all india mock test 1

16
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI Serial: 737246 PRESTORMING TM GS PAPER II TEST BOOKLET ALL INDIA MOCK TEST – 1 Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 I N S T R U C T I O N S 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box. Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO A

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Page 1: ALL INDIA MOCK TEST 1

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI

Serial: 737246

PRESTORMINGTM

GS PAPER II

TEST BOOKLET

ALL INDIA MOCK TEST – 1

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE

APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.

Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises

four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In

case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the

best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in

the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,

you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your

Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take

away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for Wrong answers

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE

TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that question

will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for

that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

A

Page 2: ALL INDIA MOCK TEST 1

1

1. Solution: (d)

In order to bolster their argument, tobacco executive claim that cigarette smoking was not regulated by Food and Drug

Control Department. Consequently, it must be inferred that addictive substances are regulated Food & Drug Control

Department and vice versa. As cigarette smoking is not regulated by the department, it’s not an addictive substance.

This thread of argument by tobacco executives stands valid which leads us to choose choice D.

2. Solution: (c)

Answer choice should give the crux of all points given in the passage and only choice C gives that crux. A & B are

inference to be drawn from the passage, not a conclusion. Moreover, inference mentioned in choice A is applicable

to entire India and not just to Bangalore and this is also one more reason why it is eliminated. There is no enough

information to suggest what proprietor had planned and the passage is not presented from the perspective of theatre

proprietor. So, choice D is eliminated.

3. Solution: (b)

On the basis of their specific regions named 11 different climates on Earth. Second sentence of the 2nd paragraph

supports choice B.

4. Solution: (c)

Last sentence of the 3rd paragraph support choice C, i.e. the poles, at the top and bottom of Earth’s sphere, receive

the least sunlight of all, and therefore have a layer of ice year-round.

5. Solution: (b)

The sun shines directly on the Equator. This choice B is supported by the 2nd sentence of the 3rd paragraph.

6. Solution: (d)

The six different climates exist in the subtropical regions. Last sentence of the 2nd paragraph supports choice D.

7. Solution: (b)

Choice A & D is absurd because there is no information to support their claim. Choice C is wrong because there is no

information to support claim that naturalist had admiration for insects despite lack of industry upon separation. Upon

man’s invasion and separation of an insect from its group indirectly suggest that there is some disturbance in their

normal environment and this leads to lack of industry. Hence B seems to be the most logical inference.

8. Solution: (c)

The main idea of passage is that the prevention of climate change will involve solutions which will be implemented

over the decades to come. It will be a long term exercise. However, climate change already has had negative

consequences. Resilience measures are required to mitigate the impact of these consequences. Innovative and

practical solutions are available that can be implemented through the participation of politicians, citizens, business

Page 3: ALL INDIA MOCK TEST 1

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firms and experts (various segments of society). These points are best summarised in C. Other choices don’t capture

the entire points in the passage so they are eliminated.

9. Solution: (c)

Unless the author assumes that reading program involves merely reading text in English language and not acquiring

language, there is no fair reason behind why the author doesn’t recommend exclusive expenditure on reading

program. To uphold the author’s stance on reading program (it involves only reading English text), it must be assumed

that reading practice is completed by reading history and science books which are in English medium and not acquiring

knowledge. Choice A, B, & D have no relevant to the author’s stance on reading program so eliminated.

10. Solution: (a)

There is no information about Latha’s past experience in the passage so choice B is eliminated. Given the information

in the passage which only talks about blood test and how Latha will feel about it and not about doctor, choices C&D

are eliminated. As a result, we are left with choice A which assumes that the needle must causes pain.

11. Solution: (c)

Lawyer

Doctor (-) Tom John (-) Rani

(Teacher) (Teacher) (Lawyer)

Ajay (-) Couple

Child

12. Solution: (a)

13. Solution: (c)

14. Solution: (c)

The factors of x2 are 1, x and x2. The factors of xy are 1, x, y and xy. The factors of x3 are 1, x, x2 and x3.

