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TNPSC - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
POLITY
SI.NO CONTENTS PAGE.NO
POLITY
1. GROUP - I 3 – 15
2. GROUP – II 16 - 20
3. GROUP – IIA 21 - 24
4. GROUP – IV 25 – 29
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TNPSC - GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2011
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
POLITY
1. Which Article of the constitution of India
gives provision to set up Panchayat?
A) Article 15 B) Article 25
C) Article 243 D) Article 42.
2. Grants-in-aid to the states by the centre are
provided with the objective of.
A) Augmenting financial resources of the
states.
B) Maintaining smooth centre-State
relation.
C) Ensuring stable government at the
centre.
D) All of these
3. In which year seats were reserved for
women in local bodies in Tamil Nadu?
1991 B) 1951
C) 1994 D) 2010
4. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was
passed during the period of.
A) Rajiv Gandhi B) A.B. Vajpayee
C) V.P. Singh D) Narasimha Rao
5. Which guarantees rights to freedom of
religion to all persons in all its aspects?
A) Articles 25 to 28 B) Article 29
C) Article 30 D) Article 34
6. As per the division of powers of India, in the
concurrent list there are.
A) 47 items B) 66 items
C) 97 items D) 77 items
7. _______ State of Indian Union has its own
constitution.
A) Punjab
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Sikkim
D) Jammu and Kashmir.
8. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : If no-confidence motion is
passed against a minister then all ministers
should resign.
Reason (R) : Only the concerned minister
resigns.
Now select your answer according to the
coding scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and ( R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
9. Consider the following statements:
I. Directive principles of State policy is
considered as the soul of the
constitution.
II. Directive principles of State policy is
meant for protection of rights.
III. Directive principles of State policy is
crucial for constitutional remedies.
IV. Directive principles of State policy is
relevant for promotion of private
property.
Of these.
A) I alone is correct B) II & III are correct
C) III & IV are correct D) IV alone is correct.
10. Who appoints finance commission in India?
A) The president of India
B) The Prime Minister.
C) The chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D) The speaker of the Lok Sabha
11. The Special Economic Zone Act was
passed in Indian parliament in.
A) May 2005 B) April 2004
C) May 2008 D) April 2007.
12. On which of the following grounds a elected
MP can be disqualified for defection?
I. If voluntarily gives up membership of
political party.
II. If the votes or abstains from voting
contrary to the direction of his political
party.
III. If expelled by his party.
IV. If he joins some other political party
other than one from where he won.
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Of these,
A) I,II,III & IV B) I,II & IV
C) I,III & IV D) II, III & IV
13. National Emergency was declared by the
congress Government headed by Indira
Gandhi in.
A) 1969 B) 1971
C) 1975 D) 1977
14. Which one of the following is not a salient
feature of the constitution of India?
A) Directive principles of State policy
B) Flexible constitution.
C) Secularism
D) Single citizenship
15. Consider the following statements:
I. There is no direct judicial remedies
behind the Directive principles of State
policy in India.
II. There are some direct judicial remedies
for the Directive principles of State
Policy in India.
Of these.
A) I alone is correct
B) I & II are correct.
C) II alone is correct
D) None of these.
16. The doctrine of fundamental right cannot be
amended under Art.368 was propounded by
the supreme court in which of the following
cases?
A) Gopalan Vs state of Madras
B) Kesavananda Bharathi Vs State of
Kerala.
C) Golaknath Vs State of Punjab
D) Menaka Vs Union of India.
GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2014
17. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High courts in India.
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory
of Chandigarh have a common High
court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a
High court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 3 only
18. Consider the following statements about the
Attorney-General of India.
1. He is appointed by the president of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as
are required for a judge of the Supreme
Court
3. He must be a member of either house of
parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by
parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
19. The parliament consists of.
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) The president Lok Sahba and Rajya
sabha.
(C) Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers and
Rajya sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vice-
president.
20. Who is real executive in a state?
(A) Governor
(B) The Speaker
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Chief Minister and the council of
Ministers.
21. Controller and Auditor General is appointed
by the .
(A) President (B) Vice – president
(C) Rajya sabha (D) Lok Sabha.
22. Consider the following statements with
reference to India.
1. The chief Election Commissioner and
other Election commissioners enjoy
equal power but, receive unequal
salaries.
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2. The Chief Election Commissioner is
entitled to the same salary as is
provided to a judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall
not be removed from his office except in
like manner and on like grounds as a
judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of the Election Commissioner
is five years from the date he assumes
his office or till the day he attains the
age of 62 years whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
23. Central Vigilance Commission was set up
on the recommendation of
(A) Gorwala Report
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Kripalani Committee
(D) Indian Administrative Reforms
commission.
24. Which one of the following statements about
Comptroller and Auditor General of India is
not correct?
(A) He has no direct access to the
parliament and no minister can
represent him.
(B) His salary and Emoluments are
chargeable on the consolidated fund of
India.
(C) He cannot disallow any expenditure
which in his opinion violates the
constitution.
(D) He has been debarred from holding any
office of profit under the union or state
govt. after his retirement.
25. The institution of Lokayukta was created
first in Maharashtra in the year.
(A) 1970 (B) 1972
(C) 1973 (D) 1971
26. Consider the following statements with
regard to public interest litigation.
1. In essence, a third party can bring
before the court issues in the public
interest.
2. The Supreme Court may action the
receipt of a letter or post card from a
citizen requesting protection of his
fundamental rights.
3. It is also known as social action
litigation.
4. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and T.N.
Bhagawathi were its proponents.
(A) 1and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
27. Which is/are correct concerning the
Administrative Tribunals Act?
1. It was passed in the year 1985.
2. The Act includes both the Central
Administrative tribunals and the state
Administrative tribunals.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Who decides whether A bill is a Money Bill
or not?
(A) Speaker
(B) The Finance Minister
(C) Finance Secretary
(D) Leader of the opposition.
29. Which of the following are/is stated in the
constitution of India?
1. The president shall not be a member of
either houses of parliament.
2. The parliament shall consist of the
president and two houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
(A) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) 1 alone (D) 2 alone
30. Who among the following became the prime
minister of India without being earlier the
chief Minister of a state?
1. Moraji Desai 2. Charan Singh
3. V.P.Singh 4. Chandra sekar.
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Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2 only (D) 4 only
31. The Chairman of the official Language
Commission in 1955 was
(A) Gobind Ballah pant
(B) B.G.kher
(C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Santhanam
32. The National commission for reviewing the
working of constitution was headed by M.N.
Venkatachalaiah was setup by the central
Government in.
