b) run things · web viewaccording to the machiavellian tradition, _____ is the management of...

BUS520 Week 11 Final Exam 1 and 2

Question 1

According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in __________ is sensitive to people’s feelings and tries to make things pleasant for the followers.

• Question 2

__________ make(s) a leader’s influence either unnecessary or redundant in that they replace a leader’s influence.

• Question 3

According to the path-goal leadership theory, a manager is showing a participative leadership style when he/she __________.

• Question 4

According to __________ approaches, individual behavior is constructed in context, as people act and interact in situations.

• Question 5

Meindl referred to the phenomenon whereby people attribute almost magical qualities to leadership as _____________.

• Question 6

The __________ that are driving organizations of all types and sizes can be found in organization-environment relationships, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations.

• Question 7

The decision to construct a new overseas plant can be considered to be a(n) __________.

• Question 8

Which of the following, refers to altruistic love?

• Question 9

__________ is intentional and occurs as a result of specific efforts by a change agent.

• Question 10

Another name for incremental change is __________.

• Question 11

To begin understanding an organization’s culture, it is often easiest to start with __________.

• Question 12

To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational __________.

• Question 13

The issues concerned with __________ are tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.

• Question 14

Which step in the innovation process focuses on establishing an idea’s potential value and application?

• Question 15

Which step in the innovation process focuses on identifying an idea’s anticipated costs and benefits?

• Question 16

While __________ may clearly indicate who reports to whom, it is also important to recognize that they do not show how work is done, who exercises the most power over specific issues, or how the firm will respond to its environment.

• Question 17

__________ methods of coordination produce synergy by promoting dialogue, discussion, innovation, creativity, and learning, both within and across organizational units.

• Question 18

Direct contact between organization members is a(n) __________ method of coordination.

• Question 19

Executives, managers, and supervisors are hierarchically connected through the __________, which is a listing of who reports to whom up and down the firm.

• Question 20

The __________ type of bureaucracy emphasizes vertical specialization and control with impersonal coordination and a heavy reliance on standardization, formalization, rules, policies, and procedures.

• Question 21

__________ refers to the ability to change.

• Question 22

The three technology classifications that were described by James D. Thompson are __________.

• Question 23

Environmental __________ refers to the magnitude of the problems and opportunities in the organization’s environment, as evidenced by three main factors: the degree of richness, the degree of interdependence, and the degree of uncertainty stemming from both the general and the specific environments.

• Question 24

Information technology has spawned a whole new series of corporations called __________.

Answer

Selected Answer:

e-businesses

• Question 25

__________ is the possession of a repertoire of roles and the ability to selectively apply them.

• Question 1

When teams accomplish more than the total of their individual members’ capabilities, __________ occurs.

• Question 2

Most self-managing teams include between __________ members.

• Question 3

__________ teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task.

• Question 4

A(n) __________ team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

• Question 5

The team decision technique of __________ asks everyone to respond individually and in writing to a basic question such as: “What should be done to improve the effectiveness of this work team?”

• Question 6 __________ occurs when too much is expected and the individual feels overwhelmed with work.

• Question 7

Wheel communication network and chain communication network are other names for __________.

• Question 8

__________ occurs when different people send conflicting and mutually exclusive expectations.

• Question 9

KPMG’s practice that focuses on helping executives identify threats to their firm and manage them is known as __________.

• Question 10

A form of selective perception, the __________ involves seeking only those cues in a situation that support a preexisting opinion.

• Question 11

The __________ model views decision makers as acting in a world of complete certainty.

• Question 12

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”

• Question 13

Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have __________ that restrict their information-processing capabilities.

• Question 14

The negotiating pitfall of __________ occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down once the demands have been stated.

• Question 15

__________ commonly involves supervisor-subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results.

• Question 16

__________ most commonly occurs in the context of the competition and rivalry that characterize firms operating the same markets.

• Question 17

Two important goals must be considered in negotiation. These goals are __________.

• Question 18

The success of international business practices such as outsourcing often rests with the quality of __________.

• Question 19

__________work well for more routine and straightforward messages, such as announcing the location of a previously scheduled meeting.

• Question 20

The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in __________.

• Question 21

__________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.

• Question 22

The issue of __________ is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory.

• Question 23

Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.

• Question 24

The __________ is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization.

• Question 25

With respect to political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve formal staff units that have special expertise.

The __________ characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated when the members of a team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or look forward to working together again at some future point in time.Answer

member satisfaction

team endurance

team excellence

team viability

team changeability

A(n) __________ team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.Answer

functional

serviceable

operative

effective

practical

Self-managed teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate __________.Answer

a firm’s staff functions

the line employees

the top management team

the CEO

the first-line supervisors

When people work less hard in teams than they would individually, __________ occurs.Answer

social slacking

organizational shirking

individual loafing

organizational evading

social loafing

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group?Answer

Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.

Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.

Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.

Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams

Which of the following sequences accurately describes the order of the stages of team development?Answer

Introduction, growth, settling-in, maturation, and dismissal

Start-up, growth, leveling-off, settling-in, and disbanding

Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning

Launch, growth, leveling-off, maturing, and decline

Introduction, orientation, settling-in, maturation, and decline

__________ is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a team and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness.Answer

Team enhancing

Team building

Team structuring

Team championing

Team organizing

Researchers point out that collective intelligence is _________ in teams whose processes result in social sensitivity and absence of domination by one or a few members.Answer

higher

lower

a constant

nonexistent

In the __________, team building takes place during off-site meetings.Answer

formal retreat approach

informal withdrawal approach

privacy approach

informal isolation approach

formal seclusion approach

In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with __________ performance norms and __________ team cohesiveness.Answer

high; high

positive; high

negative; high

negative; low

positive; low

Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are __________.Answer

passive, aggressive, and regressive

focused, unfocused, and mid-focused

tough battler, friendly helper, and objective thinker

primal, emotional, and rational

thoughtful, aggressive, and modal

__________is a “logically perfect” group decision making method because all team members agree totally on a course of action.Answer

Consensus

Unanimity

Majority rule

Minority rule

Lack of response

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”Answer

Intuition

Escalating commitment

Bounded rationality

Non-programmed Decision-Making

Satisficing

A decision is exposed to public scrutiny and forces decision-makers to consider it in the context of full transparency with the use of __________.Answer

rational decision-making

spotlight questions

satisficing

moral dilemmas

criteria questions

The process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity is __________.Answer

selection making

decision shaping

decision-making

judgment resolution

judgment generation

__________, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making.Answer

Intuition

Attitudinal formation

Judgment

Perceiving

Sensing

A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is __________.Answer

discernment

unrestrained rationality

recognition

intuition

assimilation

The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the __________ environment.Answer

risk

certain

expectant

uncertain

statutory

__________ goals deal with outcomes that relate to the “content” issues under negotiation.Answer

Relationship

Substance

Object

Discretionary

Material

__________ negotiation occurs when substance issues are resolved and working relationships are maintained or even improved.Answer

Effective

Decisive

Collaborative

Conclusive

Efficient

__________ is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues.Answer

Leniency

Suppression

Neglect

Avoidance

Tolerance

In __________ negotiation, the manager is involved in negotiation with other persons, with each party representing a broader constituency.Answer

intergroup

constituency

two-party

group

intragroup

__________ negotiation focuses on positions staked out or declared by the parties involved who are each trying to claim certain portions of the available pie.Answer

Integrative

Distributive

Good-faith

Consolidating

Process

__________ distributive negotiation takes place when one party is willing to make concessions to the other to get things over with.Answer

Indirect

Hard distributive

Direct distributive

Integrative

Soft distributive

__________ negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it.Answer

Integrative

Distributive

Good-faith

Consolidating

Process

__________ occurs when an individual feels his self-worth is being questioned.Answer

Transparency

Defensiveness

Flaming

Proxemics

Disconfirmation

Because communication is frequently biased when flowing upward, subordinates may __________.

Answer

only communicate with their bosses only when they have to.

use email as a means to communicate with their bosses.

communicate to their bosses only in writing.

filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear.

tell their bosses everything they know about a subject.

Because of their efficiency, __________ are frequently used in work settings.Answer

three-way communications

two-way communications

one-way communications

group communications

individual communications

The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.Answer

geographic differences

language differences

religious differences

lifestyle differences

ethnic differences

__________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.Answer

Self-preservation

Self-centeredness

Ethnocentrism

Individual affirmation

Personal protection.

Which strategy for exercising relational influence can be described as “using the exchange of benefits as a basis for negotiation?”Answer

Assertiveness

Sanctions

Bargaining

Reason

Coalition

Which one of the following strategies for exercising relational influence can be defined as “using a direct and forceful personal approach?”Answer

Assertiveness

Reason

Coalition

Sanctions

Higher authority

Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.Answer

learn from personal failures

obey the commands of an authority figure

are willing to use coercive power to gain influence

are motivated by financial rewards

are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

• Question 1

__________ teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task.

• Question 2

Most self-managing teams include between __________ members.

• Question 3

Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called __________.

• Question 4

Members of __________ can solve problems with a positive combination of functional expertise and integrative or total systems thinking.

• Question 5

A team member contributes __________ leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action.

• Question 6

Decision by __________ occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation.

• Question 7

In coping with the challenge of entering a team, __________ are individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions.

• Question 8

Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are __________.

• Question 9

The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the __________ environment.

• Question 10

__________ are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions.

• Question 11

__________ decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand.

• Question 12

In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others.

• Question 13

The __________ model accepts the notion of bounded rationality and suggests that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

• Question 14

Use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize __________ and promote more creative and efficient operations.

• Question 15

Negotiations can break down because of a(n) __________ problem, wherein the parties don’t really talk to one another, at least not in the sense of making themselves truly understood.

• Question 16

__________ involves interpersonal difficulties that arise over feelings of anger, mistrust, dislike, fear, resentment, and the like.

• Question 17

__________ negotiation takes place when each party holds out to get its own way.

• Question 18

__________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.

• Question 19

In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that __________.

• Question 20

The primary emphasis of supportive communication is to avoid __________.

• Question 21

The flow of messages at the same levels across organizations is known as __________.

• Question 22

__________ is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work teams and other creative worker involvement groups.

• Question 23

When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to __________ it.

• Question 24

In building on the Machiavellian tradition, managers are often considered __________ when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits.

• Question 25

According to the Machiavellian tradition, __________ is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means.

• Question 1

Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called __________.

• Question 2

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group?

• Question 3

__________ teams have members who are very similar to one another.

• Question 4

When voting is required in problem solving teams, __________.

• Question 5

A team member contributes __________ leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action.

