regulates the money market bycontrolling how much money is put into theeconomy and to what industries they loanfunds to .SEBI is regulator of capital market.


Explanation:About deficit financing Statement 1 is Correct. The term deficit

financing means the direct addition togross national expenditure throughbudget deficits whether the budgetdeficits are on revenue or on capitalaccount. This policy implies that thegovernment is spending in excess of therevenue it receives in the form of taxes,surplus from public enterprises, loansborrowing from central bank of the country,which leads to the creation of money.

Statement 2 is correct: Deficit financingeffects investment adversely when there isinflation in the economy trade unions makedemand for higher wages for that they gofor strikes and lock outs which decreasesthe eff iciency of Labour and createsuncertainty in the business which adecreases the level of investment of thecountry and cost of production.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Due to deficitfinancing money supply increases & thepurchasing power of the people also increasewhich increases the aggregate demand andthe prices also increases. So it leads toinflation.


Explanation:Statement 2 is incorrect: Ministry ofEnvironment and Forest Climate Change(MoEFCC) has released the draft India CoolingAction Plan (ICAP). ICAP has been prepared bythe ministry after extensive deliberations andmulti-stakeholders engagement in publicdomain for receiving comments.Statement 1 is correct. India is the firstcountry in world to develop such a document



on ICAP, which addresses cooling requirementacross sectors and lists out actions which canhelp reduce the cooling demand.


Explanation:Aadhaar not compulsory for schooladmission: Statement 1 is correct: UIDAI stated that,

for students who are yet to get an Aadhaarnumber or whose biometrics in Aadhaardatabase is not updated, it shall be theresponsibility of the schools to arrange forAadhaar enrolments and biometric updates.

Statement 2 is correct: A circular titled,"No denial of admission in schools for wantof Aadhaar and Organising Special AadhaarEnrolment/update camps at schools", hasbeen issued by UIDAI. As per the circular,Schools will be required to organise specialcamps in their premises in coordination withlocal banks, post offices, state educationdepartment and district administration.

Statement 3 is correct: StateGovernments are obligated to arrangethrough its education department anddistrict administration, enrolment camp inall the schools, at least twice a year bymaking school-wise roster for the same.


Explanation:Pluto: A Dwarf Planet The IAU, in 2006, designated Pluto a 'dwarf

planet' along with Ceres in the asteroid beltand Xena, an object in the Kuiper belt, whichis an icy ring of frozen objects that circle thesolar system beyond Neptune's orbit. It wasa bid to overcome sentiment and go byscientific rationale.

The meeting defined three conditions for acelestial object to be called a planet: one, itmust orbit the Sun; two, it should bemassive enough to acquire anapproximately spherical shape; three, it hasto 'clear its orbit', that is, be the object thatexerts the maximum gravitational pull withinits orbit. Owing to this third property, if anobject ventures close to a planet's orbit, it

will either collide with it and be accreted, orbe ejected out.

However, Pluto is affected by Neptune'sgravity. It also shares its orbit with the frozenobjects in the Kuiper belt. Based on this, theIAU deemed that Pluto did not 'clear itsorbit'. Dwarf planets, on the other hand,need only satisfy the first two conditions.(Hence Statement 3 is incorrect and 1and 2 are correct).

60. Correct Option: (c)Explanation:Statement 1 is correct: The Employees' StateInsurance Corporation (ESIC) has approved anew scheme- Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojnafor Insured Persons covered under theEmployees' State Insurance Act, 1948.Thisscheme is a relief payable in cash directly totheir Bank Account in case of unemploymentand while they search for new engagement.Statement 2 is correct: The beneficiaries ofthe scheme will be insured persons coveredunder Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948 forperiod of two years continuously.The ESIC also approved the proposal forincreasing the funeral expenses from existing10 thousand rupees to 15 thousand rupeesbeing paid on the death of Insured Person.

61. Correct Option: (a)Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Raising awareness

on human, gender and child rights andstrengthening prevention of humantraff icking and child marriage usingconverging approach is the main missionof the Self Reliance Scheme.

Statement 2 is correct: Engaging youthfrom different schools and colleges tocombat human traff icking and childmarriage is one of the main aims of thescheme.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no suchprovision in the scheme.

62. Correct Option: (d)Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A software-based

state-of-art tracking system used in


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investigation of crime and detection ofcriminals.

Statement 2 is correct: CCTNS will doaway with manually maintaining a daily diaryof incidents, which had to be submitted tosenior officers every morning. The newsystem has the provision of displayingdetails of people arrested in all policestations in the past 24 hours throughcitizen's portal as per the directions ofSupreme Court.

Statement 3 is correct: The new systemwill help in relieving police from paper worksand concentrate on other functioning suchas law and order, traffic. It also will help inmaking police system more citizen friendlyand transparent.


Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect: NDSO can be

accessed only by law enforcementagencies and will be out of the boundsfor the general public. The databasewould not compromise any individual'sprivacy. (Only in the U.S, it is available tothe public).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: Data will bestored for 15 years of those convicts posinglow danger, 25 years for those posingmoderate danger, and lifetime for habitualoffenders involved in violent crimes likegang-rapes.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: India became theninth country in the world to have aNational Data Base on Sexual Offenders afterU.S, UK, Australia, Ireland, New Zealand,South Africa, Canada, and Trinidad &Tobago.


Explanation:Statement 3 is Incorrect: It was not thetoughness of the mantras but it lost itssignificance since the mantras were in Sanskritlanguage which was the monopoly of UpperVarnas.

Reasons for growth of Buddhism andJainism

Jainism and Buddhism formed reaction tocomplicated Vedic culture. Vedic text waswritten in Sanskrit language, which waslanguage of elites; common people couldnot understand it. Vedic mantras were inSanskrit and too complex to comprehendby common people. Supremacy ofBrahmans created Unrest in society.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct. NewAgriculture economy emerged, so Vaishyasbecame wealthy, now they wanted equalritual status like Brahmins. But Brahmanismdid not allow that.

Sacrifices in the Vedic religion troubled theAgricultural economic development

Teachings of Jainism and Buddhism were inPrakrit language and Pali languagerespectively, which was understood bycommon people. They taught values ofEquality, which appealed to Vaishyas andcommon people.


