ID: A

1

AP Chem - Topic 1 Test

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1 What state of matter can be described as having

an indefinite shape but a definite volume?

A solid B liquid C gas D gas or liquid

E none of the above

2 Assuming identical conditions, in which state of

matter do the particles present have the least

amount of energy?

A solids B liquids C gases D both solids

and liquids E none of the above

3 Which of the following data are quantitative?

A the door is six feet tall B the door is white

C the door is rectangular D the door has one

door knob E both (A) and (D)

4 The physical change of state known as

"condensation" involves which transformation?

A solid to liquid B liquid to gas C gas to

solid D gas to liquid E liquid to solid

5 Which of the following is a pure substance?

A distilled water B Coca-Cola C sea water

D italian salad dressing E none of the above

6 How many significant figures in the number

585000?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 E 6

7 How many significant figures in the number

3.955 x 105?

A 5 B 4 C 3 D 2 E 1

8 How many significant figures in the number

0.00075036?

A 9 B 8 C 5 D 4 E 3

9 How many significant figures should be recorded

in the result of the calculation, 98.55 - 18.5?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 E none of the above

10 How many significant figures in the number

50.00?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 E none of the above

11 Which is a possible correct sequence of

operations in the scientific method?

A make observations, experiment, form a

hypothesis B experiment, make a theory, form a

hypothesis C make observations, form a

hypothesis, experiment D make a theory, form a

hypothesis, experiment E none of the above

12 Which of the following represents the number

655000?

A 6.55 x 10-5 B 6.55 x 105 C 6.55 x 103

D 6.55 x 106 E 6.55 x 10-6

13 Which of the following represents the number

2.1 x 10-4?

A 0.0021 B 0.000021 C 0.021 D 0.21

E 0.00021

14 Which of the following base quantities has the

WRONG unit?

A temperature in K B time in s C mass in L

D amount of substance in mol E length in m

ID: A

2

15 Which of the following prefixes has the WRONG

power?

A giga, x109 B kilo, x103 C micro, x10-12

D milli, x10-3 E nano, x10-9

16 Convert 50 degrees Celsius to Kelvin.

A 50 B 550 C 253 D 323 E 353

17 Convert 104 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius.

A 26 B 219 C -169 D 40 E 377

18 Convert 50.0 degrees Fahrenheit to Kelvin.

A 283 B 323 C 305 D 170 E none of the

above

19 The average of which set of data is most

ACCURATE if the accepted value is 4.49?

A 4.40, 4.41, 4.42 B 4.50, 4.59, 4.66 C 4.47,

4.48, 4.51 D 4.61, 4.62, 4.59 E 4.55, 4.49,

4.67

20 Which of the following indicates a chemical

change is taking place?

A gas bubbles form on the surface of a liquid

B a liquid turns into a solid C a piece of glass

is struck and shatters D a liquid is changing

colors E Both A and D

21 All pure substances can be classified as

A elements or mixtures B compounds or

mixtures C elements or compounds

D elements, compounds, or mixtures E only

elements

22 Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and

electrons present in 26

57Fe

3+

A 26 protons, 31 neutrons, 23 electrons B 57

protons, 26 neutrons, 57 electrons C 26

protons, 31 neutrons, 26 electrons D 23

protons, 48 neutrons, 26 electrons E 26

protons, 31 neutrons, 29 electrons

23 What is the correct name for MgSO4?

A magnesium sufide B magnesium sulfite

C magnesium sulfate D magnesium persulfate

E magnesium hyposulfite

24 Which of the following is a polyatomic anion?

A NH41+ B Mg2+ C Cl1- D IO31- E H2SO4

25 What is the correct formula for iron (III)

phosphate tetrahydrate?

A Fe3PO4 • 4H2O B FePO4 • 3H2O C FePO4 •

4H D FePO4 • 4H2O E None of the above

26 What is the correct formula for dinitrogen

pentoxide?

A 2N5O B N2O5 C N2O4 D NO4 E None of

the above

27 What is the correct formula for perchloric acid?

A H2ClO3 B HClO2 C HClO5 D HCl

E None of the above

28 A neutron bombards an isotope of tungsten as

follows : 74

180W +

0

1n

What are the possible products of this reaction?

A 70

176Yb +

2

4He B

0

0 γ + 74

181W C

74

180W +

−1

0e

D 0

0 γ + 75

181Re E none of the above

29 Which of the following information is true

regarding protons?

A found outside the nucleus, relative mass of 1,

charge of 0 B found inside the nucleus, relative

mass of 1, charge of 1- C found inside the

nucleus, relative mass of 0, charge of 1+

D found inside the nucleus, relative mass of 1,

charge of 1+ E None of the above

ID: A

3

A student created this graph of the band of

stability. It shows the ratio of neutrons to

protons in the elements with several example

elements shown with their exact ratios.

30 According to the band of stability above,

A silver has a 1:1 neutron to proton ratio

B iron has about 50% more neutrons than

protons C heavier elements are more stable in

nuetron to proton ratios close to 1.5:1

D neon-20 is most likely radioactive E none of

the above

31 Uranium-238 has a neutron to proton ratio of

2.59:1. This would indicate

A uranium could be used for fusion B this

nucleus is unstable and radioactive C electron

capture would stablize this nucleus D this

nucleus must be an ion E none of the above

32 Assuming the student properly collected the data

points, has the student made any errors in the

element examples presented?

A yes, the ratio for silver was miscalculated

B yes, the line doesn’t fit the data points C yes,

the student has the axes reversed D yes, the

ratio for neon was miscalculated E no, all

examples are correctly shown

33 What is the correct name for Al2P3?

A aluminum phosphate B aluminum phosphide

C aluminum (II) phosphide D aluminum

phosphite E dialuminum triphosphide

34 How would an alpha particle be affected when

passing through an electrical field?