(A) 2000 (B) 2001
(C) 2002 (D) 2003
33. Which Articles consists of the provision
relating to composition and its power and
functions of the Election Commission of
India?
(A) Article 324 (B) Article 356
(C) Article 370 (D) Article 243
34. Which of the statements given below is/ are
correct?
1. The State Election Commission
supervises and conducts the Election of
panchayats and Municipalities in the
state.
2. It also supervises and conducts the
Election of the state assemblies and the
Lok Sabha.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of the above
35. Consider the following statements:
73rd Amendment of the constitution has
provided constitution sanction for
1. Building a 3 tier structure of panchayat
Raj.
2. Reservation of seats for women.
3. Withdrawal of the right of govts, to hold
elections to the panchayats.
4. Taking away the right of state
Governments to give grants to the
panchayats.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2,3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
36. In which year, the Lokpal Bill was not
introduced in the parliament?
(A) 1968 (B) 1971
(C) 1985 (D) 1978
37. Which of the following institutions have
been setup by Govt. of India to check
misconduct, malpractices, corruption and
misdemeanor on the part of public
servants?
1. Central vigilance Commission.
2. Lokpal.
3. Special police Establishment.
4. Central Bureau of Investigation.
Choose the correct answer by using the
codes given below:
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1,3 and 4
38. Which one of the following action amounts
to violence against women?
I. Physical assault.
II. Creating hostile atmosphere at
work/home.
III. Teasing.
IV. Making humiliating/displeasing remark.
(A) I and II only (B) I,II and III only
(C) I,II and IV only (D) II,III and IV only
39. Which one of the following is/are wrongly
matched?
a) 21 Feb,1947 1. Submission of the
report by the Drafting Committee to the
constituent Assembly.
b) 15 Oct,1949 2. Acceptance of the
proposal of the Drafting Committee.
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c) 26 Nov,1950 3.Members of the
constituent Assembly appended
theirSignature.
d) 24th Jan,1950 4. The constitution
was adopted.
(A) Both a and c are wrong
(B) (B) Both a and b are wrong.
(C) Both b and c are wrong
(D) Both c and d are wrong.
GROUP - I PRELIMS – 2015
40. The Administrative Reforms Commission of
India was set up on 5 Jan.1966 under the
chairmanship of
A) K.Hanumanthaiya B) H.C. Mathur
C) G.S. Pathak D) Morarji R. Desai.
41. “The supreme court in the Indian union has
more powers than any other supreme court
in any part of the world” – who said so?
A) S.M. Sikri
B) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
C) M.C. Setalwad
D) Justice Kania.
42. Consider the following two statements
consisting of Assertion (A) and Reason ( R)
and select your answer using the codes
given below.
Assertion (A) : The administrative reforms
commission recommended Lokpal and
Lokayukta.
Reasoning ( R) : These are for the
Redressal of citizens grievances.
A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are correct but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
C) A is True but R is false.
D) A is false but R is correct.
43. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched?
A) Article 153 – Office of the Governor.
B) Article 156 – Term of the Governor.
C) Article 154- Executive authority of
Governor.
D) Article 155 - Removal of Governor.
44. Which one of the following statement is/are
true with regard to formulation of the
Government?
A) There is a Rule in the Business of the
Government which mentions that single
largest party that gets majority will form
the government.
B) There is no written rules on inviting the
single largest party by the 2nd largest
party to form the government. It is a
convention.
C) There is a provision in part I of the
Constitution.
D) Representation of people Act provides
for inviting the longest party to form the
government.
45. Match List I with List II.
Laws Years.
a) The Banking Companies ordinance
1. 1966
b) Special Bearers Bonds Ordinance
2. 1980
c) Unlawful activities prevention ordinance
3. 1984
d) Terrorist affected areas ordinance
4. 1981
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 3 1 2 4
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 1 3 4 2
46. The protection of Civil Rights Act came into
force on.
A) 19th December 1974
B) 19th November 1976
C) 19th December 1975
D) 19th November 1977
47. Which one of the following persons is the
ex-officio chairman of the Rules Committee,
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General purpose Committee and Business
Advisory Committee?
A) The Speaker
B) A member elected by the house
C) The Deputy Speaker
D) A member of Ruling party
48. Match the following – Establishment of
states and choose the correct one:
a) 36th Amendment
1. Goa.
b) 13th Amendment
2. Manipur and Tripura.
c) 27th Amendment
3. Sikkim.
d) 56th Amendment
4. Nagaland.
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 2 3 4
49. Which of the following are major features of
the constitutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta
as recommended by the Administrative
Reforms commission?
1. They should be demonstrably
independent and impartial.
2. They should compare with the highest
judicial functionary in the country.
3. They should be directly accountable to
parliament.
4. Their appointments should as far as
possible be non- political.
A) 1 and 4
B) 1,2 and 4
C) 1,2,3 and 4
D) None of the above (or) 1,2 and 3
50. The Indian Constitution describes
Legislative Relations between Union and
States in Article from.
A) Articles 245 to 255
B) Articles 256 to 263
C) Articles 264 to 267
D) Articles 268 to 276
51. Article 25 of the constitution of India
guarantees.
A) Right to Religion B) Right to property
C) Right to life D) Right to equality.
52. Which one of the following is not a formally
prescribed device available to the members
of parliament?
A) Question Hour B) Zero Hour
C) Half-an-hour discussion
D) Short duration discussion.
53. The National Commission to review the
working of the Constitution was set-up in the
year?
A) 2001 B) 2004
C) 2003 D) 2002
54. Match the list:
a) Fourth Schedule
1. Division of powers
b) Seventh schedule
2. Seats allotted in the
council of states.
c) Eleventh Schedule
3. Languages.
d) Eighth schedule
4. 73rd Amendement.
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 1 2 4 3
55. Which one of the following amendment was
called a revision of the constitution and it
introduced changes in preamble, as many
as 53 articles seventh schedule?
A) 40th amendment B) 42nd amendment
C) 41st amendment D) 43rd amendment.
56. Which of the following recommendation are
made by the Administrative Reforms
Commission to improve relations between
the political and permanent executive?
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1. Minister should try to develop a climate
of fearlessness and fair play among
senior officers.
2. Minister should not intervene in day to-
day administration except incase of
servous maladministration.
3. The official relationship of secretary to
Minister should be one of confidence of
that of Minister to secretary one of
loyalty.
4. Prime Minister should take special
interest to arrest/growing of unhealthy
personal affiliations.
5. All major decisions should be briefly
reduced to writings.
A) 1,2,4 and 5 B) 1,2,3 and 5
C) 2,3 and 4 D) 1,2 and 5
57. Which is/are correct relating to the
Tribunals?
1.Part XV of the Indian constitution deals
with the Tribunals.