Explanation: Statement 1 is Incorrect: There is no proof

to suggest that the Shatavahanas assumedabsolute divine rights for administration.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Shatavahanasalso depended on trade routes for incomethrough tolls, customs etc.

More about the Shatavahanaadministration: The Satavahana administration was very

simple and was according to the principleslaid down in Dharmashastras. The king laidno claim of divine right. They had only themodest title of rajan.

Statement 2 is Correct. Satvahan king wasdivided into Janapadas which were furtherdivided into aharas. Each ahara was underan Amataya. The basic unit of the ahara wasthe grama with the village headman calledgramika.

Taxation was not burden as the state derivedits income from crown lands, court fees, finesand ordinary taxes of the Mauryan periodwere not imposed. Central control was nothigh because feudal traits emerged in theSatavahana period.




Explanation:Statement 2 is Incorrect: Prarthana Samaj wasstarted by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang (1823-1898), a personal friend of Dr. Wilson, founderof Wilson College in 1835.Statement 3 is Incorrect: He had faith inMonotheism.About Raja Ram Mohan Roy:Statement 1 is correct. Raja Rammohan Roy,the father of Indian Renaissance, was a man ofversatile genius. The Brahmo Samaj establishedby him was the earliest reform movement ofthe modern type greatly influenced by modernwestern ideas. As a reformist ideologue, Roybelieved in the modern scientific approach andprinciples of human dignity and social equality.He founded the Brahmo Sabha (later BrahmoSamaj) in order to institutionalise his ideas andmission. His ideas and activities were aimed atpolitical uplift of the masses through socialreform and to that extent can be said to havehad nationalist undertones.He put his faith in monotheism. He wrote Giftto Monotheists (1809) and translated intoBengali the Vedas and the five Upanishads toprove his conviction that ancient Hindu textssupport monotheism. In 1814, he set upAtmiya Sabha in Calcutta to campaign againstidolatry, caste rigidities, meaningless rituals andother social ills. Strongly influenced by rationalistideas, he declared that the Vedanta is basedon reason and that, if reason demanded it, evena departure from the scriptures is justified. Hesaid the principles of rationalism applied toother sects also, particularly to the elements ofblind faith in them. In Precepts of Jesus (1820),he tried to separate the moral and philosophicalmessage of the New Testament, which hepraised, from its miracle stories. He stood for acreative and intellectual process of selecting thebest from eastern and western cultures, overwhich, again, he faced orthodox reaction.


Explanation:The period of Indus valley civilization was 2500B.C. to 1500 B.C. however recent carbon datinghas confirmed 2400-1700 B.C. Extended fromBaluchistan to Gujarat with an upward reach

to Punjab. The major area included is Valley ofIndus River, Rajasthan, East Punjab, Haryana,Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh. Thus,encompassing Pakistan and some states ofEastern India today.Salient Common Features of EntireCivilization: A common script which remains

undeciphered so far.

Proper Town planning in all Indus Valley Sitesexcept few such as Kalibangan. Presence ofcooking area, water reservoir in houses.

Presence of a fortified citadel in almost allurban centres.

Presence of residential and non-residentialbuildings. Absence of temples of specialplaces of worship except few altars at somesites.

Use of standard weights and measurements

Pottery of wheels and bead makingindustries

Practice of burying the dead.

Statement 1 is Correct. Pictograph was acommon script and SWASTIK symbol is alsofound here.

The site where the historians were able tocollect some bones of Horse is Surkotada inBhuj area of Gujarat. (Hence statement 3is correct)

Statement 4 is Correct. Elephant bonesare found in Kalibangan

It seems that the Harappans took to ricewhen they came to Daulatpur in Haryanaand Hulas in Saharanpur district of UP. Ragi,or finger millet, is not so far known to havebeen grown at any Harappan site in northIndia. In Alamgirpur, the late Harappansprobably produced cotton, as can beinferred from the cloth impression onHarappan pottery. (Hence Statement 2 iscorrect)

Domestication of AnimalsAlthough the Harappans practised agriculture,animals were raised on a large scale. Oxen,buffaloes, goats, sheep, and pigs weredomesticated. Humped bulls were favoured bythe Harappans. There is evidence of dogs andcats from the outset, and asses and camels werebred and were obviously used as beasts of


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burden, and the latter may also have been usedfor ploughing. The contemporary Sumeriancities in Mesopotamia produced virtually thesame food grains and domesticated the sameanimals as did the Harappans, but theHarappans in Gujarat produced rice anddomesticated elephants which was not the casewith the Mesopotamians.

68. Correct Option: (b)Explanation:About Tebhaga Movement (1946): In Bengal, rich farmers (Jotedars) leased the

farms to sharecroppers known as Bargadaror Bagchasi or Adhyar.

Statement 1 is Incorrect. The FloodCommission, had recommended tebhaga,under that the Bargadars (sharecropper)should get 2/3 of crop share and the Jotedar(landlord) should get 1/3rd of crop produceshare.

Tebhaga movement was aimed at gettingthe recommendations of Flood Commissionimplemented through mass struggle. It wasled by - Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha,against the zamindars, rich farmers(Jotedars), moneylenders, local bureaucratsand Traders.

The main slogan of the movement was - "nij kamare dhan tolo". The Muslim leaguegovernment led by the Suharwardyintroduced the Bargardari Bill along withrepression by force.

About The Champaran Satyagraha (1917): The peasantry on the indigo plantations in

the Champaran district of Bihar wasexcessively oppressed by the Europeanplanters.

Statement 3 is incorrect. They werecompelled to grow indigo on at least 3/20thof their land (tinkathia system) and to sell itat prices fixed by the planters. Accompaniedby Babu Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar -ul-Huq,J.B. Kripalani, Narhari Parekhand MahadevDesai, Gandhiji reached Champaran in 1917and began to conduct a detailed inquiry intothe condition of the peasantry.

The infuriated district officials ordered himto leave Champaran, but he defied the orderand was willing to face trial andimprisonment.

Later the Government developed cold feetand appointed an Enquiry Committee (June1917) with Gandhiji as one of the members.

The ameliorative enactment, the ChamparanAgrarian Act freed the tenants from thespecial imposts levied by the indigo planters.