A it would be unaffected by the electrical field

B it would move toward the negative plate C it

would oscillate between the positive and negative

plates D it would move away from the negative

plate E None of the above

35 Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and

electrons present in the following isotope of

cadmium: 48

112Cd

A 48 protons, 112 neutrons, 64 electrons B 112

protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons C 48

protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons D 64

protons, 48 neutrons, 48 electrons E 48

protons, 48 neutrons, 112 electrons

36 What is the correct formula for sodium hydrogen

sulfate?

A NaHSO4 B Na2HSO4 C H2SO4 D NaHS

E NaHS2O3

37 What is the correct name for HBr?

A monohydrogen monobromide B bromous

acid C bromic acid D hydrogen dibromide

E hydrobromic acid

38 Which of the following represents the alpha

decay of plutonium-242?

A 94

242Pu →

92

238U +

2

4He B

94

242Pu →

95

242Am +

−1

0e C

94

242Pu +

−1

0e →

93

242Np D

94

242Pu →

+1

0 β +

93

242Np E none of the above

ID: A

4

39 What are the key insights that were revealed by

Rutherford’s Gold Foil experiment?

A electrons are negatively charged particles

B most beta particles pass through gold foil

C the nucleus is made up of protons and

nuetrons D atoms have a dense positive nucleus

surrounded by mostly empty space E atoms can

not be divided into simpler substances

40 The difference between nuclear reactions and

chemical reactions is that

A a lot more energy is released in chemical

reactions than in nuclear reactions B chemical

reactions involve electron transfers and nuclear

reactions involve changing the nucleus C in

chemical reactions, new substances are formed

but nuclear reactions always stay the same

D nuclear reactions are always more dangerous

than chemical reactions E none of the above

41 Why is nuclear fusion so much more difficult to

control than fission?

A fusion only happens on the sun so it would be

impossible to do on earth B fission is when

two hydrogen nuclei come together which is

easier than separating large nuclei. C it is

harder to obtain the substances needed for fusion

than fission D fission requires large amount of

energy to force two positively charge nuclei

together but fusion just splits atoms E none of

the above

42 All of the following are isoelectronic, EXCEPT

which species?

A Ba2+ B Kr C Xe D Cs1+ E I1-

43 If a photon has frequency = 4.14 x 1014 s-1 and

the speed of light = 3.00 x 108 m • s-1, then what

is its wavelength?

A 725 x10-7 m B 725 nm C 6.02 x 1023

D 1.24 x1023 m E 725 m

44 How many occupied outer shell orbitals does a

tin atom possess?

A 3 B 5 C 2 D 50 E 8

45 Consider the element, Ag. How many 4d

electrons in one atom of Ag?

A 10 B 9 C 11 D 2 E None of the above

46 Consider the element, Cr. How many unpaired

electrons in one atom of Cr?

A 0 B 4 C 1 D 6 E 5

47 Consider the element, Zn. How many p electrons

in one atom of Zn?

A 6 B 12 C 18 D 24 E 30

48 The electronic configuration of Mn2+ is?

A [Ar] 4s2 3d5 B [Ar] 4s1 3d6 C [Ar] 4s0 3d5

D [Ar] 4s1 3d4 E [Ar] 4s0 3d7

49 Which of the following atoms is diamagnetic?

A Al B Rb C F D Cu E Cd

50 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers

could be used to describe the outermost electron

in a calcium atom?

A 4, 1, 0, -1/2 B 4, 0, 0, -1/2 C 4, 0, 1, +1/2

D 4, 0, -1, +1/2 E 4, 1, 0, -1/2

51 Which of the following states that electrons must

fill the lowest available energy sub-shell first?

A Hund’s Rule B Pauli Exclusion Prinicple

C Aufbau Principle D Heisenberg Uncertainty

Principle E The Bohr Model

52 Which of the following elements has the greatest

number of d electrons?

A Nb B Cd C Cu D I E Au

53 Which pairing is INCORRECT?

A p orbitals, l = 2 B s orbitals, ml = 0 C f

orbitals can have n = 4 D f orbitals, l = 3 E d

orbitals, ml can be +2

54 When considering the quantum numbers for a p

orbital, which of the following is true?

A n must be 1 B ms must be -1/2 C l must be

0 D ml must be +1 E None of the above

ID: A

5

55 What is the maximum number of electrons that

can be incoporated into a d sub-shell?

A 10 B 2 C 14 D 12 E 6

56 If the atoms of an element Q have the electronic

configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5, what is the most

likely formula of a compound it will form with

magnesium?

A MgQ3 B Mg2Q C Mg2Q2 D MgQ2

E Mg2Q3

57 Which electron transition would absorb the

greatest amount of energy?

A from n=4 to n=1 B from n=6 to n=3

C from n=2 to n=5 D from n=1 to n=2

E from n=3 to n=5

58 Which of the following is an impossible

electronic configuration?

A [Ar] 4s2 B [Ar] 4s1 3d5 C [Xe] 6s1 D 1s2 2s2

2p6 3p2 E [Ne] 3s2 3p3

59 What element would you expect requires the

most energy for an electron to transition from

n=1 to n=3?

A O B N C He D C E H

60 A dumbbell-shaped orbital would

A have an azimuthal quantum number (l) of 2

B contain electrons found in the p-block

elements C contain up to 6 electrons D have

lower energy than a spherical orbital with the

same principal quantum number (n) E have 5

possible orientations in a sub-shell

61 The main contribution of the Bohr model of the

atom is

A specific elements give off certain frequencies

of light when heated B electrons exist in 3D

regions known as orbitals C protons and

neutrons are found in the nucleus D the concept

of fixed energy “shells” E electrons travel

along fixed paths

62 After an electron has absorbed heat, that energy

is released as a photon with a wavelength of 548

nm. What is the frequency of this photon?

A 5.47 x 1014 s-1 B 5.47 x 105 s-1 C 1.64 x 1011

s-1 D 164.4 s-1 E None of the above

63 Which set of metals below will all displace

hydrogen from an acidic solution?

A Al, Ag, Mg B K, Zn, Pb C Na, Fe, Cu

D Pt, Ca, Sn

64 At which temperature would you expect particles

of a gas sample to have the highest urms?

A 75 ºC B 100 K C 273 K D 25 ºC

65 Which of the following assumptions is NOT part

of the kinetic theory?

