area iii: safety, health & environmental applications · 3. which category of osha standards...

© OHSA Training Network CSHM Study GuideArea III: SH&E Applications III-1

AREA III: SAFETY, HEALTH & ENVIRONMENTAL APPLICATIONS

Area III. Topic A. Compliance Management

1. Which of the following criteria is not used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? a. industry recognition b. employer recognition c. employee recognition d. common sense recognition 2. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for longshoring: a. 1904 b. 1917 c. 1926 d. 1928 3. Which category of OSHA standards apply to a particular industry or to particular operations, practices, conditions, processes, means, methods, equipment or installations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. horizontal standards (specific) b. vertical standards (general) c. universal standards (horizontal) d. specific industry standards (vertical) 4. The Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed in what year? a. 1907 b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997 5. Whether exposed persons are employees of an employer depends on several factors, the most important of which is: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. relationship between the employee and employer b. employee workloads and schedules c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned work d. the manner in which the employer delegates work to the employee

6. Which category of OSHA standards below apply when a condition is not covered by a specific industry standard: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. horizontal standards (specific) b. vertical standards (general) c. universal standards (horizontal) d. specific industry standards (vertical) 7. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for general industry: a. 1904 b. 1910 c. 1926 d. 1938 8. The employer's requirement to comply with an OSHA standard may be modified through granting of a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. extension b. variance c. modification d. special exception 9. An employer will not be subject to an OSHA citation if the observed condition is in compliance with either the standard or a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. extension b. variance c. modification d. special exception 10. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for shipyard employment: a. 1904 b. 1915 c. 1926 d. 1938


11. Where an OSHA standard requires engineering or administrative controls (including work practice controls), employee exposure shall be cited: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. if PPE is not appropriate for the use b. unless suitable PPE can be immediately provided c. if personal protective equipment is not being used d. regardless of the use of PPE 12. Where employee exposure to a hazardous condition is not observed, witnessed, or monitored by the OSHA compliance officer during an inspection, unobserved employee exposure may be established if: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. exposure is determined through witness statements b. exposure is determined through other evidence c. exposure is determined through prediction d. answer a and b above 13. An OSHA citation may be issued when the possibility exists that potential employee exposure to a hazard exists. Potential exposure may be established using any of the following criteria, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. witnesses and other evidence b. past circumstances or anticipated work requirements c. exposure can be reasonably predicted by the compliance officer d. employee work patterns 14. Under OSHA law employers must protect employees from all of the following, except: a. near miss b. injury c. illness d. death

15. The purpose of the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to: (NIOSH) a. conduct research and educate employers on best practices in safety and health b. conduct research and make recommendations that improve OSHA standards c. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness d. conduct research and publish warnings regarding unsafe work practices 16. This inspection focuses on certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, but may be expanded based on information gathered by the OSHA compliance officer during the inspection process. a. routine inspection b. comprehensive inspection c. programmed inspection d. partial inspection 17. This type of violation shall be cited in situations where the most serious injury or illness that would be likely to result from a hazardous condition cannot reasonably be predicted to cause death or serious physical harm to exposed employees but does have a direct and immediate relationship to their safety and health: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. De Minimis b. Other-than-serious c. Serious d. Statutory 18. The first states occupational safety and health laws in this country were enacted during what time period? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 36) a. early 1800's b. late 1800's c. early 1900's d. mid 1900's 19. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) requires employers to record and report work-related fatalities, injuries and illnesses: a. 1904 b. 1910 c. 1926 d. 1938


20. The OSHA Act established all of the following agencies, EXCEPT: a. OSHA b. OSHRC c. NSC d. NIOSH 21. This type of violation exists if there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use, in such place of employment unless the employer did not, and could not with the exercise of reasonable diligence, know of the presence of the violation.: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. De Minimis b. Other-than-serious c. Serious d. Statutory 22. A serious violation is issued by OSHA if there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use, in such place of employment unless: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. the employer corrects the violation prior to the conclusion of the inspection b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence, did or could not know about the violation c. the employer is able to establish the intent to comply with the violated rule d. the employer is exercises reasonable diligence in correcting the hazard 23. Which of the following criteria is not considered by an OSHA compliance officer to determine if a serious violation exists? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. the type of accident or health hazard exposure b. the most serious injury or illness expected c. whether the injury or illness could include death or serious physical harm d. whether the employee was under undue pressure to accomplish a task

24. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for construction: a. 1904 b. 1910 c. 1926 d. 1938 25. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet) a. exposure records b. hazard assessment records c. training records d. equipment certification records 26. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for longshoring: a. 1904 b. 1918 c. 1926 d. 1928 27. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has a primary research facility which includes research/field study Divisions: Division of Safety Research (DSR), Division of Respiratory Disease Studies (DRDS), and Health Effects Laboratory Division (HELD). What is the location of this facility? (NIOSH) a. Washington DC b. Cleveland OH c. Pittsburgh PA d. Morgantown WV 28. This OSHA standard requires each employer furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. Section 7(a)(1) - Universal Employer Duty Clause b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clause c. Section 1(a)(1) - Universal Employer Requirement d. Section 1(a)(1) - General Employer Duty


29. In general, Review Commission and court precedent has established that the following elements are necessary to prove a violation of the general duty clause: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior to the conclusion of the inspection b. the hazard was causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm c. the employer failed to keep the workplace free of a hazard to which employees were exposed d. there was a feasible and useful method to correct the hazard 30. An OSHA general duty citation must involve the following: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. an employee and employer relationship b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure c. employee exposure d. workplace hazard 31. For the purpose of citing employers, which of the following is false concerning OSHA's definition of a workplace hazard? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. it must affect the employer's employee b. it is not a failure to abate c. it is not an accident d. it need not be necessarily be recognized 32. The maximum OSHA penalty for a serious violation is: a. $3,000 b. $4,000 c. $5,000 d. $7,000 33. Employer recognition of a hazard is established if any of the following criteria is met, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. industry recognition b. employer recognition c. common sense d. employee recognition

34. OSHA considers industry recognition may be established when the following criteria is met: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. recognition by employer's industry b. general recognition by any industry c. general recognition by companies three-digit SIC d. general recognition by companies in four-digit SIC 35. OSHA considers employer recognition has been established when any of the following exists, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. written statements by employer b. oral statements by supervisor c. oral statements by employee to compliance officer d. employee clearly calls hazard to employer's attention 36. In which of the following cases will OSHA use common-sense recognition to establish a violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. serious b. flagrant c. high-death d. unusual 37. In which of the following cases will OSHA use common-sense recognition to establish a violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. serious b. flagrant c. high-death d. unusual 38. Even though, as a result of the exercise of professional judgment, not all potentially hazardous conditions, operations and practices within those areas are inspected during this inspection, this type of OSHA inspection is defined as a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of an establishment: a. routine inspection b. comprehensive inspection c. programmed inspection d. focused inspection


39. The common-sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used by OSHA: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. whenever other criteria is insufficient b. only in flagrant cases c. when employees identify the hazards d. as directed by the Review Commission 40. Exposure is generally defined as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. event or occurrence b. condition, relative position c. behavior, condition d. activity, predetermined event 41. These violation OSHA standards have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health and are not included in citations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. De Minimis b. General c. Serious d. Willful 42. This violation will be issued by OSHA if the employer has been cited previously for a substantially similar condition and the citation has become a final order:(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. Repeat b. General c. Serious d. Willful 43. This department is authorized to enforce the OSHAct of 1970. a. Department of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH) b. Department of Labor (DOL) c. Department of Justice (DOJ) d. Environmental Protection Administration (EPA)

44. Section 5(b) of the Act states: 'Each employee shall comply with occupational safety and health standards and all rules, regulations, and orders issued pursuant to the Act which are applicable to his own actions and conduct.' All of the following are true concerning this Act, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. The Act does not propose penalties against employees b. The Act does not provide for the issuance of citations against employees, c. Employers are not responsible for employee compliance d. Employers are responsible for employee compliance 45. In cases where the OSHA compliance officer determines that employees are systematically refusing to comply with a standard applicable to their own actions and conduct, the OSHA compliance officer will: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. propose penalties against the employee b. issue a citation against the employee, c. consult with the Area Director d. review compliance with the employer 46. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for inspections, citations, and proposed penalties: a. 1903 b. 1917 c. 1926 d. 1928 47. If the employer is able to establish this defense, OSHA will excuse the violation which was otherwise proved by the OSHA compliance officer (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. Due diligence b. De Minimis, c. Affirmative d. Absolute 48. Common examples of employer affirmative defense include all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7) a. unpreventable employee misconduct b. compliance would create greater hazard, c. alternative methods exist d. compliance is functionally impossible


49. Inspections, either programmed or unprogrammed, fall into one of two categories depending on the scope of the inspection. Which of the following describe these two categories?(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. comprehensive and partial b. complete and focused, c. area and department d. safety and health 50. The minimum and maximum OSHA penalties for a willful violation is: a. $2,000 to $30,000 b. $3,000 to $40,000 c. $4,000 to $50,000 d. $5,000 to $70,000 51. When OSHA conducts a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. area inspection b. focused inspection, c. partial inspection d. comprehensive inspection 52. Developed in cooperation with Canada and Mexico, this system represents one of the most profound changes for statistical programs focusing on emerging economic activities: a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS) d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) 53. When OSHA conducts an inspection whose focus is limited to certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. area inspection b. focused inspection, c. partial inspection d. comprehensive inspection

54. As a general rule, OSHA inspections: a. target specific high hazard industries, workplaces or occupations b. always result in follow up inspections c. include of injury and illness records reviews d. focus on scope of the comprehensive safety program 55. A partial OSHA inspection may be expanded based on information gathered by the compliance officer during the inspection process. The compliance officer must use professional judgment to determine the necessity for expansion of the inspection scope and will base this judgment on all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. walk-around inspection b. program review information, c. records review information d. subjective impression 56. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for agriculture: a. 1904 b. 1915 c. 1926 d. 1928 57. Section 8 of the Act provides that OSHA compliance officers may enter without delay and at reasonable times any establishment covered under the Act for the purpose of conducting an inspection. The employer may not refuse to allow the compliance officer entry when any of the following recognized exceptions exist: ( (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. consent b. open field, c. plain view d. time restraint 58. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet) a. exposure records b. hazard assessment records c. training records d. equipment certification records


59. Complaints about discrimination must be filed to OSHA as soon as possible within _____ days of the alleged reprisal for most complaints: a. 30 days b. 60 days c. two weeks d. three weeks 60. Unless the circumstances constitute a recognized exception the employer may: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer to conduct of the inspection b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without a warrant c. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer with police escort d. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without legal council 61. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year? a. 1907 b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997 62. Examples of employer interference with OSHA compliance inspections includes all of the following examples, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. refusal to permit the walk-around inspection b. not allowing examination of records essential to the inspection, c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry without a warrant d. refusing to allow the taking of essential photos 63. Which of the following is TRUE concerning employee workplace rights? a. negotiate the corrective actions b. appeal the citation penalty c. require a warrant d. contest the abatement date

64. When an apparent refusal to permit entry or inspection is encountered upon presenting the warrant, the CSHO shall specifically inquire whether the employer is refusing to comply with the warrant. If the employer refuses to comply or if consent is not clearly given, the CSHO will do all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall b. leave the premises, c. not attempt to conduct the inspection d. notify the Assistant Area Director 65. This system has served for decades as the structure for the collection, aggregation, presentation, and analysis of the US economy: a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS) d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) 66. Employers who participate in these programs may be exempted from programmed OSHA inspections: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. preferred worker programs b. voluntary compliance programs, c. voluntary nondisclosure programs d. OSHA 300 Survey Program 67. To protect the health and safety of persons working in the coal mining industry, the Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act passed. In what year was the Act passed? (MSHA) a. 1909 b. 1919 c. 1969 d. 1996 68. The Lost Workday Case Incident Rate (LWDI) may, in the OSHA compliance officer's discretion, be used in determining trends in injuries and illnesses. The LWDI rate is calculated according to the following formula: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. (# LWDI's x 1 million)/# employee hours worked b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours worked c. (# employee hours worked x 1 million)/200,000 d. (# employee hours worked x 200,000)/# LWDI's


69. Apparent OSHA violations will be brought to the attention of employer and employee representatives at the time they are documented during an inspection. Compliance officers are required to record at a minimum all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. employee's knowledge of the hazard b. the employer's knowledge of the condition c. the identity of the exposed employee d. the hazard to which the employee was exposed 70. OSHA defines the hospitalization for treatment of three or more employees resulting from a work-related incident, accident or illness as a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. serious accident b. catastrophe c. multiple injury accident d. eight-hour reportable event 71. This Act was most recently enacted in 1977: a. Toxic Substances Control Act b. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act d. Walsh Healy Act 72. Section 17(e) of the Act provides criminal penalties for an employer who is convicted of having willfully violated an OSHA standard, rule or order when that violation: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. occurred in the employer's workplace b. caused the death of an employee c. resulted in multiple injuries d. was a repeat 73. Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed under this president's administration? a. Roosevelt b. Kennedy c. Nixon d. Reagan

74. Any conditions or practices in any place of employment which are such that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through enforcement procedures is referred to as: otherwise provided by this Act. (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. immediately dangerous to life or limb (IDLL) b. a high risk environment c. imminent danger d. a hazardous workplace 75. The OSHA 300 Log must be prepared for OSHA each year, but the most effective use of the summary is to: a. Provide statistical analysis data b. Ensure compliance with OSHA c. Provide justification to fund safety d. Prove due diligence 76. Days Away Restricted & Transferred (DART) incidence rate is expressed as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6) a. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 1 million)/# actual employee workhours) b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours c.(# actual employee workhours x 200,000)/# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer d. # Days away from work, restricted work or transfer/(# actual employee workhours x 200,000) 77. Under the OSHA Guidelines, states may administer their own safety and health rules as long as: a. state rules are at least as effective b. states remit a portion of the penalties c. state plans mirror the federal plan d. state rules are adopted after 180 days 78. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year? a. 1907 b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997