Telangana Movement One of the most politically effective peasant

movements was seen in the erstwhile Stateof Hyderabad. In Telangana region, the landownership was in the hands of very fewruling class people. The actual cultivators ofthe land were subjected to high rent,increasing indebtedness and a system of freelabour (also known as the vetti system).

Statement 2 is correct. Peasant farmersand labourers revolted against local feudallandlords (jagirdars and deshmukhs), whowere ruling the villages known as samsthans.These samsthans were ruled mostly byReddys and Velama, known as doralu.

The Communist Party of India took up theseissues as the basis for a peasant's struggleagainst feudalism in the period 1946-48.

The objectives of this armed struggle wereland grabbing and redistribution, abolitionof compulsory levy to the government, andstopping eviction of tenants under anypretext. The struggle turned in to violentwith police retaliation against the Gram RajCommittees that were set up by the peasantgroups to work as defence squads andinstitutions for self-governance.

Later the A.P. (Telangana Area) Tenancy andAgricultural Lands Act, 1950, were passedwhen the Indian Government took overfrom the Nizam's rule.

SMART SOLUTION:3/20 is T inkathai system not Tebhagasystem. So, if you remove statement 1 theonly option left is (b).


Explanation: In 1503 Francisco de Almeida was

appointed the First Governor and Viceroyof the Portuguese India. He was able toerect some fortresses at Cochin, Cannanore,Kilwa and Anjadiva.



Statement 1 is Correct. The f iercecompetition for dominance in tradeculminated in a battle of the Portuguese withthe confederacy of the Egypt, Turkey andGujarat and in this battle with the Muslimshis son's life was at the Harbour of Chaul inIndia in 1508. He was able to defeat thetrio a year later, but before could do anymore wonders here, died in 1510.

Statement 2 is Correct. He opposedestablishing a territorial empire in India andwanted that Portuguese should maintainsupremacy on sea and confine their activitiesto purely commercial transactions. Thispolicy is known as Blue water policy. The Bluewater policy was reversed by Alfonso deAlbuquerque.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney general isnot a member of parliament. He resigns whenthe government (council of ministers) resignsor is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.Statement 2 is incorrect: For the post ofAttorney General, President appoints a personwho is qualified to become the Judge of theSupreme Court.Statement 3 is incorrect: In accordance withArticle 76, he must perform duties assigned tohim by the President.Attorney General of India: The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by

the president. He must be a person who isqualified to be appointed a judge of theSupreme Court. In other words, he must bea citizen of India and he must have been ajudge of some high court for five years oran advocate of some high court for ten yearsor an eminent jurist, in the opinion of thepresident.

The term of office of the AG is not fixed bythe Constitution. The Constitution does notcontain the procedure and grounds for hisremoval. He holds office during the pleasureof the president. This means that he maybe removed by the president at any time.He may also quit his office by submittinghis resignation to the president.Conventionally, he resigns when the

government (council of ministers) resigns oris replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

As the chief law officer of the Governmentof India, the duties of the AG include thefollowing:

a. To give advice to the Government of Indiaupon such legal matters, which are referredto him by the president.

b. To perform such other duties of a legalcharacter that is assigned to him by thepresident.

c. To discharge the functions conferred on himby the Constitution or any other law.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: The StatesReorganization Commission was headed by Mr.Fazl Ali, two other members were PanditHridayanath Kunzuru and K.M. Panikar.State Reorganization Commission: The creation of Andhra state intensified the

demand from other regions for creation ofstates on linguistic basis.

This forced the Government of India toappoint (in December 1953) a three-member States Re-organisation Commissionunder the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine the whole question. Its other twomembers were K M Panikkar and H NKunzru.

It submitted its report in September 1955and broadly accepted language as the basisof re-organisation of states. But, it rejectedthe theory of 'one language- one state'. Itsview was that the unity of India should beregarded as the primary consideration in anyredrawing of the country's political units. Itidentified four major factors that can betaken into account in any scheme of re-organisation of states:

a. Preservation and strengthening of the unityand security of the country.

b. Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.c. Financial, economic and administrative

considerations.d. Planning and promotion of the welfare of

the people in each state as well as of thenation as a whole.


Answers [35]SCOREGS

Statement 2 is correct. The commissionsuggested the abolition of the four-foldclassification of states under the originalConstitution and creation of 16 states and3 centrally administered territories.

Statement 3 is correct. Special safeguardswere recommended for linguistic minorities.


Explanation:

Parliamentary Terms:Leader of the House: Statement 1 is correct. Under the Rules

of Lok Sabha, the 'Leader of the House'means the prime minister, if he is a memberof the Lok Sabha, or a minister who is amember of the Lok Sabha and is nominatedby the prime minister to function as theLeader of the House.

There is also a 'Leader of the House' in theRajya Sabha. He is a minister and a memberof the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by theprime minister to function as such.

The leader of the house in either House isan important functionary and exercisesdirect influence on the conduct of business.He can also nominate a deputy leader ofthe House. The same functionary in USA isknown as the 'majority leader'.

Leader of the Opposition:

Statement 3 is correct. In each House ofParliament, there is the 'Leader of theOpposition'. The leader of the largestOpposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of theHouse is recognised as the leader of theOpposition in that House.

In a parliamentary system of government,the leader of the opposition has a significantrole to play. His main functions are toprovide a constructive criticism of thepolicies of the government and to providean alternative government. Therefore, theleader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha andthe Rajya Sabha were accorded statutoryrecognition in 1977.

They are also entitled to the salary,allowances and other facilities equivalent tothat of a cabinet minister.

It was in 1969 that an official leader of theopposition was recognised for the first time.The same functionary in USA is known asthe 'minority leader'.

Chairman of Rajya Sabha: Statement 2 is correct. The presiding

officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as theChairman. The vice-president of India is theex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

During any period when the Vice-Presidentacts as President or discharges the functionsof the President, he does not perform theduties of the office of the Chairman of RajyaSabha.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, social auditswere first made statutory in a 2005, RuralEmployment Act and government also issuedthe Social Audit Rules in 2011 under theMGNREGA Act.Social Audit: Social auditing is a process by which an

organization / government accounts for itssocial performance to its stakeholders andseeks to improve its future socialperformance. The concept was pioneered byCharles Medawar in 1972.