A particles in a gas do not attract one another

B particles in a gas cannot be compressed

C gas particle speed is directly proportional to

the Kelvin temperature D particles in a gas have

negligible volume

66 A gas that is confined in a rigid container is

heated. Which of the following statements is

FALSE?

A The kinetic energy of the gas will increase.

B The pressure will increase. C The number of

moles of gas will increase. D The volume of the

gas will remain constant.

67 Which of the following are always the same for

each gas in a mixture of gases that are confined

in a single container?

A volume and pressure B volume and partial

pressure C volume and number of moles

D temperature and volume

68 Under which of the following conditions will the

pressure of a gas DEFINITELY decrease?

A lowering T and increasing V B raising T and

increasing V C reducing n and raising T

D lowering T and reducing V

ID: A

6

69 Which law relates the relative rates of effusion of

two gases based upon their molar mass or

density?

A Dalton’s B Charles’s C None of these

D Avogadro’s

70 Which of the following gases will have the

greatest rate of effusion?

A Oxygen B Neon C Chlorine D Helium

71 When the following elements are ordered

according to increasing size (smallest first),

which is the correct order? Li, Ne, Na, K

A Li, Na, Ne, K B K, Na, Li, Ne C Li, Ne,

Na, K D K, Na, Ne, Li E Ne, Li, Na K

72 Which of the following elements has the largest

first ionization energy?

A Ne B Xe C Kr D Ar E He

73 When considering the successive ionization

energies of Aluminum, which pair of values

might be expected to exhibit the greatest

difference?

A Fifth and Sixth B Second and Third

C Seventh and Eighth D Third and Fourth

E First and Second

74 Which of the following elements has the largest

atomic radius?

A Na B B C Li D Rb E I

75 The first three ionization energies for element X

are 900, 1757 and 14848 kJ/mol respectively? In

which group is X most likely to be found?

A 17 B 1 C 13 D 2 E 14

76 Which statement is INCORRECT?

A Potassium atoms are smaller than Cesium

atoms B Chloride 1- ions are larger than

Chlorine atoms C Sodium 1+ ions are smaller

than Sodium atoms D Sodium atoms are larger

than Potassium atoms E Lithium atoms are

larger than Bromine atoms

77 Magnesium has larger value than Strontium for

which of the following properties?

A Atomic mass B Atomic radii C First

ionization energy D Ionic radii E Number of

electrons

78 Which of the following elements would be

expected to have a most common ion that is

larger than the corresponding atom?

A Na B Cl C K D Ne E Al

79 The atomic radii of F, Cl and I are 72, 99 and 133

pm respectively. Predict a value for the atomic

radii of Br from this data.

A 115 nm B 143 nm C 114 pm D 143 pm

E 125 nm

80 Ionization energies can always be described in

which of the following ways?

A Endothermic B Exothermic C None of the

above D Not enough information to tell

E They could be either endothermic or

exothermic

81 Which of the following elements has the lowest

first ionization energy?

A Be B N C Li D C E B

82 Which of the following species is the largest?

A The species with 10 electrons and 11 protons

B The species with 10 electrons and 8 protons

C The species with 10 electrons and 9 protons

D The species with 10 electrons and 10 protons

E Not possible to tell since they are isoelectronic

83 What energy change is summarized in the

following process?

O1-(g) + e- → O2-(g)

A First electron affinity of oxygen B First

ionization energy of oxygen C Second

ionization energy of oxygen D Second electron

affinity of oxygen E None of the above

ID: A

7

84 Which of the following species would be

expected to be paramagnetic?

A Mg B K C Zn2+ D Zn E Na1+

85 Which of the following properties increase as the

third period is traversed from left to right (Na to

Ar)?

A Basicity of oxides B Atomic Size

C Ionization energy D Likelihood of forming

positive ions E None of the Above

86 Which of the following elements is likely to be

the best reducing agent?

A Na B Rb C F D Cs E K

87 Which element would be expected to exhibit the

greatest difference between its second and third

ionization energies?

A P B Mg C Al D S E Cl

88 When sulfur dioxide reacts with water, what is

the product?

A sulfur trioxide B sulfurous acid C sulfuric

acid D sulfur hydroxide E None of the above

89 Which period 2 element has a first ionization

energy that is lower than expected due to mutual

repulsion of electrons within a p orbital?

A Li B O C Be D B E C

90 Which of the following would form oxides that

would be expected to be most acidic?

A Al B Mg C S D K E Na

91 Which of the following species would have the

largest ionization energy?

A Sr1+ B Mg2+ C Mg1+ D Na E K

92 Which of the following describes the energy

change associated with the process, Na(g) →

Na1+(g) + e-?

A First Electron Affinity B Electronegativity

C None of the Above D Second Ionization

Energy E First Ionization Energy

93 Consider the elements of group I. All of the

following properties increase down the group,

EXCEPT;

A Number of electron shells occupied

B Number of elecrons C Ionic Size D First

Ionization Energy E Atomic Size

94 Which of the following elements is likely to be

the best oxidizing agent?

A Sodium B Iodine C Astatine D Bromine

E Chlorine

95 A group 2 element will form an ion that can be

described as which of the following when

compared to its parent atom?

A Not enough information to tell B None of

the above C The same size D Bigger

E Smaller

96 A molecule with a central atom exhibiting sp3d2

hybridization could have which of the following

atomic geometry/geometries?

A only tetrahedral B only octahedral and

square planar C only octahedral D octahedral,

square planar, and square pyramidal E none of

these

97 At room temperature and pressure, bromine is a

liquid that consists of diatomic molecules. Which

statement is consistent with these observations?

A there are weak attractions between the atoms

in a bromine molecule B bromine is a polar

molecule C bromine is very electronegative

D there are weak attractive forces between

bromine molecules in liquid bromine

E bromine’s covalent bonds are weak

98 In which of the following are the intermolecular

forces listed from weakest to strongest?