15. Solution: (a)

Number is 120K + 1 = ((13 9 + 3) K + 1)

= 13 9K + 3K + 1; which is divisible by 13.

3K + 1 is divisible by 13.

K = 4, Number = 481.

16. Solution: (a)

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3

X = 63

6= 10.5

Total amount = 10.5 7 = 73.50

17. Solution: (c)

Let the fraction be x

y

Let x1 = x + 0.25x = 1.25x

Y1 = y – 0.25x = 0.75

1 1.25 5

1 0.75 3

x x x

y y

Increase =

5

23100 100 66.67%

3

x x

y y

x

y

Thus, the resultant fraction is more than the original fraction by 67%.

18. Solution: (d)

Author starts by explaining how people behave when they are young and what changes are brought about by increased

age. Therefore, answer choice should sum up the consequence of old age on person’s behaviour to complete the

author’s argument on curvilinear relationship. Choice D is the most logical conclusion as it complements the argument

which the author is making—that as people become older, their willingness to take efforts gets reduced. So choice D

is the logical corollary.

19. Solution: (c)

Choice A is eliminated because it contradicts the information given in the passage. Choice B is ruled out because there

is no scope to infer about protection of integrity. Choice D is eliminated because conclusion advocate for alternative

source whereas choice D relies solely on State department. As the conclusion bats for alternative sources of

information, their versions of reporting must differ from State Department, choice C is the correct answer because it

alludes that alternative source will differ from State Department.

20. Solution: (a)

The passage starts with the notion that technology preempts creativity but finally it proves it is not so and ends with

how technology is helpful to arts. This message is clearly captured by Choice A. Moreover, there is no information to

state that technology can refine pressures on art, so choice C is ruled out. Choice B is eliminated because it is clearly

stated in the passage that technological challenge to art is unnecessary. Choice D is ruled out because it only reflects

negative side of argument and didn’t capture the overall crucial message.

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21. Solution: (c)

Choice A is eliminated because inflation rate is not the main argument in the passage. Choice B is ruled out because it

contradicts the information given in the passage. Choice C is the correct answer as it captures the overall idea of the

passage.

22. Solution: (a)

In the first row, 72 ÷ (24/2) = 72 ÷ 12 = 6.

In the second row, 96 ÷ (16/2) = 96 ÷ 8 = 12.

Let the missing number in the third row be y.

Then,

108 ÷ (y/2) = 18 or y/2 = 108/18 = 6 or y = 12.

23. Solution: (a)

Only one such symbol is there in the given arrangement.

It is 4@5

24. Solution: (d)

Let R, G and B represent the number of balls in red, green and blue boxes respectively.

Then,

R + G + B = 108 ...(i),

G + R = 2B ...(ii)

B = 2R ...(iii)

From (ii) and (iii), we have G + R = 2x 2R = 4R or G = 3R.

Putting G = 3R and B = 2R in (i), we get:

R + 3R + 2R = 108 => 6R = 108 => R = 18.

Therefore Number of balls in green box = G = 3R = (3 x 18) = 54.

25. Solution: (d)

D can be either the right side or left of A. So, the given data is not sufficient for answering the question.

26. Solution: (a)

Let CP in X be Rs. x

CP in Y = Rs. 0.9x 0.9 + 15 + 10 = x

0.1x = 25

X = 250

Price in Y = 250 0.9 = Rs. 225.

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27. Solution: (a)

The non-water matter is 1% of 5000 = 50 gm. After drying, this matter becomes 2% of the weight of the fruit. Hence

the weight of the fruit now is 2500 gm.

28. Solution: (d)

65% of the under 15 are boys.

35% of the under 15 are girls.

35% represents 441 girls.

100% is represented by 441100

35= 1260.

45% of the students is represented by 1260.

100% is 1260 100

45 = 2800

Total number of students is 2800.