• Question 6

4 out of 4 points

In the __________, team building takes place during off-site meetings.

• Question 7

Decision by __________ occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation.

• Question 8

The __________ to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations.

• Question 9

__________ can lead to systematic errors that affect the quality, and perhaps ethical implications, of any decision that is made.

• Question 10

A decision maker holds a meeting to get everyone’s agreement on a system for deciding how to make a lunch schedule. This is an example of a(n) _________ decision method.

• Question 11

In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others.

• Question 12

__________ decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand.

• Question 13

What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”

• Question 14

__________ negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it.

• Question 15

__________ conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations is unclear or upsetting in some way, such as a team member receiving different expectations from the leader and other members.

• Question 16

_________ occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level.

• Question 17

__________ is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues.

• Question 18

The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

• Question 19

In all interpersonal communication, it is important to understand the sources of __________ that can easily cause problems in the communication process.

• Question 20

Grapevines have the advantage of __________.• Question 21

The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in __________.

• Question 22

According to the Machiavellian tradition, __________ is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means.

• Question 23

Political __________ links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.

• Question 24

The __________ is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization.

• Question 25

The issue of __________ is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory.

A manager who withholds positive outcomes, such as special assignments or bonuses, as a means for controlling the behavior of employees is using which type of power?Answer

Legitimate power

Expert power

Coercive power

Process power

Reward power

In the context of political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve organizational units that have the right to evaluate the actions of others after action has been taken.Answer

workflow

approval

service

advisory

auditing

The __________ assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes.Answer

behavioral perspective

trait perspective

contingency perspective

contemporary perspective

psychological perspective

When using the leadership grid, results are plotted on a nine-position grid that places concern for __________ on the vertical axis and concern for __________ on the horizontal axis.Answer

structure; performance

people; production

task orientation;human relations

initiating structure; consideration

financial performance; people

The __________ to studying leadership sought to identify important differences between leaders and non-leaders.Answer

behavioral approach

methodical approach

contingency approach

scientific approach

great person-trait approach

Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with __________ to predict leader or organizational outcomes.Answer

industry experience

educational background

leadership experience

age

situational contingencies

Which of the following leadership theories has it roots in the expectancy model of motivation?Answer

Attribution theory

Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory

House’s path-goal theory

Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theory

Fiedler’s contingency theory

Context 4, __________, is a transition zone poised between order and chaos. Here, the system must rapidly adjust while maintaining sufficient stability to learn.Answer

near the edge of chaos

middle of the road

on the fence

the performance gap

__________ is often viewed as something that must be overcome in order for change to be successful.Answer

Political maneuvering

Power sharing

Forced coercion

Resistance to change

Rational persuasion

__________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.Answer

Power negotiation

Organizational goal setting

Shared leadership

Teamwork

Individual leadership

People respond to a(n) __________ change strategy mainly out of the fear of being punished if they do not comply with a change directive or out of the desire to gain a reward if they do.Answer

unilateral effort

force-coercion

rational persuasion

shared-power

hierarchical control

__________ is a direct response to someone’s perception of a performance gap –– a discrepancy between the desired and actual state of affairs.Answer

Unplanned change

Arranged change

Contingency change

Statutory change

Planned change

Organizational __________ often specify/ies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.Answer

vision and mission

culture

strategy

design

communication

Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of __________.Answer

terminology

jargon

patter

lingo

phrasing

In a business setting, a firm’s system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the company and guides the behavior of its members is called its __________.Answer

institutional culture

corporate culture

indigenous culture

bureaucratic culture

domestic culture

Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing?Answer

Idea creation

Initial experimentation

Test and retest

Feasibility determination

Final application

“What precisely needs to be accomplished, and how can it be done?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of __________.Answer

external adaptation

internal integration

institutional adaptation

systematic integration

structural adaptatio

Whether part of a formal work unit, a temporary task force, or a virtual team, the group itself passes through a series of __________.Answer

decision-making steps

life cycle stages

cultural transformations

entrepreneurial ventures

environmental challenges

Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group?Answer

Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.

Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.

Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.

Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams.

Chapter 7: Teams in Organizations

True/False

1. Scholars note that the same heart surgeons have lower death rates for similar procedures when performed in hospitals where they do more operations.

Ans:Page: 146Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Teams and Teamwork

2. The catchwords for an effective team are empowerment, participation, and diversity.

Ans:Page: 147Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams

3. A team is a small group of people with complementary skills, who work actively together to achieve a common purpose for which they hold themselves collectively accountable.

Ans:Page: 147Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: Teams and Teamwork

4. Teams that recommend things consist of people with formal responsibility for leading other groups.

Ans:Page: 147Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: What Teams Do

5. Teams that recommend things typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.



6. Teams that run things may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.



7. Teams that make or do things are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks such as marketing departments.



8. The head of a formal group serves a linchpin role that ties the group horizontally and vertically with the rest of the organization.

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.

Section Reference: Organizations as Network of Teams

9. Temporary work groups often appear on organizational charts as departments, divisions, and teams.

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Medium



10. Cross-functional teams, or task forces, are created for special problem-solving efforts.

Ans:

Page: 149

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

11. Informal teams have the potential to speed up the workflow by enabling people to assist each other in ways that formal lines of authority fail to provide.

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Easy



12. The informal structures and their embedded social relationships that are active in an organization are identified by social network analysis.

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Medium



13. Cross-functional teams bring together persons from different organizations and industries to work on a common task.

Ans:Page: 149Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

14. The functional silos problem occurs when members of functional units focus on external issues and do not focus to a sufficient degree on their own areas of responsibility.

Ans:Page: 149Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

15. Virtual teams have members who convene and work together electronically via computers.

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Virtual Teams

16. Employee involvement teams describe a wide variety of teams whose members meet regularly to collectively examine important workplace issues.


17. Employee involvement teams discuss ways to enhance product or service quality, better satisfy customers, improve productivity, and enhance the quality of work life.

Ans:Pages: 149-150Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

18. A quality circle is a small group of persons who meet periodically to discuss problems relating to quality, productivity, or cost, and to develop solutions for them.


19. Virtual teams are ones whose members meet at least part of the time electronically and with computer support.

Ans:Page: 151Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

20. A potential advantage of virtual teams is that members have very little, if any, direct personal contact.

Ans:Pages: 151-152Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

21. A potential advantage of virtual teams is that computer mediation focuses interaction and decision making on facts and objective information rather than on emotional considerations.

Ans:Page: 151Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

22. Self-managing teams are small groups that are empowered to make the decisions needed to manage themselves on a day-to-day basis.

Ans:Page: 150Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

23. Self-managing teams are also known as self-directed teams.


24. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on establishing strategy and providing resources to achieve it.

Ans:Page: 150Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

25. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on selecting new team members, training them for job skills, and evaluating performance.

Ans:Page: 150Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

26. Self-managing teams differ from the more traditional work group in that team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

Ans:Page: 150Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

27. Multiskilling occurs when team members are trained in performing more than one job on the team.


28. The potential benefits of self-managing teams include productivity and quality improvements, production flexibility, and faster response to technological change, but not reduced absenteeism and turnover or improved work attitudes and quality of work life.

Ans:Page: 151Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

29. Self-managing teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate the first-line supervisors.


30. An effective group is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter.

Section Reference: Criteria of an Effective Team

31. The member satisfaction criterion of group effectiveness means that members are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or to look forward to working together again in the future.

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Medium



32. The team viability criterion of group effectiveness refers to groups with members who believe that their participation and experiences are positive and meet important personal needs.

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Medium



33. Synergy is the creation of a whole that is greater than the sum of its parts.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Synergy and Team Benefits

34. Social loafing, also known as the “Ringlemann effect,” occurs when people work less hard in a group than they would individually.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems

35. The performance advantages of teams over individuals are most evident in three situations: 1) when there is no clear “expert” for a particular task, 2) when the problems are complex and require a division of labor, and 3) when a riskier decision need be made.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Medium



36. Research shows that teams tend to make less risky decisions than individuals.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy



37. Ringlemann identified two reasons why people may not work as hard in groups as they would individually: (a) their individual contributions are less noticeable in the context of a group; and (b) group goals are often less well defined than individual goals.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Medium



38. In general, social facilitation theory indicates that working in the presence of others creates an emotional arousal or excitement that stimulates behavior and therefore affects performance.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Social Facilitation

39. A team member might withdraw or tend toward social loafing when asked to do something he/she isn’t very good at.

Ans:

Page: 155

Level: Easy



40. Formal work units, but not temporary task forces or virtual teams, pass through a series of life cycle stages.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Compare the stages of team development, including forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.

Section Reference: Stages of Team Development

41. The five stages of team development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



42. In the storming stage of team development, members are interested in getting to know each other and discovering what is considered acceptable behavior, in determining the real task of the team, and in defining team rules.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Storming Stage

43. The storming stage of team development is a period of high emotionality and tension among the team members.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



44. During the norming stage of team development, coalitions or cliques may form as individuals compete to impose their preferences on the team and to achieve a desired status position.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Norming Stage

45. In the norming stage of team development, the group really begins to come together as a coordinated unit.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Easy



46. In the norming stage of team development, holding the team together may become more important to some members than working on the team’s tasks.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Difficult



47. The norming stage of the team development process is sometimes called “total integration.”

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Difficult



48. The willingness of a team to disband when the job is done and to work well together in future responsibilities is an important long-run test of team success.

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Adjourning Stage

49. A study reported by Rutgers University professor Donald McCabe found that 86 percent of MBA students reported cheating by plagiarizing, downloading essays from the Web, and more.

Ans:

Page: 159

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.

Section Reference: Understanding Teams at Work

50. The technical demands of a task include relationships, ego involvement, controversies over ends and means, and the like.

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Nature of Team Task

51. Tasks that are complex in social demands require unique solutions and more information processing, whereas task that are complex in technical demands involve difficulties in reaching agreement on goals or methods for accomplishing them.

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult



52. CEO and founder of Amazon.com, Jeff Bezos’ simple rule when it comes to the size of a product development team is “No team should be larger than two pizzas can feed.”

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Team Size

53. The optimal size for teams is between five and seven members.

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Medium



54. Members of a homogenous group vary with respect to age, gender, race, ethnicity, experience, culture, and similar characteristics.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Diversity and Team Performance

55. FIRO-B theory suggests that groups whose members have compatible needs are likely to be more effective than groups whose members have incompatible needs.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Membership Composition of a Team

56. Homogeneous teams have members who are similar with respect to such variables as age, gender, race, experience, ethnicity, and culture.