2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative
tribunals and Article 323 B deals with the
tribunals for other matters.
A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Which of the following are matters on which
a constitutional amendment is possible only
with the ratification of the legislatures of not
less than one- Half of the state?
1. Election of the president.
2. Representation of states in parliament.
3. Any of the lists in the 7th Schedule.
4. Abolition of the legislative council of a
state.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
A) 1,2 and 3 B) 1,2 and 4
C) 1,3 and 4 D) 2,3 and 4
59. The Session of a state from the Indian union
has been barred by the .
A) 16th Amendment B) 22nd Amendment
C) 29th Amendment D) 35th Amendment.
60. Consider the following statements:
The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India is responsible for the audit of the
account of .
1. The Union Govt.
2. State Govts.
3. The governments of union territories
4. The Urban and rural local bodies.
Which of these statements are correct?
A) 1,2 and 3 B) 2,3 and 4
C) 1,3 and 4 D) 1,2 and 4
61. What is the peculiar nature of the Indian
Federation?
A) Equal distribution of powers between
the centre and state.
B) Strong centre.
C) Strong states.
D) Strong Local bodies.
62. In which one of the case, ”passport” is
considered as part of personal liberty?
A) A.K.Gopalan (1950)
B) Indian Express Newspapers (1985).
C) Arumugham (1953)
D) Meneka Gandhi (1978)
63. Which of the schedule deals with division of
powers between states and union?
A) Fourth B) Sixth
C) Seventh D) Ninth.
TNPSC GROUP I – PRELIMES – 2017
POLITY
64. Who was the first Finance Minister of
Independent India?
A) Sardar Vallabai Patel
B) C. Rajagopalachari
C) B. R. Ambedkar
D) R. K. Shanmugam Chettiyar
65. Indian Constitution established
parliamentary from of Government on the
model of
A) Swiss model
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B) Canadian model
C) American model
D) British (Westminister) model
66. In which schedule of the Constitution the
recognized 22 language has been included?
A) 6th Schedule B) 7th Schedule
C) 8th Schedule D) 9th Schedule
67. Which of the following is not included in the
state list in the Constitution of India?
A) Police
B) B) Public order
C) Prisons
D) Criminal procedure code
68. The idea that Indian should have a
constituent assembly to frame a
Constitution of India was initiated by
A) Rajendra Prasad B) M.N. Roy
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) B.R. Ambedkar
69. Which one of the following statement
relating to Executive is not correct?
A) Executive Magistrates are appointed by
the state in consultation with High court
B) Executive Magistrates are subordinate
to the state in consultation with High
court
C) Order made by an Executive Magistrate
is not subject to revisional jurisdiction of
High court.
D) Executive Magistrates are quasi-judicial
70. Chairman of the first National Backward
Class Commission was
A) Kala Kalelkar B) Yugandhar
C) John Mathai D) Madhu Dandavate
71. The salary and allowances of the public
prosecutors are given by
A) High court or Supreme court
B) Central Government or State
Governments
C) District courts
D) Magistrate courts
72. According to the 74th Constitution
Amendment Act, “Metropolitan area” means
A) An area having a population of 10 lakhs
or more
B) An area having a population of 5 lakhs
C) An area having a population below 5
lakhs
D) An area having a population below 3
lakhs
73. The institution of Lokayukta was established
first in
A) Orissa B) Rajasthan
C) Andhra Pradesh D) Maharashtra
74. Match the following:
Committees Purpose
a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
1. Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj
Institutions
b) Ashok Mehta Committee
2. Rural Development and Poverty
Alleviation
c) GVK. Rao Committee
3. Examine the working of community
Development Programme
d) LM Singhvi Committee
4. Streghtening the Panchayat Raj
Institutions.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2
75. The Chairman and the members of UPSC
can hold office for six years or till the age of
----------- which ever is earlier
A) 65 years B) 62 years
C) 60 years D) 58 years
76. The State Reorganisation Act was passed
in
A) October 1956 B) June 1956
C) November 1956 D) July 1956
77. Setting up of Village Panchayats is
associated with which part of the Indian
Constitution?
A) Preamble
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B) Fundamental Rights
C) Directive principles of State Policy
D) Fundamental Duties
78. The GATT was biased in favour of the
developed countries and was called
informally
A) Rich men‟s club B) League of nation
C) WTO D) Axis nation
79. Which one of the following cases is not
directly related to Article 21 and provision of
right to life in the Indian Constitution?
A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
C) Express News papers Vs. Union of India
D) Pavement Dwellers Case
80. In India the first proclamation of national
emergency under Article 352 was declared
in the year
A) 1961 B) 1962
C) 1965 D) 1975
81. According to the Article 170 of the Indian
Constitution, the maximum limit of members
in a Legislative Assembly is
A) Not more than 500 and not less than 60
members
B) Not more than 400 and not less than 50
members
C) Not more than 300 and not less than 40
members
D) Not more than 280 and not less than 30
members
82. The administrative vigilance division was
created in 1955 by the
A) Ministry of trade
B) Ministry of home affairs
C) Ministry of external affairs
D) Ministry of defence
83. Sarkaria commission on centre-state
relations was appointed by the Government
of India during
A) 1973 B) 1975
C) 1983 D) 1985
84. Which one of the following statement is not
correct about public interest litigation?
A) Public interest litigation may be
transferred to appropriate High court.
B) A petition in public interest litigation filed
before the Supreme court may not be
transferred to an appropriate High court
C) The letter in public interest litigation
should be addressed to the court and
not to an individual Judge
D) Public interest litigation is under the
preview of high court
85. Who was the ruler of Jammu and Kashmir
in 1940?
A) Karan Sigh
B) Maharaj Hari Singh
C) Ram Ratan Singh
D) Saran Singh
86. “An article without which the Indian
Constitution would be nullity. I would not
refer to any other article except Article 32. It
is the very soul of the Constitution and the
very heart of it”. Who said it?.
A) Gandhiji B) B.R. Ambedkhar
C) Jawaharla Nehru D) M.N. Roy
87. The Maternity Benefits Acts was enacted in
the year
A) 1961 B) 1976
C) 1978 D) 1984
88. In our constitution, the provision relating to
the suspension of fundamental rights during
the emergency provisions has been taken
from which country?
A) England B) France
C) USA D) Germany
89. Khosla commission was estabilished to re-
investigate the death of whom?
A) Subhas Chandra Bose
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Rajiv Gandhi
D) Indira Gandhi
90. Article 132 of the Indian Constitution deals
with
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A) The appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court in Constitutional cases
B) The appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court from Court in civil cases
C) Criminal appeals from High Courts to
Supreme Court
D) Special leave to appeal by Supreme
Court.