29. Solution: (c)

W = 0.9X = 360

X = 400

X = 1.25 Y; 400 = 1.25 Y; Y = 320

Y = 0.8 Z; 320 = 0.8 Z; Z = 400

% of Z = 400

100500

= 80%

30. Solution: (b)

Month Date Person

Jan 15 J

25 M

April 15 G

25 K

November 15 L

25 I

December 15 H

25 F

31. Solution: (c)

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32. Solution: (b)

33. Solution: (a)

34. Solution: (c)

35. Solution: (a)

Here, n = 20, x = 65

x = xi

xi=xn

.n = 20 65 = 1300

Correct = (Incorrect di ) – (Incorrect values)

+ (Correct values)

= 1300 – 96 + 69 = 1273

Correct Mean = 1273

20 = 63.65

36. Solution: (a)

First series: 3, 5, 7, 9

Second series: 5, 19, 41,?

Difference of Second series are 14, 22, 30 etc

Next term is 41+30 i.e. equal to 71

37. Solution: (c)

If there are 216 cubes attached it should be of 6*6

Since 1 face painted cubes should be found for two faces which are painted in black, 4*4 =16. Since two faces are

painted in black total will be 32

38. Solution: (b)

Income tax to be paid on Rs. 3000

= 0.03 3000 = Rs. 90

39. Solution: (a)

A’s share of profit = 3

1000012

Rs. 2500

C’s share of profit = 6

1000012

Rs. 5000

Difference in profit = Rs. 2500.

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Alternatively,

Difference in the investment of profit

= 6 3

1000012

Rs. 2500

40. Solution: (c)

If Y can do the job in 3x days, X can do the same job in x days.

3x – x = 60 x = 30

Y takes 90 days and X takes 30 days.

Work done by them in 1 day

= 1 1 2

90 30 45 th part.

Time taken for doing the work together

= 45

2

= 22 1

2 days

41. Solution: (b)

If the distance is d and the usual time t hrs., then,

T = d 2 d×2 8

- = +4 60 9 60

d 2d 8 2 1

- = +4 9 60 60 6

9d – 8d = 6

d = 6 kms.

Alternatively,

Using the formula,

t1 – t2 = 8 – (-2) = 10

d = 10 4 4.5

660 4.5 4

kms

42. Solution: (c)

The X gains 1 1 4

6 10 60 km/min

Page 9: ALL INDIA MOCK TEST 1

8

= 2

663

m/min.

To gain 100m, the required

= 100 1

12 2

663

min.

The Y has gone ahead by 1 1

1 10002 10

Metres = 150m

43. Solution: (a)

Except choice A, all choices are irrelevant to notion about demonstration or protest. Therefore, choice A is the correct

answer.

44. Solution: (c)

The passage refers to the face that the Azadi Tower is the rallying point for all major national celebrations and

anniversaries as well as for staging mass demonstrations. Hence it symbolises both the struggles and the victories of

the Iranian people which qualifies choice C as correct answer. Choice A &B are too broad in focus whereas the passage

specifically mentions Iran. Hence, they are eliminated. There is no enough information to suggest that all worthy

incident took place in the backdrop of Azadi Tower and also that is not the main point of the argument. So, choice D

is eliminated.

45. Solution: (b)

The passage states that before the new reality, some with the power to act had elaborate theories that the poor were

by nature inferior or happy in their condition

46. Solution: (a)

Choice A is supported by the following words of the passage: destructive use of crop lands, forests, and watersheds—

thus posing a threat to the affluent.

47. Solution: (c)

Choice A is eliminated as it take extreme stand i.e. adversary which find no scope in the passage. Choices B&D are

eliminated because there is no enough information to infer about inefficiency in supply chain or innovation. As a

result, choice C is the only choice which can be inferred by the absence of long-term commitment resulting in loses in

long run.