Ans:Page: 162Level: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


57. Members of homogeneous teams experience difficulty in building social relations and engaging in the interactions needed for teamwork.

Ans:Pages: 162-163Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


58. Heterogeneity may limit the team in terms of ideas, viewpoints, and creativity.

Ans:

Page: 163Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


59. Heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other variables.

Ans:Pages: 162-163Level: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


60. Status congruence occurs when a person’s position within the group is equivalent in status to positions held outside of the group.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



61. The diversity-consensus dilemma is the tendency for diversity in groups to make working together more difficult, even though diversity itself expands the skills and perspectives available for problem solving.

Ans:

Page: 163

Level: Medium



62. Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.

Ans:Pages: 162-163Level: DifficultLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


63. Researchers have found that females score higher than males on social sensitivity.

Ans:

Page: 163

Level: Easy



Multiple Choice

64. Team members and leaders can do all of the following to help their teams achieve high performance EXCEPT:

a) putting personal talents to work.

b) building disagreement so that the team gets multiple opinions.

c) persuading others to cooperate

d) accepting suggestions.

e) communicating ideas.

Ans:

Page: 146

Level: Medium



65. Teams that __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.

a) recommend things

b) run thingsc) study things

d) make or do things

e) review things



66. Teams that __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.a) review thingsb) recommend things

c) run things

d) evaluate things

e) make or do things



67. Members of teams that __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.

a) plan things

b) reengineer things

c) recommend things

d) make or do things

e) review things

Ans:

Page: 147

Level: Medium



68. Groups that form spontaneously through personal relationships or special interests, and not by any specific organizational endorsement, are called __________.

a) informal groups

b) virtual groups

c) temporary groups

d) interim groups

e) ad hoc groups

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Medium



69. The potential benefits of informal groups include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) informal groups have the potential to speed up the workflow.

b) informal groups enable people to assist each other in ways that formal lines of authority fail to provide.

c) informal groups enable members to establish important goals for the formal work unit.

d) informal groups help individuals satisfy needs that are unmet in a formal group.

e) informal groups can provide their members with social satisfaction, security, and a sense of belonging.

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Medium



70. __________ consist of persons with natural affinities for one another, and who tend to work together, sit together, take breaks together, and even do things together outside of the workplace.

a) Interest groups

b) Affiliation groups

c) Friendship groups

d) Connection groups

d) Familiarity groups

Ans:

Page: 148

Level: Medium



71. __________ teams bring together people from different functional departments or work units to work on a common task.a) Cross-functionalb) Self-directedc) Virtuald) Self-managede) Employee involvement


Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

72. The __________ occurs when members of functional units stay focused on matters internal to the function and minimize their interactions with members of other functions.a) limited perspective problemb) restriction of perspective problem

c) functional niche problem

d) functional silos problem

e) limited vision problem

Ans:

Page: 149

Level: Difficult


73. The __________ is another name for the functional silos problem.a) individual unit problem.b) serviceable group problemc) functional chimney problemd) hyper-focused team problem

e) exclusive over-assemblage problem


74. Members of __________ can solve problems with a positive combination of functional expertise and integrative or total systems thinking.a) cross-functional teamsb) self-directed teams

c) cross-departmental teams

d) virtual teams

e) statutory teams

Ans:

Page: 149

Level: Easy


75. Most self-managing teams include between __________ members.a) 1 and 4b) 5 and 15c) 20 and 35d) 50 and 65e) 80 and 100


76. The potential advantages of virtual teams include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) virtual teams bring cost effectiveness to teamwork where members are unable to meet easily face-to-face.

b) virtual teams can bring speed to teamwork where members are unable to meet easily face-to-face.

c) virtual teams bring the power of the computer to bear on typical team needs for information processing and decision making.

d) virtual team members may have very little, if any, direct personal contact.

e) computer mediation focuses interaction and decision making on facts and objective information rather than on emotional considerations.

Ans:

Pages: 151-152

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

77. Teams whose members convene and work together electronically via networked computers are called __________.

a) project teams

b) cybernetic teams

c) virtual teams.

d) implicit teams

e) networked teams

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Virtual Teams

78. The term __________ applies to a wide variety of teams whose members meet regularly to collectively examine important workplace issues.a) employee engagement teamb) employee connection team

c) employee participation team

d) employee empowerment team

e) employee involvement team

Ans:

Pages: 149-150

Level: Medium


79. Members of a true self-managing work team make decisions on all of the following EXCEPT:a) establishing strategy and providing resources to achieve it.b) scheduling work and allocating tasks.c) training for job skills and evaluating performance.d) selecting new team members.e) controlling the quality of work.

Ans:Page: 150

Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

80. Self-managing teams are also known as __________.a) virtual teams b) self-directed work teams c) task teams d) silo teams e) employee teams

Ans:

Page: 150

Level: Easy


81. The potential benefits of self-managing teams include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) productivity and quality improvements.

b) production flexibility and faster response to technological change.

c) reduced absenteeism and turnover.

d) difficulty for some members to adjust to self-managing responsibilities.

e) improved work attitudes and quality of work life.

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Easy


82. Self-managed teams have structural and management implications for organizations because they largely eliminate __________.a) a firm’s staff functionsb) the line employees

c) the top management team

d) the CEO

e) the first-line supervisors

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Medium


83. Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group?a) Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.b) Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.

c) Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.

d) Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.

e) Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams.

Ans:

Pages: 150-151

Level: Medium


84. To create a successful virtual team, managers should do which of the following?a) Select team members high in initiativeb) Begin with social messagingc) Assign clear goals and rolesd) Gather regular feedback from memberse) Managers should do all of the above

Ans:Page: 151Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

85. A(n) __________ team is one that achieves high levels of task performance, member satisfaction, and team viability.

a) functional

b) serviceable

c) operative

d) effective

e) practical

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Easy



86. When a team achieves its performance goals regarding quantity, quality, and timeliness of work results, the __________ characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated.

a) task performance

b) member satisfaction

c) team viability

d) team changeability

e) team excellence

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Difficult



87. When a team’s members believe that their participation and experiences are positive and meet important personal needs, the __________ characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated.

a) task performance

b) member commitment

c) member satisfaction

d) team viability

e) team changeability

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Medium



88. The __________ characteristic of team effectiveness is being demonstrated when the members of a team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or look forward to working together again at some future point in time.

a) member satisfaction

b) team endurance

c) team excellence

d) team viability

e) team changeability

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Medium



89. When teams accomplish more than the total of their individual members’ capabilities, __________ occurs.

a) exchange

b) association

c) synergy

d) harmony

e) union

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy



90. When people work less hard in teams than they would individually, __________ occurs.

a) social slacking

b) organizational shirking

c) individual loafing

d) organizational evading

e) social loafing

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Easy



91. The performance advantages of teams over individuals are most evident in all of the following cases EXCEPT:

a) when a conservative decision is required.

b) when there is no clear “expert” for a particular task.

c) when problems are complex.

d) when a division of labor is required.

e) when a sharing of information is required.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Medium



92. An example of social facilitation occurs when __________.

a) a team achieves more together than they would have individually

b) people work less hard in teams than they would individually

c) an athlete performs in front of an enthusiastic hometown audience

d) a lack of preparedness motivate a novice, nervous speaker to perform better

e) people work together via computer networks

Ans:

Pages: 154-155

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Social Facilitation

93. The study of social loafing by Price, Harrison, and Gavin designed natural teams consisting of __________.

a) tug-of-war teams

b) students working together in course study groups for a semester

c) 150 mid-level managers

d) representatives from 35 industries

e) 12 virtual team members

Ans:

Page: 155

Level: Easy



94. Whether part of a formal work unit, a temporary task force, or a virtual team, the group itself passes through a series of __________.

a) decision-making steps

b) life cycle stages

c) cultural transformations

d) entrepreneurial ventures

e) environmental challenges

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



95. Which of the following sequences accurately describes the order of the stages of team development?

a) Introduction, growth, settling-in, maturation, and dismissal

b) Start-up, growth, leveling-off, settling-in, and disbanding

c) Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning

d) Launch, growth, leveling-off, maturing, and decline

e) Introduction, orientation, settling-in, maturation, and decline

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



96. The five stages of team development include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) forming.

b) norming.

c) adjourning.

d) journeying.

e) storming.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



97. Which stage of team development has a primary concern with the initial entry of members to the team?

a) Forming

b) Storming

c) Norming

d) Performing

e) Adjourning

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Forming Stage

98. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the forming stage of team development?

a) Members are interested in getting to know each other.

b) Members are interested in discovering what is considered acceptable behavior.

c) Members are interested in maintaining the sense of harmony that has been established.

d) Members are interested in determining the real task of the team.

e) Members are interested in defining team rules.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



99. During which stage of team development does hostility and infighting occur with the team typically experiencing many changes?

a) Forming

b) Storming

c) Norming

d) Performing

e) Adjourning

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



100. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the storming stage of team development?

a) Hostility and infighting seldom occur.

b) The team typically experiences many changes, and coalitions or cliques may form.

c) Members’ expectations tend to be clarified, and attention shifts toward obstacles standing in the way of team goals.

d) Individuals begin to understand one another’s interpersonal styles.

e) Efforts are made to find ways to accomplish team goals while satisfying individual needs.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



101. During what stage of team development may a team member ask, “What can the group offer me? Can my needs be met at the same time that I contribute to the group?

a) Storming

b) Forming

c) Performing

d) Adjourning

e) Norming

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Medium



102. Which stage of the team development process is sometimes called initial integration?

a) Storming

b) Forming

c) Performing

d) Adjourning

e) Norming

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium



103. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the norming stage of team development?

a) The turmoil of the preceding stage gives way to a precarious balancing of forces.

b) Holding the team together may become more important to some members than working on the team’s tasks.

c) Minority viewpoints, deviations from group directions, and criticism are welcomed as members experience a preliminary sense of closeness.

d) Team members experience a new sense of harmony.

e) Some team members may mistakenly perceive this stage as one of ultimate maturity.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Difficult



104. Which stage of the team development process is sometimes called total integration?

a) Storming

b) Forming

c) Performing

d) Adjourning

e) Norming

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Performing Stage

105. The performing stage of team development is described by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a) the team is able to deal with complex tasks and handle internal disagreements in creative ways.

b) the team structure is unstable.

c) members are motivated by team goals and are generally satisfied.

d) the primary team challenges are continued efforts to improve relationships and performance.

e) team members should be able to adapt successfully as opportunities and demands change over time.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium



106. An immature group will have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a) dysfunctional decision-making methods.

b) flexible operating procedures.

c) unclear communications.

d) independent authority relations.

e) low acceptance of minority views.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium



107. The final stage in the team development process is known as the __________ stage.

a) adjourning

b) performing

c) dismissal

d) maturation

e) disbanding

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Medium



108. Which of the following is the correct equation for team effectiveness according to the open systems model of teams?

a) Team effectiveness = Quality of inputs x (Process gains + Process losses)

b) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs + (Process gains x Team inputs)

c) Team effectiveness = Quality of inputs x (Process gains – Process losses)

d) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs x (Process gains + Process losses)

e) Team effectiveness = Quality of outputs + (Process gains x Team inputs)

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Open Systems Model of Teams

109. Key team inputs include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) the nature of the task.

b) goals, rewards, and resources.

c) team composition.

d) member satisfaction.

e) team size.