A London, hydrogen, dipole-dipole

B dipole-dipole, London, hydrogen C London,

dipole-dipole, hydrogen D hydrogen,

dipole-dipole, London E hydrogen, London,

dipole-dipole

ID: A

8

99 Which of the following compounds would you

expect to evaporate most quickly from indentical

containers at identical temperatures?

A C7H15NH2 B C7H15OH C C7H16

D C6H13COOH E C5H12

100 Which of the following is NOT trigonal planar?

A nitrate ion B boron trichloride

C phosphorus trichloride D sulfur trioxide

E carbonate ion

101 What is the most likely bond angle for F-S-F in

SF6?

A 104.5 degrees B 120 degrees C 109.5

degrees D 107.5 degrees E 90 degrees

102 Which of the following compounds will NOT

exhibit hydrogen bonding between its molecules?

A HCl B NH3 C HF D H2O E None of

these

103 Which one of the following bonds would be most

polar?

A N-O B Br-Br C F-H D O-Cl E O=O

104 In which of the following pairs are the two items

NOT correctly related?

A octahedral and six bonded pairs B sp and

104.5 degrees C linear and 180 degrees D sp2

and trigonal planar E sp3 and 109.5 degrees

105 Which of the following pairs have the same

atomic geometry?

A NH3 and PF5 B BF3 and NH3 C CO32- and

BF3 D PF5 and SF6 E H2O and NH3

106 Which one of these cations has the greatest

ability to polarize an anion?

A Mg2+ B Al3+ C Na1+ D Ca2+ E Cs1+

107 Which of these molecules is polar?

A CO2 B HCN C O2 D BF3 E SF6

108 Which of the following molecules is NOT linear

in terms of its atom geometry?

A H2O B H2 C CO2 D I31- E I2

109 Which of the following ionic compounds would

have the most covalent character?

A NaCl B CaCl2 C RbCl D CsCl E MgCl2

110 Which of the following accounts for the fact that

the boiling point of Hydrogen fluoride (19.5

Celsius) is significantly higher than that of

hydrogen chloride (- 84 Celsius) despite the fact

that HCl is the larger molecule?

A HF has greater London dispersion forces than

HCl B None of these C HF has intermolecular

hydrogen bonds D HCl has greater London

dipersion forces than HF E HCl has

intermolecular hydrogen bonds

111 Which of the following covalent species would

one expect to have the greatest ionic character?

A HI B HBr C HF D HCl E H2

112 In which of the following species would one

expect to find a pi bond?

A N2 B Cl2 C H2 D I2 E F2

113 What type of hybridization would you expect

around the S atom in SF51-?

A sp3 B sp2 C sp D sp3d E sp3d2

ID: A

9

114 Which of the following statements is true in

reference to diagram X above?

A The reaction is endothermic since the products

have a lower enthalpy than the reactants B The

reaction is endothermic since the products have a

higher enthalpy than the reactants C The

reaction is exothermic since the products have a

lower enthalpy than the reactants D The

reaction is exothermic since the products have a

higher enthalpy than the reactants E ∆H for the

reaction is zero

115 In the diagrams above, which reaction(s) have

endothermic activation energies?

A X only B Y only C Y and Z only D X

and Z only E None of these answers

116 In the diagrams above, which diagram represents

the most exothermic reaction?

A X only B Y only C Y and Z D X and Z

E Z only

117 Which of the following always has a negative

value for a reaction or process that occurs

spontaneously?

A ∆G B ∆H C ∆S D Specific Heat Capacity

E Activation Energy

118 Which of the following is a measure of the

change in order or disorder of a system?

A ∆G B ∆H C ∆S D Specific Heat Capacity

E Activation Energy

119 In a reaction where entropy decreases, it is found

that the reaction has a positive ∆G, but becomes

spontaneous as the temperature decreases. Which

of the following is true?

A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are

both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive

D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E ∆G & ∆S

are both equal to zero

120 A reaction that is non-spontaneous at a given

temperature becomes spontaneous at a higher

temperature. Which of the following statements

must be true?

A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are

both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive

D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E ∆G & ∆S

are both equal to zero

121 What are the signs of ∆H and ∆S for a reaction

that is spontaneous at all temperatures?

A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are

both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive

D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E None of

these

ID: A

10

122 Which of the following terms must be negative in

order for a reaction to be spontaneous?

A ∆H B ∆S C Temperature D ∆G

E Activation Energy

123 Which of the following changes involves the

largest increase in entropy?

A liquid propanol evaporating to become

propanol gas B Graphite being turned into

diamond C condensation of water vapor into

liquid water D formation of ice crystals in

liquid water E dissolving of a soluble salt in

liquid water.

124 When burning a solid hydrocarbon, which set of

values would be most likely?

A Negative ∆H, Negative ∆S, Negative ∆G

B Negative ∆H, Negative ∆S, Positive ∆G

C Negative ∆H, Positive ∆S, Negative ∆G

D Positive ∆H, Negative ∆S, Negative ∆G

E None of these

125 Which of the following equations represents the

standard enthalpy of formation for Iron (III)

Fluoride?

A Fe(s) + 3F(g) → FeF3(s) B Fe(g) + 3F(g) → FeF3(s)

C Fe(s) + 1.5F2(g) → FeF3(s) D Fe(s) + F2(g) →

FeF3(s) E Fe(g) + 1.5F2(g) → FeF3(s)

126 Which of the following equations represents both

the standard enthalpy of formation of zinc oxide

and the standard enthalpy of combustion of zinc

metal?

A Zn(s) + 0.5 O2(g) → ZnO(s) B Zn(g) + 0.5 O2(g)

→ ZnO(s) C Zn(s) + O(g) → ZnO(s) D 2 Zn(s) +

O2(g) → 2 ZnO(s) E Zn(g) + O(g) → ZnO(s)

127 Compare the process of freezing water and the

combustion of ethane (C2H6) gas in terms of

entropy changes.

A Freezing water has a positive entropy change

and combustion of ethane has a negative entropy

change. B Freezing water and combustion of

ethane both have a positive entropy change.

C Freezing water has a negative entropy change

and combustion of ethane has a positive entropy

change. D Freezing water and combustion of

ethane both have a negative entropy change.