It is a process of reviewing official recordsand determining whether state reportedexpenditures reflect the actual money spenton the ground.

Statement 2 is correct.Objectives of Social Audit:a. Accurate identification of requirements.b. Prioritization of developmental activities as

per requirements.c. Proper utilization of funds.d. Conformity of the developmental activity

with the stated goals.e. Quality of service.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 61 -Procedure for impeachment of the President.



President is to be impeached for violation ofthe Constitution only. Misbehavior is notdefined with respect to president.Statement 2 is incorrect: President submitshis resignation to Vice-President.President's Office: The President holds office for a term of five

years from the date on which he enters uponhis office. However, he can resign from hisoff ice at any time by addressing theresignation letter to the Vice-President.

Statement 3 is correct. He can also beremoved from the office before completionof his term by the process of impeachment.The President can hold office beyond histerm of f ive years until his successorassumes charge.

He is also eligible for re-election to thatoffice. He may be elected for any numberof terms. However, in USA, a person cannotbe elected to the office of the Presidentmore than twice.

The President can be removed from officeby a process of impeachment for 'violationof the Constitution'. However, theConstitution does not define the meaningof the phrase 'violation of the Constitution'.


Explanation:About Bio plastics Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Bio plastic

is a biodegradable material that come fromrenewable sources and can be used toreduce the problem of plastic waste that issuffocating the planet and polluting theenvironment. As an alternative, the use ofbio plastics is being promoted, consistingin obtaining natural polymers fromagricultural, cellulose or potato and cornstarch waste.Thus a plastic material isconsidered as a bio plastic if it is either bio-based, biodegradable, or features bothproperties. Bio-based plastics means theyare developed form biomass (plants) suchas corn, sugarcane, vegetable oil or woodpulp.

Statement 3 is correct: These are 100%degradable, equally resistant and versatile,already used in agriculture, textile industry,medicine and, over all, in the container and

packaging market, and biopolymers arealready becoming popular in citiesthroughout Europe and the United Statesfor ecological reasons. They can be convertedinto natural substances like water, carbondioxide, and compost by the action of micro-organisms in the environment

Advantages of bio plastics:a. They reduce carbon footprintb. They providing energy savings in productionc. They do not involve the consumption of

non-renewable raw materials.d. Their production reduces non-

biodegradable waste that contaminates theenvironment.

e. They do not contain additives that areharmful to health, such as phthalates orbisphenol. A They do not change the flavoror scent of the food contained


Explanation:About Black Carbon: Black carbon (BC) is a component of fine

particulate matter (PM ? 2.5 µm inaerodynamic diameter). Black carbonconsists of pure carbon in several linkedforms.

It is formed through the incompletecombustion of fossil fuels, bio-fuel, andbiomass, and is emitted in bothanthropogenic and naturally occurring soot.Black carbon causes human morbidity andpremature mortality.

Statement 1 is incorrect: In climatology,black carbon is a climate forcing agent. Blackcarbon warms the Earthby absorbingsunlight and heating the atmosphere andby reducing albedo when deposited on snowand ice.

Primary sources include emissions fromdiesel engines, cook stoves, wood burningand forest fires.

Statement 2 is correct: Black carbon staysin the atmosphere for only several days toweeks.Though airborne, BC is known todissipate and settle down in a few monthsunder the influence of rain and wind and isunlikely to travel upward of 4 km. However,a group of scientists including from the


Answers [37]SCOREGS

Indian Institute of Science and ISRO'sVikram Sarabhai Space Centre say they nowhave evidence of such particles existing upto 18 km into the stratosphere and thereare about 10,000 of them in every cubiccentimeter.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Given the shapeand location of these particles, they argue,it could only derive from emissions fromaviation fuel (Aero planes) and they pose aproblem because these black carbonparticles can linger long enough to providea fertile ground for other chemical reactionsthat can deplete the ozone layer.


Explanation:

About Bharat Emission Standard Norms

Statement 1 is correct: Bharat stage (BS)emission standards are emission standardsinstituted by Central Government toregulate the output of air pollutants frominternal combustion engine equipmentincluding motor vehicles.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The standard andthe timeline for implementation are set byCentral Pollution control Board (CPCB)under Ministry of Environment and Forestsand Climate Change. These standards arebased on European Regulations f irstintroduced in 2000.

India has been following the Europeanemission norms though with the time lagof 5 years.

The Union Government in October 2016had decided to skip one stage and migrateto BS-VI directly from BS-IV from April 2020to fight the growing pollution. The deadlinefor it in Delhi was brought forward to 2018due to higher level of pollution i.e. thick toxicsmog faced in winter season. It was part ofconcerted efforts of Government to reducevehicular emissions and improve fuelefficiency with an aim to reduce carbonfootprints and keep environment healthy.

Delhi became the first city in India to supplyultra-clean Bharat Stage (BS) VI grade fuel(both petrol and diesel) with an aim tocombat the rising levels of air pollution in

Delhi-NCR region. State-owned oil firmshave started supplying the BS-VI fuel(equivalent to fuel meeting Euro-VI emissionnorm) at all their 391 petrol pumps in NCT.


Explanation:About Graded response action plan: Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union

Ministry of Environment, Forest and ClimateChange (MoEFCC) has notified the GradedResponse Action Plan to combat air pollutionin NCR Delhi only.

Graded Response Action Plan defines themeasures to taken based on air quality onthe basis of PM 2.5 and PM 10 in theatmosphere.

Statement 1 is correct: The SupremeCourt-appointed Environment PollutionPrevention and Control Authority is a bodyempowered to enforce the GradedResponse Action Plan. The Delhi specificcomprehensive action plan was prepared bythe Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

Based on the air quality the grades havebeen classified as Emergency, Severe, VeryPoor and Moderate poor.

Measures will be taken such as prohibitionon entry of trucks into Delhi; ban onconstruction activities, introduction of oddand even scheme for private vehicles,shutting of schools, closure of brick kilns,hot mix plants and stone crushers; shuttingdown of power plants, ban on dieselgenerator sets, garbage burning in landfillsand plying of visibly polluting vehicles etc.