91. Which Amendment Act enabled Delhi and
Pondicherry to vote in the Presidential
Elections?
A) 70th Amendment Act
B) 69th Amendment Act
C) 64th Amendment Act
D) 74th Amendment Act
GROUP - I [PRELIMS ] - 2019
POLITY
92. Creamy layer concept was first introduced
in the case of
(A) Lakshmikant Sukla Vs State of Uttar
Pradesh
(B) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India
(C) K.K. Roy Vs State of Tripura
(D) Jitender Kumar Vs State of Uttar
Pradesh
93. Which of the following statements about
the first amendment to the constitution is
are true?
I.The first amendment was enacted in 1952.
II. The first amendment was enacted before
the first general elections.
III. It was enacted by the provisional
parliament.
(A) I and II are true
(B) II and III are ture
(C)I and III are true
(D) I,II and III are true
94. The financial control exercised by the
Parliament over the executive through
(A) The comptroller and Auditing General of
India
(B) The Auditor General
(C) The Finance Secretary
(D) The Accountant General
95. The Comptroller and Auditor General is
appointed by The President of India under
Which Article
(A) Article 162 (B) Article 148
(C) Article 153 (D) Article 174
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 308 to 314 of the constitution with
regard to the All India services.
2. Article 308 exclusively apply to the
Jammu and Kashmir.
3. The Parliament has enacted the All India
Services Act in 1952.
4. Article 312 empowers the Parliament to
create new All India Services.
Choose the correct answer :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 only
(C) 4 only (D) 4 and 3
97. Article________ was inserted into the
constitution under the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment.
(A) 245 B (B) 244 B
(C) 243 B (D) 242 B
98. Who among the following was the Cabinet
Minister without portfolio?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) T.T. Krishnamachari
(C) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
(D) G. L. Nanda
99. Which one of the following statement is not
with regard to powers of the Parliament?
(A) Parliament can approve three types of
emergency provisions
(B) It cannot abolish State Legislative
Council
(C) It can alter boundaries of the states
(D) It can establish a common High Court
for two or more states
100. Jallikattu, the bull taming sport of Tamil
Culture and tradition is protected according
to article _____ of the Constitution of India
(A) 29 (1) (B) 39 (1)
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(C) 49 (1) (D) 59 (1)
101. Who headed provincial constitution
committee of constituent assembly?
(A) J.B. Kirpalani
(B) H.C. Mukherjee
(C) A.V. Thakkar
(D) Sardar Vallabai Patel
102. Who among the following was not a
member of Drafting committee?
(A) K.M. Munshi
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
(C) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(D) Krishnamachari
103. I. the Constitution is a source of, and not an
exercise of, legislative power:
II.Constitution springs from a belief in limited
Government
Which of the Statements given above is /
are correct?
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) Both I and II (D)Neither I nor II
104. Which committee was appointed in 1986 to
deal with „Revitalisation of Panchayat Raj
institutions for democracy and
development‟?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao committee
(C) L.M. Singhvi committee
(D) Santhanam committee
105. Who said, “The District Administration is the
total Management of public affair”?
(A) S.S. Khera
(B) Ramsay Mac Donald
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Anumantha Rao
106. Match the following :
Schedule Subject
(a) First Schedule
1. Division of powers between union
and states
(b) Eleventh Schedule
2. Languages
(c) Seventh Schedule
3. Names of states and union territories
(d) Eighth Schedule
4. Panchayats
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
107. Match the following :
Person Eminent field/designation
(a) Abid Hussain
1. Former Attorney General of India
(b) K. Parasaran
2. Former Ambassador of India to the
USA
(c) Subhash Kashyap
3. Former Judge of AP High Court
(d) K. Punniya
4. Former Secretary General, Lok
Sabha
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
108. The Judiciary was separated from the
Executive under which article
(A) Article 50 (B) Article 64
(C) Article 60 (D) Article 51
109. The Essence of “Judicial Activism” is an
(A) Active Justice delivery system
(B) Active Implementation of Rule of law
(C) Active interpretation of law
(D) Active Intervention of Judiciary
110. Balwant Rai Mehta committee in its report
suggested
(A) Three tier system
(B) One tier system
(C) Four tier system
(D) Two tier system
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111. Name the Prime Minister When for the first
time the No.Confidence was moved in the
Parliament?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Morarji Desai
112. Which of the following statements regarding
the fundamental duties contained in the
constitution of India are correct?
I.Fundamental Duties have formed apart of
the Constitution of India since its adoption
II. Fundamental Duties are applicable only
to the Citizen of India.
III. Fundamental Duties have become a part
of the Constitution of India in accordance
with
the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Committee
IV. Fundamental duties can be enforced
through writ jurisdiction
(A) I,II and III correct
(B) I,II and IV correct
(C) II, III correct
(D) III and IV correct
113. The mandate of the official language
commission under Art 344 is/are
1. The progressive use of Hindi language
for official purpose of the union
2. Restriction on the use of the English
language for the official purpose of the
union.
Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2
114. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were
added to the Preamble of Indian constitution
by
(A) The Constitution (Fist Amendment) Act
1950
(B) The Constitution (Sixteenth
Amendment) Act 1963
(C) The Constitution (Forth-First
Amendment) Act 1976
(D) The Constitution (Forty-second
Amendment) Act 1976
115. Who is among the following associated with
“PURA” model?
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M.N. Roy
(D) B.S. Minhas
116. Which of the following group constituted the
State Reorganisation Commission?
(A) Pannikkar, Fazl Ali, Katiju
(B) Fazl Ali, Pannikkar, Kunzru
(C) Dhar, Fazl Ali, Pannikkar
(D) Kunzru, Katju, Dhar
117. Which statue is called as “Statue of unity”?
(A) Statue of Liberty
(B) Statue of Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Statue of Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(D) Statue of A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
118. Jagjit Singh Vs. State of Haryana (2007) is
the case related to
(A) Electoral Reform
(B) Election Commission
(C) Members (MLA‟s, MP‟s) support from
outside
(D) Criminalisation of politic
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GROUP – I -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS
POLITY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C D A A D C D A A B C A A B A A B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B B C D D C A B D B A A A A D D C D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A D B C B A A B A A B D B B A B A A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B D C D D C D B C A B A D C B C C A C B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B C B B B A D A A A B B A B A C C B A
101 102 103 104 105 10 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 113 115 116 117 11
8
D C C C A A D A A A A C C D B B C C
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TNPSC - GROUP - II PRELIMS – 2012
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
POLITY
1. Arrange the President of Indian in
sequential order:
I. Dr. Radhakrishnan
II. Dr. Zakir Hussain
III. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
IV. V.V.Giri
A) I,II,III,IV B) III,IV,I,II
C) III,I,II,IV D) III,II,I,IV
2. Which one of the following is corectly
matched?