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Difficult



110. The open systems model of team effectiveness suggests that team effectiveness is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) inputs.

b) processes.

c) “right players in the right seats”.

d) “on the same bus, headed in the same direction”.

e) task performance.

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Easy



111. All of the following are considered membership characteristics according to the open-systems model of team effectiveness EXCEPT:

a) abilities.

b) values.

c) cohesiveness.

d) personalities.

e) diversity.

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Easy



112. Team performance can suffer when:

a) goals are unclear.

b) goals are too focused on individual-level accomplishments.

c) resources are inefficient to accomplish the task.

d) when goals are insufficiently challenging.

e) All of the above.

Ans:

Page: 159

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Team Resources and Setting

113. The __________ of a team’s task include its routineness, difficulty, and information requirements.

a) cognitive demands

b) mechanical demands

c) social demands

d) technical demands

e) psychological demands

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult



114. The __________ of a team’s task involve relationships, ego involvement, controversies over means and ends, and the like.



c) social demands



Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult



115. Tasks that are complex in __________ require unique solutions and more information processing than other tasks.



c) social demands



Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Difficult

Reference: Foundations of Team Performance


116. Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of team member competencies on team performance?

a) Talent alone can guarantee performance results.

b) It is relatively easy to overcome the performance limitations imposed by insufficient skills and competencies for the task at hand.

c) To achieve success, a team must have the right skills and competencies available for task performance.

d) In homogeneous teams, members are very different and bring needed diversity in skill sets to the team.

e) The difficulties of heterogeneity are especially pronounced in the long run.

Ans:

Page: 161

Level: Difficult



117. A good size for problem-solving teams is __________.

a) 1-2

b) 2-4

c) 4-5

d) 5-7

e) 8-10

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Medium



118. When voting is required in problem solving teams, __________.

a) larger numbers of team members are preferred

b) smaller numbers of team members are preferred

c) even numbers of team members are preferred

d) odd numbers of team members are preferred

e) the team leader should make the decision

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Easy



119. __________ teams have members who are very similar to one another.

a) Homogenous

b) Heterogeneous

c) Variant

d) Variegated

e) Conglomerate

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Easy



120. __________ refers to a person’s relative rank, prestige, and standing in a group.

a) Condition

b) Standing

c) Fullness

d) Status

e) Prominence

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Easy



121. The FIRO-B theory examines differences in how people relate to one another based on their needs to express and receive feelings of __________.

a) inclusion, control, and affection

b) status, control, and affiliation

c) power, achievement, and control

d) affection, nurturance, and affiliation

e) status, achievement, and power

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



122. The FIRO-B theory suggests that teams whose members have __________ needs are likely to be more effective than teams whose members are more __________.

a) compatible; incompatible

b) incompatible; compatible

c) diverse; similar

d) technical; social

e) social; technical

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



123. Symptoms of team member incompatibility include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) withdrawn members.

b) open hostilities.

c) status differences.

d) struggles over control.

e) domination of the group by a few members.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



124. Which of the following statements provides an accurate description of homogeneous teams?a) Homogeneous teams have members who are similar with respect to such variables as age, gender, race, experience, ethnicity, and culture.b) Members of homogeneous teams experience difficulty in building social relations and engaging in the interactions needed for teamwork.c) Homogeneity does not limit the team in terms of ideas, viewpoints, and creativity.d) Team members have diverse cultures and lifestyles.e) Members of homogeneous teams have different backgrounds and experience.

Ans:Pages: 162-163Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss how we can better understand teams at work.


125. As a team gets larger, all of the following things tend to happen EXCEPT:

a) communication problems often set in.

b) coordination of the team members becomes more difficult.

c) satisfaction may dip.

d) turnover and absenteeism decrease.

e) social loafing may increase.

Ans:

Page: 160

Level: Easy



126. Researchers have identified the tendency for increasing diversity among team members to create difficulties even as it offers improved potential for problem solving is known as the __________.

a) positive-negative dilemma

b) enhancement-enactment dilemma

c) upside-downside dilemma

d) good news-bad news dilemma

e) diversity-consensus dilemma

Ans:

Page: 163

Level: Medium



127. __________ is the ability of a team to perform well across a range of tasks.

a) Collective intelligence

b) Emotional intelligence

c) Reliability intelligence

d) Generalized ability intelligence

e) None of the above.

Ans:

Page: 163

Level: Medium



Fill in the blank

128. A(n) __________ is a group of people brought together to use their complementary skill to achieve a common purpose for which they are collectively accountable.

Ans: Page: 147Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.


129. __________ occurs when group members actively work together in ways such that all their respective skills are well utilized to achieve a common purpose.

Ans: Page: 147Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.


130. __________ are established to study specific problems and recommend solutions to them.

Ans: Page: 147Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.


131. __________ consist of people with the formal responsibility for leading other teams.

Ans: Page: 147Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.


132. __________ are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks, such as marketing or manufacturing.

Ans: Page: 147Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.


133. In a sense, functional department or work units can create artificial boundaries that discourage rather than encourage more integrative thinking and active coordination with other parts of an organization. This organizational problem is called __________.

Ans:Page: 149Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

134. A(n) __________ is set up to deal with a specific problem or opportunity.

Ans: Page: 149Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Cross-Functional and Problem-Solving Teams

135. __________ are ones whose members meet at least part of the time electronically and with computer support.

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe teams and how they are used in organizations.Section Reference: Virtual Teams

136. A(n) __________ is a small group of persons who meet periodically to discuss problems relating to quality, productivity, or cost, and to develop solutions for them.

Ans:

Page: 150

Level: Medium


137. __________ are small teams empowered to make the decisions needed to manage themselves on a day-to-day basis.

Ans:

Page: 150

Level: Easy


138. __________ occurs when team members are trained to perform more than one job on the team.

Ans:

Page: 151

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Self-Managing Teams

139. With regard to __________, the members of an effective team are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an on-going basis and/or to look forward to working together again at some future point in time.

Ans:

Page: 152

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter.Section Reference: Criteria of an Effective Team

140. The creation of a whole that is greater than the sum of its parts is known as __________.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter.Section Reference: Synergy and Team Benefits

141. Max Ringelmann’s findings that people may not work as hard in groups because their individual contributions are less noticeable in the group context are known as __________.

Ans:

Page: 153

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Identify the criteria of an effective team and the problems teams can encounter.Section Reference: Social Loafing and Team Problems

142. In the __________ stage of team development, members are interested in: getting to know each other, discovering what is considered acceptable behavior, determining the real task of the group, and defining team rules.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



143. The __________ stage of team development is a period of high emotionality and tension among the team members.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



144. During the __________ stage of team development, coalitions or cliques may form as individuals compete to impose their preferences on the group and to achieve a desired status position.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



145. The __________ stage of team development is the point at which the team really begins to come together as a coordinated unit.

Ans:

Page: 156

Level: Easy



146. The __________ stage of team development marks the emergence of a mature, organized, and well-functioning team.

Ans:

Page: 157

Level: Medium



147. The __________ stage of team development is especially important for the many temporary teams that are increasingly common in the new workplace.

Ans:

Page: 158

Level: Medium



148. __________ teams have members who vary in age, gender, race, ethnicity, experience, and culture.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



149. __________ occurs when a person’s position within the group is equivalent in status to positions held outside of the group.

Ans:

Page: 162

Level: Medium



150. The __________ is the tendency for increasing diversity among team members to make it harder for them to work together, even though the diversity itself offers improved potential for problem solving.

Ans:

Page: 163

Level: Difficult



Essay

151. What is a team? What are the three types of teams in organizations?

Page: 147

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Teams and TeamworkSection Reference: What Teams Do

152. Describe the concept of social loafing. Why does social loafing occur? What can be done to avoid social loafing in the workplace?

Page: 153

Level: Medium



153. Identify the five stages of team development and explain what happens at each stage.

Pages: 156-158

Level: Medium



154. What is the FIRO-B theory? What are its implications for teams?

Page: 162

Level: Difficult



155. Discuss the diversity-consensus dilemma.

Page: 163

Level: Medium



Schermerhorn OB 12e

Chapter Number: 08

Question Type: True/False

1. An essential criterion of a true team is that the members feel “collectively accountable” for what they accomplish.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.

Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

2. High-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.

Answer:



3. Members of high-performance teams have the right mix of technical, problem-solving, decision-making, and interpersonal skills.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.


4. High-performance teams have strong core values that help the team members guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.

Answer:



5. High-performance teams’ members focus on individual effort and excellence.

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.


6. Teamwork usually happens naturally in a group, without much effort on the part of members and leaders.

Answer:



7. Specific objectives provide a clear focus for solving problems and resolving conflicts.

Answer:



8. Team building is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a group and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness.

Answer:



9. Team building is an effective way to deal with teamwork difficulties when they occur or to help prevent them from occurring in the first place.

Answer:



10. The first step in the team-building process is data gathering and analysis.

Answer:



11. The second step in the team-building process occurs when members work together in planning for team improvements.

Answer:



12. The last step in the team-building process occurs when members work together to evaluate the results.

Answer:



13. The team building process is highly collaborative.

Answer:



14. Team building in the formal retreat approach takes place in the firm’s headquarters facility, typically over a weekend, when the building is quiet.

Answer:



15. The formal retreat approach to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations.

Answer:



16. The outdoor experience approach to team building places group members in a variety of physically challenging situations that must be mastered through teamwork, not through individual work.

Answer:



17. In a continuous improvement approach to team building, the team members commit themselves to monitoring group developments and accomplishments on an ongoing basis and making the day-to-day changes needed to ensure team effectiveness.

Answer:



18. In a continuous improvement approach to team building, the manager, team leader, or group members themselves take responsibility for regularly engaging in the team-building process.

Answer:



19. Special problems relating to team processes may arise as more and more jobs are turned over to teams and as more and more traditional supervisors are being asked to function as team leaders.