The severe plus or the emergency actionplan under GRAP, which proposes a ban onconstruction activities, odd-even scheme,ban on entry of trucks and closure ofschools, shall come into force when PM2.5levels cross 300 µg/m3 or PM10 levels cross500 µg/m3 (five times above the standardlevel) and persist for 48 hours or more.


Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect:The Monetary

Policy Committee (MPC) is the body of theRBI, headed by the Governor, responsible



for taking the important monetary policydecision about setting the repo rate. Reporate is 'the policy instrument' in monetarypolicy that helps to realize the set inflationtarget by the RBI (at present 4%).

Statement 2 is correct: The MonetaryPolicy Committee (MPC) is formed underthe RBI with six members. Three of themembers are from the RBI while the otherthree members are appointed by thegovernment. Members from the RBI are theGovernor who is the chairman of the MPC,a Deputy Governor and one officer of theRBI.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The MonetaryPolicy Committee (MPC) is a committee ofthe Central Bank in India (RBI), headed byits Governor. The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934 (RBI Act) was amended by the FinanceAct, 2016, to provide for a statutory andinstitutionalized framework for a MPC, formaintaining price stability, while keeping inmind the objective of growth.

Statement 4 is correct:The mainresponsibility of the MPC will be to keepthe inflation targets set by the RBI. The MPCdecides the changes to be made to thepolicy rate (repo rate) to contain inflationwithin the target (based on CPI) level setunder India's inflation targeting regime.

80. Correct Option: (b)Explanation:About Capital Acccount In macroeconomics and international

finance, the capital account (also knownas the financial account) is one of twoprimary components of the balance ofpayments, the other being the currentaccount. Whereas the current accountreflects a nation's net income, the capitalaccount reflects net change in ownership ofnational assets.

A surplus in the capital account meansmoney is flowing into the country, but unlikea surplus in the current account, theinbound flows effectively representborrowings or sales of assets rather thanpayment for work. A deficit in the capitalaccount means money is flowing out of thecountry, and it suggests the nation isincreasing its ownership of foreign asset

Statement 1,2 and 5 are correct: Thecapital account transactions include alltransactions which alter the assets orliabilities. It includes, FDI, Portfolioinvestment, external commercial borrowingsand trade credits.

Statement 3, 4 and 6 are incorrect: Thecurrent account includes net incomethrough exports/imports, invisible tradesuch as interest and dividends, transfers,remittances, foreign aid etc.


Explanation:About the balance of payments (BOP) The balance of payments (BOP)also known

as balance of international payments,summarizes all transactions that a country'sindividuals, companies and governmentbodies complete with individuals, companiesand government bodies outside the country.These transactions consist of imports andexports of goods, services and capital, aswell as transfer payments such as foreignaid and remittances.

Balance of payment has two parts balanceof current account and balance of capitalaccount.

Statement 2 & 3 are incorrect: Balanceof current account consist balance of trade,balance of services and balance ofunrequited transfers. It covers all receiptson account of earning like Interests, profits,royalties paid and received. But receipts onaccount of all types of lending/borrowingare covered under capital account.


Explanation:Statement 1 and 2 are Correct: QualifiedForeign Investor are the foreign individual,group or foreign firm who can directly investin Indian stock-market like any normal Indiancitizen, without requiring the sub-account withFII. QFIs compliant with Financial Action TaskForce (FATF) standard and that is a signatoryto International Organization of SecuritiesCommission's Multilateral Memorandum ofUnderstanding.


Answers [39]SCOREGS

QFI is required to open one Demat accountand a trading account with any of thequalified DP and make purchase and saleof equities (shares) through that DP only.QFIs can own up to 5% of Indian companieswhile their cumulative investments arecapped at 10%.It aims to increase the'confidence' of investors in Indian Market.

Statement 3 is incorrect: An NRI cannotmake investments simultaneously throughthe QFI route and portfolio investmentscheme (PIS) route. However, an NRI canopen demat account as QFI and makeinvestments through this route provided hehas closed all his demat account(s) openedas an NRI.


Explanation:About devaluation Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Devaluation in modern monetary policy isa reduction in the value of a currency withrespect to those goods, services or othermonetary units with which that currency canbe exchanged. Lowering of the value of acurrency of a country tends to raise itsexports by making its goods cheaper forforeigners.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation ordepreciation makes the imports fromabroad expensive in terms of domesticcurrency (rupees in case of India) andtherefore the imports tend to fall.

Statement 4 is correct. With exportsincreasing and imports declining, it isexpected that devaluation (depreciation) willreduce a country's trade deficit .


Explanation:About World Bank Group: The World Bank Group (WBG) is a family of

five international organizations that makeleveraged loans to developing countries. Itis the largest and most well-knowndevelopment bank in the world and is anobserver at the United NationsDevelopment Group.

The bank is based in Washington, D.C. andprovided around $61 billion in loans andassistance to "developing" countries in the

2014 fiscal year. The bank's stated missionis to achieve the twin goals of endingextreme poverty and building sharedprosperity.

Its five organizations are the InternationalBank for Reconstruction and Development(IBRD), the International DevelopmentAssociation (IDA), the International FinanceCorporation (IFC), the MultilateralInvestment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) andthe International Centre for Settlement ofInvestment Disputes (ICSID). The first twoare sometimes collectively (and confusingly)referred to as the World Bank.

The World Bank's (the IBRD and IDA's)activities are focused on developingcountries, in f ields such as humandevelopment (e.g. education, health),agriculture and rural development (e.g.irrigation and rural services), environmentalprotection (e.g. pollution reduction,establishing and enforcing regulations),infrastructure (e.g. roads, urbanregeneration, and electricity), large industrialconstruction projects, and governance (e.g.anti-corruption, legal institutionsdevelopment).

Statement 1 is incorrect: IMF and notWorld Bank acquire most of its financialresources from the quota subscriptions ofits member countries.

Statement 2 is correct: It is mandatoryfor a country to first join IMF before it canbe a member of the World Bank.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It is responsiblefor preparation of World EconomicDevelopment report. World EconomicOutlook report is given by the IMF.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India is notmember of ICSID which is one of the fiveagencies of the World Bank group.