A) Right to vote - Age of 16
B) Direct Election
- Members are elected by the
representatives of the people
C) Indirect Election
- People elect the
representiatives directly
D) Contesting in the election- Completed
age of 25
3. Match List I with List II and selct the correct
answer using the codes given below the
lists.
List I List II
a . Union of India 1. Prime Minister
b. state 2. Panchayat
President
c.Municipal Corporation
3. Governor
d. Gram Panchayat
4. Mayor
a b c d
A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 3 4 1 2
4. The Pardoning power of the President
vested by the Constitution is
A) Legislative power
B) Executive power
C) Judicial Power
D) Emergency Power
5. Match List I (forms of power sharing) with
List II (form of “Govt) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below in the
lists.
List I List II
a. Power shared among different organs of
Govt.
1.Community Government
b. Power shared among Goverments at
diferent levels
2. Separation of Power
c. Power shared by different social groups
3. Coalition Government
d. Power shared by two or more political
parties
4. Federal Government
a b c d
A) 4 1 2 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 3 4 1 2
6. How many language in India are included in
the Eighth schedule of Indian constitution?
A) 114 B) 22
C) 46 D) 48
GROUP –II – 2013
7. Assertion (A) : Delhi has not been accorded
the status of a full state.
Reason (R) : Being capital of India, it
occupies a special status
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is wrong
D) (A) is wrong but (R) is true
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8. The Chronological order of the following
Chief Justice of India is
1. Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal
2. Sarosh Homi Kapadia
3. K.G.Balakrishna
4. Altamas Kabir
A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,2,4
C) 1,2,4,3 D) 2,4,3,1
9. Who is the chairman of the 14th Finance
Commission?
A) Montek sing Ahluwalia
B) C. Rangarajan
C) Y.V.Reddy
D) Vijay Kelkar
10. Which one of the following is not the key
recommendation put forward by the Justice
Verma Committee, 3rd February, 2013?
A) Gender Sensitization through Education
B) End to Human Trafficking
C) Review security laws in conflict zones
D) Recommendation of death penalty in the
rarest of rare cases
11. Which Commission recommended 27%
reservation for backward communities?
A) Sarkaria Commission
B) Mandal Commission
C) Kalelkar Commission
D) Shah Commission
12. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution
specifies the powers, authority and
responsibility of Panchayats?
A) Seventh schedule
B) Ninth schedule
C) Eleventh schedule
D) Twelfth schedule
13. Assertion (A) ; Fundamental Duties do not
have any legal sanction
Reason (R) : The Fundamental duties
cannot be enforced by courts
A) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) explains (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) does not
explain (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. Consider the following statements :
a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
inserts certain provisions into Part IX of the
Constitution
b) It empowers the State Legislature to
make laws for the organization of
Panchayats at Village level as well as at the
higher levels of a district.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
A) Both (a) and (b) are true
B) (a) is true and (b) is false
C) Only (a) is true
D) Only (b) is true
15. Which Article deals with administrative
Tribunals?
A) Article 323 B) Article 323 A
C) Article 323 B D) Article 321
16. In which of the following Amendment raised
the age of retirement of a High Court
Judges from 62 to 65 years
A) 104th Amendment B) 101st Amendment
C) 102nd Amendment D) 103rd Amendment
17. The National Commission for Women was
set up in
A) 1992 B) 1993
C) 1994 D) 1995
18. Match the feature of the constitution with
country from which they have been
borrowed:-
Feature Country
a. Rule of Law 1.Ireland
b. Judicial of Review 2. Australia
c. Idea of concurrent subjects
3. Australia
d. Directive Principles of State Policy
4.England
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a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 3 1 2
19. Consider the following statements:-
Assertion (A) : The JVP committee was set
up to re-examine the issue of linguistic re-
organization of Indian states.
Reason (R) : The committee members were
Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabai Patel and
Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
Select your answer according to the coding
scheme below:-
A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the explanation for (A)
C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation for (A)
D) (A) is true but (R) is false
GROUP –II - 2015
20. Identify the original states before its
bifurcation and choose the correct answer
from the codes given below:
A B
a) Haryana i. Uttar Pradesh.
b) Jharkhand ii. Madhya Pradesh.
c) Uttarkhand iii. Punjab
d) Chattisgarh iv. Bihar.
a b c d
A) iv iii i ii
B) iii ii I iv
C) iii iv i ii
D) i iii ii iv
21. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
recommends that a National Education
Commission must be setup for every.
A) One year B) Three years
C) Two years D) Five years
22. Who was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna
Award?
A) Dr.S. Radhakrishnan
B) Sri.Rajagopalachari.
C) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
23. Consider the following statements and find
out the correct ones.
1. A democratic government may be liberal
one.
2. A liberal government may be
democratic.
3. A liberated democratic government is
collectivistic.
4. A liberal democratic government is a
welfare state.
A) 1,2,4 B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4
24. Which one of the following provisions can
be amended by a simple majority in the
parliament?
A) Provisions relating to Executive power
of the union.
B) Provisions relating to Executive power
of the state.
C) Provisions relating to constitution of a
High Court for Union Territory.
D) Provisions relating to composition of the
legislative councils of the state
25. The Lokpal bill was first introduced in the
Lok sabha in which year?
A) 1968 B) 1967
C) 1965 D) 1964
26. The Verma committee on fundamental
duties was set-up in the year.
A) 1999 B) 1998
C) 1996 D) 1994
27. Which one of the following articles says.
“The Vice President presides over the
meetings of the council of states”?
A) 89 B) 90
C) 87 D) 88
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28. Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals
with.
A) War emergency
B) Constitutional Emergency in the states.
C) Financial Emergency
D) Administrative Emergency.
29. Which of the following cases prompted the
Indian parliament to enact 24th Amendment
Bill?
A) Golaknath case
B) Shankari Prasad case
C) Kesavananda Bharati case
D) Shah Banu case.
30. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
High courts Year of Establishment
a) Allahabad 1. 1862
b) Delhi 2. 1884
c) Karnataka 3. 1966
d) Madras 4. 1896
a b c d
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 2 4 3 1
C) 3 1 2 4
D) 4 3 2 1
31. Who is the thirteenth president of India?
A) Dr.A.P.J. Abdul kalam
B) Smt.Pratiba patil
C) K.R. Narayanan
D) B.D. Jatti.
32. Which one of the following is not a function
of Chief Election Commission of India?
A) Conduct of elections to the office of the
state Governor.