E Not enough information is given

Short Answer

These questions will be represented as multiple choice on the final.

128 Calculate the molar concentration of the

carbonate ion in a 0.500 M H2CO3 solution.

By choosing two of the following reaction types

from the list below, classify each of the following

reactions in two ways.

Reaction types: precipitation, acid-base,

REDOX (oxidation and reduction), single

displacement, double displacement,

combination, decomposition, combustion.

129 2CH3OH(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

130 2KOH(aq) + NiCO3(aq) → K2CO3(aq) +

Ni(OH)2(s)

131 2Na(s) + Br2(l) → 2NaBr(s)

132 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + H2(g)

133 According to the Bronsted-Lowry model of acids

and bases, acids are defined as hydrogen ion

_________ and bases are defined as hydrogen

ion ____________.

ID: A

11

134 Calculate [Fe2+] and [PO43-] that would be found

in a 1.000 M iron (II) phosphate solution.

135 Solid hydroxides are dissolved in water to form

aqueous solutions. 0.5579% of Hydroxide A

dissociates into OH- ions and 0.8950% of

Hydroxide B dissociates into OH- ions. What

would you predict about the relative conductivity

of these two basic solutions?

136 Hydrofluoric acid only partially ionizes in

aqueous solution. HF has electrical conductivity

properties that indicate it should be described as

137 Iodine has what oxidation number in IO21-?

138 The metal found in the coordination complex

[CoP3]7- has what oxidation number?

139 Glucose (C6H12O6) is a molecular compound that

is soluble in water. An aqueous solution of

glucose has electrical conductivity properties that

indicate it should be described as

140 Write an overall equation for the formation of the

ionic compound calcium chloride, then write two

half equations and identify the redox process for

each half reaction.

141 Construct half equations and use them to

balance the full equation AlCl3 + I2 → Cl2 +

AlI3

142 Ammonium nitrate is an ionic compound that is

soluble in water. An aqueous solution of

NH4NO3 has electrical conductivity properties

that indicate it should

143 NaOH completely ionizes in aqueous solution.

This would indicate a solution of sodium

hydroxide will

144 What is the oxidation number of bromine in

BrO3?

145 A flexible balloon is filled with 3.00 moles of

nitrogen gas and occupies 5.00 liters of space. If

half of the gas molecules are removed, the

balloon will now occupy how many liters of

space?

146 Under what conditions do the assumptions of the

ideal gas law begin to break down?

147 If 5.49 L of a gas at 338 K is transferred to a 14.3

L container under constant pressure, the

temperature of the resulting gas would be

148 A mixture of gases at constant temperature

included equal numbers of moles of each of the

following: carbon dioxide, helium, neon, and

nitrogen. Which gas has the lowest urms?

149 365 K is equal to how many degrees Celsius?

150 What volume is occupied by 0.500 moles of an

ideal gas at STP?

151 A gas held at STP is found to have a mass of 64

grams and occupies a volume of 44.8 liters under

these conditions. What is the identity of the gas?

152 If a 253 mL sample of a gas at 2.45 atm is

transferred to a 50.6 mL container at constant

temperature, the resulting gas pressure would be

153 A 363 mL flask contains a gas at 172.2 kPa

pressure and has a temperature of –9.970 °C. If

the flask was put in an ice bath which reduced

the gas temperature by 57.00 °C, what will the

new pressure of this gas be?

154 A gas is collected over water at a temperature

where the vapor pressure is known to be 16.0

mmHg. The total pressure in the container is 778

mmHg. What is the pressure of the gas being

collected?

ID: A

12

155 Assuming ideal behavior at STP, what is the

density of Krypton? (density = mass/volume)

156 A mixture of 2.00 moles of nitrogen gas and 8.00

moles of oxygen gas are held under conditions of

standard temperature and pressure. What is the

partial pressure of nitrogen in this sample?

157 Convert 1890 torr into mmHg.

158 Which atom geometry is associated with sp3

hybridization?

159 Iodine is a molecular solid. What type of

intramolecular bonding is present in an I2

molecule?

160 How many possible resonance structures can be

drawn for the SO3 molecule?

161 Iodine is a molecular solid. What type of

intermolecular forces are present in I2(s)?

162 How many valence electrons are there in the

species CO32-?

163 What is the total number of LONE pairs of

electrons in the Lewis diagrams for BI3?

164 What accounts for the fact that the carbonate ion

exhibits carbon-oxygen bond lengths that are

intermediate in length between a single

carbon-oxygen bond and a double carbon-oxygen

bond?

165 The enthalpy of combustion of methanol

(CH3OH) is -711 kJ mol-1. What mass of

methanol must be completely burned in oxygen

in order to release 71.1 kJ of energy?

166 The standard enthalpy of combustion of

hydrogen gas requires how many moles of

oxygen gas?

167 The standard enthalpy change for the formation

of sulfur dioxide is = Q kJ mol-1. The standard

enthalpy change for the formation of sulfur

trioxide is = R kJ mol-1. What would be the

enthalpy change for the reaction of two moles of

SO2 with oxygen to produce two moles of SO3?

168 The Bond Energy terms for H-H, Cl-Cl and H-Cl

are 440, 240 and 430 kJ mol-1 respectively.

Calculate the ∆H for the reaction between

hydrogen and chlorine gas to produce two moles

of hydrogen chloride gas.

169 The standard enthalpies of formation for ethene

(C2H4), water (H2O) and ethanol (C2H5OH) are

+52, -286 and -277 kJ mol-1 respectively.

Calculate ∆H for the reaction: Ethene + Water →

Ethanol

170 Consider the decomposition of solid calcium

carbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas and

solid calcium oxide. What can be deduced about

the change in entropy in this reaction?

171 The equation that represents the standard

enthalpy of combustion of propane (C3H8)

produces how many moles of products?

172 The standard enthalpies of combustion for

methylbenzene (C7H8), carbon and hydrogen are

-3910, -394, and -286 kJ mol-1 respectively.