79. The maximum OSHA penalty a repeat violation is: a. $3,000 b. $5,000 c. $7,000 d. $9,000 80. Warning signs, hazardous material labels and other forms of warnings must be in: a. English and Spanish b. English c. Primary language of employee d. English and French 81. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is located within what federal agency? a. Department of Labor b. Health and Human Services/CDC c. Secretary of Labor d. Secretary of Health and Human Services 82. Which of the following relationships is MOST correct? a. NIOSH is an agency of OSHA b. OSHA reports to NIOSH c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC d. CDC reports to NIOSH 83. OSHA encourages companies to develop and maintain a comprehensive safety and health program, and has established this program that recognizes this effort: a. QSHP, Quality Safety and Health Program b. VPP, Voluntary Protection Program c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program d. VOIP, Voluntary OSHA Inspection Program 84. OSHA encourages States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. OSHA approves and monitors State plans. For the states to assume, develop and operate their own OSHA laws, they must: a. develop and forward a plan to OSHA b. must meet 100% staffing levels c. show worker protection is as effective as OSHA's d. all of the above

85. This 1970 act is considered by most safety professionals to be the most significant safety legislation of the last century: a. Taft-Hartley Act b. Williams-Steiger Act c. Gramm-Rudman Act d. Steiger-Mannington Act 86. This Federal agency responsible for conducting research and making recommendations for the prevention of work-related disease and injury: a. Department of Labor (DOL) b. National Institutes of Safety and Health (NIOSH) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) 87. When any workplace fatality or accident that results in the hospitalization of three or more employees, employers are required to report to the nearest OSHA office within: a. 8 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours 88. Which of the following must be posted at a prominent location within the workplace informing employees of their rights and responsibilities? a. Form 301 b. OSHA summary c. OSHA poster d. Form 300A 89. The maximum OSHA penalty per day for failure to correct a prior violation is: a. $3,000 b. $5,000 c. $7,000 d. $9,000 90. The employer must provide employees, former employees and their representatives access to the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, also called the: a. OSHA Form 301 b. OSHA Form 300 c. OSHA poster d. Form summary


91. Name an independent agency that tests, certifies and provides other safety technical services. : (Brauer, 41) a. OSHA b. Industry Mutual System c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL) d. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) 92. Which of the following is NOT an example of a voluntary consensus standard? (Brauer, 40) a. OSHA 1910.1200 b. ANSI Z490.1 c. ASTM A34/A34M-01 d. NFPA 70 93. Which of the following is NOT an example of a voluntary consensus standard? (Brauer, 40) a. OSHA 1910.1200 b. ANSI Z490.1 c. ASTM A34/A34M-01 d. NFPA 70 94. Identify the agency that does not certify or approve health or safety related products: (OSHA) a. OSHA b. UL c. NIOSH d. FM 95. Which of the following acts was enacted most recently? (OSHA) a. The Occupational Safety and Health Act b. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act c. Homeland Security Act d. The Toxic Substances Control Act 96. Where would one usually not look to determine what agencies in a state are responsible for safety function and codes? (Brauer, 39) a. OSHA directories b. U.S.Code c. Internet d. State directories

97. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is headed by _____________. (Dept. of Labor) a. Vice President b. Assistant Secretary of Labor c. Secretary of Labor d. Secretary of Health and Human Services 98. What is the primary responsibility of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission? (Dept. of Labor) a. Conduct research, experiments, and demonstrations b. Conduct educational programs c. Adjudicate disputes d. Promulgate standards 99. Congress provides grants to the States to assist in all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. Improving administration and enforcement b. Evaluating labor-management relations c. Identifying their needs and responsibilities d. Developing plans in accordance with the OSHAct 100. OSHA has a right to Promulgate, modify and revoke standard, conduct inspection, require employers to keep records and to approve or reject state plans for programs under the act. They may also: (OSHA) a. Dictate requirements for US plants in foreign countries. b. Shut down a plant on evidence received in a complaint. c. Provide training to employers and employees. d. All of the above. 101. OSHA encourages management to manage their safety and health program. One OSHA program for this purpose is called the __________. (OSHA) a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) b. EESP, Employer, Employee Safety Program (EESP) c. ESHP, Employer Safety and Health Policy (ESHP) d. VSIP, Voluntary Safety Inspection Program (VSIP)


102. There are many organizations that promulgate standards besides OSHA. In fact OSHA refers to some of them in the OSHA standards. Good Safety Management includes and understanding and use of these standards. Which of the following apply to safety and health? (OSHA) a. API, American Petroleum Institute b. The Fertilizer Institute c. ANSI, American National Standards Institute d. All of the above 103. OSHA encourages the states to assume the fullest responsibility for administering and enforcing their own OSHA laws. However, in order to assume this responsibility, such states must: (OSHA) a. Develop and submit a plan to OSHA. b. Have standards pertinent to their own state. c. Develop a program and tell OSHA. d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval from OSHA. 104. The responsibility for research to determine criteria requirements and to provide more advanced occupational safety and health implementation methods in general, is assigned to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), which is under the ______: (OSHA) a. Department of Labor b. Department of Health and Human Services c. National Institutes of Health d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration 105. Which of the following is NOT a stated strategy to achieve the goals outlined in OSHA's strategic plan? (OSHA) a. Assist employers to promote a safe culture b. Directly intervene to reduce occupational hazards c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform d. Strengthen capabilities and infrastructure

106. OSHA believes it _______: (OSHA) a. is caught between worker and employer organizations b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement alone c. has a mandate to enforce only d. can achieve its mission through enforcement alone 107. OSHA has developed a variety of intervention tools and strategies for achieving its strategic goals. This multifaceted approach includes all of the following, except? (OSHA) a. Initiating focused inspections b. Legislating standard safety values c. Penalty adjustments tied to the quality d. Strengthening partnership efforts 108. OSHA makes use of research studies and data to proactively assess changes in the workplace environment and the workforce to _____________: (OSHA) a. identify trends in injuries, illnesses, and deaths b. determine the underlying reasons why injuries occur c. determine employer liability d. a and b above 109. OSHA will write new standards and guidance materials __________, in order to make safety and health requirements more understandable to those affected: (OSHA) a. in plain language b. using a revised indexing protocol c. regularly d. in standardized volumes 110. OSHA provides a strong enforcement presence to _______________________: (OSHA) a. assure a culture of accountability b. act as an effective deterrent c. prevent private sector noncompliance d. comply with DOL policy 111. OSHA will increase the number of high-impact cases (e.g., significant, egregious, and corporate-wide settlement agreements) through ______________: (OSHA) a. enhanced targeting b. revised reporting procedures c. improved case preparation d. all of the above


112. Which one of the following would NOT be considered a benefit of partnering with OSHA? (OSHA) a. technical assistance b. focused inspections c. penalty reductions d. reduced publicity 113. OSHA's compliance assistance programs include all of the following, except: (OSHA) a. Informal training classes b. Consultation Program c. Voluntary Protection Programs d. Outreach initiatives 114. This program recognizes worksites with excellent safety and health programs: (OSHA) a. Employer Excellence Program (EEP) b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) c. Safety and Health Recognition Program (SHRP) d. Employer Safety Excellence Program (ESEP) 115. OSHA has developed a broad-based training and educational effort for external outreach including all of the following, except: (OSHA) a. Employer Ride-a-long Program b. Training grant program c. Training aids and lesson plans d. Technology-based delivery systems 116. NIOSH performs all of the following activities, except: (OSHA) a. Investigate potentially hazardous working conditions b. Make recommendations on preventing injury and illness c. Provide training to safety and health professionals d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation

117. Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 ________ States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. (OSHA) a. mandates b. encourages c. requires d. forces 118. The organization of officials in the 26 States that operate OSHA-approved State Plans is called: (OSHA) a. State Plan OSHA Association (SPOSHA) b. State Occupational Safety and Health Association (SOSHA) c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA) d. Occupational State Safety Plan Association (OSPPA) 119. States must set job safety and health standards that are __________ federal standards: (OSHA) a. at least as effective as b. identical to c. not in addition to d. not otherwise addressed in 120. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) __________: (OSHA) a. reviews pending legislation for legal sufficiency b. is an independent agency of the U.S. Government c. is a consortium of private and public sector associations d. monitors and approves employer disputes 121. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission's only function is to _________: (OSHRC) a. ensure OSHA adheres to STD-1 b. conduct hearings c. review OSHA law d. resolve disputes 122. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission employs _______________ to hear cases: (OSHRC) a. former enforcement officers b. Administrative Law Judges c. trial attorneys d. hearings officers


123. This organization is composed of officials operating OSHA-approved State Plans: (OSHRC) a. OSHAHC b. OSHSPA c. IRSPA d. SPAM 124. Which of the following criteria is NOT used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? (OSHA) a. industry recognition b. employer recognition c. employee recognition d. common sense recognition 125. The common sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used ______: (OSHA) a. whenever other criteria is insufficient b. only in flagrant cases c. when employees identify the hazards d. as directed by the Oregon DOJ 126. Each of the below are types of OSHA standards except? (OSHA) a. national consensus standards b. permanent standards c. temporary review standards d. emergency temporary standards 127. These rules represent the most common type of OSHA regulation: (OSHA) a. Consensus b. Emergency c. Temporary d. Permanent 128. Why does OSHA rarely issue Emergency Temporary Standards (ETS)? (OSHA) a. The need for ETS's has significantly decreased. b. ETS's remain in effect for only six months. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective. d. Funding for ETS's has been cut off by Congress.

129. Before issuing a permanent standard, OSHA must find that a significant risk exists in the workplace. How does OSHA determine risk? (OSHA) a. legal writ b. regulatory standard c. OSHA 200 Log results d. workplace and other studies 130. All of the following Acts have placed restraints on OSHA's rulemaking ability, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. Regulatory Flexibility Act b. Business Liability Act c. Paperwork Reduction Act d. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act 131. The general duty clause is breached when a firm's employees are exposed to hazards that meet all of the following requirements, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. The hazard is recognized as harmful by the individual employer. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule. c. The hazard is recognized as harmful by industry. d. The hazards is likely to cause death or serious harm. 132. Which of the following is not considered a successful employer defense against alleged OSHA violations? (OSHA) a. Compliance poses a financial burden b. Compliance is infeasible c. Lack of control on a multi-employer worksite. d. Unpreventable employee conduct 133. An employer may be able to defend against an OSHA violation by demonstrating all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. employee breached safety rules b. safety rules were effectively conveyed c. safety rules are uniformly enforced d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury 134. All of the following are OSHA penalty classifications except? (OSHA) a. willful b. de minimis c. general d. serious


135. Which of the following is not a consideration the Secretary of Labor must consider in proposing penalties? (OSHA) a. good faith b. prior violation history c. employer size d. employer ability to pay 136. The Secretary has unreviewable prosecutorial discretion to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. nullify rules b. withdraw citations c. reach settlements d. characterize violations 137. At an administrative hearing, both OSHA and the employer may _________: (OSHA) a. cross examine b. call witnesses c. introduce evidence d. all of the above 138. OSHA can seek criminal penalties in all of the following instances, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. someone falsely reports information to OSHA b. willful violations of specific standards c. willful violations of the general duty clause d. someone provides advance notice of an OSHA inspection 139. Employees enjoy a right to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA) a. challenge the abatement remedy b. file a complaint with OSHA c. accompany inspectors d. review relevant standards 140. To prove discrimination has occurred against an employee, the Secretary must show that exercise of protected rights was a ______________ cause for an employee's adverse treatment: (OSHA) a. sole b. substantial c. primary d. secondary

141. OSHA regulations also grant employees a right to know all of the following, EXCEPT? (OSHA) a. trade secret information b. exposure information c. hazardous substances on the job d. medical records 142. 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act provides for criminal penalties when all of the following criteria are met, EXCEPT: ((29 U.S.C. Section 666(e)) a. There is a violation of a specific regulation b. The violation is willful c. The employer refused consultative services d. An employee was killed 143. Which of the following criteria is not included in consideration of criminal penalties as specified in 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act? (29 U.S.C. Section 666(e)) a. The violation was a repeat b. There is a causal relationship between the violation and the death c. There is a violation of a specific regulation d. An employee was killed 144. An employer may be assessed a civil penalty for willfully or repeatedly committing any of the following OSH Act violations, EXCEPT: (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a)) a. violates requirements of section 5 b. violates a standard, rule, or order promulgated in section 6 c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of the OSHact d. willfully or repeatedly violates prescribed OSH regulations 145. Any employer who willfully or repeatedly violates the requirements of section 5 of the OSH Act, any standard, rule, or order promulgated pursuant to section 6 of the OSHAct, or regulations prescribed pursuant to the OSH Act, may be assessed a civil penalty of not more than _____ for each violation, but not less than _____ for each willful violation. (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a)) a. $7,000, $500 b. $17,000, $1500 c. $70,000, $5,000 d. $170,000, $50,000


146. Since 1970, workplace fatalities have been reduced by: (OSHA) a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 147. Occupational injury and illness rates have been declining for the past six years, dropping in ____ to the lowest level on record: (OSHA) a. 1978 b. 1983 c. 1998 d. 2003

148. Nationally, nearly ______ American workers are injured every minute: (OSHA) a. 4 b. 17 c. 35 d. 50 149. Nationally, almost ____ workers die each day. : (OSHA) a. 4 b. 17 c. 35 d. 50


Area III. Topic B. Environment

1. This Act gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978 b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970 c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956 d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967 2. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967 gave this agency authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. National Geologic Survey (NGS) d. Department of Environmental Protection (DEP) 3. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967 gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) authority to do which of the following? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles b. establish air quality standards c. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industry d. all of the above 4. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1970 gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) additional authority to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles b. set and review National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) c. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industry d. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor ambient air

5. Which of the following define maximum concentrations of certain air pollutants allowable in ambient air to protect public health and welfare: (NSC, APM-A&P, p 107) a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS) d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) 6. Under the Clean Air Act (CAA) the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. ozone b. silicon c. carbon monoxide d. particulate matter 7. Under the Clean Air Act (CAA) the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. sulfur dioxide b. silver monoxide c. nitrogen dioxide d. lead 8. Which of the following define allowable emissions limits for various stationary sources set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS) d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)


9. These standards are set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for pollutants for which no ambient air quality standards exist: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS) d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) 10. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. arsenic b. benzene c. asbestos d. lead 11. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. anthrax b. mercury c. radionuclides d. vinyl chlorides 12. This Act modified some of the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) due compensate for shifts energy sources caused by the Middle East oil embargo: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. The NESHAPs Revision Act (NRA) of 1978 b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970 c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 1974 d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