Page 10: ALL INDIA MOCK TEST 1

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48. Solution: (b)

49. Solution: (a)

Let the edge = `a` cm

So increase by `50%` = `a+a/2 = 3a/2`

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Total surface Area of original cube = `6a^2`

TSA of new cube = `6(3a/2)^2`

`6 xx 9a^2/4 = 13.5a^2`

Increase in area = `13.5a^2 - 6a^2 = 7.5a^2`

`7.5a^2` Increase % = `(7.5a^2)/(6a^2) xx 100 = 125%`

50. Solution: (b)

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

X – 2 = V

V – 2 = T

T – 2 = R

R – 2 = P

51. Solution: (d)

Work done by A in 3 days = 1 1

36 2

of the work.

Work done by B in 3 days = 1 3

38 8

of the work.

Work done by C in 3 days

= 1-1 3 1

2 8 8

of the work.

Ratio of work done = 1 3 1

: : 4 : 3 :12 8 8

The C’s share = 1

8 Rs. 200 = Rs. 25

52. Solution: (b)

Part of the tank filled in one minute

G + 3 = J 2 2 = 4

J + 3 = M 4 2 = 8

M + 3 = P 8 2 = 16

P + 3 = S 16 2 = 32

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1 1 1 3 4 6 1

40 30 20 120 120

The tank will be filled in 120 minutes.

53. Solution: (b)

Let speed on the return trip be x km/hr.

Average speed = 2×40×x

40+x

48 = 80x

40+x

1920 + 48x = 80x

x = 1920

32 = 60 km/hr.

54. Solution: (b)

At 5’o clock the two hands are 25 minute spaces apart.

I. When the minute hand is 3 minute spaces behind the hour hand, it has to gain (25 -3 = 22) minute spaces.

i.e., 60

2255

= 24 minutes. i.e., at 24 minutes past 5

II. When the minute hand is 3 minute spaces ahead of the hour hand it has to gain (25 + 3 = 28) minute spaces.

i.e., 12 6

28 3011 11

minutes past 5

55. Solution: (b)

The passage states that schools teach capitalism not so much by directly instructing students but by simply embodying

capitalistic qualities in their very structure. This suggests that capitalism is taught implicitly.

56. Solution: (a)

Based on the experience of London, it has been concluded that similar air pollution should be imposed in major cities.

Unless the major cities suffer from air pollution, there is no point in imposing rules. Hence, this conclusion assumes

that all major cities suffer from air pollution caused by local industry. This lands us in choosing choice A.

57. Solution: (a)

One may be born rich or poor. But how he lives speaks of his real self.

58. Solution: (d)

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The passage states that the current media environment allows individuals to offer message inexpensively over the

internet so that they are no longer constrained by cost. In other words, the new media are more accessible to users.

59. Solution: (b)

60. Solution: (a)

61. Solution: (d)

62. Solution: (c)

Ratio of 2nd - Ratio of mixtureRatio=

Ratio of mixture - Ratio of 1st

(formula)

1

1 213 = : =1:2 i.e.,2 13 13

13

63. Solution: (c)

1 woman’s share = Share of 3 boys

1 girl’s share = Share of 3 boys + Share of 1 boy

7 girl, 11 women and 5 boys will be equivalent to 28 + 33 + 5 = 66 boys

Share of 66 boys = Rs. 79. 20

Share of 1 boy = Rs. 1.20

Share of 1 girl = Rs. 4.80

64. Solution: (b)

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The author tries to prove the point that organisation doesn’t lose its effectiveness though on surface it seems to be

irrational. And, organisation is working efficiently beneath this veil of irrationality, hence rationality is no more elusive.

In other words, the author is attempting to define the term organisation. Hence answer choice should reflect the

author’s definition and choice B fits well in this context. While considering other choices from the perspective of

definition, they are shifting the flow of ideas. Thus, choices A, C&D are ruled out.

65. Solution: (a)

Paragraph clearly states that diplomacy & international laws are considered to be obstacles unless they work in parallel

with agenda of military force. Though the last sentence of the passage claims that active players in world affairs are

humble and submissive and don’t like use of force, corollary should talk about the actual role of diplomacy in world

affairs. Among four choices, only statement B complements this flow of idea. Choice B&C talks about history which

shifts the focus of argument away from diplomacy hence they are eliminated. Choice D is eliminated because it too

shifts the focus away from diplomacy and international laws.