Calculate ∆Hf for methylbenzene in kJ mol-1.

173 A metal has a specific heat capacity of 0.899 J g-1

K-1. How much energy is required to raise the

temperature of 2.00 kg of the metal by 80K?

174 1.93 x 1024 molecules of SiO2 would have what

mass in grams? (1 pt)

.

ID: A

13

175 What is the molality of an aqueous solution of a

compound with a molar mass of 60.0 g/mol that

has a density of 1.38 g/mL and a molarity of 2.44

mol L-1? (2 pts)

.

176 Answer the following questions about BeC2O4(s)

and its hydrate.

(a) Calculate the mass percent of carbon in the

hydrated form of the solid that has the formula

BeC2O4 • 3H2O (2 pts)

(b) When heated to 220.°C, BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s)

dehydrates completely as represented below:

BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s) → BeC2O4(s) + 3H2O(g)

If 3.21 g of BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s) is heated to

220.°C, calculate the mass of BeC2O4(s) formed.

(2 pts)

.

177 28.0 g of nitrogen gas reacts with 5.00 g of

hydrogen gas to produce ammonia (NH3).

(a) Which substance is the limiting reactant? (3

pts)

(b) how many grams of the excess reactant will

be present after the reaction is completed? (2 pts)

(c) how many grams of ammonia are produced?

(2 pts)

.

178 Glucose is an organic molecule composed of C,

H, and O. A 1.802 gram sample of glucose is

burned in air to form 2.641 grams of CO2 and

1.081 grams of water.

(a) How many moles of carbon and hydrogren

must be present in the original sample of

glucose? (2 pts)

(b) What is the mass of oxygen in the original

sample? (2 pts)

(c) What is the percentage composition of

glucose? (1 pt)

(d) What is the empirical formula of glucose? (3

pts)

(e) If the true molar mass of glucose is 180.16 g

mol-1, what is the molecular formula? (2 pts)

.

ID: A

14

179 Asample of solid calcium carbonate was added to

100 mL of a 1.50 mol L-1 HNO3 solution

according to the reaction below.

CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3 → CaNO3(aq) + CO2(g) +

H2O(l)

(a) After this reaction was complete, the resulting

solution was acidic. 50.0 mL of a 1.00 mol L-1

NaOH solution was required to completely

neutralize the excess acid. How many moles of

nitric acid were neutralized by the sodium

hydroxide according to the reaction below? (2

pts)

HNO3 + NaOH → NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

(b) Since the moles that were neutralized in the

second reaction are equal to the moles that

remained after the initial reaction, how many

moles of nitric acid were lost in the initial

reaction? (2 pts)

(c) Based upon the moles of nitric acid lost,

determine the number of grams of CaCO3(s) that

were added to the initial sample of acid. (2 pts)

.

180 A student is attempting to perform the classic

demonstration of potassium iodide reacting with

lead (II) nitrate.

(a) What mass of potassium iodide would the

student need to prepare 200.0 mL of an aqueous

0.5000 M KI solution? Describe the steps

necessary to prepare this solution. (2 pts)

(b) The student wants to prepare 175.0 mL of an

aqueous 1.500 M Pb(NO3)2 solution from a 6.000

M stock solution. What volume of the stock

solution must be diluted? (1 pt)

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the

exchange reaction that produces aqueous KNO3

and the yellow precipitate, PbI2. (1 pt)

(d) Determine the mass of PbI2 that would form

from these starting solutions. (3 pts)

(e) When the student performs the demonstration,

he dries and measures the precipitate in a

dessicator. If 19.95 grams of PbI2 formed, what

is the percentage yield of this reaction? (1 pt)

.

ID: A

1

AP Chem - Topic 1 Test

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1 ANS: B PTS: 1

2 ANS: A PTS: 1

3 ANS: E PTS: 1

4 ANS: D PTS: 1

5 ANS: A PTS: 1

6 ANS: B PTS: 1

7 ANS: B PTS: 1

8 ANS: C PTS: 1

9 ANS: C PTS: 1

10 ANS: D PTS: 1

11 ANS: C PTS: 1

12 ANS: B PTS: 1

13 ANS: E PTS: 1

14 ANS: C PTS: 1

15 ANS: C PTS: 1

16 ANS: D PTS: 1

17 ANS: D PTS: 1

18 ANS: A PTS: 1

19 ANS: C PTS: 1

20 ANS: D PTS: 1

21 ANS: C PTS: 1

22 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APe, 2APf

23 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APw

24 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APp, 2APq

25 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APx, 2APw

26 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APt

27 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APr, 2APw

28 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APh

29 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APd

30 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl

31 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl

32 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl

33 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APs

ID: A

2

34 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APg

35 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APe, 2APf

36 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APr, 2APw

37 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APu

38 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APh

39 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APc, 2APd

40 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APn

41 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APm

42 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APn

43 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd

44 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe

45 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg, 3APh

46 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg, 3APm

47 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf

48 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APi, 3APj

49 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APn, 3Apm

50 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe

51 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg

52 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf

53 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe

54 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe

55 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf

56 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APr, 3APh

57 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd

58 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APh

59 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd

60 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APk

61 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APa

62 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd

63 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5p

NOT: activity series

64 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6b, AP6j

NOT: temp conversions, Urms

65 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6i

NOT: kinetic theory

66 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c

NOT: understand combined gas law

67 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6f, AP6i

NOT: kinetic theory, Dalton's Law (implications)

ID: A

3

68 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c

NOT: combined gas law

69 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6k

NOT: identify Graham's Law

70 ANS: D

smallest MM has greatest effusion rate

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6j NOT: Urms

71 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic radius

72 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization energy trend

73 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7a, AP7b

NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation

74 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: comparing atomic radius

75 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7a, Ap7b

NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation

76 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic and ionic radius

77 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: comparing trends (vertically)

78 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: ionic radius vs. atomic radius

79 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d, AP1h NOT: unit prefixes, atomic radii

80 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: energy change of ionization

81 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization energy

82 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d

83 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: electron affinity equation

84 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7f NOT: dia- and paramagnetism