13. In 1977, Congress enacted amendments to the Clean Air Act (CAA) that resulted in all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. restrictions on new pollution sources where ambient air quality standards have not been met b. restrictions on industrial expansion to prevent deterioration in ambient air quality c. restrictions on motor vehicle biodiesel fuel emissions d. a and b above 14. State governments measure air quality standards and define ways to meet National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) via this plan: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. State Emergency Management Plan (EMP) b. State NAAQS Plan (SNP) c. State Implementation Plan (SIP) d. State Emergency Implementation Plan (SEIP) 15. All of the following is true concerning State Implementation Plans (SIP), EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments b. the SIP must be approved by the EPA, municipal and state governments c. the SIP becomes part of both state and federal law d. the SIP can be enforced by the EPA and state regulatory agencies 16. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. nonattainment areas b. mobile sources c. air toxic chemicals d. chemtrail pollutants 17. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. emissions from watercraft b. permits c. cholorofluorocarbons d. acid rain


18. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. underwater volcano emissions b. permits c. enforcement d. acid rain 19. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individual c. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permits d. all of the above 20. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individual c. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permits d. all of the above 21. All of the following are true concerning the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. Developing criteria is assigned to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. Its purpose is to restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the Nation's waters d. States are responsible to develop water quality management programs

22. Under the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for develop criteria for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108) a. water quality standards b. technology-based effluent limitation guidelines c. allowed additives control standards d. pretreatment standards 23. This system incorporates and applies effluent limitations in individual permits for municipal and industrial dischargers: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. Waterway Effluent Discharge Permit System (WEDPS) b. American Effluent Permit System (AEPS) c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) d. North American Waterway Permit System (NAWPS) 24. In 1990, the EPA published these rules to regulate industrial facilities discharging stormwater into the waters of the United States: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations b. American Effluent Discharge Regulations c. National Discharge Elimination Standards d. North American Waterway Discharge Standards 25. This Act, passed in 1976, was the first statutory framework designed to provide comprehensive federal and state hazardous-waste management: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. Clean Air Act (CAA) b. Clean Water Act (CWA) c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA) 26. This Act requires industry to identify and list all hazardous wastes and to note the toxicity, persistence, degradability in nature, and the potential for accumulation in tissue: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. Clean Air Act (CAA) b. Clean Water Act (CWA) c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA)


27. Which of the following must be listed by industry under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. hazardous waste toxicity b. hazardous waste persistence c. hazardous waste degradability in nature d. all of the above 28. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be listed by industry, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. potential for accumulation of hazardous wastes in tissues b. resistance of hazardous waste to controls c. degradability of hazardous wastes in nature d. toxicity of hazardous wastes 29. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. maintain recordkeeping b. accomplish container labeling c. train hazardous waste workers d. comply with component disclosure 30. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. use of a manifest system to track hazardous waste movement b. report to OSHA c. accomplish container labeling d. comply with component disclosure 31. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. hazardous waste generators b. hazardous waste treatment facilities c. hazardous waste storage facilities d. all of the above 32. Which of the following is not regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. hazardous waste manufacturers b. hazardous waste treatment facilities c. hazardous waste disposal facilities d. hazardous waste generators

33. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), hazardous waste generators and treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must operate under the conditions in a/an: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. hazardous waste plan b. controlled environment c. RCRA Permit d. hazard communication and control plan 34. Under the Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. take corrective action for releases of hazardous wastes b. take corrective action for releases of constituents from any solid waste management unit (SMWU) c. take corrective action regardless of when the waste was placed in the SWMU d. all of the above 35. The Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), authorizes EPA and authorized states to issue orders requiring a firm to take corrective action when: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. a hazardous waste release occurs at a permitted facility b. a hazardous waste release occurs at a TSD facility pending permit approval c. a hazardous waste release occurs at an interim status facility d. all of the above 36. This law outlines how to develop and implement a program to regulate underground storage tanks (USTs) that store petroleum and other substances defined as hazardous: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109) a. Underground Petroleum Storage Tank Amendment (UPSTA) b. National Underground Storage Tank Act (NUST) c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs) d. Underground Storage Tank Control Act (USTC)


37. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110) a. technological standards for land disposal facilities b. volunteer compliance and cooperation c. requirements for managing and treating small quantities of hazardous waste d. regulations for controlling USTs 38. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110) a. technological standards for land disposal facilities b. upgraded performance and design criteria for disposing solid waste in landfills c. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locations d. restrictions on land disposal of many untreated hazardous wastes 39. Several incidents of uncontrolled, dangerous disposal of toxic chemicals resulted in Congress passing this Act: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110) a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA) b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) c. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA) d. National Hazardous Waste Recovery and Liability Act of 1988 (NHWRLA)

40. This event inspired the 1990 Clean Air Act requirement that factories and other businesses develop plans to prevent accidental releases of highly toxic chemicals: (EPA) a. Bhopal Tragedy b. New York Trade Center Tragedy c. Great Chicago Fire d. Three Mile Island 41. This Act gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107) a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978 b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970 c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956 d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967


Area III. Topic C. Ergonomics

1. Which of the following best describes carpal tunnel syndrome? a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation b. Inflammation of the channel in the wrist c. Raynaud's syndrome of the hand and wrist d. White finger 2. Carpal tunnel syndrome include all of the following symptoms, except: a. Numbness in the little finger b. Pain in the wrist upon exertion c. Pain in the second and third finger d. Inflammation and swelling of the wrist 3. Lateral epicondylitis is also called: a. Trigger finder b. Roffer's wrist c. Carpenter's elbow d. Rotator cuff 4. This agency publishes the Work Practices Guide for Manual Lifting: a. OSHA b. ANSI c. NIOSH d. ASSE 5. An injury of the median nerve inside the wrist is known as: a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome b. Osteoarthritis c. DeQuarvain's Disease d. Reynold's Syndrome 6. This field of study is interested in the physical and behavioral interaction between humans and their environment on and off the job: (Brauer, p. 483) a. Ergonomics b. Anthropometrics c. Biomechanics d. Biobehavioral Systems

7. The most common of the work related musculoskeletal disorders, and in economic terms, the most costly is: a. Back pain b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome c. Trigger finger d. Tennis elbow 8. Grasping a pencil or pen between the thumb and distal joints of the fingers is referred to as: a. Power grip b. Hook grip c. Precision grip d. Relaxed grip 9. Which grip produces the maximum force that can be developed by the hand? a. Power grip b. Hook grip c. Precision grip d. Relaxed grip 10. What is the normal line of sight at rest? a. 10 degrees upward b. 10 degrees downward c. 15 degrees upward d. 15 degrees downward 11. The application of mechanical principles to biological problems is known as: a. Kinesiology b. Physiology c. Biomechanics d. Ergonomics 12. Ergonomics, as a field of study, is best described as: (Brauer, p. 483) a. The science that deals with causal factors b. The measure of negative entropy in a system c. The study of mechanics of biological systems d. The man-machine relationship


13. An MSD is an ergonomics acronym for: a. Material Safety Data b. Musculoskeletal Disorders c. Machine System Design d. Muskulo-Safe Determination 14. Which of the following is most likely produced by a cumulative trauma disorder? a. Hearing loss b. Vision loss c. Tennis elbow d. Loss of memory 15. This category of vibration is a commonly experienced by truck drivers: a. back vibration b. segmental vibration c. whole-body vibration d. neck vibration 16. Ergonomics is derived from two Greek words meaning: (Brauer, p. 483) a. Work and Law b. Cumulative and Trauma c. Work and Disease d. Trauma and Law 17. The science of measuring the body is called: a. physiometry b. anthropometry c. ergonomics d. socionoics 18. Force can be defined by all of the following, except: a. an external load b. expressed in newtons or pounds c. capacity to do work or cause physical change d. a vector quantity that tends to produce a deceleration 19. All of the following are considered ergonomics risk factors associated with a task, except: (NSC, APM-BIET, p.107) a. Fitness b. Repetitive motion c. Weight d. Point of operation

20. Which of the following is not considered in study of ergonomics? a. Physiological demands b. Psychological demands c. Physical demands d. Emotional demands 21. Work-related MSDs of the neck, shoulder, and upper limb are referred to as: a. Cumulative trauma injuries (CTI) b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome c. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI) d. Upper limb syndrome 22. Which of the following is not an important ergonomics consideration? a. Safe lift techniques b. Repetitive motion risk factors c. Exposure to blood-borne pathogens d. Exposure to excessive vibration or extreme temperatures 23. Which of the following is the least strategy to increase employee involvement in ergonomics? a. Effective reporting b. Prompt responses to concerns c. Using employee ideas on program development d. Ignore employee concerns and ideas 24. Which of the following is not an effective manual material handling principle? a. Lift loads between knees and shoulders b. Keep the travel distance less than 10 feet c. Twist as you lift from the floor d. Keep the load close to the body 25. A proactive approach to ergonomics would emphasize: a. reduction in injury costs b. early return to work programs c. workstation design d. aggressive accident investigation 26. Which of the following is not an effective ergonomics program policy? a. give ergonomics efforts high priority b. further strategic goals c. allow full discussion and cooperation d. discourage union involvement


27. Each of the following is a way management can demonstrate commitment to an ergonomics program, except: a. conduct awareness training b. encourage compliance c. bring in outside experts d. carry out ergonomic improvements 28. Which of the strategies below are counter-productive to effective ergonomics? a. Ignoring employees registering complaints b. Training in ergonomic risk factor awareness c. Sharing information and results d. Incentives for involvement 29. Which of the following is the least effective technique in developing concrete ergonomics solutions? a. reviewing OSHA logs b. brainstorming c. periodic medical exams d. screening jobs for risk factors 30. If you uncover signs and symptoms of possible MSDs in your workplace, the most effective strategy would be to: a. implement a training program b. assess for signs and symptoms c. request a confidential evaluation d. Purchase safety belts 31. Once a decision has been made to initiate an ergonomics program, what is your next step? a. identify players b. determine risk factors c. determine scope of the problem d. identify costs 32. The purpose of the walk-through ergonomics observational survey is to: a. interview safety committee members b. detect obvious risk factors c. score unsafe behaviors d. conduct in-depth analysis

33. The quality of checklist data collected during an ergonomics inspection is generally better when: a. interviews cover supervisors as well as workers b. data is expressed as percentages c. employees providing data do not feel intimidated d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or process 34. Activities requiring frequent or prolonged work can be particularly stressful in all of the following situations, except: a. work requiring sustained bending or twisting b. work requiring sustained or repeated work above the shoulders c. work requiring sustained or repeated work at chest level d. work requiring sustained or repeated work below the knees 35. Force requirements may increase with: a. increasing speed of movements b. pinch grip c. decreased slipperiness d. vibration 36. To determine possible negative effects on the musculoskeletal system, research is conducted all of the following areas, except: a. group dynamics b. performance monitoring c. production demands d. incentive pay systems 37. An effective ergonomics job hazard analysis would never do which of the following? a. identify conditions contributing to risk factors b. measure and quantify ergonomic risk factors c. break down task into individual steps d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis 38. Which of the following procedures is least likely to be used for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job? a. videotaping b. observation c. investigation d. measurements


39. Which of the following procedures is least effective proactive strategy for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job? a. biomechanical calculations b. physiological measures c. investigation d. interviews 40. Jobs in which current cases have been identified should receive ____________ attention, followed by those in which past records have noted a high incidence or ________ of MSDs despite the lack of current cases. a. planned, probability b. some, number c. immediate, severity d. primary, type 41. Priority for ergonomics job analysis and intervention should be given to those jobs: a. employees complain of discomfort b. in which most people are affected c. significant risk factors exist d. all of the above 42. Which of the three ergonomics control strategies is most effective in eliminating risk factors? a. Technical Controls b. Engineering Controls c. Work Practice Controls d. Interim Measures 43. Which ergonomics control strategy below has as its primary purpose to limit exposure to the hazard? a. Technical Controls b. Engineering Controls c. Work Practice Controls d. Interim Measures 44. Which of the following is not considered a component of proper computer workstation design to maintain proper posture? a. the printer b. the work surface c. the keyboard d. the chair

45. Effective procedures should incorporate each of the following ergonomics goals, except: a. decrease recovery time b. maintain neutral postures c. reduce duration of exposure d. reduce frequency of exposure 46. What is the purpose of the testing and evaluation phase of an ergonomics program implementation? a. verifies duties and responsibilities b. verifies proposed solutions c. identifies additional enhancements d. identifies additional modifications 47. What of the following is not considered a purpose of the follow-up ergonomics evaluation? a. new risk factors do not exist b. controls reduce risk factors c. controls eliminate risk factors d. controls are identified 48. Long-term indicators of the effectiveness of an ergonomics program can include: a. reduced severity rates b. reduced incidence rates c. increased product quality d. reduced productivity 49. In general, the medical management process in an ergonomics program emphasizes the prevention of impairment and disability through all of the following, except: a. Early return to work b. Prompt treatment c. Early detection d. Timely recovery 50. It is not appropriate for employers to provide ergonomics training to employees regarding which of the following? a. signs and symptoms of MSDs b. methods of self-treating MSDs c. procedures for reporting MSDs d. importance of reporting MSDs


51. It is not appropriate for employees or supervisors to: a. be aware of signs and symptoms of MSDs b. diagnose signs and symptoms c. report signs and symptoms of MSDs d. thank employees for reporting possible MSDs 52. One of the best ways for a health care provider to become familiar with jobs and job tasks is by: a. formal communication b. periodic plant tours c. medical exams d. accident record reviews 53. The least effective goal of ergonomics training is to enable managers, supervisors, and employees to do all of the following except: a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules b. Identify job tasks that may increase risk of MSDs c. Recognize signs and symptoms of MSDs d. Develop control and prevention strategies 54. One of the primary objectives for ergonomics awareness training is to recognize workplace risk factors for _________ and understand general methods for controlling them: a. environmental injuries b. musculoskeletal disorders c. psychosocial factors d. ergonomic awareness 55. Musculoskeletal disorders can result when there is a mismatch between the physical _______ of the job and the physical ________ of the worker: a. demands, requirements b. requirements, capacity c. requirements, requirements d. demands, demands 56. Workers are likely to develop MSDs when they: a. work in an awkward position b. use a great deal of force c. repeatedly lift heavy objects d. Any of the above