85. Correct Option: (a)Explanation:About special Drawing Right Special drawing rights The SDR is the unit

of account for the IMF, and is not a currencyper se. SDRs instead represent a claim tocurrency held by IMF member countries forwhich they may be exchanged. The SDR wascreated in 1969 to supplement a shortfallof preferred foreign-exchange reserveassets, namely gold and the U.S. dollar.



SDRs are allocated to countries by the IMF.Private parties do not hold or use them. Theamount of SDRs in existence was aroundSDR 21.4 billion in August 2009. During theglobal financial crisis of 2009, an additionalSDR 182.6 billion were allocated to "provideliquidity to the global economic system andsupplement member countries' officialreserves". By October 2014, the amount ofSDRs in existence was SDR 204 billion.

The value of the SDR is based on a basketof key international currencies reviewed byIMF every five years. The weights assignedto each currency in the SDR basket areadjusted to take into account their currentprominence in terms of international tradeand national foreign exchange reserves.

In the review conducted in November 2015,the IMF decided that the Renminbi (Chineseyuan) would be added to the basket effectiveOctober 1, 2016. From that date, the XDRbasket now consists of the following fivecurrencies: U.S. dollar 41.73%, Euro 30.93%,Renminbi (Chinese yuan) 10.92%, Japaneseyen 8.33%, British pound 8.09%.


Explanation:

About ICEsat-2:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: ICEsat-2 missionis launched by NASA.

The Ice, Cloud, and Land Elevation Satellite-2, or ICESat-2, will measure the height of achanging Earth, one laser pulse at a time,10,000 laser pulses a second.

Statement 2 is correct: ICESat-2 carry aphoton-counting laser altimeter, AdvancedTopographic Laser Altimeter System,(ATLAS)that will allow scientists to measure theelevation of ice sheets, glaciers, sea ice andmore - all in unprecedented detail.

ICESat-2 will help scientists investigate why,and how much, our cryosphere is changingin a warming climate.

Statement 3 is correct: The satellite willalso measure heights across Earth'stemperate and tropical regions, and takestock of the vegetation in forests worldwide


Explanation:

About Man-Portable Anti Tank GuidedMissile (MPATGM)

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The MPATGM isa third-generation anti-tank guided missile(ATGM), which has been developed byDRDO in partnership with Indian defensecontractor VEM Technologies Ltd.

Statement 2 is correct: MPATGM has 'Fireand Forget' and 'Top Attack capabilities,which can be used by day and night.

Statement 3 is correct: MPATGM willcomplement the Spike Anti-Tank GuidedMissile to be procured from Israel.

Design and development of MPATGMweapon system is undertaken fordeployment by Infantry and ParachuteBattalions of the Indian Army. It is intendedto be a replacement for second generationMILAN and Konkurs ATGMs, in service withIndian Army.


Explanation:

About Mitral Valve:

The mitral valve also known as the bicuspidvalve or left atrioventricular valve, is a valvewith two flaps in the Heart, that lies betweenthe left atrium and the left ventricle. Themitral valve and the tricuspid valve areknown collectively as the atrioventricularvalves because they lie between the atriaand the ventricles of the heart.

In mitral valve prolapse: part of the mitralvalve slips backward loosely into thechamber called the left atrium. This happenswhen the main heart muscle, called the leftventricle, squeezes during each heartbeat.Mitral valve prolapse differs from mitralvalve stenosis. In mitral valve stenosis, themitral valve is stiff and constricted.

Mitral stenosis is a condition in which yourmitral valve narrows and prevents the easyflow of blood.


Answers [41]SCOREGS


Explanation:

Country Partnership Framework:Statement 1 is incorrect: The CPF is not ananalytic document, but it is underpinned bythe systematic and evidence-based analysis ofthe Systematic Country Diagnostic (SCD). TheCPF is a short document that provides anintegrated and selective framework for theWBG's partnership with the country. Thedegree of planned or actual engagement byindividual WBG institutions may varydepending on the country's challenges andopportunities and on the ability of individualWBG institutions to engage.Statement 2 is correct: The CPF indicates theexpected lending volume, as well as possibleinstruments of engagement. The CPFsystematically evaluates risks and identifies anyrelevant high or substantial risks to achievingthe CPF objectives, including any risk that theWBG engagement may result in unintendedadverse country impacts. The CPF identifieshow the WBG, working with the country, willmanage these high or substantial risks.Statement 3 is correct: The CPF identifies aselect set of objectives and articulates how thisselection is aligned with the priorities of thecountry's own development program, thepriorities identified in the SCD and the WBG'scomparative advantages. The CPF objectivesare derived from those country developmentgoals that reflect the WBG's comparativeadvantage and are aligned with the goals ofending extreme poverty and increasing sharedprosperity in a sustainable manner. The CPFindicates the expected lending volume, as wellas possible instruments of engagement.News: World Bank Group (WBG) Board ofExecutive Directors approved CountryPartnership Framework (CPF) for India tosupport its transition to higher middle-income country.


Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Kurinji once used

to cover the Nilgiri Hills and Palani Hillslike a carpet during its flowering season.Now plantations and dwellings occupy much

of their habitat. Besides the Western Ghats,Neelakurinji is also seen in the Shevroys inthe Eastern Ghats, Anamalai hills Idukkidistrict and Agali hills in Palakad inKerala and Sanduru hills of Bellarydistrict in Karnataka.

Statement 2 is correct: Nilgiri Hills, whichliterally means the blue mountains, got theirname from the purplish blue flowers ofNeelakurinji that blossoms only once in 12years.

Statement 3 is correct: KurinjimalaSanctuary protects the kurinji inapproximately 32 km² core habitat inKottakamboor and Vattavada villages inIdukki district of Kerala. The Save KurinjiCampaign Council organizes campaignsand, programs for conservation ofthe Kurinji plant and its habit. KurinjiAndavar temple located in Kodaikanalon Tamil Nadu dedicatedto Hindu God Kartikeya also preservesStrobilanthes plants.

About Neelkurinji: Neel Kurinji or Kurinji (Stobilanthes

Kunthianus) is a shrub generally found inmany parts of the various south Indian hills.

Nilgiri Hills, which literally means the bluemountains, got their name from the purplishblue flowers of Neelakurinji that blossomsonly once in 12 years.