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

20. Effective teams have no further need for leadership efforts, after team building, to improve team processes.

Answer:


21. Problems regarding participation, goals, control, relationships, and process are likely to occur in a new team or when new members join existing teams.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

22. According to Schein, the friendly helper is insecure, suffering uncertainties of intimacy and control.

Answer:


23. In coping with the challenge of entering a team, tough battlers are those individuals who are frustrated by a lack of identity in the new group and who may act aggressively or reject authority.

Answer:


24. In his studies of how people cope with the challenge of entering a team, Edgar Schein labeled individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions as disruptive entrants.

Answer:


25. Research in social psychology suggests that the achievement of sustained high performance by groups requires that members’ task needs and maintenance needs are met.

Answer:


26. Distributed leadership is the sharing of responsibility, by all members, for meeting individual needs.

Answer:


27. Maintenance activities directly contribute to the performance of important group tasks.

Answer:


28. A role is a set of expectations associated with a job or position on a team.

Answer:


29. Role ambiguity occurs when a person is uncertain about his or her role in a job or on a team.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.

Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

30. Role conflict occurs when someone is unable to meet the expectations of others.

Answer:


31. The norms of a group or team represent ideas or beliefs about how members are expected to behave.

Answer:


32. The performance norm conveys expectations about how hard group members should work and what the team should accomplish.

Answer:


33. A leader can establish positive norms within groups and teams by acting as a positive role model, reinforcing and rewarding desired behaviors, selecting members who can and will perform, and providing support and training for members.

Answer:



34. The statement “on our team, people always try to work hard” is an example of a positive high-achievement norm.

Answer:


35. The statement, “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others” reinforces the negative support and helpfulness norm.

Answer:


36. Cohesiveness of a group or team is the degree to which group or team members are attracted to and motivated to remain a part of the group or team.

Answer:


37. Generally, the more cohesive the group, the greater the conformity of members to group norms.

Answer:



38. In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with high performance norms and high team cohesiveness.

Answer:


39. From a manager’s perspective, the worst-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with negative performance norms and high team cohesiveness.

Answer:


40. Team cohesiveness tends to be low when members are similar in age, attitudes, needs, and backgrounds.

Answer:


41. Group cohesiveness tends to decrease when groups are physically isolated from others and when they experience performance success or crisis.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

42. A key negative aspect of inter-team dynamics is that the members of each team may divert energies toward their mutual animosities rather than on the performance of important tasks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


43. A positive aspect of intergroup competition occurs when the members of each group work harder, become more focused on key tasks, and develop more internal loyalty.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy


44. Inter-team dynamics are relationships between groups cooperating and competing with one another.

Answer:


45. Decentralized communication networks create high levels of member satisfaction and work best when team tasks are complex and non-routine.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication.Section Reference: Improving Team Communication

46. The counteracting team pattern results in a decentralized communication network in which all team members communicate directly and share information with one another.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


47. In the co-acting team pattern, information flows to a central person and is redistributed to form a centralized communication network.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy


48. Wheel communication networks and chain communication network are other names for a centralized communication network.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


49. Problems of destructive competition in inter-team dynamics are likely in restricted communication networks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard


50. Proxemics refers to the use of space as people interact.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


51. Virtual communication networks allow team members to be in electronic contact with one another and empower team members.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy


52. In decision by lack of response, one idea after another is suggested without any discussion taking place. When the team finally accepts an idea, all others have been bypassed and discarded by simple lack of response rather than by critical evaluation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

53. In decision by minority rule, the chairperson, a manager, or a leader makes a decision for the group. This can be done with or without discussion and is very time efficient.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


54. In decision by majority rule, all team members agree totally on the course of action to be taken.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


55. Teams will make decisions by consensus when discussion leads to one alternative being favored by most members and the others members agreeing to support it.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy


56. To achieve group consensus, members should not argue blindly and should consider others’ reactions to one’s points.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


57. Teams will make decisions by unanimity when all team members agree totally on a course of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy


58. The potential advantages of group decision making include more knowledge and expertise being applied to the problem, more alternatives being considered, greater understanding and acceptance of the final decision, and more commitment among group members to making the final decision work.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


59. The potential disadvantages of group decision making include social pressure to conform, minority domination, and time delays.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


60. When groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups, poor decisions may result from the members’ unwillingness to criticize one another’s ideas and suggestions, overemphasis on agreement, desire to hold the group together, underemphasis on critical discussion, and desire to avoid unpleasant circumstances.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


61. Groupthink can be avoided by having the leader express his/her pSection Reference for a particular course of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard


62. Groupthink can be avoided when team leaders hold “second-chance” meetings after consensus is apparently achieved.

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques. Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

63. The guidelines for brainstorming include ruling out all criticism, welcoming “freewheeling,” emphasizing quantity of ideas, and encouraging “piggy-backing” on others’ ideas.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


64. The nominal group technique is a group decision-making approach that involves structured rules for generating and prioritizing ideas.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


Question Type: Multiple Choice

65. A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:a) communicating high-performance standards.

b) having members spend time together.

c) creating a sense of urgency.

d) setting a clear/challenging direction.

e) ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum.

Answer:



66. Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:

a) high-performance teams have strong core values.b) high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.

c) high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.

d) members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.

e) members of high-performance teams feel “collectively accountable.”

Answer:

Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.


67. Researchers point out that collective intelligence is _________ in teams whose processes result in social sensitivity and absence of domination by one or a few members.

a) higherb) lowerc) a constantd) nonexistente) none of the above

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

68. __________ is a sequence of planned activities designed to gather and analyze data on the functioning of a team and to initiate changes designed to improve teamwork and increase team effectiveness.

a) Team enhancingb) Team building

c) Team structuring

d) Team championing

e) Team organizing

Answer:



69. Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of steps in the team-building process?

a) Establishing a team mission statement; team goal setting; data gathering and analysis; implementing team goals; and evaluation of resultsb) Planning for team effectiveness; data gathering and analysis; establishment of team goals and objectives; implementing team goals; and evaluation of results

c) Establishing a team mission statement; team cohesiveness training; data gathering and analysis; actions to improve team functioning; and implementing team goals

d) Planning for team effectiveness; team goal setting; implementing team goals, evaluation of results; and reassessment of team goals

e) Problems or opportunity in team effectiveness; data gathering and analysis; planning for team improvements; actions to improve team functioning; and evaluation of results

Answer:



70. In the __________, team building takes place during off-site meetings.a) formal retreat approachb) informal withdrawal approach

c) privacy approach

d) informal isolation approach

e) formal seclusion approach

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



71. Which of the following is the third step in the team building process?a) Data gathering and analysisb) Problem or opportunity in team effectivenessc) Actions to improve team functioningd) Planning for team improvementse) Evaluation of results

Answer:



72. The __________ to team building offers opportunities for intense and concentrated effort to examine group accomplishments and operations.

a) informal withdrawal approach

b) privacy approach

c) informal isolation approach

d) formal seclusion approach

e) formal retreat approach

Answer:



73. In a(n) __________ to team building, the manager, team leader, or group members themselves take responsibility for regularly engaging in the team-building process.

a) formal retreat approachb) employee participation approach

c) outdoor experience approach

d) continuous improvement approach

e) incremental enhancement approach

Answer:



74. The __________ approach to team building places group members in a variety of physically challenging situations that must be mastered through teamwork, not individual work.

a) formal retreatb) outdoor experience

c) continuous improvement

d) rustic experience

e) informal withdrawal

Answer:



75. Which of the following statements about improving team processes is NOT accurate?a) Team members must be prepared to handle more members.b) As more and more jobs are turned over to teams, special problems relating to team processes may arise.c) As more and more traditional supervisors are being asked to function as team leaders, special problems relating to team processes may arise.d) Effective teams have no further need, after team-building, for leadership efforts to improve team processes.e) Team members must be prepared to handle disagreements on rules and responsibilities

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.


76. To improve team processes, both team leaders and members must be prepared to deal with all of the following EXCEPT:

a) introducing new members.b) handling disagreements on goals and responsibilities.c) handling reward distribution issues.d) resolving delays and disputes when making decisions.e) reducing friction and interpersonal conflicts.

Answer:



77. Which of the following is NOT one of the problems that face new group members?a) Participationb) Goalsc) Lack of originality

d) Controle) Process

Answer:

Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.


78. Edgar Schein identified three common behavior profiles that may hinder group operations when people try to cope with individual entry problems in self-serving ways. These three profiles are __________.

a) passive, aggressive, and regressiveb) focused, unfocused, and mid-focusedc) tough battler, friendly helper, and objective thinkerd) primal, emotional, and rationale) thoughtful, aggressive, and modal

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.


79. In coping with the challenge of entering a team, __________ are individuals who act in a passive, reflective, and even single-minded manner while struggling with the fit between individual goals and group directions.

a) friendly helpersb) tough battlers

c) objective thinkers

d) amiable entrants

e) thoughtful newcomers

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



80. __________ is the sharing of responsibility for meeting group task and maintenance needs.

a) Participative partneringb) Conjunctive leadership

c) Authentic leadership

d) Empowered leadership

e) Distributed leadership

Answer:



80. __________ directly contribute to the performance of important group tasks.a) Task activitiesb) Assignment mandates

c) Directive activities

d) Responsibility activities

e) Maintenance activities

Answer:



81. A team member contributes __________ leadership by encouraging the participation of others, trying to harmonize differences of opinion, praising the contributions of others, and agreeing to go along with a popular course of action.

a) taskb) functional

c) transactional

d) maintenance

e) directive

Answer:



82. All of the following statements about maintenance activities are true EXCEPT:a) maintenance activities support the social and interpersonal relationships among group members.b) when maintenance leadership is poor, members become dissatisfied with one another.c) in an effective group, maintenance activities support the relationships needed for team members to work well together over time.d) when maintenance leadership is weak, the value of group membership may diminish.e) maintenance activities include initiating discussion, sharing information, asking information of others, clarifying something that has been said and summarizing the status of a deliberation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



83. Disruptive behaviors that can harm group process include all of the following EXCEPT:a) being overly aggressive toward other members.

b) trying to recognize others and give them attention.

c) withdrawing and refusing to cooperate with others.

d) horsing around when there is work to be done.

e) talking too much about irrelevant matters.