85 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: trend comparison

86 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends

87 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7a

NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation

88 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e, AP2s NOT: chemical trends, naming acids

89 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7c NOT: trend exceptions

90 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends

91 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b

NOT: ionization energy (comparing atoms/ions)

92 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization equation

93 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: comparing group trends

94 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends

95 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic vs. ionic radius

96 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8d, AP8i NOT: VSEPR, hybridization

97 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8a, AP8h

NOT: bonding vs. IMF, IMF types/strength/states

ID: A

4

98 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types/strengths

99 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types, strengths, states

100 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, AP8d, AP2s

NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR, naming

101 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, AP8d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR

102 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types

103 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g NOT: bond polarity

104 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8d, AP8i NOT: VSEPR, hybridization

105 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR

106 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e NOT: bond character

107 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g NOT: Molecular Polarity

108 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR

109 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e, AP8f NOT: bond character, electronegativity

110 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types, strengths, states

111 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e, AP8f NOT: bond character, electronegativity

112 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8i NOT: Valence Bond Theory

113 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d, i

NOT: hybridization (Lewis structures, VSEPR)

114 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes

115 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes

116 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes

117 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9g NOT: Gibbs free energy

118 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy

119 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g

NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy

120 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g

NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy

121 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g

NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy

122 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9g NOT: gibbs free energy

123 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy

124 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g

NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy

125 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of formation

126 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of formation & combustion

ID: A

5

127 ANS: D

freezing goes from liquid (high entropy) to solid (low entroy)

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) -> 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

9 moles of gas become 4 moles of gas and 6 moles of liquid

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy

SHORT ANSWER

128 ANS:

0.500 M

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5c

NOT: calculate ion concentrations in aqueous solution

129 ANS:

redox & combustion

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types

130 ANS:

acid-base & double displacement

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types

131 ANS:

combination & redox

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types

132 ANS:

redox & single displacement

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types

133 ANS:

donors, acceptors

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5g, AP5h

NOT: define acids and bases in terms of H+ transfers

134 ANS:

3.000 M Fe2+ and 2.000 M PO43-

PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5c

NOT: calculate ion concentrations in aqueous solution, crossbalancing/naming

135 ANS:

B conducts electricity better than A

PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5i

NOT: comparing electrolyte ability by % ionization

ID: A

6

136 ANS:

a weak electrolyte

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, weak acid

137 ANS:

+3

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (polyatomic ion)

138 ANS:

+2

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (complex ion)

139 ANS:

a non-electolyte

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, molecular

140 ANS:

Ca + Cl2 → CaCl2, Ca → Ca2+ + 2e- (oxidation), Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1- (reduction)

PTS: 3 DIF: 3 OBJ: AP5l, AP5n

NOT: writing half reactions, identifying oxidation/reduction

141 ANS:

6Cl1- → 3Cl2 + 6e-, 3I2 + 6e- → 6I1- , 2AlCl3 + 3I2 → 3Cl2 + 2AlI3

3Cl1- → Cl2 + e-

6Cl1- → 3Cl2 + 6e-

I2 + e- → 3I1-

3I2 + 6e- → 6I1-

2AlCl3 + 3I2 → 3Cl2 + 2AlI3

PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5n NOT: writing and balancing half reactions

142 ANS:

conduct electricity well

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, ionic

143 ANS:

conduct electricity well

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, strong base

144 ANS:

+6

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m

NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (oxygen compound)

ID: A

7

145 ANS:

2.50

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: avogadro's law

146 ANS:

high pressure and low temperature

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6e NOT: Real gas behaviors

147 ANS:

880 K

5.49

338

14.3

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: charles's law

148 ANS:

CO2

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6j NOT: Urms

149 ANS:

92.0 °C

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6b NOT: convert K to C

150 ANS:

11.2 L

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6h, AP6g NOT: molar volume @ STP

151 ANS:

oxygen

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6d, AP6g NOT: MM ideal gas las, STP

152 ANS:

12.3 atm

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: boyle's law

153 ANS:

134.9 kPa

T2 = –66.97 °C

PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP6c, AP6b NOT: gay lussac's law, Temp conversion

154 ANS:

762 mmHg

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6f NOT: dalton's law of PP

ID: A

8

155 ANS:

3.74 x 10-3 kg per liter

MM = 83.798

V = 22.4 L

d = 3.74 g/L

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6h NOT: density from MM and molar volume

156 ANS:

0.200 atm

2 mol N2 / 10 mol total * 1.00 atm @ STP

PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP6f NOT: Dalton's Law of PP

157 ANS:

1890

760 mmHg

760 torr

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6a NOT: convert between pressure units

158 ANS:

tetrahedral

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8i, AP8d NOT: hybridization, VSEPR

159 ANS:

covalent bonds

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g, h, a NOT: IMF types, polarity, bonding vs. IMF

160 ANS:

3

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures

161 ANS:

London dispersion forces

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g, h, a NOT: IMF types, molecule polarity, bonding vs. IMF

162 ANS:

24

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures

163 ANS:

9

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures

ID: A

9

164 ANS:

resonance

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: resonance

165 ANS:

3.2 g

-71.1 kJ (1 mol / -711 kJ)(32.05 g / 1 mol) = 3.205 g

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of combustion, dimensional analysis

166 ANS:

0.5

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of combustion

167 ANS:

2R - 2Q

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP9c NOT: enthalpy of combustion, Hess's Law

168 ANS:

-180

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9e NOT: BET

169 ANS:

-43

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c NOT: Hess's Law

170 ANS:

∆S > 0

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy

171 ANS:

7

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP4b, AP4d

NOT: combustion reaction, writing balanced equations

172 ANS:

+8

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP4b, AP4d

NOT: combustion reaction, writing balanced equations

173 ANS:

143.84 kJ

PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9d NOT: Calorimetry

ID: A

10

174 ANS:

1.93 x 1024 molec (1 mol / 6.022 x 1023 molec)(60.08 g / mol) = 193 g SiO2

PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP4d, AP4g

175 ANS:

(2 pts, 1 for setup shown, 1 for molality given)