57. Which of the following is not considered one the three areas within which ergonomics risk factors exist? a. the worker b. the procedure c. the task d. the environment 58. Musculoskeletal disorders are among the most prevalent medical problems in the U.S., affecting _____ of the entire population: a. 3 percent b. 7 percent c. 40 percent d. 72 percent 59. MSDs include a group of conditions that involve all of the following, except: a. nerves b. tendons c. muscles d. skin 60. All of these factors may contribute to MSDs, except: a. vibration b. unique motions c. awkward postures d. forceful exertions 61. Which of the following is not considered a critical risk factor leading to cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) as well as other musculoskeletal disorders? a. force b. duration c. capacity d. frequency 62. By the age _____, most people have had their first episode of back pain: a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55


63. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors? a. Type of grip b. Object weight c. Object dimensions d. Fatigue 64. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors? a. repetition b. duration c. environment d. slipperiness 65. All of the following are common locations of injury due to exerting excessive force, except: a. neck/shoulder b. foot/ankle c. upper back d. wrist/hand 66. What condition exists when any part of your body presses against an external object and the resulting sustained force has caused too much mechanical stress on tissues? a. Mechanical trauma b. Recovery trauma c. Force trauma d. Contact trauma 67. This grip strategy to manipulate objects requires much greater muscle strength so it is more likely going to cause an injury: a. pinch grip b. power grip c. sustained grip d. intermittent grip 68. This form of exertion combines force, posture, and duration to create a condition that quickly fatigues our muscles which increases the chances of acquiring a cumulative trauma disorder (CTD): a. intermittent exertion b. repetitive exertion c. static exertion d. forceful exertion

69. This term describes a measure of the rest (or low stress activity) period available to the muscle group between similar exertions: a. rest period b. recovery time c. degree of recovery d. muscle group rest time 70. Awkward postures typically include all of the following, except: a. squatting b. working overhead c. bending d. standing 71. ____ is the speed at which the body part moves and ____ is the rate of change of the speed at which the body part moves: a. angular velocity, acceleration b. acceleration, angular velocity c. angular acceleration, velocity d. velocity, angular acceleration 72. Heat stress can result in: a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat cramps c. Dehydration d. All of the above 73. Heat stress is made even more dangerous in the presence of ______ due to the reduced ability of the body to cool itself: a. low humidity b. high humidity c. greater exertion d. higher force 74. This condition may result if the worker is exposed to an environment so cold that the body cannot maintain adequate deep core temperature: a. hyperthermia b. hypothermia c. hyperthermitis d. hypothermitis


75. Which of the following is not one of the symptoms brought on by cold stress? a. pulmonary pain b. dilated pupils c. ventricular fibrillation d. shivering 76. The body's response to vertical vibration will be greatest between ____ Hz: a. 2 and 4 b. 4 and 8 c. 8 and 10 d. 10 and 12 77. Factors influencing the adequacy and effectiveness of illumination include the following, except: a. freedom from diffusion b. freedom from glare c. freedom from concentration d. freedom from glare

78. To create a healthy work environment that reduces the risk of ergonomics injuries, management should do all of the following, except: a. understand roles b. allow participation c. threaten for noncompliance d. conduct adequate training 79. Which of the following are least likely to result in work-related MSDs? a. intensified workload b. limited job control c. monotonous work d. poor labor-management relations 80. For proper work surface design, all of these factors should be considered, except: a. deep enough b. wide enough c. high enough d. flat enough


Area III. Topic D. Toxicology

1. What term refers to the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123) a. bacteriology b. epidemiology c. toxicology d. virology 2. A toxic effect is: (Plog, 123) a. any reversible noxious effect on the body b. any permanent noxious effect on the body c. any irreversible noxious effect on the body d. a and c above 3. A toxic effect is the result of: (Plog, 123) a. contact with a harmful substance b. exposure to harmful substances c. interaction with a harmful substance d. influence of a harmful substance 4. According to Plog, toxic effects may be the result of all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 123) a. contact with a harmful substance b. side effects of medication c. side effects of vaccinations d. contact with biological mutagens 5. The capacity of a chemical to harm or injure a living organism by other than mechanical means is called: (Plog, 123) a. dose b. lethality c. toxicity d. carcinogenicity 6. The toxicity of a chemical depends on: (Plog, 123) a. the dose b. degree of exposure c. its lethality d. acute threshold

7. An important responsibility of the industrial toxicologist is to: (Plog, 124) a. define how substance much is too much b. consider types of exposure c. consider effects of substances on workers d. all of the above 8. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the ability of a substance to produce an unwanted effect when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body? (Plog, 124) a. exposure b. toxicity c. hazard d. dose 9. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the probability that a chemical will reach a sufficient concentration in the body at a certain site to cause an unwanted effect? (Plog, 124) a. exposure b. toxicity c. hazard d. dose 10. Factors that contribute to determining the degree of hazard include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. route of entry b. dosage c. environmental variables d. exposure 11. This term is commonly used by toxicologists in comparing one chemical agent with another: (Plog, 124) a. exposure b. toxicity c. hazard d. dose


12. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. an observable physiological deviation produced in any organ b. the stimulus has changed chemical markers c. the observed change can be repeated d. the stimulus has impaired a protective mechanism 13. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. the effect is unique and specific b. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removed c. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulus d. the observation is noted and reproducible by others 14. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. physiological change reduces the efficiency of an organ or function b. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removed c. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulus d. the observation is unique to the observer 15. Which of the following statements is true regarding the toxicity of a chemical? (Plog, 124) a. Toxic effects are predictable and constant b. Toxicity does not vary under normal conditions c. Toxicity is not a physical constant d. Toxicity is a physical constant, similar to vapor pressure 16. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. duration of exposure b. amount of exposure c. physiological characteristics of the chemical d. conditions under which exposure occurs

17. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. duration of exposure b. amount of the hazard c. physical characteristics of the substance d. conditions under which exposure occurs 18. All of the following may have a significant influence the toxic potency of a substance, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124) a. toxic content of the substance b. effects of other substances in combined exposure c. physical characteristics of the substance d. conditions under which exposure occurs 19. This physical characteristic of a chemical substance may indicate its potential as an inhalation hazard: (Plog, 124) a. melting point b. vapor pressure c. boiling point d. temperature 20. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146) a. primary container label from the manufacturer b. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS) c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Database d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 21. What is the term used to describe an injury that results from direct tissue contact with an irritant? (Plog, 124) a. local injury b. system injury c. direct injury d. primary injury 22. Injury to the lining of the trachea and lungs from inhaling toxic vapors is an example of this kind of injury: (Plog, 124) a. local injury b. system injury c. direct injury d. primary injury


23. For industrial exposures, this route of entry is considered most important because they are the most common: (Plog, 125) a. ingestion b. absorption c. injection d. inhalation 24. Only particles smaller than this are likely to enter an alveolar sac: (Plog, 125) a. .5µm b. 1µm c. 5µm d. 10µm 25. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125) a. The skin can act as an effective barrier b. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destruction c. The substance can result in unusual behavioral actions d. The substance can cause skin sensitization 26. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125) a. The skin will prevent exposure b. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destruction c. The substance can penetrate the skin and enter the bloodstream d. The substance can cause skin sensitization 27. The rate of cutaneous absorption of some organic compounds will vary with: (Plog, 125) a. activity and location b. skin type and activity c. temperature and perspiration d. temperature and duration 28. What properties of a material mainly determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin? (Plog, 125) a. physiological b. physiochemical c. physical d. physiosystemic

29. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125) a. pH b. extent of ionization c. solubility d. location 30. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125) a. humidity b. extent of ionization c. solubility d. molecular size 31. Relative to inhalation toxicity, oral toxicity is generally: (Plog, 125) a. higher b. about the same c. the same d. lower 32. For a given substance, oral toxicity is generally _____ then inhalation toxicity: (Plog, 125) a. higher b. about the same c. the same d. lower 33. This is an important systemic defense process to reduce the toxic effects of a chemical: (Plog, 126) a. lymphatic system b. remuneration c. detoxification d. deterioration 34. All of the following occur as part of the body's detoxification process, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126) a. the liver degrades the toxin b. the toxin is converted to a non-toxic water-soluble compound c. attack by macrophages d. transportation to kidneys and excreted


35. Which of the following is not an area into which a toxic substance may be injected? (Plog, 126) a. the bloodstream b. the duodenal sac c. the peritoneal cavity d. the pleural cavity 36. There is increased attention to prevention of skin puncture and injection injuries due to all of the following bloodborne pathogens, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126) a. pneumococcus b. HIV c. hepatitis C d. hepatitis B 37. All toxicological considerations are based on the: (Plog, 126) a. dosage-toxic constant b. dose-response relationship c. toxic-absorption constant d. toxicological relationship 38. What is the point on a dose-response curve in which a lethal response occurs to half of the animals administered a chemical agent? (Plog, 126) a. LD0 b. LD5.0 c. LD50 d. LD100 39. Which of the following are the two variables used to determine the dose-response relationship? (Plog, 126) a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposure d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure 40. Regulatory exposure limits are set such that these two variables are theoretically below levels that produce injury: (Plog, 126) a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposure d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure

41. What is the term used to describe the relationship between the dose of a chemical and the response produced in a biological system? (Plog, 126) a. dose-response relationship b. toxic potency c. threshold relationship d. dosage threshold 42. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 127) a. chemical composition b. type and degree of exposure c. route of entry d. fate of the material in the body 43. Which of the following can be calculated when death is the only variable being measured in response to exposure to a toxic chemical? (Plog, 127) a. lethal dose (LD) b. fatality rate (FR) c. exposure-dose relationship (EDR) d. dose-response relationship (DRR) 44. This designation is defined as the lowest concentration of toxic chemical that will kill all exposed animals: (Plog, 127) a. LD0 b. LD5.0 c. LD50 d. LD100 45. If the slope of a dose-response curve is steep, the margin of safety is: (Plog, 127) a. great b. slight c. not determined d. constant 46. The relationship between slope and margin of safety on a dose-response curve is: (Plog, 127) a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional c. not proportional d. unpredictable


47. The designation used for airborne materials to indicate the dose-response relationship is: (Plog, 127) a. dose-duration level (DL) b. exposure-dose concentration (EDC) c. lethal dose (LD) d. lethal concentration (LC) 48. The duration of exposure to a toxic chemical through inhalation has what kind of effect on lethal concentration (LC)? (Plog, 127) a. no effect b. usually little effect c. some effect d. possible significant effect 49. When evaluating the response of exposure to a toxic substance, it's important to examine the organs removed from exposed animals for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 128) a. reveals the site of action b. reveals the route of entry c. reveals the mode of action d. reveals the cause of death 50. The toxic action of substances can be divided into which two categories? (Plog, 128) a. predictable, unpredictable b. variable, constant c. expected, unexpected d. acute, chronic 51. Which of the following terms describes short-term high concentrations and immediate results such as illness, irritation or death? (Plog, 129) a. acute effects b. chronic effects c. stat effects d. prolonged effects 52. These exposures are typically sudden and severe and involve rapid absorption of the offending material: (Plog, 129) a. acute b. chronic c. physical d. environmental

53. Which of the following terms describes long-term symptoms of disease or their frequent recurrence? (Plog, 129) a. acute effects b. chronic effects c. stat effects d. prolonged effects 54. These exposures result in symptoms that usually last for years: (Plog, 129) a. acute b. chronic c. physical d. environmental 55. Which of the following is not one of the three general classes of air contaminants? (Plog, 129) a. irritants b. asphyxiants c. CNS depressants d. avoidants 56. These toxic substances interfere with oxygenation of the tissues and affected individual may suffocate: (Plog, 131) a. irritants b. asphyxiants c. CNS depressants d. avoidants 57. These toxic substances can produce unconsciousness by preventing the brain and spinal cord from doing their normal job: (Plog, 132) a. irritants b. asphyxiants c. CNS depressants d. avoidants 58. This term describes any agent that can produce or accelerate the development of malignant or potentially malignant tumors or malignant neoplastic proliferation of cells: (Plog, 134) a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. osteogen


59. This term describes any agent that affects the genetic material of the exposed organism, and can cause cancer, birth defects, or undesirable effects in later generations: (Plog, 135) a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. paragen 60. This term describes any agent that interferes with normal embryonic development, and may produce malformations of the fetus without inducing damage to the mother: (Plog, 136) a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. paragon 61. Which agency administers the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976? (Plog, 139) a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) d. Department of Labor (DOL) 62. NIOSH develops this and it represents a time-weighted average (TWA) concentration for up to a 10-hour workday during a 40-hour workweek: (Plog, 140) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 63. OSHA sets this regulatory limit which is based on an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exposure: (OSHA) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)

64. This regulatory limit on the amount or concentration of a substance in the air. They may also contain a skin designation and they are enforceable: (OSHA) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 65. These values are issued by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and are the most widely accepted: (Plog, 140) a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limits (REL) c. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) d. Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL) 66. Where are the measurements to determine Threshold Limit Values (TLV)? (Plog, 140) a. within eight feet of the work zone b. generally where work is being conducted c. within the breathing zone of a worker d. anywhere in the workplace 67. Although this measurement does not necessarily predict the amount of a substance that will be absorbed, it does measure the amount that can be inhaled during a workday: (Plog, 141) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Time Weighted Average (TWA) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 68. What is the usual span of time over which TWA measurements are taken? (Plog, 141) a. 2 hours b. 6 hours c. 8 hours d. 10 hours 69. What is the designation given by the TLV committee that indicates it is not advisable to permit concentrations substantially above the recommended TWA? (Plog, 141) a. A b. B c. C d. D


70. This designation indicates the level at which a slightly higher will cause irritation by the most sensitive individuals: (Plog, 141) a. upper control limit (UCL) b. self-rescue emergency exposure limit (SREC) c. ceiling value (C) d. lower control limit (LCL) 71. Which agency administers the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976? (Plog, 139) a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) d. Department of Labor (DOL) 72. NIOSH develops this and it represents a time-weighted average (TWA) concentration for up to a 10-hour workday during a 40-hour workweek: (Plog, 140) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 73. OSHA sets this regulatory limit which is based on an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exposure: (OSHA) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 74. This regulatory limit on the amount or concentration of a substance in the air. They may also contain a skin designation and they are enforceable: (OSHA) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 75. These values are issued by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and are the most widely accepted: (Plog, 140) a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limits (REL) c. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) d. Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL)