66. Solution: (b)

Total length = 60 cm

Rani’s share = 30 cm

Senapathi’s share = 30

4=

17

2

Yuvaraj’s share = x

Raja’s share = 6

30 + 15

6 602

x

60 + 15 + 2x + 12 = 120

x = 16.5 cm.

67. Solution: (d)

68. Solution: (c)

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69. Solution: (b)

Let the daughter’s present age be ‘x’ years.

women’s age = 6x years

5(x +2) = (6x = 2)

5x + 10 = 6x + 2

x = 8

70. Solution: (c)

6 4 + 2 = 16 to be changed to

4 + 6 2 = 16

71. Solution: (d)

Let r be the number of rows in the garden. Then, number of shrubs in each row = r

Total number of shrubs in the garden

= r r

= r2 and number of fruits on each shrubs = r

Total number of fruits from the garden

= r2 r = r3

72. Solution: (b)

7a + 6b = 420

The equation is of the form: 7a + even number = even number

7a has to be even “a” has to be even.

73. Solution: (d)

1600 0.8 0.9 = 1600 0.72 = Rs. 1152

74. Solution: (c)

The passage clearly states that people, who make their meals at home and follow an eating routine, have had healthier

diets as compared to people who didn’t keep eating routine and eat hastily or eat purchased food. Choice C best

captures this conclusion. A is wrong because the passage does not suggest that the people who eat regular meals are

healthier but they eat healthier food than the other type in comparison. Choice B is wrong because, as per passage,

comparison is not with the ones that eat unhealthy food but with those who eat on the run or use media while eating.

In short, choices A&B make wrong comparison that is not in line with the passage. Choice D is not even close to the

discussion, in fact it gives a different meaning; here, it is comparing healthy and unhealthy food instead of people who

eat it.

75. Solution: (a)

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The passage focuses on two points: first one, that a large number of voters of electoral college of Pakistan cast ballots

to reassert the support to democracy and as a result the authoritarian President was denied majority. Choice A covers

both these points and is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it is incomplete. They turned out in election and

denied him majority is not mentioned here. Choice C and D are narrow in scope so they are eliminated.

76. Solution: (b)

Choice A is wrong because structural changes lead to economic growth and not the other way round. Choice C is

eliminated because it mentions investments in general whereas in the passage it talks about particular type of

investment i.e. those investments which don’t promote exports. Choice D is incorrect because the word national good

is broader term which includes not only economic growth but also national security and et al. As a result, only choice

B is left out and it is the correct answer because, to uphold the conclusion, it must be assumed that there should be

reduction in import surplus which doesn’t lead to economic growth. In other words, if people reduces their excessive

consumption, economy grows.

77. Solution: (b)

Choice B is correct because it best captures the essence of the passage. Choice A is incorrect, because passage does

not suggest notion of choice A. Choice C is incorrect because it talks about rights of people which is general in nature

whereas the passage specifically talks about human rights. Choice D is eliminated because it is narrow in capturing the

main idea.

78. Solutions: (c)

Conclusion of the passage calls for working population to build their own financial base because it assumes that India

has no enough financial resources to provide social security. Thus, any choice destabilising this assumption leads to

weakening the conclusion. Only choice C states that India is on path of becoming developed country and indirectly

states that it will be relieved from financial crunch to provide social security. Hence, choice C is the correct answer.

For questions on weakening conclusion, only choice that attacks the assumption should be chosen. Consequently,

choices that don’t target the assumption should be eliminated. Hence, choices A & B are eliminated. In the passage,

there is no scope to assume relation between financial base and joint family system so choice D is ruled out.

79. Solution: (c)

If the first two sentences are true, both John and Danish have more coins than Sonu. However, it is uncertain as to

whether Danish has more coins than John.

80. Solution: (b)

Minister comes under politician. Politician comes under human