B) Conduct of elections to the office of the
president and vice- president.
C) Conduct of elections to parliament.
D) Conduct of elections to the state
Legislature.
33. Match the List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the list.
List I List II
Committee Purpose.
a) Dutt Committee
1. Industrial Licensing.
b) Wanchoo Committee
2. Direct Taxes.
c) Rajamannar Committee
3. Centre States.
d) Rangarajan Committee
4. Disinvestment.
Codes:
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 4 1 3 2
GROUP - II [PRELIMS ] – 2018
POLITY
34. The institution of Lok-Ayukta was
established first in the state of
(A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan (D) Kerala
35. Who said “The Directiver Principle of State
Policy is a Novel feature” of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) K.T. Shah
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Aladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
(D) B.N. Rao
36. The idea of concurrent list was borrowed
from
(A) British Constitution
(B) Canadian Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) Australian Constitution
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37. In which year the Parliament enacted the
Official Language Act?
(A) 1955 (B) 1965
(C) 1963 (D) 1957
38. The members of the Central Administrative
Tribunal are given status of Judges of High
Court from an Amendment in the year :
(A) 2003 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2006
39. Which Act Provided Provincial Autonomy to
India?
(A) Rowlatt Act – 1919
(B) Minto –Morley Reform Act – 1909
(C) The Government of India Act – 1935
(D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reform Act – 1919
40. Which one of the following Parliamentary
Committee is Semi-Judicial in nature?
(A) Committee on Petitions
(B) Ethics Committee
(C) Committee on Privileges
(D) Rules Committee
41. The Constituent Assembly of India was set
up according to the proposals of
(A) The Cripps Mission
(B) The Cabinet Mission Plan
(C) The Mountbatten Plan
(D) The Nehru Plan
42. Which one is not part of the Panchayat Raj?
(A) Smiti (B) Village
(C) Township (D) Zila Parishad
43. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals
with Fundamental Duties?
(A) Part II (B) Part III
(C) Part IV A (D) Part V
GROUP – II -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS
POLITY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D C B C B A B C D B C A A B A A A B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B A D A A A C A D C A C B B D C D C C
41 42 43
B C C
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TNPSC - GROUP – II(A) - PRELIMS – 2014
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
POLITY
1. The Vice President of India is elected by.
I. The members of Lok Sabha.
II. The members of Rajya Sabha.
Out of these,
A) Neither I nor II B) I only
C) II only D) Both I and II
2. Arrange in Chronological order:
I. Bhairon Singh Shekkawat
II. K.R.Narayanan.
III. Mohammed Hamid Ansari.
IV. Krishna Kant.
A) III,IV,I and II B) II,IV,I and III
C) I,III,II and IV D) IV,II,III and I
3. Match the following:
List I List II
a) Deputy Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha
- 1. Appointed by the President.
b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
-2. Appointed by the Lok Sabha.
c) Chairman of Public Accounts
Committee
- 3. Elected by the Lok Sabha.
d) Chief Election Commissioner
- 4. Elected by the Rajya Sabha.
Codes:
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 1 3 2 4
4. Who said that, ”Prime Minister is the
Captain of the ship of the State?”
A) Munro B) Ramsay Muir
C) Jennings D) H.J. Laski.
5. By which of the following articles, the
procedure for the amendment of the Indian
Constitution is given?
A) Article 230 B) Article 320
C) Article 358 D) Article 368
6. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : India is a Republican polity.
Reason (R) : India shall have no hereditary
ruler and the people shall elect their
Government.
Now select your answer according to the
coding scheme given below.
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
7. The Chairman of Sarkaria Commission was.
A) Ranjit Singh Sarkaria
B) Rajiv singh Sarkaria.
C) Sivaraman Sarkaria
D) Ramesh Singh Sarkaria.
8. Who was the speaker of Eleventh Lok
Sabha?
A) Bal Ram Jakhar
B) Shivraj patil
C) P.A. Sengma
D) Somnath Chatterjee..
9. Who appoints the Advocate General for the
state?
A) President B) Prime Minister
C) Governor D) Chief Justice of
Supreme court
10. Who was the Prime Minister when for the
first time Non-confidence motion was
moved in the Indian parliament?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Morarji Desai
D) Lal Bahadur Shastri.
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11. Which of the following statements about the
Lok pal are wrong?
i) Lok Pal will have the power to
investigate an Administrative Act done
by Minister or Secretary.
ii) Lok Pal can inquire into a Complain
maladministration.
iii) Action taken in a matter affecting
dealing with Government of India and
any foreign government.
iv) Grant of honours and awards
Code:
A) i ,iv B) ii, iii
C) i, ii D) iii, iv
12. Which one of the following is not related to
NGO.
A) Civil Society Organizations
B) Citizen Associations.
C) Non – State actors
D) Public Corporations.
13. In Indian Constitution the directive principles
of policy were incorporated in Articles from.
A) Art 40 to Art 51 B) Art 36 to Art 51
C) Art 39 to Art 51 D) Art 25 to Art 51
14. Which among the following committtes
responsible for the incorporation of
fundamental duties in the constitution?
A) Wanchoo Committee
B) Sachar Committee
C) Swaran Singh committee
D) Bhagawati Committee
GROUP – II(A) – 2016
15. Arrange the following in ascending order of
their formation;-
I. Planning Commission
II. Zonal Councils
III. National Integration Council
IV. National Development Council
A) I-II-III-IV B) I-IV-III-II
C) I-IV-II-III D) I-III-IV-II
16. Arrange the following committees in
chronological order
1. Gorwala Committee
2. Ayyangar Committee
3. Appleby Report
4. Administrative Reforms Commission
A) 1-3-2-4 B) 2-3-1-4
C) 2-1-3-4 D) 3-1-2-4
17. When did the Constituent Assembly for
undivided India meet for the first time?
A) 9th November, 1946
B) 9th December, 1946
C) 9th October, 1946
D) 9th September, 1946
18. When was the state of Nagaland formed?
A) 1961 B) 1963
C) 1965 D) 1967
19. Which of the following schedule was
inserted by the 74th Amendment Act?
A) 12th Schedule B) 11th Schedule
C) 13th Schedule D) 10th Schedule
20. Which of the following Chief Justice of
Supreme Court served as acting President
of India?
A) Justice Subha Rao
B) Justice M. Hidayatullah
C) Justice Y.V.Chandrachud
D) Justice P.N.Bhagwati
21. In 1868, the National estimate Committee of
India was headed by
A) V.K.R.V. Rao
B) Shah & Khambat
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) W.C.Peterson
22. Who headed steering committee of
Constituent Assembly?