76. Where are the measurements to determine Threshold Limit Values (TLV)? (Plog, 140) a. within eight feet of the work zone b. generally where work is being conducted c. within the breathing zone of a worker d. anywhere in the workplace 77. Although this measurement does not necessarily predict the amount of a substance that will be absorbed, it does measure the amount that can be inhaled during a workday: (Plog, 141) a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Time Weighted Average (TWA) c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 78. What is the usual span of time over which TWA measurements are taken? (Plog, 141) a. 2 hours b. 6 hours c. 8 hours d. 10 hours 79. What is the designation given by the TLV committee that indicates it is not advisable to permit concentrations substantially above the recommended TWA? (Plog, 141) a. A b. B c. C d. D 80. This designation indicates the level at which a slightly higher will cause irritation by the most sensitive individuals: (Plog, 141) a. upper control limit (UCL) b. self-rescue emergency exposure limit (SREC) c. ceiling value (C) d. lower control limit (LCL) 81. TLV values for suspended particulates are expressed as: (Plog, 141) a. parts per million (PPM) b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3) d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3)


82. TLV values for gases and vapors are expressed as: (Plog, 141) a. parts per million (PPM) b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3) d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3) 83. When two or more hazardous substances that act on the same body organ system are present, what primary measure should be considered? (Plog, 142) a. their combined effect b. their additive effect c. their separate effects d. their multiplied effects 84. When using the formula in determining combined effects of hazardous substances, if the sum of the fractions (observed concentration each substance divided by its TLV) is greater than one, then the TLV for the combined substances has: (Plog, 142) a. not been reached b. been reached c. been exceeded d. been multiplied 85. TLV values are based on all of the following data, EXCEPT: (Plog, 143) a. labor-management negotiation b. animal toxicological studies c. morbidity and mortality data d. environmental data 86. This sampling method is used to test for levels of metabolites of toxic agents: (Plog, 145) a. Blood analysis b. Urine tests c. Breath analysis d. Stomach content analysis 87. This sampling method is considered the best method to test for exposure to lead: (Plog, 145) a. Blood analysis b. Urine tests c. Breath analysis d. Stomach content analysis

88. Biological sampling data may be used: (Plog, 144-146) a. as a substitute for air sampling b. in addition to air sampling c. only if air sampling data isn't available d. instead of air sampling 89. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146) a. primary container label from the manufacturer b. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS) c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Database d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 90. The ACGIH has adopted a set of advisory biological limit values called the: (Plog, 146) a. Biological Limit Values (BLV) b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) c. ACGIH Chemical Hazards Database d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS 91. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal concentration: (Brauer, 365) a. LD b. LC c. TLD d. TLC 92. This designation is used to indicate the lethal concentration for inhalation of toxic substances: (Brauer, 365) a. LD b. LC c. TLD d. TLC 93. This designation is used to indicate the lethal dose by ingestion, injection, or other means of contact with toxic substances: (Brauer, 365) a. LD b. LC c. TLD d. TLC


94. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal dose: (Brauer, 365) a. LD b. LC c. TLD d. TLC 95. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through inhalation, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365) a. LD50 b. LC50 c. TLD50 d. TLC50 96. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through ingestion or injection, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365) a. LD50 b. LC50 c. TLD50 d. TLC50 97. The period of time between exposure with a toxic substance and the first signs of the effects of that exposure is called the: (Brauer, 365) a. dormant period b. toxic delay c. latency period

d. response delay 98. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365) a. CDC b. OSHA c. NIH d. FDA 99. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365) a. CDC b. OSHA c. NIH d. FDA 100. Toxicity studies on animal species include all of the following factors, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 365) a. the physiology of species varies b. meaningfulness is the same regardless of species c. standard tests and methods help estimate effects d. controlled breeding improves reliability of results


Area III. Topic E. Epidemiology

1. Which of the following is not one of the three types of epidemiological data? (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive b. Retrospective c. Prospective d. Proactive 2. These epidemiological studies identify a change or difference in the prevalence of a disease in a subgroup of the population: (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive studies b. Retrospective studies c. Prospective studies d. Proactive studies 3. These epidemiological studies reveal a relationship between a chemical and a certain effect caused by exposure that occurred months or years before the initiation of data collection: (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive or cross sectional studies b. Retrospective or control group studies c. Prospective or cohort studies d. Proactive or reactive studies 4. These epidemiological studies can define more precisely the time relationship and the magnitude of risk: (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive studies b. Retrospective studies c. Prospective studies d. Proactive studies 5. These epidemiological studies are present and future continuing studies that measure health effects as the exposures occur in work areas: (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive studies b. Retrospective studies c. Prospective studies d. Proactive studies

6. Analysis that reveals the relationship between time of occurrence of an adverse effect and age at the time of first exposure: (Plog, 138) a. Descriptive analysis b. Retrospective analysis c. Prospective analysis d. Epidemiological analysis 7. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138) a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removed b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect c. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroduced d. public relations campaign 8. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138) a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removed b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect c. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroduced d. public relations campaign 9. Which of the following is not considered one of the three primary reasons for underreporting of work-associated infections? (Plog, 406) a. employee fear of reporting b. issues of liability c. rewards for underreporting d. employer refusal to report 10. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406) a. percutaneous inoculation b. inhalation of aerosols generated by work practices c. ingestion of contaminated food d. contact between hands and contaminated material


11. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406) a. subcutaneous absorption b. inhalation of aerosols generated by accidents c. ingestion of contaminated material d. contact between mucous membranes and contaminated material 12. Studies indicate that people engaged in these activities have acquired the greatest number of infections: (Plog, 406) a. construction b. healthcare c. research d. agriculture 13. Which one of the following is not one of the most frequently reported laboratory-acquired infections, according to the Pike studies? (Plog, 406) a. brucellosis b. Q fever c. hepatitis d. HIV 14. Which one of the following is not one of the most frequently reported laboratory-acquired infections, according to the Pike studies? (Plog, 406) a. brucellosis b. Q fever c. hepatitis d. HIV 15. Which of the following infections is an emerging virus found in the workplace? (Plog, 406) a. brucellosis b. Q fever c. hepatitis d. HIV

16. This method of evaluating the nature and severity of hazards reviews literature of a population-based research that may provide information about adverse health effects not yet noticed in a small work force: (Plog, 454) a. Process or operation analysis b. Variability of response c. Epidemiological and risk assessment d. Interviews and maintenance activities 17. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (Gordis, 4) a. To provide a foundation for developing regulations b. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease, c. Determine the extent to which the disease if found in the workplace d. Evaluate the degree to which occupational disease impacts productivity 18. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (2) , (3) to study the natural history and prognosis of a disease, (4) , and (5) provide a foundation for developing regulations. (Gordis, 4) a. To study the natural history and prognosis of a disease b. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease, c. Determine the extent to which the animals mirror human etiology d. Evaluate existing and new therapeutic and preventive measures


Area III. Topic F. Industrial Hygiene

1. Industrial hygiene includes the development of corrective measures in order to control health hazards by reducing or eliminating: (Plog, 4) a. injuries b. exposures c. hazards d. risks 2. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4) a. substitution of toxics b. ventilation c. changing work procedures d. rule enforcement 3. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4) a. training b. ventilation c. changing work procedures d. personal protective equipment 4. An effective industrial hygiene program involves: (Plog, 4) a. sound claims management b. anticipation of health hazards c. evaluation and measurement d. hazard control 5. These hazards arise from excessive airborne concentrations of mists, vapors, gases, or solids in the form of dusts or mists: (Plog, 7) a. chemical hazards b. biological hazards c. ergonomic hazards d. physical hazards 6. These hazards include excessive levels of non-ionizing and ionizing radiations, noise, vibration and extremes of temperature and pressure: (Plog, 7) a. chemical hazards b. biological hazards c. ergonomic hazards d. physical hazards

7. These hazards are any living organism or its properties that can cause an adverse response in humans: (Plog, 7) a. chemical hazards b. biological hazards c. ergonomic hazards d. physical hazards 8. These hazards include improperly designed tools, work areas, or work procedures: (Plog, 7) a. chemical hazards b. biological hazards c. ergonomic hazards d. physical hazards 9. The effects of noise on humans include all of the following, except: (Plog, 11) a. psychological effects b. interference with communications c. physiological effects d. physical effects 10. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11) a. variation in receptivity b. total energy of the sound c. frequency distribution of the sound d. total duration of exposure 11. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11) a. variation in individual susceptibility b. intermittent energy of the sound c. length of employment in the noise environment d. total duration of exposure


12. Which of the following is not a nontechnical guideline to determine whether the work area has excessive noise levels? (Plog, 11-12) a. Is it necessary to speak loudly or shout into the ear? b. Have employees complained of ringing in their ears after work? c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs? d. Do employees complain that speech or music is muffled? 13. Which of the following is one of the first signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23) a. increased heart beat b. dizziness c. increased breathing rate d. decreased focus 14. To produce an index of general contamination the industrial hygienist take: (Plog, 27) a. area samples at fixed locations b. samples taken by following the operator c. samples from various non-fixed locations d. samples located throughout a process 15. What is a finely divided liquid suspended in the atmosphere? (Plog, 22) a. mist b. smoke c. gas d. aerosol 16. What is the 8-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95 Plog, 12) a. 80 dBA b. 85 dBA c. 90 dBA d. 95 dBA 17. What is the 4-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95, Plog, 12) a. 80 dBA b. 85 dBA c. 90 dBA d. 95 dBA

18. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292) a. magnets resonance meter b. dipole antenna c. multi-meter d. radio frequency detector 19. What is the employer required to do first if permissible limits for noise exposure are exceeded? (Plog, 12) a. initiate a hearing conservation program b. use engineering and administrative controls c. ensure personal protective equipment is used d. limit work near the source of exposure 20. Dust particles more than this size usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22) a. 1 µm b. 5 µm c. 10 µm d. 15 µm 21. What is the employer required to do first if engineering and administrative controls fail to adequately reduce exposure to sound? (Plog, 12) a. initiate a hearing conservation program b. control duration of exposure c. ensure personal protective equipment is provided d. limit work near the source of exposure 22. The capacity of a material to produce injury or harm when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body is defined as: (Plog, 11) a. toxicity b. severity c. exposure d. hazard 23. Controlling exposure to electric fields may be accomplished by: (Plog, 285) a. placing an ungrounded resistance between the field and person b. placing a grounded resistance between the field and person c. placing a grounded conductor between the field and person d. placing an ungrounded conductor between the field and person


24. This form of unwanted vibration conducted through solids, liquids, or gases is referred to as: (Plog, 11) a. hertz b. hard rock c. frequency d. noise 25. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296) a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms b. mechanical and kinetic mechanisms c. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanisms d. frequency and duration mechanisms 26. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11) a. total time since exposure occurred b. total daily duration of exposure c. total energy of the sound d. frequency distribution of the sound 27. This condition is caused by exposure to an environment in which the body is unable to cool itself sufficiently? (Plog, 12) a. heatstroke b. heat stress c. heat exhaustion d. heat cramps 28. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292) a. magnets resonance meter b. dipole antenna c. multi-meter d. radio frequency detector 29. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11) a. total time since exposure occurred b. total daily duration of exposure c. total energy of the sound d. frequency distribution of the sound

30. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14) a. potential for damage to living tissue b. the different kinds of radiation c. ways radiation can present a hazard d. sources of radiation 31. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure: (Plog, 23) a. vapors b. smoke c. gasses d. aerosols 32. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, except: (Plog, 127) a. chemical composition b. type and rate of exposure c. fate of the material in the body d. half-life of the chemical 33. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296) a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms b. mechanical and kinetic mechanisms c. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanisms d. frequency and duration mechanisms 34. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14) a. potential for damage to living tissue b. the different kinds of radiation c. ways radiation can present a hazard d. sources of radiation 35. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14) a. alpha-particles b. beta-radiation c. charlie-waves d. gamma-rays 36. The dose rate, or the rate at which energy is transferred to tissue is called the: (Plog, 288) a. basic absorption rate (BAR) b. average absorption rate (AAR) c. specific absorption rate (SAR) d. technical absorption rate (TAR)


37. Occupational dermatitis can be caused by all of the following, except: (Plog, 28) a. chemical agents b. biological agents c. plant poisons d. psychosocial environment 38. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14) a. alpha-particles b. beta-radiation c. delta-waves d. neutrons 39. Which of the following is not a part of an electromagnetic device? (Plog, 279) a. receiver b. transmission path c. source d. output 40. Radioactive material can get inside the body through all of the following pathways, except: (Plog, 14) a. inhalation b. ingestion c. absorption d. penetration 41. This meter is used to measure beta-, gamma-, and x-rays: (Plog, 15) a. radmeters b. Geiger-Muller c. Geigle-Mueller d. Dosimeters 42. A film badge used to measure accumulated amounts of radiation is called a: (Plog, 15) a. radmeter b. Geiger-Muller c. Geigle-Mueller d. Dosimeters

43. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate exposure to the hazard? (Plog, 29) a. Inspections and audits b. Engineering controls c. Administrative controls d. Personal Protective Equipment 44. This radiation is so weak it can not penetrate paper: (Plog, 15) a. alpha-particles b. beta-radiation c. gamma-rays d. neutrons 45. The action of a substance can be arbitrarily divided into which two effects? (Plog, 128) a. acute and chronic b. lethal and nonlethal c. expected and unexpected d. minor and major 46. The harmful effects of non-ionizing radiation on the body depend largely on: (Plog, 15) a. frequency b. duration c. intensity d. variation 47. Substituting or replacing a toxic material with a harmless one is a very practical: (Plog, 30) a. industrial control b. engineering control c. administrative control d. technical control 48. This invisible low frequency radiation, found in radar, communications, cooking, and diathermy applications is called: (Plog, 15) a. ultraviolet b. microwave c. laser d. infrared