2.44 mol / L (1 L / 1000 mL) (1 mL / 1.38 g) (1000 g / 1 kg) = 1.77 mol / kg

PTS: 2 OBJ: AP4k

176 ANS:

(a) (2 pts)

Determine the total mass of 1 mole of the crystal including 3 moles of water (1 pt)

molar mass = ( 9.01 )+ ( 12.01 x 2 ) + ( 16.00 x 4 ) + ( 18.02 x 3 )=151.09 g/mol

Now determine the % mass considering 2 moles of C atoms present. (1 pt)

% C = (( 12.01 x 2 ) / 151.09)*100 = 15.9

(b) (2 pts)

Find the % mass of the salt from the molar mass. (1 pt)

hydrated molar mass: 151.09 g/mol

salt molar mass (anhydrous): 97.03 g/mol

(97.03 / 151.09) *100 = 64.22% salt

Multiply the sample mass by the % salt. (1 pt)

3.21 g (64.22%) = 2.06 g

PTS: 4 DIF: 2 OBJ: 4APb, 4APl NOT: AP 2000 3a, 3b(i)

ID: A

11

177 ANS:

(a) (1 pt for moles present)

28.0 g N2 (1 mol / 28.02 g) = 1.00 mol N2 present

5.00 g H2 (1 mol / 1.01 g) = 2.48 mol H2 present

(1 pt for mole ratio)

1 mol N2 (3 mol H2 / 1 mol N2) = 3 mol H2 required

(1 pt for correct comparison)

3 mol H2 required > 2.48 mol H2 present, H2 is limiting reactant.

(b) (1 pt for ICE box/substruction)

2.48 mol H2 (1 mol N2 / 3 mol H2) = 0.827 mol N2 reacted

I 1.00 mol N2

C -0.827 mol N2

E 0.173 mol N2 remains

(1 pt for molar mass conversion)

0.173 mol N2 (28.02 g N2 / mol N2) = 4.85 g N2 remain

(c) (1 pt using ice box or stoichiometry)

2.48 mol H2 (2 mol NH3 / 3 mol H2) = 1.65 mol NH3 produced

(1 pt for molar mass conversion)

1.65 mol NH3 (17.04 g / mol) = 28.1 g NH3 produced

PTS: 7 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APg, 4APf, 4APm

NOT: AP 2003b 2a

ID: A

12

178 ANS:

(a) (2 pts, 1 for each full conversion)

2.641 g CO2 (1 mol / 44.01 g)(1 mol C / 1 mol CO2) = 0.06000 mol C

1.081 g H2O (1 mol / 18.02 g)(2 mol H / 1 mol H2O) = 0.1200 mol H

(b) (2 pts, 1 for mass conversions, 1 for subtraction)

0.06000 mol C (12.01 g / 1 mol) = 0.7206 g C

0.1200 mol H (1.008 g / 1 mol) = 0.1210 g H

1.802 g glucose - 0.7206 g C - 0.1210 g H = 0.9604 g O

(c) (1 pt)

39.99% C, 6.71% H, 53.30% O

(d) (3 pt, 1 for finding moles of O, 1 for dividing by the smallest & getting whole # ratio, 1 for formula)

0.9604 g O (1 mol / 16.00 g) = 0.06003 mol O

Carbon has the fewest moles, so divide each # moles out:

C (0.06000 / 0.06000) = 1

H (0.1200 / 0.06000) = 2

O (0.06003 / 0.06000) = 1

CH2O is the empirical formula

(e) (2 pt, 1 for finding the factor, 1 for writing the molecular formula)

180.16 g mol-1 (Actual MM)/ 30.03 g mol-1 (Empirical MM) = 6

C6H12O6 is the molecular formula

PTS: 10 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APe, 4APf, 4APg, 4APb (c), 4APc (d,e)

NOT: combustion analysis

ID: A

13

179 ANS:

(a) (1pt, molarity equation)

(0.0500L)(1.00 mol L-1) = 0.0500 mol NaOH reacted

(1pt, mole ratio)

0.0500 mol NaOH (1 mol HNO3 / 1 mol NaOH) = 0.0500 mol HNO3 reacted

(b) (1 pt, molarity equation)

(.100 L)(1.50 M) = 0.150 mol HNO3 initially

(1 pt, ICE box or subtraction)

HNO3

I .150

C .100 mol HNO3 lost

E .0500

(c) (1 pt, mole ratio)

0.100 mol HNO3 (1 mol CaCO3 / 2 mol HNO3) = 0.0500 mol CaCO3 lost

since CaCO3 is used up, this is also the initial amount of moles CaCO3.

(1 pt, molar mass)

0.0500 mol CaCO3 (100.09 g CaCO3 / 1 mol CaCO3) = 5.00 g CaCO3

PTS: 6 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APf, 4APg, 4APh

NOT: AP Worksheet 4f

ID: A

14

180 ANS:

(a) (2 pts, 1 for molarity equation, 1 for molar mass)

(0.2000L)(0.5000 mol L-1) = 0.1000 mol KI

0.1000 mol KI (166.00 g / mol) = 16.60 g KI

(b) (1 pt for dilution)

(6.000 M)(V1) = (1.500 M)(175.0 mL)

V1 = 43.75 mL of 6.000 M Pb(NO3)2

(c) (1 pt for balanced equation)

2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) -> PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

(d) (3 pts, 1 for mol Pb(NO3)2, 1 for evidence of limiting reagent, 1 for g PbI2 formed)

(0.1750 L)(1.500 mol L-1) = 0.2625 mol Pb(NO3)2

0.1000 mol KI (1 mol Pb(NO3)2 / 2 mol KI) = 0.05000 mol Pb(NO3)2 required.

KI is limiting

0.1000 mol KI (1 mol PbI2 / 2 mol KI) = 0.05000 mol PbI2 (461.01 g /mol ) = 23.05 g PbI2

(e) (1 pt for % yield)

(19.95 g / 23.05 g) *100 = 86.55%

PTS: 8 OBJ: AP4a f g j m n