A) Jawaharla Nehru
B) K.M.Munshi
C) H.C.Mookherjee
D) Rajendra Prasad
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23. Which article of Indian Constitution deals
with Right to Elementary Education?
A) Article 20(a) B) Article 21 (a)
C) Article 22 (a) D) Article 21
24. Complete the following statement with
appropriate choices and select the correct
option. The State information Commissioner
shall be appointed by the Governor on the
recommendation of a committee consisting
of
1. The Chief Minister
2. The leader of opposition in the legislative
assembly.
3. A Cabinet minister, nominated by the
Chief Minister
4. The Chief Justice of the High Court
A) 1 and 2 only B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 3 only D) 1, 3 and 4 only
25. When was supreme court of India
inaugurated?
A) Jan 26, 1950 B) Jan 28, 1950
C) Feb 28, 1950 D) April 26, 1950
26. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public
Accounts Committee of the Indian
Parliament?
A) The Prime Minister
B) The speaker of the house of people
C) Minister of Parliament Affairs
D) Committee of Parliamentary Affairs
27. Which Article empowers the President to
summon and prorogue either Houses of
Parliament
A) Article 75 B) Article 81
C) Article 85 D) Article 88
28. Which Indian Constitutional Amendment Act
on Panchayat Raj mention under clauses I
1/3 of the seats were to be allotted to
women belonging to SC‟s and ST‟s
A) 73rd Amendment
B) 74th Amendment
C) 75th amendment
D) 76th Amendment
GROUP – II(A) - 2017
29. Whether governor of a state has the power
to dissolve the state legislature?
A. Yes B. No
C. He/She can only recommend
D. Only President can
30. In the rules of business of Indian
Parliament, if the speaker admits, not of a
motion but no date is fixed for its
introduction – then it is called
A. Call attention motion
B. Adjournment motion
C. No confidence motion
D. No day – yet – named motion
31. Constitutional status to the panchayat Raj
Institutions was initiated based on the
recommendation of
A. G. V. K. Rao Committee
B. L. M. Singhvi Committee
C. Ashok Mehta Committee
D. Balwantray Mehta Committee
32. Which Article of the Constitution of India
conferred special leave petitions power to
the Supreme Court?
A. Art. 136 B. Art. 32
C. Art. 139 D. Art. 226
33. In India, power of Judicial Review is
restricted because the
A. Executive is supreme
B. Legislature is supreme
C. Constitution is supreme
D. Judges are transferable
34. The government of Indian instituted :Bharat
Ratna and Padma Shri awards under
A. Article 14 of the Indian constitution
B. Article 18 of the Indian constitution
C. Article 25 of the Indian constitution
D. Article 32 of the Indian constitution
35. The word „Secularism‟ was inserted in the
preamble of the constitution after supreme
court of India observed „Secularism‟ was a
basic feature of constitution in
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A. 1975 B. 1973
C. 1976 D. 1981
36. .The special status provide to Jammu and
Kashmir under Art. 370 limits parliament to
enact laws relating to
A. List – I and List – III of the Seventh
Schedule
B. List – I only of the Seventh Schedule
C. List – II only of the Seventh Schedule
D. List – I, II & III of the Seventh Schedule
37. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity
enshrined in the preamble of the
Constitution of India were adopted under
inspiration from the
A. American Declaration of Independence
B. French Revolution
C. Russian Revolution
D. UN Charter
38. Which one of the following is not correct
related to the distinctions between the
grants under Article 275 and Article 282 of
the Constitution of India?
A. The grants-in-aid under Article 275 are
statutory where as under Article 282
they are discretionary
B. Under Article 282, the union has the
power to provide grants in-aid even for
non-plan expenditure
C. Under Article 275, the union has the
right to give grants in accordance with
the decision taken on the basis of
recommendation of Finance
Commission
D. Allocation of Grants under Article 282 is
based on the recommendation of
Cabinet Committee
GROUP – II(A) -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS POLITY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B A A A A A C C A A D B C C C B A A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
C D B C B B C A D B A C B B A B D
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TNPSC - GROUP – IV - 2011
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
POLITY
1. Which authority conducts the local body
elections?
A) Central Election Commission
B) State Election Commission
C) District Election Board
D) Observers
2. The chairman of the Rajya sabha is
A) the president of India
B) the vice-president of India
C) the speaker
D) the prime Minister
3. The link language of India is
A) French B) Japanese
C) Greek D) English
4. The age for voting right in India is
A) 21 years B) 25years
C) 18 years D) 20 Years
5. The first Indian Governor-General of free
India was
A) Gandhiji B) Nehru
C) Jinnah D) Rajaji
6. Who issues the voter identity card?
A) Election commission of India
B) District Collector
C) Municipal Commissioner
D) Chairman
GROUP – IV – 2012
7. Arrange in chronological order:
I. Dr.A.P.J. Abdul kalam
II.Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
III. K.R. Narayanan
IV. P. Venkataraman.
of these.
A) IV,II, III, and I B) III, I, II and IV
C) I, III, IV and II D) II,IV, I and III
8. The chairman of the Finance commission is
appointed by
A) the president
B) the prime Minister
C)the speaker of the Lok sabha
D) the finance Minister
9. Arrange the following Prime Minister in
chronological order:
I. Charan singh II. V.P. Singh
III. Lal Bahadur shastri
IV. Chandrasekhar
of these.
A) III, I, II & IV B) IV, II, III & I
C) II, III, IV & I D) IV, III, I & II
10. Which one of the following is not a
qualification required to be the vice-
President of India?
A) He must be a citizen of India
B) He must be able to speak, read and write
in Hindi
C)He must have completed 35 years of age.
D) He must be eligible for election as a
member of the Rajya sabha.
11. Which one of the following is correctly
matched?
A) Father of Indian planning
- Gandhiji
B) The first Governor of Tamil Nadu
- P.C. Alexander
C) First woman Prime Minister in India
- Indira Gandhi
D)First President of India
- Nehru
GROUP – IV - 2013
12. Who was the first woman judge of the
Supreme court?
A) Hanna Chandy
B) Vijaylakshmi pandit
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Fathima Beevi
13. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The (ARC) recommended
that the institution of Lokpal and Lokayakta.
Reason (R) : 1. should be
demonstratively Independent and Impartial.
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2. their appointment should be as far as
possible non- Political.
Select your answer according to the coding
scheme given below.
A) Both (A) and ( R) are false
B) Both (A) and ( R)is correct
C) (A) is false but (R ) is true
D) (A) is true but ( R) is false.
14. Arrange the Presidents of India in
chronological order of their term in Office.