49. This invisible low frequency radiation cannot penetrate below the superficial layer of the skin: (Plog, 15) a. ultraviolet b. microwave c. laser d. infrared 50. This form of radiation can be found around electric arcs and requires opaque shielding: (Plog, 16) a. ultraviolet b. microwave c. laser d. infrared 51. This form of coherent radiation is produced by a single frequency: (Plog, 16) a. ultraviolet b. microwave c. laser d. infrared 52. This predecessor to the laser emits microwaves instead of coherent light: (Plog, 16) a. multiplex b. microwave c. maser d. ultralizer 53. This body organ is most vulnerable to injury by laser: (Plog, 16) a. ear b. eye c. prostate d. skin 54. These body parts are all vulnerable to hyperbaric pressure, except: (Plog, 17) a. ear b. sinuses c. teeth d. skin 55. Unequal distribution of pressure can cause this form of tissue damage: (Plog, 16) a. barotrauma b. hyperbaria c. baroitis d. hyperbaroemia

56. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12) a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure b. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipment c. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levels d. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source 57. Which of the following conditions may exist due to worker exposure to hyperbaric atmospheres? (Plog, 17) a. the bends b. pain and congestion in the ears c. partial hearing loss d. any of the above 58. All of the following are typical entry routes of chemical compounds, except: (Plog, 21) a. inhalation b. absorption c. ingestion d. penetration 59. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21) a. mists b. allergens c. gasses d. dusts 60. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21) a. vapors b. microbes c. gasses d. fumes 61. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, impact, detonation, and decrepitation are called: (Plog, 21) a. vapors b. particulates c. mists d. dusts


62. Which of the following describes the diameter of a dust particle? (Plog, 21) a. 0.1-10 µm b. 0.1-15 µm c. 0.1-20 µm d. 0.1-25 µm 63. These are formed when the material from a volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22) a. vapors b. mists c. gasses d. fumes 64. These consist of carbon or soot particles less and result from the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials: (Plog, 22) a. vapors b. smoke c. gasses d. fumes 65. The strength of a magnetic field and the strength of the electric field are related to each other, and the ratio between the two is set according to: (Plog, 277) a. Hertz's Law b. Ohm's Law c. Faraday's Law d. Darwin's Law 66. These liquid droplets or solid particles remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22) a. vapors b. smoke c. gasses d. aerosols 67. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by the condensation of liquids from a vapor back to the liquid state, or by breaking up of a liquid into a dispersed state: (Plog, 22) a. mists b. smoke c. gasses d. aerosols

68. What is a formless fluid that expands to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined? (Plog, 22) a. mist b. smoke c. gas d. aerosol 69. Respiratory hazards can be broken down into which two main groups? (Plog, 23) a. Atmospheric pressure b. Oxygen deficiency c. Air that contains harmful or toxic contaminants d. b and c above 70. What is the normal oxygen level of normal air at sea level? (Plog, 23) a. 19 percent b. 20 percent c. 21 percent d. 22 percent 71. Which of the following is not one of the three general categories of airborne contaminants that may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 24) a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lung b. toxic vapors and gases that affect lung tissue c. toxic aerosols or gases that pass through the lungs and affect other organs d. particulate aerosols deposited in the lungs 72. This exposure guideline established by the ACGIH for airborne concentrations is referred to as the : (Plog, 25) a. Threshold Exposure Limit (TEL) b. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) c. Permissible Limit Value (PLV) d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) 73. The TLV-TWA is the time weighted average concentration for: (Plog, 25) a. 15-minute exposure b. 8-hour exposure c. averaged 24-hour exposure d. averaged 48-hour exposure


74. This is the airborne contaminant concentration that should not be exceeded during any part of the working exposure: (Plog, 25) a. TLV-TWA b. TLV-STEL c. TLV-C d. TLV-MWD 75. This is the maximum airborne contaminant concentration for a continuous 15-minute exposure: (Plog, 25) a. TLV-TWA b. TLV-STEL c. TLV-C d. TLV-MWD 76. To recognize hazardous environmental factors or stresses in the workplace the safety and health manager must first know the raw materials used and the nature of the products manufactured. To do this the safety professional would consult: (Plog, 27) a. MSDSs b. TLV-STEL c. OSHA 300 Summary d. NAIC Codes 77. Which of the following is not considered a factor influencing the degree of hazard from exposure to a harmful environment? (Plog, 27) a. Nature of the material or energy involved b. Degree of probability of exposure c. Intensity of the exposure d. Duration of the exposure 78. All of the following are extremely important considerations for air sampling, except: (Plog, 27) a. sampling location b. proper time to sample c. sequence of sampling d. number of samples taken 79. Which of the following are general types of dermatitis? (Plog, 28) a. Primary irritation dermatitis b. Localized dermatitis c. Sensitization dermatitis d. a and c above

80. Why are many workplaces today presenting nontraditional occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29) a. Downsizing b. A shift from manufacturing to service c. Jobs are moving overseas d. Ever-increasing exposure to exotic substances 81. Strategies for controlling occupational health hazards include all of the following, except: (Plog, 29) a. Inspections and audits b. Engineering controls c. Administrative controls d. Personal Protective Equipment 82. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate the hazard? (Plog, 29) a. Inspections and audits b. Engineering controls c. Administrative controls d. Personal Protective Equipment 83. Which of the following strategies is considered the first line of defense for controlling occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29) a. Inspections and audits b. Engineering controls c. Administrative controls d. Personal Protective Equipment 84. Which strategy may be necessary when it is not feasible to render the working environment completely safe? (Plog, 31) a. Inspections and audits b. Engineering controls c. Administrative controls d. Personal Protective Equipment 85. What is the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123) a. Virology b. Toxicology c. Epidemiology d. Pharmacology


86. The calculated dose of a substance that is expected to kill 50 percent of a defined experimental animal population when exposure occurs through any route other than inhalation is called the: (Plog, 127) a. KR50 b. LD50 c. Lethal Dose Limit d. Lethal Dose Ratio 87. TLVs and PELs are published by which of the following agencies? (Plog, 12) a. NIOSH and OSHA b. ACGIH and MSHA c. ACGIH and OSHA d. OSHA and MSHA 88. The dominant standard for laser safety in the United States is: (Plog, 301) a. NIOSH Pub. 456 b. LIA/ANSI Z136.1 c. ACGIH 1910.95 d. CFR 1904.1200 89. Symptoms of this condition are fatigue, weakness, blurred vision, dizziness and headache? (Plog, 323) a. heat stress b. dehydration c. heat exhaustion d. heat stroke 90. This is the preferred method of air sampling to evaluate worker exposure to airborne chemicals? (Plog, 485) a. personal b. area c. grab d. integrated 91. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11) a. variation in receptivity b. total energy of the sound c. frequency distribution of the sound d. total duration of exposure

92. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11) a. variation in individual susceptibility b. intermittent energy of the sound c. length of employment in the noise environment d. total duration of exposure 93. Which of the following is not a nontechnical guideline to determine whether the work area has excessive noise levels? (Plog, 11-12) a. Is it necessary to speak loudly or shout into the ear? b. Have employees complained of ringing in their ears after work? c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs? d. Do employees complain that speech or music is muffled? 94. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12) a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure b. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipment c. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levels d. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source 95. Which of the following is not commonly measured in heat stress studies? (Plog, 13) a. work energy b. metabolism c. air movement d. caloric intake 96. Which of the following is used to measure air temperature? (Plog, 13) a. anemometer b. dry bulb thermometer c. wet bulb thermometer d. psychrometer


97. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13) a. stretching b. acclimation periods c. work and rest regimens d. provision for water intake 98. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13) a. regular breaks of at least one hour b. protective clothing c. distribution of work over time d. audiometric testing 99. This heat stress index combines air temperature (dry bulb), humidity (wet bulb), and air movement: (Plog, 13) a. average temperature index b. combined temperature index c. effective temperature index d. dry-wet temperature index 100. General hypothermia is an acute problem resulting from which two conditions? (Plog, 14) a. acute exposure to cold and prolonged heat exposure b. prolonged heat loss and exposure c. prolonged cold exposure and heat loss d. acute heat loss and prolonged cold exposure 101. All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation, EXCEPT: (Plog, 14) a. alpha; particles b. gamma-rays c. neutrons d. electrons 102. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is least dangerous? (Plog, 14) a. alpha-particles b. beta-radiation c. neutrons d. gamma-rays

103. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation has the greatest penetration ability? (Plog, 14) a. alpha-particles b. beta-radiation c. neutrons d. gamma-rays 104. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is not usually used in manufacturing operations? (Plog, 14) a. x-rays b. beta-radiation c. alpha-particles d. neutrons 105. The amount of energy a particular kind of radioactive material possesses is defined in terms of: (Plog, 15) a. BeA (billion electron amps) b. MeV (million electron volts) c. Kev (thousand electron volts) d. MeO (million electron ohms) 106. Radiation that has various effects on the body, depending largely on wavelength of the radiation involved, is called: (Plog, 15) a. ionizing radiation b. non-ionizing radiation c. beta-radiation d. alpha-emitting radiation 107. All of the following are examples of low frequency non-ionizing radiation that can cause general heating of the body, EXCEPT: (Plog, 15) a. broadcast radio b. power line transmissions c. MRI transmissions d. short-wave radio 108. The degree of body heating from low frequency non-ionizing radiation depends on three factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors?: (Plog, 15) a. orientation of the wave front b. wavelength c. power intensity d. duration of exposure


109. This form of radiation can only penetrate below the superficial layer of skin, so it is not considered a significant health hazard: (Plog, 15) a. ultraviolet b. infrared c. visible d. microwave 110. Electric arcs produce this type of harmful radiation: (Plog, 16) a. ultraviolet b. infrared c. visible d. microwave 111. This device emits coherent radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16) a. maser b. laser c. light sword d. LED 112. This device is the predecessor of the laser and emits microwave radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16) a. LED b. quasar c. light sword d. maser 113. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the degree of eye injury from exposure to laser light? (Plog, 16) a. divergence of the laser light b. pigmentation of the eye c. distance from the source of energy d. presence of focusing media in the light path 114. This environment is encountered when work is conducted in watertight structures and by divers who work under water: (Plog, 16) a. hypobaric b. hyperbaric c. hypothermic d. hyperthermic

115. Tissue damage resulting from the unequal distribution of air pressure in the lungs, sinuses, and the middle ear: (Plog, 16) a. barotrauma b. hypertrauma c. hypothermia d. hyperthermia 116. This condition results from the release of nitrogen bubbles into the circulation and tissues: (Plog, 17) a. nitroneuoma b. helium high c. decompression sickness d. compression illness 117. One of the most common troubles encountered by workers under compressed air is: (Plog, 17) a. pain in lungs b. pain and congestion in the ears c. pain and pressure in the GI track d. painful area behind the eye 118. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17) a. ergonomics b. job analysis c. culture d. best practices 119. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17) a. ergonomics b. job analysis c. culture d. best practices 120. Ergonomics considers which of the following? (Plog, 17) a. physical health requirements b. psychological health maintenance c. physiological and psychological demands d. psychosocial support mechanisms


121. A very effective tool to deal with the functioning of the structural elements of the body and the effects of external and internal forces on the various parts of the body is called: (Plog, 18) a. Anthropometry b. Biomechanics c. NIOSH Model d. Ergonomics 122. How many biological agents, such as infectious microorganisms, allergens, and toxins are know to produce infections, allergic, toxic and carcinogenic reactions in workers? (Plog, 20) a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 500 123. Which of the following occupations has not been identified as most at risk to occupational biohazards? (Plog, 20) a. agricultural b. medical c. nursing homes d. laboratory work 124. This clinically diagnosed disease in one or building occupants: (Plog, 20) a. building-related illness (BRI) b. sick-building syndrome (SBS) c. Building-related syndrome d. sick-building illness 125. This condition exists when building occupants exhibit nonspecific symptoms that cannot be associated with an identifiable cause: (Plog, 20) a. building-related illness (BRI) b. sick-building syndrome (SBS) c. Building-related syndrome d. sick-building illness 126. The three major routes of entry of compounds in the form of liquids, gases, mists, dusts, fumes, and vapors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21) a. inhalation b. ingestion c. absorption d. abrasion

127. This route of entry is particularly important due to the rapidity in which toxic material can be absorbed: (Plog, 21) a. inhalation b. ingestion c. absorption d. abrasion 128. All of the following can cause systemic poisoning by direct contact with the skin, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21) a. TNT b. lead oxide c. cyanides d. phenols 129. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, rapid impact, detonation, and decrepitation of organic or inorganic materials are called: (Plog, 21) a. gases b. smoke c. fumes d. dusts 130. Dusts larger than this usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22) a. 5µm b. 10µm c. 15µm d. 20µm 131. Dusts smaller than this can actually reach the alveoli sacs in the lung: (Plog, 22) a. 5µm b. 10µm c. 15µm d. 20µm 132. What is the smallest size dust particle can a worker with normal vision detect? (Plog, 22) a. 35µm b. 40µm c. 45µm d. 50µm


133. These are produced when the material from volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22) a. gases b. smoke c. fumes d. dusts 134. This oxide, if mechanically dispersed into the air, it can produce a severe lead-poisoning hazard: (Plog, 22) a. gross b. dross c. fossgil d. arcus 135. What is the safety strategy to prevent lead-oxide from being dispersed into the air? (Plog, 22) a. misting air around the point of operation b. aggressive positive ventilation c. scrupulously clean housekeeping d. blowers and negative pressure ventilators 136. These are formless liquids that expand to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined: (Plog, 22) a. gases b. smoke c. fumes d. dusts 137. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation of liquids from the vapor back to the liquid state: (Plog, 22) a. gases b. mists c. aerosols d. dusts 138. These are liquid droplets or solid particles of fine enough particle size to remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22) a. gases b. mists c. aerosols d. dusts

139. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by breaking up a liquid into a dispersed state, such as by splashing, foaming, or atomizing: (Plog, 22) a. gases b. mists c. aerosols d. dusts 140. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature: (Plog, 23) a. gases b. mists c. aerosols d. vapors 141. Terms used by industrial hygienists to describe the degree of exposure include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23) a. ppm - parts per million b. mppcf - millions of particles of a particulate per cubic foot of air c. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquid d. mg/m3 - milligrams of a substance per cubic meter of air 142. Which of the following are main categories of respiratory hazards? (Plog, 23) a. helium-nitrogen deficiency b. oxygen deficiency c. toxic contaminants in the air d. b and c above 143. What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23) a. 21 percent b. 32 percent c. 42 percent d. 79 percent 144. What is the percentage of nitrogen and other inert gases normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23) a. 21 percent b. 32 percent c. 42 percent d. 79 percent