Kurinji grows at an altitude of 1300 to 2400metres. The plant is usually 30 to 60 cmhigh. They can, however, grow well beyond180 cm under congenial conditions.

Some Kurinji flowers bloom once everyseven years, and then die. Their seedssubsequently sprout and continue the cycleof life and death.

Habitat:Kurinji is found in :

– Western Ghats– Shevaroys in the Eastern Ghats,– Anamalai hills, Agali hills in Kerala– Sanduru hills of Bellary district in Karnataka Threat:– Habitat destruction, Kurinji once used to

cover the Nilgiri Hills and Palani Hills like a



carpet during its flowering season. Nowplantations and dwellings occupy much oftheir habitat.

– Tourist plucking and damaging the plant– Forest fires are also threat for these rare

endemic plantsSignificance:

– Neelkunjira is an endemic species ofimmense importance.

– The Paliyan tribal people living in Tamil Naduused it as a reference to calculate their age.Muthuvans, an Adivasi tribe of Mullar hillsof Kerala consider Neelkunjira sacred. Theybelieve their god, Lord Murugan, marriedDevi using a garland made with theseflowers

91. Correct Option: (d)Explanation: Statement (a) is incorrect: The launch has

been done with a vision to provide thepoorest of the poor, and theunderprivileged sections of society (notmiddle class) with better healthcare andtreatment.

Statement (b) is incorrect: The focus ison both “Affordable Healthcare” and“Preventive Healthcare.”

Statement (c) is incorrect: Providecomprehensive health care, including fornon-communicable diseases and maternaland child health services

Statement (d) is correct: The secondflagship programme under AyushmanBharat is National Health Protection Scheme,which will cover over 10 crore poor andvulnerable families (approximately 50 crorebeneficiaries) providing coverage upto 5lakh rupees per family per year forsecondary and tertiary carehospitalization

92. Correct Option: (a)Explanation:About Drain of Wealth: Dadabhai Naoroji was the first man to say

that internal factors were not the reasonsof poverty in India but poverty was causedby the colonial rule that was draining thewealth and prosperity of India.

Statement 2 is Correct. In 1867, DadabhaiNaoroji put forward the ‘drain of wealth’theory in which he stated that the Britainwas completely draining India. He mentionedthis theory in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. Further in his book,he stated the loss of 200-300 millionpounds of revenue to Britain.

Dadabhai Naoroji considered it as a majorevil of British in India. On the footsteps ofDadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt also promotedthe same theory by keeping it as a majortheme of his book Economic History inIndia.

Statement 1 is Correct. The drain of wealthwas the portion of India’s wealth andeconomy that was not available to Indiansfor consumption.Dadabhai Naoroji gave six factors thatcaused external drain. These are:

External rule and administration in India. Funds and labour needed for economic

development was brought in by immigrantsbut India did not draw immigrants.

All the civil administration and armyexpenses of Britain were paid by India.

India was bearing the burden of territorybuilding both inside and outside India.

India was further exploited by opening thecountry to free trade.

Statement 3 is Incorrect. Major earnersin India during British rule were foreigners.The money they earned was never investedin India to buy anything. Moreover they leftIndia with that money.Not only this, but through different servicessuch as railways, India was giving a hugeamount to Britain. On the other hand, tradeas well as Indian labour was deeplyundervalued. Along with this, the East IndiaCompany was buying products from Indiawith Indian money and exporting it toBritain.

93. Correct Option: (b)Explanation:Statement 1 is Incorrect: It is AbindranathTagore; who is the brother of Rabindranathtagore is considered as the originator of modernschool of paintings


Answers [43]SCOREGS

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Bazaar Paintingswere patronised by the British rulers. The artwas inspired by Greco-roman elements.Paintings were also of every day bazaar ormarkets in India. Although religious paintingswere allowed but not with the figures havingunnatural features like multiple arms, legs andanimal heads.About Abindranath Tagore:Abanindranath Tagore was the principal artistand creator of the “Indian Society of OrientalArt”. He was also the first major exponent ofSwadeshi values in Indian art, thereby foundingthe influential Bengal school of art, which ledto the development of modern Indian painting.He was also a noted writer, particularly forchildren. Popularly known as ‘Aban Thakur’, hisbooks Rajkahini, Budo Angla, Nalak, and KhirerPutul are landmarks in Bengali languagechildren’s literature.Statement 2 is correct. As the British EastIndia Company expanded its purview in SouthAsia during the late 1700s, great numbers ofits employees moved from England to carveout new lives for themselves in India. As theytraveled through the country and encounteredunusual flora and fauna, stunning ancientmonuments, and exotic new people, theywanted to capture these images to send or takehome. Whereas the modern tourist would relyon his camera for such a task, eighteenth- andnineteenth-century travelers had to hire Indianpainters to do the job. The works produced bythese artists, undertaken in a European styleand palette, are known collectively as“Company” paintings. They are characterizedin medium by the use of watercolors (insteadof gouache), and in technique by theappearance of linear perspective andshading . Aesthetically, they are thedescendants of the picturesque scenes of Indiacreated by the likes of Thomas and WilliamDaniell. This style of painting arose in a numberof different cities. Work from each region isdistinguishable by style, which grew out of andwas heavily influenced by earlier local traditions.


Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct. There is only one

general electoral roll for every territorial

constituency for election to both Parliamentand State Legislatures.

Statement 2 is correct. The Constitutiondeclares that the validity of any law relatingto the delimitation of constituencies or theallotment to such constituencies cannot bequestioned in any court. The decision of theDelimitation Commission is f inal andbinding.

An Election petition is a procedure forinquiring into the validity of the electionresults of Parliamentaryor local governmentelections. In other words, it is a means underlaw to challenge the election of acandidatein a Parliamentary, Assembly or localelection.

Statement 3 is Correct. Election petitionsare filed in the High Court of the particularstate in which the election wasconducted.Therefore, only the High Courtshave the original jurisdiction on deciding onelection petitions. Suchjurisdiction shall beexercised ordinarily by the Single Judge ofthe High Court and Chief Justice shall fromtime to time assign one or more Judges forthat purpose.