Answer:



84. _________-role conflict occurs when a person’s values and needs come into conflict with role expectations.

a) Intrasenderb) Intersenderc) Persond) Intere) Outer

Answer:



85. All of the following statements regarding role ambiguity are true EXCEPT:a) to do any job well in a group, people need to know what is expected of them.b) in a new group or team situation, role ambiguities may create problems as members find that their work efforts are wasted or unappreciated by others.c) even in mature groups and teams, the failure of members to share expectations and listen to one another may create a lack of understanding.d) role ambiguity cannot be managed through awareness of role dynamics and their causes.e) being asked to do too much or too little as a team member can create problems.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



86. __________ occurs when too much is expected and the individual feels overwhelmed with work.

a) Role conflictb) Role indifference

c) Role encumberment

d) Role overload

e) Role frustration

Answer:



87. All of the following are part of four common forms of role conflict EXCEPT:a) intrasender role conflict.b) extrasender role conflict.c) intersender role conflict.d) person-role conflict.e) interrole conflict.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



88. __________ occurs when different people send conflicting and mutually exclusive expectations.

a) Person-role conflictb) Intrasender role conflict

c) Parallel role conflictd) Interrole role conflict

e) Intersender role conflict

Answer:



89. __________ occurs when the expectations of two or more roles held by the same individual become incompatible, such as the conflict between work and family demands.

a) Interrole conflictb) Person-role conflict

c) Correspondent role conflict

d) Divergent role conflict

e) Intersender role conflict

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



90. Which of the following statements about norms is NOT correct?a) Norms help clarify the expectations associated with a person’s membership in a group.b) Although important, norms are not considered to be rules or standards of conduct.

c) Norms allow members to structure their own behavior.

d) When someone violates a group norm, other members typically respond in ways that are aimed at enforcing the norm.

e) Norms allow members to predict what others will do.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



91. Role __________ is a process for discussing and agreeing upon what team members expect of one another.

a) negotiationb) agreementc) overloadd) expectatione) cooperation

Answer:



92. Positive norms within groups and teams can be established by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a) acting as a positive role model.

b) reinforcing and rewarding desired behaviors.

c) encouraging principled dissenters to join the group.

d) selecting members who can and will perform.

e) providing support and training for members.

Answer:



93. All of the following statements about group norms are correct EXCEPT:a) in order for a task force to operate effectively, group norms regarding attendance at meetings, punctuality, and preparedness are needed.b) groups also commonly have norms regarding how to deal with supervisors, colleagues, and customers.c) norms for establishing guidelines for honesty and ethical behaviors are important for groups to discuss.d) norms should be identified by the management team only.e) norms are expressed in everyday conversations

Answer:



94. Which of the following statements does the best job of reinforcing positive “ethics” norms?a) “In our department, people are always looking for better ways of doing things.”b) “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others.”

c) “We try to make fair and just decisions, and we expect others to do the same.”

d) “On our team, people always try to work hard.”

e) “It is a tradition around here for people to stand up for the company when others criticize it unfairly.”

Answer:

Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.


95. Which of the following statements does the best job of reinforcing positive “organizational and personal pride” norms?

a) “In our department, people are always looking for better ways of doing things.”b) “People on this committee are good listeners and actively seek out the ideas and opinions of others.”

c) “Our company strives for both efficiency and effectiveness.”

d) “On our team, people always try to work hard.”

e) “It is a tradition around here for people to stand up for the company when others criticize it unfairly.”

Answer:Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.


96. __________ refers to the tendency to reduce effort when working in groups.a) Social moochingb) Social managementc) Social loafingd) Social contracte) Social engagement

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

97. In contrast to less cohesive groups, members of highly cohesive group members display all of the following EXCEPT:

a) being more energetic when working on group activities.

b) tending to leave work early when possible.

c) remaining less likely to be absent.

d) enduring more likely to be happy about performance success.

e) continuing more likely to be sad about performance failures.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

98. In terms of team productivity, the best-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with __________ performance norms and __________ team cohesiveness.

a) high; high

b) positive; high

c) negative; high

d) negative; low

e) positive; low

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

99. From a manager’s perspective, the worst-case scenario of a work team’s performance norms and cohesiveness occurs with __________ performance norms and __________ team cohesiveness.

a) high; high

b) high; low

c) negative; high

d) negative; low

e) positive; low

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

100. All of the following techniques increase group or team cohesiveness EXCEPT:a) getting agreement.b) increasing team diversity.

c) making the team smaller.

d) isolating the team from other teams.

e) rewarding team results.

Answer:Page: 186

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems related to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

101. The positive aspects of inter-team competition include all of the following outcomes EXCEPT:

a) the members of each team may work harder.

b) the members of each team may become more focused on key tasks.

c) the members of each team may develop more internal loyalty and satisfaction.

d) the members of each team may achieve a higher level of creativity in problem solving.

e) the members of each team may use their energies toward their mutual animosities.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


102. Organizations and their managers can discourage the negative aspects and encourage the positive aspects of inter-team dynamics by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a) refocusing the teams on a common enemy or a common goal.

b) training members to work more cooperatively.

c) promoting direct negotiations between teams.

d) using win-lose reward systems.

e) focusing reward distribution on contributions to the total organization.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard


103. The interacting team pattern results in a __________ in which all team members communicate directly and share information with one another.

a) decentralized communication network

b) centralized communication network

c) restricted communication network

d) synergistic communication network

e) vertical communication network

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Explain communication networks, including their use in a team setting, ways they can be improved, and how proxemics and use of space impact communication.

Section Reference: Improving Team Communication

104. Wheel communication network and chain communication network are other names for __________.

a) restricted communication networks

b) parallel communication networks

c) centralized communication networks

d) synergistic communication networks

e) hierarchical communication networks

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



105. Tasks that are routine and easily subdivided lend themselves to:

a) hierarchical communication networks.

b) parallel communication networks.

c) decentralized communication networks.

d) restricted communication networks.

e) centralized communication networks.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



106. __________ form when subgroups emerge within a team due to issue-specific disagreements.

a) Co-acting teams

b) Counteracting teams

c) Interacting teams

d) Disparate teams

e) Countervailing teams

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



107. The counteracting team pattern involves a __________ in which polarized subgroups disagree with one another’s positions and maintain sometimes antagonistic relations.

a) countervailing communication network

b) counteracting communication network

c) centralized communication network

d) decentralized communication network

e) restricted communication network

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



108. When workspace architecture is studied as an influence on communication behavior, this is part of:

a) cohesiveness.

b) proxemics.

c) virtual communication networks.

d) team building.

e) relationships.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



109. GE’s launch of the “Tweet Squad” is an example of a:a) study in proxemics.

b) vertical communication network

c) virtual communication network.

d) centralized network.

e) all of the above.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



110. Decision by __________ occurs when one idea after another is suggested without discussing them and the team finally accepts an idea without any critical evaluation.

a) majority rule

b) lack of response

c) authority rule

d) consensus

e) minority rule

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.

Section Reference: Improving Team Decisions

111. Decision by __________ is often done by providing a suggestion and then forcing quick agreement by challenging the group with such statements as “Does anyone object?...No? Well, let’s go ahead then.

a) majority rule

b) lack of response

c) authority rule

d) consensus

e) minority rule

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



112. All of the following statements about majority rule are true EXCEPT:a) formal voting may take place or members may be polled to find the majority viewpoint.

b) all group members will feel successful as a result of the majority rule.

c) some people will feel like “winners” and others will feel like “losers” when the final vote is tallied.

d) the very process of voting can create coalitions.

e) this method parallels the democratic political system and is often used without awareness of its potential problems.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



113. To achieve group consensus, members should adhere to all of the following guidelines EXCEPT:

a) don’t argue blindly; consider others’ reactions to your points.

b) don’t change your mind just to reach quick agreement.

c) don’t use voting, coin tossing, and bargaining to avoid conflict.

d) don’t try to involve everyone in the decision process.

e) don’t focus on winning versus losing; seek alternatives acceptable to all.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



114. __________is a “logically perfect” group decision making method because all team members agree totally on a course of action.

a) Consensus

b) Unanimity

c) Majority rule

d) Minority rule

e) Lack of response

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



115. In regards to decision-making, the best teams:a) let the smartest person in the group make most of the decisions.

b) stay together as a group all of the time because they work well together.

c) take decisions spontaneously, without much discussion.

d) do not limit themselves to just one decision-making method, using it over and over again regardless of circumstances.

e) do not encourage exchange of ideas.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



116. When groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups, poor decisions may result from the members’ tendencies to do all of the following EXCEPT:

a) being unwilling to criticize one another’s ideas and suggestions.

b) underemphasizing agreement.

c) desiring to hold the group together.

d) underemphasizing critical discussion.

e) seeking to avoid unpleasant circumstances.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



117. Groupthink can be avoided by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a) assigning the role of critical evaluator to each group member.

b) creating subgroups that each work on the same problem.

c) inviting outside experts to observe and react to group processes.

d) having the leader express his/her preference for a particular course of action.

e) writing alternative scenarios for the intentions of competing groups.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



118. Historical examples of groupthink according to Janis include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) space shuttle disasters.

b) decision-making during the Vietnam War.

c) American intelligence regarding weapons of mass destruction in Iraq.

d) the lack of preparedness by U.S. forces at Pearl Harbor before entry into WWII.

e) Cuban Missile Crisis.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



119. Of the following, which is a symptom of teams displaying groupthink?a) Illusions of invulnerabilityb) Rationalizing unpleasant and disconfirming datac) Belief in inherent group moralityd) All of the above

Answer:

Difficulty: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.


120. The guidelines for brainstorming include all of the following EXCEPT:a) all criticism is ruled out.

b) “freewheeling” is welcomed.

c) quantity is important.

d) quality is important

e) “piggy-backing” on others’ ideas is encouraged.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



121. The team decision technique of __________ asks everyone to respond individually and in writing to a basic question such as: “What should be done to improve the effectiveness of this work team?”

a) statutory technique

b) nominal group technique

c) brainstorming technique

d) freewheeling technique

e) Delphi technique

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



122. A group decision-making approach developed by the Rand Corporation for use in situations where group members are unable to meet face to face is

a) electronic brainstorming.

b) the nominal group technique.

c) the Delphi technique.

d) the freewheeling technique.

e) computer-mediated analysis.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



Question Type: Fill in the blank

123. __________ teams are able to turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives and the members feel collectively accountable for moving together in a compelling direction toward a goal.

Answer:



124. __________ is the ability of a team to perform well across a range of tasks.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the characteristics of high performance teams, the team building process, and its alternatives.Section Reference: High-Performance Teams

125. When difficulties occur within a group or team, __________ can help in addressing problems and resolving issues.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



126. In his studies on how people cope with the challenge of entering a team, Edgar Schein labeled individuals who show extraordinary support for others, behave in a dependent way, and seek alliances in subgroups or cliques as __________.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes..