145. What is the partial pressure of oxygen normally found at sea level when the barometric pressure of 760 mm Hg? found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23) a. 36 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/21) b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21) c. 1596 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x 2.1) d. 3619 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/.21) 146. Oxygen may be deficient in confined spaces for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23) a. consumed by chemical reactions b. replaced by inert gases c. relocated to areas of lower pressure d. absorbed by porous surfaces 147. Inert gases that may replace oxygen in confined spaces include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23) a. propane b. argon c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide

148. What are the first physiological signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23) a. a giddy feeling and forgetfulness b. dizziness and euphoria c. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia) d. confusion and giddiness 149. Which of the following is not one of the three ways inhaled contaminants may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 23) a. Aerosols that damage lung tissue b. Toxic vapors and gases the damage lung tissue c. Aerosols or gases that affect oxygen-carrying capacity d. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue


Area III. Topic G. Construction

1. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32) a. material b. labor c. safety d. overhead 2. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32) a. plant b. labor c. profit d. schedule 3. Who was the source of the following law? If a builder builds a house for a man and does not make his construction firm and the house he has built collapses and causes the death of the householder, the builder shall be put to death. (Hislop, 7) ? a. OSHA circa 1970 CE b. Attila the Hun circa 728 CE c. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE. d. King Solomon, 1300 BCE 4. If a contractor fails to comply with safety requirements, what effect might that failure have on the host employer? (Hislop, 9) ? a. No effect. The host has no responsibility b. It may affect the ability of the host to continue operations c. It may have a negative impact on construction costs d. b and c above 5. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are NOT in place: (Hislop, 10) ? a. 6.9 % b. 8.5% c. 15% d. 19.5%

6. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are in place: (Hislop, 10) a. .9 % b. 2.5% c. 4% d. 5.3% 7. Under this theory, the employer has an obligation to exercise reasonable care and prudence in the conduct of their work: (Hislop, 10) ? a. non-negligence b. accountability c. due diligence d. reasonable care 8. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32) a. cost of materials b. cost of labor c. profit d. plant 9. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32) a. cost of materials b. cost of labor c. profit d. plant 10. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16) a. develop a documented safety program b. train and educate employees c. train supervisors d. provide incentives


11. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16) a. investigate and report accidents b. develop a safety committee c. train supervisors d. monitor the workplace 12. Which of the following is not a criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses? (Hislop, 23) a. frequency of accidents and injuries b. severity of accidents and injuries c. type of accidents and injuries d. potential for severe injuries 13. The construction safety manager should consider all of the following criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 23) a. frequency of accidents and injuries b. probability for accidents c. new or modified tasks d. infrequently performed tasks 14. The obligation to carry out assigned duties defines this term: (Hislop, 23) a. responsibility b. accountability c. due diligence d. leadership 15. A competent person is generally defined as an individual, who as the result of training and/or experience, is capable of: (Hislop, 27) a. identifying or predicting hazardous situations b. authority to discipline for noncompliance c. authorizing prompt corrective actions d. correcting hazardous conditions 16. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. structural ramps b. water removal equipment c. soil conditions d. machine guarding

17. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. biological hazards b. water removal equipment c. hazardous atmospheres d. shoring requirements 18. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. scaffold assembly b. structural integrity c. soil conditions d. fall protection 19. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. tie points b. structural integrity c. safe access d. weather effects 20. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. tie points b. evaluation of training c. modifications/alterations d. selection of assemblers 21. A competent person responsible for work requiring fall protection should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. certifying nets b. personal fall arrest systems c. monitoring requirements d. selection of back belts


22. A competent person responsible for work involving derricks and cranes should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. certifying workers b. all machinery prior to use c. annual inspections d. equipment following trial lifts 23. A competent person responsible for work involving hazardous chemicals should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. identity of hazardous chemicals on site b. establishing regulated areas c. annual inspections of chemicals d. monitoring exposure 24. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. evaluating haulage and hoisting equipment b. establishing regulated areas c. drilling equipment d. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air 25. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28) a. soil and rock conditions b. personal protective equipment c. verifying employee training d. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air 26. This person should monitor job-site activities under their control to assess the effectiveness of their safety plan implementation: (Hislop, 30) a. on-site supervisor b. field engineer c. employee d. contractor

27. This regulation details OSHA standards specifically for the construction industry: (OSHA) a. 29 CFR 1904 b. 29 CFR 1910 c. 29 CFR 1926 d. 29 CFR 1940 28. Which of the following is not usually included in an worksite orientation? (Hislop, 32) a. introduction to the jobsite b. site safety rules and regulations c. parking zones d. HAZCOM information 29. On a multi-employer worksite, who is legally responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for employees? (OSHA) a. only the contractor b. both contractor and subcontractor c. site safety supervisor d. all of the above 30. Each contractor/subcontractor is responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for their employees. A single safety and health plan for multi-employer worksites may be used by contractors/subcontractors if: (OSHA) a. if it addresses health hazards b. it addresses their activity c. if addresses safety hazards d. all of the above 31. In general a worksite plan organized as a single document, with component sections/appendices coverall tasks, operations, and contractors/contractors may: (OSHA) a. promote use efficiency b. enhance clarity of duties and responsibilities c. enhance coordination among all affected parties d. all of the above 32. Pre-work meetings held at the start of each day should be short and include at least all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 33) a. review the previous day's work b. new work assignments c. safety issues d. bonus for beating work schedules


33. Which of the following is not considered a reasonable advantage of the weekly toolbox talk? (Hislop, 34-35) a. can talk about anticipated safety issues b. can new work assignments c. able to review lessons learned from accidents d. they are short 34. These are the most common cause of accidents on a construction worksite: (Hislop, 35) a. overexposure b. electrical c. slips, trips, falls d. bodily reaction 35. According to the Center for the Protection of Workers' Rights, _____ of construction workers report to work under the influence of some behavior modifying substance: (Hislop, 35) a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% 36. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42) a. Conceptualize project b. identification of coordinating engineer c. develop the bid package d. initial cost and schedule estimate 37. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42) a. Conceptualize project b. Award contract c. conduct a baseline review d. 90% Design and Constructability Review 38. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42) a. specific work-site safety briefing b. Award contract c. conduct a baseline review d. pre-work planning

39. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40) a. originator b. planner c. engineer d. decision-maker 40. Which of the following is not considered a key responsibility of the safety representative during the design and planning stage? (Hislop, 40-43) a. Give advice on provisions for safety features in the design b. Assist with the conduct of the ESH Baseline review c. Coordinate involvement in the 90% design review d. Provide guidance on selection of contractors 41. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40) a. originator b. planner c. coordinating engineer d. designer 42. This position coordinates the development of the project design: (Hislop, 40) a. originator b. planner c. coordinating engineer d. designer 43. The purpose of this process during the engineering and design phase is to identify as many of the safety hazards as possible associated with use of the space in which the project will be built: (Hislop, 41) a. worksite audit b. site walk-through c. project hazard analysis d. baseline safety review


44. Each of the following is an objective of the baseline safety review, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 41) a. identify existing and potential hazards b. provide guidance in selecting contractors c. consider occupancy requirements d. consider maintenance requirements 45. Each of the following is an objective of the baseline safety review, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 41) a. identify existing and potential hazards b. provide guidance in selecting contractors c. consider occupancy requirements d. consider maintenance requirements 46. This position helps keep the project safe by defining the configuration and components of the work through the plans and specifications: (Hislop, 42) a. originator b. planner c. coordinating engineer d. designer 47. This position defines the configuration and components of the work through the plans and specifications: (Hislop, 40) a. originator b. planner c. coordinating engineer d. designer 48. This position defines the configuration and components of the work through the plans and specifications: (Hislop, 40) a. originator b. planner c. coordinating engineer d. designer 49. This is the final step in the engineering and design phase: (Hislop, 45) a. specific work-site safety briefing b. award contract c. statement of work d. pre-work planning

50. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46) a. specific work-site safety briefing b. bid package c. pre-bid meeting d. invitation to bid 51. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46) a. bid review, evaluation, and contractor selection b. bid package c. contract award d. pre-work planning 52. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46) a. pre-construction meeting b. pre-work release meeting c. hazard communication briefing d. safety program and job safety analysis review 53. During the procurement and contracting phase, the safety representative accomplishes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 47) a. provides guidance for the selection of contractors b. train contractors during the pre-work release meeting c. assists the field engineer in evaluating risks d. assists coordinating engineer in evaluating hazards 54. During the procurement and contracting phase, the safety representative accomplishes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 47) a. provides guidance for the selection of contractors b. train contractors during the pre-work release meeting c. assists the field engineer in evaluating risks d. assists coordinating engineer in evaluating hazards 55. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52) a. contractor equipment inspection b. specific work site safety briefing c. general worksite and hazcom briefing d. safety program and job safety analysis review


56. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52) a. contract award b. inspections and audits c. contractor progress reports d. job specific training 57. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52) a. progress and coordination meetings b. baseline safety review c. permits d. contract closeout 58. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the host employer during the Procurement/Contracting Phase (Step 2) of a project? (Hislop, 45) a. conduct progress and coordination meetings b. develop the safety and health program for the project c. consider safety and health in the invitation to bid d. verify selected contractors have an appropriate safety and health program 59. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the contractor during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47) a. provide safety information on hazard created during work b. develop and implement a site-specific safety and health program c. give advice, as needed to the coordinating engineer d. call attention to hazards that might affect others 60. A contractor may be required to submit all of the following reports to the host employer during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 51) a. safety committee agendas b. material certifications c. conformance to code statement d. man-hour and injury reports

61. This person must clearly define their safety expectations to the project designers and the construction manager: (Hislop, 57) a. client b. architect c. coordinating engineer d. host employer 62. Which of the following is most likely the reason designers generally do not address construction worker safety? (Hislop, 57) a. they are not typically educated and trained in safety b. they claim they do not have the tools or information c. they are advised not to address safety to minimize liability d. they leave the design of safety into the project to the safety representative 63. This person may be held liable, even if no contractual obligation exists, to bring a hazard to the attention of the exposed party: (Hislop, 59) a. client b. architect c. coordinating engineer d. engineer 64. Construction engineers must understand it is there obligation to issue a ______ order if a serious hazard exists: (Hislop, 59) a. Stop-Work b. reprimand c. red tag d. citation 65. This position is retained to act on the owner's behalf to oversee the development and construction of a project and is responsible for the coordination of the safe execution of all work on the project: (Hislop, 60) a. construction manager (CM) b. construction engineer (CE) c. safety engineer (SE) d. safety manager (SM)


66. All of the following may complicate the ability of the construction manager (CM) to give attention to project safety: (Hislop, 60) a. concern over liability issues b. hiring the CM after the start of the project c. the absence of a competent safety engineer d. coordinating numerous project issues 67. The client may make the mistake of assigning responsibility to the construction manager (CM) but not giving him or her authority to do any of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 61) a. stop work b. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety policies c. withhold payment d. enforce safety policies and rules 68. This position is expected to supply the labor and tools to complete the work as scheduled and within defined specifications: (Hislop, 61) a. construction manager (CM) b. subcontractor c. coordinating engineer d. general contractor (GC)

69. This position is responsible for defining safety practices of the means and methods to be implemented, and to make sure subcontractors implement those practices: (Hislop, 61) a. construction manager (CM) b. subcontractor c. coordinating engineer d. general contractor (GC) 70. The construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to this position: (Hislop, 61) a. construction manager (CM) b. subcontractor c. coordinating engineer d. general contractor (GC) 71. Which of the following describes why the construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to the general contractor? (Hislop, 61) a. may cause discord among workers and subcontractors b. will result in a broad disparity in safety program implementation c. safe work practices may be circumvented d. all of the above

© OTN CSHM Study Guide Area III Answer Key 59

Answer Key

Area III. Topic A. Compliance Management

1. c. employee recognition 2. b. 1917 3. d. specific industry standards (vertical) 4. b. 1970 5. c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned work 6. c. universal standards (horizontal) 7. b. 1910 8. b. variance 9. b. variance 10. b. 1915 11. d. regardless of the use of PPE 12. d. answer a and b above 13. a. witnesses and other evidence 14. a. near miss 15. c. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness 16. d. partial inspection 17. c. Serious 18. b. late 1800's 19. a. 1904 20. c. NSC 21. c. Serious 22. b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence,

did or could not know about the violation 23. d. whether the employee was under undue

pressure to accomplish a task 24. c. 1926 25. d. equipment certification records 26. b. 1918 27. d. Morgantown WV 28. b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clause 29. a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior

to the conclusion of the inspection 30. b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure 31. d. it need not be necessarily be recognized 32. d. $7,000 33. d. employee recognition 34. a. recognition by employer's industry 35. c. oral statements by employee to compliance

officer 36. b. flagrant 37. b. flagrant 38. b. comprehensive inspection 39. b. only in flagrant cases 40. b. condition, relative position 41. a. De Minimis 42. a. Repeat

43. b. Department of Labor (DOL) 44. c. Employers are not responsible for employee

compliance 45. c. consult with the Area Director 46. a. 1903 47. c. Affirmative 48. c. alternative methods exist 49. a. comprehensive and partial 50. d. $5,000 to $70,000 51. d. comprehensive inspection 52. a. North American Industry Classification System

(NAICS) 53. c. partial inspection 54. c. include of injury and illness records reviews 55. d. subjective impression 56. d. 1928 57. d. time restraint 58. d. equipment certification records 59. a. 30 days 60. b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer

without a warrant 61. b. 1970 62. c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry

without a warrant 63. d. contest the abatement date 64. a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall 65. b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) 66. b. voluntary compliance programs, 67. c. 1969 68. b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours

worked 69. a. employee's knowledge of the hazard 70. b. catastrophe 71. c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act 72. b. caused the death of an employee 73. c. Nixon 74. c. imminent danger 75. a. Provide statistical analysis data 76. b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or

transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours

77. a. state rules are at least as effective 78. b. 1970 79. c. $7,000 80. b. English 81. b. Health and Human Services/CDC 82. c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC


83. c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program

84. d. all of the above 85. b. Williams-Steiger Act 86. b. National Institutes of Safety and Health

(NIOSH) 7. a. 8 hours 88. c. OSHA poster 89. c. $7,000 90. b. OSHA Form 300 91. c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL) 92. a. OSHA 1910.1200 93. b. ANSI Z490.1 94. a. OSHA 95. c. Homeland Security Act 96. b. U.S.Code 97. b. Assistant Secretary of Labor 98. c. Adjudicate disputes 99. b. Evaluating labor-management relations 100. c. Provide training to employers and employees. 101. a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) 102. d. All of the above 103. d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval

from OSHA. 104. b. Department of Health and Human Services 105. c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform 106. b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement

alone 107. b. Legislating standard safety values 108. d. a and b above 109. a. in plain language 110. b. act as an effective deterrent 111. d. all of the above 112. d. reduced publicity 113. a. Informal training classes 114. b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) 115. a. Employer Ride-a-long Program 116. d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation 117. b. encourages

118. c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA)

119. a. at least as effective as 120. b. is an independent agency of the U.S.