Explanation:Statement 2 is incorrect:Lok Adalat is not primarily an appellatecourt.About Lok Adalats Lok Adalat is not primarily an appellate

court. Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute

redressal mechanisms, it is a forum wheredisputes/cases pending in the court of lawor at pre-litigation stage are settled/compromised amicably.

Statement 1 is Correct. There is no courtfee payable when a matter is filed in a LokAdalat. If a matter pending in the court oflaw is referred to the Lok Adalat and issettled subsequently, the court fee originallypaid in the court on the complaints/petitionis also refunded back to the parties.

Statement 3 is Correct. The decision of theLok Adalat is binding on the parties to thedispute and its order is capable of execution



through legal process. No appeal liesagainst the order of the Lok Adalat.


Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Only parliament hasthe power to increase total strength of theSupreme Court.Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 124. (2) -Says every Judge of the Supreme Court shallbe appointed by the President. And shall holdoffice until he attains the age of sixty-five years.Supreme Court Judges: At present, the Supreme Court consists of

thirty-one judges (one chief justice andthirty other judges).

The judges of the Supreme Court areappointed by the president. The chief justiceis appointed by the president afterconsultation with such judges of theSupreme Court and high courts as hedeems necessary.

The other judges are appointed by presidentafter consultation with the chief justice andsuch other judges of the Supreme Court andthe high courts as he deems necessary. Theconsultation with the chief justice isobligatory in the case of appointment of ajudge other than Chief justice.

Statement 3 is correct. The CJI and otherJudges of the Supreme Court of India holdthe office until they attain the age of 65years { Presently, Supreme Court judgesretire at 65 and High Court judges at 62}. AJudge can relinquish the office by addressingthe resignation to President of India.


Explanation:Principle of Fraternity: It means a sense of brotherhood. The

Constitution promotes this feeling offraternity by the system of single citizenship.

Statement 1 is correct. The Preambledeclares that fraternity has to assure twothings-the dignity of the individual and theunity and integrity of the nation.

The word 'integrity' has been added to thepreamble by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment (1976). According to K MMunshi, a member of the DraftingCommittee of the Constituent Assembly, thephrase 'dignity of the individual' signifiesthat the Constitution not only ensuresmaterial betterment and maintain ademocratic set-up, but that it alsorecognises that the personality of everyindividual is sacred.

Statement 2 is Correct. This is highlightedthrough some of the provisions of theFundamental Rights and Directive Principlesof State Policy, which ensure the dignity ofindividuals.Social empowerment is understood as theprocess of developing a sense of autonomyand self-confidence. It improves qualitative(eg: self confidence) and quantitative aspects(eg:mortality,life expectancy) of an individualand helps mitigate problems that excludepoor people and keep them in poverty. Thiswill indirectly provide DIGNITY to individuals.(Hence statement 3 is correct).

98. Correct Option: (b)Explanation:Amendments and DPSP added: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added

four new DPSP:a. Article 39: To secure opportunities for

healthy development of children.(hencestatement 1 is matched correctly)

b. Article39 A: To promote equal justice andto provide free legal aid to the poor.

c. Article 43 A: To take steps to secure theparticipation of workers in the managementof industries.

d. Article 48 A: To protect and improve theenvironment and to safeguard forests andwild Life.

Statement 2 should match C. The 44thAmendment Act of 1978 added Article 38:which requires the State to minimizeinequalities in income, status, facilities andopportunities.

Statement 3 should match B. The 97thAmendment Act of 2011 added Article 43B:It requires the state to promote voluntaryformation,autonomous functioning,democratic control and professionalmanagement of co-operative societies.


Answers [45]SCOREGS


Explanation:Statement 2 is incorrect: If Money Bill isdefeated in Loksabha Sabha, Government mustresign with immediate effect.This is so becauseit is drafted and introduced with the previousconsent of the President,its not passing proveslack of simple majoirity to the government .Money bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabhaby Minister(with previous consent of thepresident). Rajya Sabha can only suggestchanges without right to vote.Bills in Parliament:Ordinary Bills: Ordinary bills are concerned with any matter

other than Financial Bills, money Bills andConstitutional Amendment Bills.

Such Bills can be introduced in either Houseof Indian Parliament (Lok Sabha or RajyaSabha) without the recommendations ofPresident of India. These bills are passed bySimple Majority in both Houses.

Statement 1 is correct. If Ordinary Bill isdefeated in the Lok Sabha, it may lead toresignation of government if introduced bya Minister.

Money Bills: These are defined in Article 110. These Bills

deal with the taxes, borrowings,consolidated and contingency funds, auditand accounting, etc.

Article 109 of Indian Constitution givesspecial procedure regarding Money Bills.

A money Bill can originate only in Lok Sabhaafter the recommendations of the President.Through the Bill is sent to Rajya Sabha alsobut even Rajya Sabha rejects/returns the Bill(within days necessarily), the Bill is deemedto be passed.

The Appropriation Bill and Annual FinancialBill (Budget) are Money Bills.

Money bill can only be introduced in LokSabha by Minister. Rajya Sabha has limitedpowers with respect to the Money Bills. Itcannot reject or amend the bill, it can onlyrecommendthe amendments. A money billmust be returned to the Lok Sabha within14 days, or the bill is deemed to have passedboth houses in the form it was originallypassed by the Lok Sabha.


Explanation:Methanol: Niti Aayog plans to set up a Methanol

Economy Fund worth Rs 4,000-5,000 croreto promote production and use of the cleanfuel. The government think is aiming atgeneration of the fuel by converting highash content coal into methanol and such aplant is expected to be set up by Coal India.

It is a clean burning drop in fuel which canreplace both petrol and diesel intransportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene incooking fuel.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. Methanol burnsefficiently in all internal combustion engines,produces no particulate matter, no soot,almost nil SOX and NOX emissions (NEARZERO POLLUTION).

It is also known as wood alcohol. Why Methanol?– Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel

which can replace both petrol & diesel intransportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene incooking fuel.

– It can also replace diesel in Railways, MarineSector, Gensets, Power Generation andMethanol based reformers could be the idealcompliment to Hybrid and Electric Mobility.Methanol Economy is the “Bridge” to thedream of a complete “Hydrogen based fuelsystems”.


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