I. R. Venkatraman
II. Dr.Sankar Dayal Sharma
III. Dr. K.R. Narayanan
IV. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
A) I.II,III,IV B) III, IV, I, II
C) III, I, II, IV D) III, II, I, IV
15. Which article empowers the President to
dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time before
its tenure?
A) Art 85 B) Art 95
C) Art 81 D) Art 75
16. The first meeting of the constituent
Assembly of India was held in
A) 1950 B) 1946
C) 1948 D) 1947
17. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The CVC has to present
annually to the president a report on its
performances.
Reason( R) : The president place this
report before both House of Parliament.
Select your answer according to the coding
scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and ( R) are correct
B) Both (A) and (R) are false
C) (A) is false but ( R) is true
D) (A) is true but ( R) is false.
18. Who presides over the joint sessions of the
parliament?
A) The president B) The Vice-president
C) The Speaker D) The Prime Minister
19. The National Development Council was
established in the year.
A) 1952 B) 1955
C) 1959 D) 1962
20. Which article of the constitution provides for
the imposition of president‟s rule in the
states?
A) Article 354 B) Article 355
C) Article 356 D) Article 357
GROUP – IV – 2014
21. Which authority conducts the Local Bodies
Elections?
A) state Election commission
B) Central Election Commission
C) District Election Board
D) observers
22. During the period of which Indian Prime
Minister was there hung parliament?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Indira Gandhi
C) L.K. Gujral D) Rajiv Gandhi
23. Choose the answer:
_________ Article of the constitution
prohibits the state from arbitrarily arresting
any person.
A) Article 22 B) Article 23
C) Article24 D) Article 25
24. In which part of the Constitution of India is
dealt with Fundamental Rights?
A) Part II B) Part III
C) Part I D) Part IV
25. „Glimpses of world History‟ was written by
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Indira Gandhi
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Rajiv Gandhi
26. Forty- Second Amendment Act came into
force in the year
A) 1947 B) 1976
C) 1967 D) 1958
27. The Governor is appointed by
A) Judge B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Minister D) President
28. How long can a money bill be delayed by
the Rajya Sabha?
A) Two months B) Six weeks
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C) 30 days D) 14 days
29. Which article permits Separate Constitution
for the state of Jammu- Kashmir?
A) Articles 370 B) Articles 390
C) Articles 161 D) Articles 356
30. Arrange the prime Minister‟s of India in
chronological order of their term in office
I. Thiru. Jawaharlal Nehru
II) Tmt. Indira Gandhi
III. Thiru. Morarji Desai
III) Thiru. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A) I,IV,II,III B) I,II,III,IV
C) IV,I,III,II D) II,III,IV,I
31. The word citizen is derived from.
A) Greek B) Latin
C) Spanish D) Urdu
32. The Multi- Functionary at the district level is
A) District Health officer
B) District Labour office
C) Tahsildar
D) District Collector
33. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : Governor can promulgate
ordinance when the state legislative is not in
session under Article - 213.
Reason (R) : These ordinance must be
approved by the legislative within six
months.
Select your answer according to the coding
scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are false
B) (A) is false and ( R) is true
C) (A) is true and ( R) is false
D) Both (A) and (R ) are true
34. Usually the population of a corporation is
A) 5 lakhs B) 7 lakhs
C) 8 lakhs D) 10 lakhs
GROUP – IV - 2016
35. Indian Constitution Drafting Committee‟s
Chairman
A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
D) Gandhi
36. Which year the constitution of India (61st
Amendment Act) lowered the voting age
from 21 years to 18 years?
A) 1988 B) 1987
C) 1986 D) 1985
37. Article 63 of the Indian Constitution refers to
A) Vice – President B) President
C) Prime Minister D) Governor
38. Who is the chairperson of NITI Aayog?
A) President B) Prime minister
C) Vice – President
D) Supreme Court judge.
39. The writ of Habeas corpus is
A) To safeguard people from illegal arrest.
B) The Petitioner who requires legal help to
get his work done by respective public
Authorities.
C) It probability a subordinate court from
acting beyond its Jurisdiction.
D) It prevents usurpation of a public office
40. The election process at the state level is
supervised by.
A) Chief Election Commissioner
B) Supreme court Judge
C) Chief Electoral officer
D) High court judge.
41. Find out the correct statement.
The Indian constitution contains.
A) XXII Parts, 449 Articles and 12
Schedules
B) XXI parts, 438 Articles and 8 Schedules
C) XXIII parts, 469 Articles and 21
Schedules
D) XX parts, 428 Articles and 18 Schedules.
42. Which of the following is incorrectly
matched?
A) Assassination of Gandhiji
- January 30,1918
B) Republic Day
- January 26,1950
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C) Independence Day
- August 15,1947
D) Constituent Assembly adopted National
Anthem – January 23,1950
43. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) The President
- Guardian of our Constitution
B) The Chief Minister
- Appointed by the Governor
C) Supreme court
- Unique Identification
D) National Anthem
- Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
44. Consumer Courts are set up in _______ tier
system.
A) Two B) Three
C) Four D) Five
GROUP - IV [PRELIMS ] – 2018
POLITY
45. The recommendations of 15th Finance
Commission will be effect from which date?
(A) January 1, 2018
(B) April 1, 2018
(C) April 1, 2020
(D) January 1, 2020
46. Match the following :
(a) Governor 1. Article 171
(b) Chief Minister 2. Article 170
(c) Legislative Council 3. Article 153
(d) Legislative Assembly 4. Article 163
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
47. In which Article make provision for the
appointment of a law officer, the Attorney
General by President of India?
(A) Article 66 (B) Article 67
(C) Article 76 (D) Article 96
48. The Government of India introduced the
Rights to Education on
(A) 15th August 1947
(B) 26th January 1950
(C) 1st April 2010
(D) 2nd October 2012
49. When was the Legal Services Authority Act
(LokAdalat) Passed?
(A) 1985 (B) 1987
(C) 1986 (D) 1988
50. Find out the wrong rules of the national flag.
(A) The national flag should be raised and
lowered carefully
(B) We must lower it before sun set
(C) No other flag should be placed higher
than it nor should any flag be placed to its
left
(D) We must stand in attention when the
flag is hoisted
51. Article 41 of the constitution of India
guarantees
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to live
(D) Right Against Exploitation
52. The article of the constitution provides for a
Vice President
(A) Article 53 (B) Article 356
(C) Article 360 (D) Article 63
53. National Integration Day celebrated in
(A) November-19 (B) October - 20
(C) June -10 (D) August -12
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GROUP-IV -PREVIOUS YEARS KEYS
POLITY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B D A D A A A A B C D B A A B A C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C A B C B D D A A B B D D C A A B A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
A D B B C B C C B C A D A
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