Government 121. d. resolve disputes 122. b. Administrative Law Judges 123. b. OSHSPA 124. c. employee recognition 125. b. only in flagrant cases 126. c. temporary review standards 127. a. Consensus 128. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become

effective. 129. d. workplace and other studies 130. b. Business Liability Act 131. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate

specific rule. 132. a. Compliance poses a financial burden 133. d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury 134. c. general 135. d. employer ability to pay 136. a. nullify rules 137. d. all of the above 138. c. willful violations of the general duty clause 139. a. challenge the abatement remedy 140. b. substantial 141. a. trade secret information 142. c. The employer refused consultative services 143. a. The violation was a repeat 144. c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of

the OSHact 145. c. $70,000, $5,000 146. c. 50% 147. c. 1998 148. d. 50 149. b. 17

Area III. Topic B. Environment

1. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967 2. a. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) 3. d. all of the above 4. d. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor

ambient air 5. a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards

(NAAQS) 6. b. silicon 7. b. silver monoxide 8. d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)

9. b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)

10. d. lead 11. a. anthrax 12. c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 1974 13. d. a and b above 14. c. State Implementation Plan (SIP) 15. a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments 16. d. chemtrail pollutants


17. a. emissions from watercraft 18. a. underwater volcano emissions 19. d. all of the above 20. d. all of the above 21. a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) 22. c. allowed additives control standards 23. c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) 24. a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations 25. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 26. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 27. d. all of the above 28. b. resistance of hazardous waste to controls 29. c. train hazardous waste workers

30. b. report to OSHA 31. d. all of the above 32. b. hazardous waste treatment facilities 33. c. RCRA Permit 34. d. all of the above 35. d. all of the above 36. c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs) 37. b. volunteer compliance and cooperation 38. c. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locations 39. a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA) 40. a. Bhopal Tragedy 41. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

Area III. Topic C. Ergonomics

1. a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation 2. b. Pain in the wrist upon exertion 3. c. Carpenter's elbow 4. c. NIOSH 5. a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome 6. a. Ergonomics 7. a. Back pain 8. c. Precision grip 9. a. Power grip 10. b. 10 degrees downward 11. c. Biomechanics 12. d. The man-machine relationship 13. b. Musculoskeletal Disorders 14. c. Tennis elbow 15. c. whole-body vibration 16. a. Work and Law 17. b. anthropometry 18. d. a vector quantity that tends to produce a

deceleration 19. a. Fitness 20. d. Emotional demands 21. c. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI) 22. c. Exposure to blood-borne pathogens 23. d. Ignore employee concerns and ideas 24. c. Twist as you lift from the floor 25. c. workstation design 26. d. discourage union involvement 27. b. encourage compliance 28. a. Ignoring employees registering complaints

29. b. brainstorming 30. c. request a confidential evaluation 31. c. determine scope of the problem 32. b. detect obvious risk factors 33. d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or

process 34. c. work requiring sustained or repeated work at

chest level 35. c. decreased slipperiness 36. a. group dynamics 37. d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis 38. c. investigation 39. c. investigation 40. c. immediate, severity 41. d. all of the above 42. b. Engineering Controls 43. c. Work Practice Controls 44. a. the printer 45. a. decrease recovery time 46. b. verifies proposed solutions 47. d. controls are identified 48. d. reduced productivity 49. a. Early return to work 50. b. methods of self-treating MSDs 51. b. diagnose signs and symptoms 52. b. periodic plant tours 53. a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules 54. b. musculoskeletal disorders 55. c. requirements, requirements


56. d. Any of the above 57. b. the procedure 58. b. 7 percent 59. d. skin 60. b. unique motions 61. c. capacity 62. b. 35 63. d. Fatigue 64. c. environment 65. c. upper back 66. d. Contact trauma 67. a. pinch grip 68. c. static exertion 69. b. recovery time

70. d. standing 71. a. angular velocity, acceleration 72. d. All of the above 73. b. high humidity 74. b. hypothermia 75. a. pulmonary pain 76. b. 4 and 8 77. c. freedom from concentration 78. c. threaten for noncompliance 79. d. poor labor-management relations 80. d. flat enough

Area III Topic D. Toxicology

1. c. toxicology 2. d. a and c above 3. a. contact with a harmful substance 4. d. contact with biological mutagens 5. c. toxicity 6. b. degree of exposure 7. d. all of the above 8. b. toxicity 9. c. hazard 10. d. exposure 11. b. toxicity 12. b. the stimulus has changed chemical markers 13. a. the effect is unique and specific 14. d. the observation is unique to the observer 15. c. Toxicity is not a physical constant 16. c. physiological characteristics of the chemical 17. b. amount of the hazard 18. a. toxic content of the substance 19. b. vapor pressure 20. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 21. a. local injury 22. a. local injury 23. d. inhalation 24. c. 5µm 25. c. The substance can result in unusual behavioral

actions 26. a. The skin will prevent exposure 27. c. temperature and perspiration 28. b. physiochemical 29. d. location 30. a. humidity 31. d. lower 32. d. lower 33. c. detoxification 34. c. attack by macrophages 35. b. the duodenal sac 36. a. pneumococcus

37. b. dose-response relationship 38. c. LD50 39. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure 40. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure 41. b. toxic potency 42. c. route of entry 43. a. lethal dose (LD) 44. d. LD100 45. b. slight 46. b. inversely proportional 47. d. lethal concentration (LC) 48. d. possible significant effect 49. b. reveals the route of entry 50. d. acute, chronic 51. a. acute effects 52. a. acute 53. b. chronic effects 54. b. chronic 55. d. avoidants 56. b. asphyxiants 57. c. CNS depressants 58. b. carcinogen 59. a. mutagen 60. c. teratogen 61. b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) 62. b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) 63. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 64. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) 65. a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV) 66. c. within the breathing zone of a worker 67. b. Time Weighted Average (TWA) 68. c. 8 hours 69. c. C 70. c. ceiling value (C) 71. b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) 72. a. parts per million (PPM) 73. a. their combined effect


74. c. been exceeded 75. a. labor-management negotiation 76. b. Urine tests 77. a. Blood analysis 78. b. in addition to air sampling 79. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 80. b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) 81. d. TLC 82. b. LC 83. a. LD 84. c. TLD

85. b. LC50 86. a. LD50 87. c. latency period 88. d. FDA 89. d. FDA 90. b. meaningfulness is the same regardless of

species 91. b. they are difficult to schedule into the normal

workday 92. d. cooperation by workers may not occur

Area III. Topic E. Epidemiology

1. d. Proactive 2. a. Descriptive studies 3. b. Retrospective or control group studies 4. c. Prospective studies 5. c. Prospective studies 6. d. Epidemiological analysis 7. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the

effect 8. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the

effect 9. c. rewards for underreporting 10. d. contact between hands and contaminated

material

11. a. subcutaneous absorption 12. c. research 13. d. HIV 14. d. HIV 15. c. Epidemiological and risk assessment 16. d. Evaluate the degree to which occupational

disease impacts productivity 17. a. To determine effects of toxins on control

populations of animals 18. c. Determine the extent to which the animals

mirror human etiology

Area III. Topic F. Industrial Hygiene

1. c. hazards 2. d. rule enforcement 3. a. training 4. a. sound claims management 5. a. chemical hazards 6. d. physical hazards 7. b. biological hazards 8. c. ergonomic hazards 9. d. physical effects 10. a. variation in receptivity 11. b. intermittent energy of the sound 12. c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs

or muffs? 13. c. increased breathing rate 14. a. area samples at fixed locations 15. a. mist 16. c. 90 dBA 17. d. 95 dBA 18. b. dipole antenna 19. b. use engineering and administrative controls 20. b. 5 µm

21. c. ensure personal protective equipment is provided

22. a. toxicity 23. c. placing a grounded conductor between the field

and person 24. d. noise 25. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms 26. a. total time since exposure occurred 27. a. heatstroke 28. b. dipole antenna 29. a. total time since exposure occurred 30. d. sources of radiation 31. a. vapors 32. d. half-life of the chemical 33. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms 34. d. sources of radiation 35. c. charlie-waves 36. c. specific absorption rate (SAR) 37. d. psychosocial environment 38. c. delta-waves 39. d. output


40. d. penetration 41. b. Geiger-Muller 42. d. Dosimeters 43. c. Administrative controls 44. a. alpha-particles 45. a. acute and chronic 46. a. frequency 47. b. engineering control 48. b. microwave 49. d. infrared 50. a. ultraviolet 51. c. laser 52. c. maser 53. b. eye 54. d. skin 55. a. barotrauma 56. a. use engineering and administrative controls to

reduce exposure 57. d. any of the above 58. d. penetration 59. b. allergens 60. b. microbes 61. d. dusts 62. d. 0.1-25 µm 63. d. fumes 64. b. smoke 65. b. Ohm's Law 66. d. aerosols 67. a. mists 68. c. gas 69. d. b and c above 70. c. 21 percent 71. a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lung 72. d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) 73. b. 8-hour exposure 74. c. TLV-C 75. b. TLV-STEL 76. a. MSDSs 77. b. Degree of probability of exposure 78. c. sequence of sampling 79. d. a and c above 80. b. A shift from manufacturing to service 81. a. Inspections and audits 82. b. Engineering controls 83. b. Engineering controls 84. d. Personal Protective Equipment 85. b. Toxicology 86. b. LD50 87. c. ACGIH and OSHA 88. b. LIA/ANSI Z136.1 89. c. heat exhaustion 90. c. grab 91. a. variation in receptivity 92. b. intermittent energy of the sound 93. c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs

or muffs?

94. a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure

95. d. caloric intake 96. b. dry bulb thermometer 97. a. stretching 98. d. audiometric testing 99. c. effective temperature index 100. c. prolonged cold exposure and heat loss 101. d. electrons 102. a. alpha-particles 103. c. neutrons 104. d. neutrons 105. b. MeV (million electron volts) 106. b. nonionizing radiation 107. c. MRI transmissions 108. a. orientation of the wave front 109. b. infrared 110. a. ultraviolet 111. a. maser 112. a. LED 113. d. presence of focusing media in the light path 114. b. hyperbaric 115. a. barotrauma 116. c. decompression sickness 117. b. pain and congestion in the ears 118. a. ergonomics 119. a. ergonomics 120. c. physiological and psychological demands 121. b. Biomechanics 122. a. 200 123. c. nursing homes 124. a. building-related illness (BRI) 125. b. sick-building syndrome (SBS) 126. d. abrasion 127. a. inhalation 128. b. lead oxide 129. d. dusts 130. a. 5µm 131. a. 5µm 132. d. 50µm 133. c. fumes 134. b. dross 135. c. scrupulously clean housekeeping 136. a. gases 137. b. mists 138. c. aerosols 139. b. mists 140. d. vapors 141. c. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquid 142. d. b and c above 143. a. 21 percent 144. d. 79 percent 145. b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21) 146. c. relocated to areas of lower pressure 147. a. propane 148. c. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia)


149. d. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue

Area III. Topic G. Construction

1. c. safety 2. d. schedule 3. c. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE. 4. d. b and c above 5. a. 6.9 % 6. a. .9 % 7. c. due diligence 8. c. profit 9. c. profit 10. d. provide incentives 11. b. develop a safety committee 12. c. type of accidents and injuries 13. b. probability for accidents 14. a. responsibility 15. b. authority to discipline for noncompliance 16. d. machine guarding 17. a. biological hazards 18. c. soil conditions 19. d. weather effects 20. b. evaluation of training 21. d. selection of back belts 22. a. certifying workers 23. c. annual inspections of chemicals 24. b. establishing regulated areas 25. c. verifying employee training 26. b. field engineer 27. c. 29 CFR 1926 28. c. parking zones 29. b. both contractor and subcontractor 30. d. all of the above 31. d. all of the above 32. d. bonus for beating work schedules 33. a. can talk about anticipated safety issues 34. d. bodily reaction 35. c. 30% 36. c. develop the bid package 37. b. Award contract 38. a. specific work-site safety briefing 39. a. originator 40. d. Provide guidance on selection of contractors

41. a. originator 42. c. coordinating engineer 43. d. baseline safety review 44. b. provide guidance in selecting contractors 45. b. provide guidance in selecting contractors 46. d. designer 47. d. designer 48. d. designer 49. c. statement of work 50. a. specific work-site safety briefing 51. d. pre-work planning 52. c. hazard communication briefing 53. b. train contractors during the pre-work release

meeting 54. b. train contractors during the pre-work release

meeting 55. d. safety program and job safety analysis review 56. a. contract award 57. b. baseline safety review 58. b. develop the safety and health program for the

project 59. c. give advice, as needed to the coordinating

engineer 60. a. safety committee agendas 61. a. client 62. c. they are advised not to address safety to

minimize liability 63. d. engineer 64. a. Stop-Work 65. a. construction manager (CM) 66. c. the absence of a competent safety engineer 67. b. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety

policies 68. b. subcontractor 69. d. general contractor (GC) 70. d. general contractor (GC) 71. d. all of the above

area iii: safety, health & environmental applications · 3. which category of osha standards...

Documents