127. Research in social psychology suggests that the achievement of sustained high performance by groups requires that both __________ needs and __________ needs be met.

Answer:


128. __________ include initiating discussion, sharing information, asking information of others, clarifying something that has been said, and summarizing the status of a deliberation.

Answer:


129. Activities that support the team’s social and interpersonal relationships are called __________.

Answer:



130. Behaviors that harm the team process like talking too much about irrelevant matters are called __________.

Answer:


131. __________ occurs when a person is uncertain about his or her role in a job or on a team..

Answer:


132. __________ occurs when too little work is expected and the individual feels underutilized.

Answer:


133. __________ occurs when the same person sends conflicting expectations.

Answer:

Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

134. The __________ of a group or team represent the ideas or beliefs about how members are expected to behave.

Answer:


135. The __________ conveys expectations about how hard group members should work.

Answer:

Difficulty: HardLearning Objective 2: Discuss problems relating to team processes.Section Reference: Improving Team Processes

136. __________ is a process for discussing and agreeing upon what team members expect of one another.

Answer:


137. The rule of __________ states that the greater the team cohesiveness, the greater the conformity of members to team norms.

Answer:


138. __________ is the degree to which group or team members are attracted to and motivated to remain a part of the group or team.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium


139. All-channel or star communication networks are other names for __________.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



140. __________ are work arrangements where members work on tasks independently, while linked through some form of central coordination.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



141. The attention to office design in building spaces conducive to communication needed by teams today is part of __________.

Answer:

Difficulty: Medium



142. __________ is the process of choosing among alternative courses of action.

Answer:

Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss the ways teams make decisions, the assets and liabilities of team decisions, groupthink symptoms and remedies, and team decision techniques.


143. In decision by __________, when the group finally accepts an idea, all others in the group have been bypassed and discarded by simple __________ rather than by critical evaluation.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



144. Decision by __________ is being used when a chairperson, leader, or manager makes a decision for the team.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



145. Decision by __________ is being used when two or three people can dominate the majority or “railroad” the majority into agreeing to a solution.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



146. Teams will make decisions by __________ when discussion leads to one alternative being favored by most members and the others members agree to support it.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



147. __________ is the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



148. In __________, group members actively generate as many ideas and alternatives as possible, and they do so relatively quickly and without inhibitions.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



149. When President Kennedy chose to absent himself from strategy discussions by his Cabinet during the Cuban Missile Crisis, he avoided the tendency for his Cabinet members to figure out what he wanted and give it to him, thereby avoiding __________.

Answer:

Difficulty: Hard



150. The __________ is a group decision-making approach that involves structured rules for generating and prioritizing ideas.”

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



151. __________ involves generating decision-making alternatives in groups through a series of survey questionnaires.

Answer:

Difficulty: Easy



Question Type: Essay

152. Describe the characteristics that enable a high-performance team to excel at teamwork.

Difficulty: Hard



153. Discuss the following approaches to team building: the formal retreat approach, the continuous improvement approach, and the outdoor experience approach.

Difficulty: Medium



154. Describe the differences between role ambiguity, role overload, role underload, and role conflict.

Difficulty: Medium


155. What are norms? What is cohesiveness? How are norms and cohesiveness related?

Difficulty: Medium


156. What is groupthink? Why can groupthink be detrimental to effective group functioning?

Difficulty: Medium



File: ch9, Chapter 9: Decision-Making and Creativity

True/False

1. Decision-Making is the process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity.

Ans:

Page: 196

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.

Section Reference: Steps in Decision Making

2. Rational Decision-Making is a five-step process that starts with recognition and definition of the problem or opportunity, and ends with evaluation of results and any needed follow-up.

Ans:

Page: 196

Level: Easy



3. Decision-Making choices usually have a moral dimension that might be overlooked.

Ans:

Page: 197

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

4. Teams may suffer from lack of participation error in the stage of decision-making where alternative courses of action are identified and analyzed.

Ans:

Page: 197

Level: Easy



5. A moral dilemma is defined as a situation in which a decision-maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives.

Ans:

Page: 198

Level: Easy



6. Consideration of the moral problem might change decisions, but seldom would change how the decision is implemented.

Ans:

Page: 198

Level: Medium



7. The justice criteria asks if the decision satisfies all constituents or stakeholders.

Ans:

Page: 199

Level: Medium



8. The utility question asks if the decision respects the rights and duties of everyone.

Ans:

Page: 199

Level: Medium



9. Programmed decisionsare made as standardized responses to recurringsituations and routine problems.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Types of Decisions

10. Programmed decisions implement solutions that have already been determined by past experience as appropriate for the problem at hand.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy



11. Examples of programmed decisions include reordering inventory automatically when stock falls below a predetermined level and issuing a written reprimand to someone who violates a specific work rule.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Medium



12. Nonprogrammed decisions address routine problems that arise on a regular basis and for which standard solutions have been derived.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Medium



13. Nonprogrammed decisions are created to deal uniquely with a problem at hand.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy



14. An example of a nonprogrammed decision is when a senior marketing manager who has to respond to the introduction of a new product by a foreign competitor.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy



15. The most extreme type of programmed decision is the crisis decision.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Medium



16. Acts of terrorism and workplace violence are examples of crisis decisions.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Difficult



17. When a crisis occurs, managers should disregard skeptics as these people foster disagreement and lack of commitment.

Ans:Page: 200Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.Section Reference: Types of Decisions

18. Unfortunately, formal crisis management programs are decreasing in popularity in organizations.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy



19. Decisions in organizations are typically made under three different conditions or environments: certainty, jeopardy, and skepticism.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Decision Environments

20. Certain environments exist when information is sufficient to predict the results of each alternative in advance of implementation.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Easy



21. Certainty is a less than ideal condition for managerial problem solving and Decision-Making.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Easy



22. Certainty is the norm in decision situations.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Medium



23. Risk environments exist when decision makers lack complete certainty regarding the outcomes of various courses of action, but they are aware of the probabilities associated with their occurrence.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Easy



24. When dealing with risk environments, probabilities are assigned through objective statistical procedures rather than intuition.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Medium



25. Uncertain environments exist when managers have so little information that they cannot even assign probabilities to various alternatives and their possible outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 202

Level: Easy



26. Of the three decision-making environments (certainty, risk, and uncertainty), risk environments are the most difficult for decision makers.

Ans:

Page: 202

Level: Medium



27. Responses to uncertain environments seldom involve intuition, educated guesses, or hunches.

Ans:

Page: 202

Level: Medium



28. Risk management focuses on anticipating risk in situations and factoring risk alternatives into the decision-making process.

Ans:

Page: 202

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

29. Threats to a brand or the firm’s reputation are referred to as reputation risks.

Ans:Page: 202Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

30. In the classical decision model, the problem is not clearly defined, knowledge of possible action alternatives and their consequences is limited, and the manager chooses a satisfactory solution to the problem.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models.

Section Reference: Classical Decision Model

31. In the behavioral decision model, the manager faces a clearly defined problem, knows all possible action alternatives and their consequences, and then chooses the alternative that offers the optimum solution to the problem.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Behavioral Decision Model

32. Classical decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Easy



33. Behavioral decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium



34. The behavioral decision model allows for an optimizing decision that gives the absolute best solution to the problem.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium



35. Classical decision theory appears to fit very well in today’s chaotic world of globalizing high-tech organizations.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium



36. Behavioral decision theory models accept the notion of bounded rationality and suggest that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Easy



37. Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have cognitive limitations that restrict their information-processing capabilities.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Medium



38. Bounded rationality refers to the idea that, while individuals reason well and are logical, they have their limits with respect to interpreting and making sense of things within the context of their personal situations.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Easy



39. The behavioral decision maker is viewed as acting most often under uncertain conditions and with limited information.

Ans:

Page: 203

Level: Easy



40. Bounded rationality is choosing the first alternative that appears to give an acceptable or satisfactory resolution of the problem.

Ans:

Page: 203-204

Level: Difficult



41. A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is intuition.

Ans:

Page: 204

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

42. Intuition adds elements of flexibility and spontaneity to Decision-Making, thereby offering potential for creativity and innovation.

Ans:

Page: 204

Level: Easy



43. Jeff Bezos of Amazon.com believes there is a place for both systematic and intuitive decision-making in management.

Ans:

Page: 204

Level: Medium



44. Teams engaged in systematic thinking would be expected to make a plan before taking action.

Ans:

Page: 204

Level: Easy



45. Judgment, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.

Section Reference: Judgmental Heuristics

46. Heuristics are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Easy



47. The availability heuristic involves assessing a current event based on past occurrences that are easily available in one’s memory.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Easy



48. The representativeness heuristic bases a decision on similarities between the situation at hand and stereotypes of similar occurrences.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Medium



49. An example of the application of the anchoring and adjustment heuristic is the team leader who selects a new member not because of any special qualities of the person, but only because the individual comes from a department known to have produced high performers in the past.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Difficult



50. In managing the decision-making process, one of the first issues to address is whether to actually address the decision situation.

Ans:

Page: 206

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Knowing When to Decide

51. Research shows that to prevent future errors, small problems should get the same time and attention as bigger ones.

Ans:

Page: 206

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Knowing When to Decide

52. A mistake commonly made by many new managers and team leaders is presuming that they must solve every problem by making every decision themselves.

Ans:

Page: 207

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve

53. Creativity is more likely to occur when a person has a lot of task expertise.

Ans:

Page: 212

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making.

Section Reference: Personal Creativity Drivers

54. Switching members among teams to gain insights from diverse backgrounds and experiences is known as associative play.

Ans:

Page: 213

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Team Creativity Drivers

Multiple Choice

55. The process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity is __________.

a) selection makingb) decision shaping

c) decision-makingd) judgment resolutione) judgment generation

Ans:Page: 196

Level: Easy



56. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic steps involved in the rational decision model?

a) recognize and define the problem or opportunity.b) identify and analyze alternative courses of action, and estimate their effects on the

problem or opportunity.c) choose a preferred course of action.d) inform relevant stakeholders of the decision and its consequences.e) implement the preferred course of action.

Ans:Page: 196

Level: Easy



57. The first step in the rational decision model is _______________.a) choosing a preferred course of actionb) recognizing and defining the problem or opportunityc) identifying the alternative courses of actiond) evaluating the resultse) implementing the preferred course of action

Ans:Page: 196-197

Level: Medium



58. The lack-of-participation error occurs in which phase of the rational decision model? a) evaluating resultsb) identifying alternativesc) implementing preferred course of actiond) choosing a preferred course of actione) recognizing the problem

Ans:Page: 197

Level: Medium



59. When a decision maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives, it is referred to as a __________________.

a) criteria questionb) moral dilemmac) justice decisiond) moral probleme) rational decision

Ans:Page: 198

Level: Medium



60. Which of the following is NOT one of Cavanagh’s criteria questions for assessing ethics in decision-making?

a) Does the decision satisfy all constituents or stakeholders?b) Does the decision respect the rights of everyone?c) Is the decision consistent with the canons of justice?d) Does the decision make sense?e) Is the decision consistent with my responsibility to care?

Ans:Page: 199

Level: Medium



61. Which of the following is Cavanagh’s utility question for assessing ethics in Decision-Making?

a) Does the decision satisfy all constituents or stakeholders?b) Does the decision respect the rights and duties of everyone?c) Is the decision consistent with the canons of justice?d) Is the decision consistent with my responsibilities to care?e) None of the above.

Ans:

Page: 199

Level: Medium



62. A decision is exposed to public scrutiny and forces decision-makers to consider it in the context of full transparency with the use of __________.

a) rational decision-makingb) spotlight questionsc) satisficingd) moral dilemmase) criteria questions

Ans:Page: 199

Level: Medium



63. Which of the following is considered to be a spotlight question as mentioned in the text?a) What might my friend do if he was in a similar situation as me?b) How would I feel if my family found out about this decision?c) If I make this decision, will I be able to sleep at night?d) Would most other people in society make the same decision as I would?e) None of the above.

Ans:Page: 199Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

64. __________ are routine problems that arise on a regular basis and which can be addressed through standard responses.

a) Arbitrary decisionsb) Nonprogrammed decisionsc) Fixed decisionsd) Programmed decisionse) Standardized decisions

Ans:Page: 200

Level: Easy



65. Examples of __________ decisions include reordering inventory automatically when stock falls below a predetermined level and issuing a written reprimand to someone who violates a specific work procedure.

a) uniform b) standardized c) programmed d) fixed e) nonprogrammed

Ans:Page: 200

Level: Medium



66. __________ decisions are specifically crafted or tailored to the situation at hand.a) Ad hoc b) Discretionary c) Nonprogrammed d) Arbitrary

e) Elective

Ans:Page: 200

Level: Easy



67. Acts of terrorism and IT failures are examples of which type of decision? a) rational decisionsb) ethical decisionsc) non-programmed decisionsd) programmed decisionse) crisis decisions

Ans:Page: 200

Level: Medium



68. Problem-solving decisions in organizations are typically made under three different conditions or environments. These are __________.

a) confidence, chance, and doubtb) certainty, risk, and uncertaintyc) conviction, hazard, and concernd) certainty, jeopardy, and skepticisme) confidence, hazard, and doubt

Ans:Page: 201

Level: Medium



69. __________ is an ideal condition for managerial problem solving and Decision-Making.a) Certaintyb) Riskc) Uncertaintyd) Turbulencee) Chaos

Ans:Page: 201

Level: Easy



70. __________ environments exist when decision makers lack complete certainty regarding the outcomes of various courses of action, but they are aware of the probabilities associated with their occurrence.

a) Jeopardy b) Hazard c) Risk d) Assured e) Uncertain

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Easy



71. When dealing with risk environments, managers may assign __________ through objective statistical procedures or through personal intuition.

a) potentialitiesb) expectationsc) prospectsd) probabilitiese) feasibilities

Ans:Page: 201

Level: Difficult



72. __________ environments exist when managers have so little information that they cannot even assign probabilities to various alternatives and their possible outcomes.

a) Uncertain b) Risk c) Unpredictable d) Jeopardy e) Hazard

Ans:Page: 201

Level: Easy



73. The most difficult environment for decision makers to cope with is the __________ environment.

a) risk b) certain c) expectant d) uncertain e) statutory

Ans:Page: 202

Level: Easy



74. All of the following statements about uncertain environments are correct EXCEPT:a) uncertain environments provide little, if any, information to predict expected results

for decision-making alternatives.b) behavioral responses to uncertain environments seldom involve intuition, educated

guesses, or hunches.c) uncertain environments require unique, novel, and often totally innovative

alternatives to existing patterns of behavior.d) an uncertain decision environment may be characterized as a rapidly changing

organizational setting in terms of external conditions.e) an uncertain decision environment may be characterized as a rapidly changing

organizational setting in terms of the personnel who influence problem and choice definitions.

Ans:Page: 202

Level: Difficult



75. KPMG’s practice that focuses on helping executives identify threats to their firm and manage them is known as __________.

a) operational risk

b) enterprise risk managementc) strategic managementd) uncertainty avoidance managemente) reputation risk management

Ans:Page: 202

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

76. Threats to overall business success are called __________ risks.a) strategicb) operationalc) financiald) reputatione) functional

Ans:Page: 202Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.Section Reference: Risk Management in Decision Making

77. The __________ model views decision makers as acting in a world of complete certainty.a) behavioral decisionb) true decisionc) cognitive decisiond) classical decisione) aesthetic decision

Ans:Page: 203

Level: Easy



78. __________ accepts the notion of bounded rationality and assumes that decision makers act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

a) Behavioral decision theoryb) Perceptive decision theoryc) Cognitive decision theoryd) Classical decision theorye) Visual decision theory

Ans:Page: 203

Level: Easy



79. Behavioral scientists are cautious about applying classical decision theory to many decision situations because they recognize that human beings have __________ that restrict their information-processing capabilities.

a) sociological limitationsb) cognitive limitationsc) subjective limitationsd) emotional limitationse) psychological limitations

Ans:Page: 203

Level: Medium



80. The __________ model accepts the notion of bounded rationality and suggests that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.

a) behavioral decision theoryb) rational decision theoryc) rigid decision theoryd) scientific decision theorye) potential investment decision theory

Ans:Page: 203

Level: Medium



81. __________ is consistent with the rational model where a decision is approached in a step-by-step and analytical fashion.

a) Scientific thinkingb) Strategic thinkingc) Systematic thinkingd) Irrational thinkinge) Satisficing

Ans:Page: 204Level: MediumLearning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models.Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

82. A key element in Decision-Making under risk and uncertainty is __________.a) discernmentb) unrestrained rationalityc) recognitiond) intuitione) assimilation

Ans:Page: 204

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models.Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

83. Which of the following statements pertaining to intuition is incorrect?a) A key element in Decision-Making under certainty is intuition.b) Intuition is the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a

given situation.c) Intuition adds elements of flexibility to Decision-Making.d) Intuition adds elements of spontaneity to Decision-Making.e) Intuition offers potential for creativity and innovation.

Ans:Page: 204

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 2: Outline the alternative decision-making models including the classical, behavioral, and intuitive decision models.Section Reference: Systematic and Intuitive Thinking

84. __________, or the use of one’s intellect, is important in all aspects of Decision-Making.a) Intuitionb) Attitudinal formationc) Judgmentd) Perceiving

e) Sensing

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Easy



85. __________ are simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” used to make decisions.a) Hindsightsb) Disciplinesc) Regulationsd) Codese) Heuristics

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Easy



86. __________ can lead to systematic errors that affect the quality, and perhaps ethical implications, of any decision that is made.

a) Disciplinesb) Regulationsc) Heuristicsd) Rulese) Codes

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Easy



87. An example of the __________ is a product development specialist who bases a decision to not launch a new product on her recent failure with another product offering.

a) representativeness heuristicb) accessibility heuristicc) hindsight heuristicd) utility heuristice) availability heuristic

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Difficult



88. An example of the application of the __________ is the team leader who selects a new member not because of any special qualities of the person, but only because the individual comes from a department known to have produced high performers in the past.

a) productiveness heuristicb) accessibility heuristicc) anchoring and adjustment heuristicd) representativeness heuristice) suitability heuristic

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Difficult



89. An example of the application of the __________ is the executive who makes salary increase recommendations for key personnel by simply adjusting their current base salaries by a percentage amount.

a) representativeness heuristicb) anchoring and adjustment heuristicc) equivalence heuristicd) incremental change heuristice) availability heuristic

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Difficult



90. A form of selective perception, the __________ involves seeking only those cues in a situation that support a preexisting opinion.

a) documentation trapb) confirmation errorc) validation pitfalld) authentication trape) affirmation pitfall

Ans:

Page: 206

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Decision Biases

91. Individual decisions are also called __________ decisions.a) authorityb) consultativec) solitaryd) valide) hindsight

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Easy



92. The central premise of the decision-making model developed by Vroom, Yetton, and Jago is that __________.

a) decisions should be made in the most cost-efficient manner possibleb) group Decision-Making is superior to authority or consultative Decision-Makingc) authority decisions are superior to consultative decisionsd) consultative decisions are superior to authority decisionse) the decision-making method used should always be appropriate to the problem being

solved

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Medium



93. The key problem attributes of the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) the required quality of the decision.b) the commitment needed from subordinates.c) the leader’s commitment to participation.d) commitment probability.e) goal congruence.

Ans:

Page: 209

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.Section Reference: Knowing Who to Involve

94. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ are made when the manager or team leader uses information that he or she possesses and decides what to do without involving others.

a) groupthink decisionsb) authority decisionsc) consultative decisionsd) group decisionse) minority decisions

Ans:

Page: 209

Level: Easy


95. A decision maker tells subordinates that lunch schedule is needed and asks them when they would like to schedule their lunch and why before making a decision. This is an example of a ________________ decision.

a) groupthink b) authority c) consultatived) strategic e) minority

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Medium


96. A decision maker holds a meeting to get everyone’s agreement on a system for deciding how to make a lunch schedule. This is an example of a(n) _________ decision method.

a) groupthink b) authority c) consultatived) team e) minority

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Medium



97. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ involves the manager solving the problem or making the decision alone, using information available at the time.

a) variant 1 of authority decisionsb) variant 2 of authority decisionsc) variant 1 of consultative decisionsd) variant 2 of consultative decisionse) variant 3 of authority decisions

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Difficult


98. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ involves the manager obtaining the necessary information from subordinate(s) or other group members and then deciding on the problem solution


Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Difficult


99. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ involves the manager sharing the problem with relevant subordinates or other group members individually, getting their ideas and suggestions without bringing them together as a group, and. then making a decision that may or may not reflect the subordinates’ input.


Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Difficult


100. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ involves the manager sharing the problem with subordinates or other group members, collectively obtaining their ideas and suggestions, and then making a decision that may or may not reflect the subordinates’ input.


Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Difficult



101. What Decision-Making concept is reflected in the popular adage, “If at first you don’t succeed, try, try again?”

a) Intuitionb) Escalating commitmentc) Bounded rationalityd) Non-programmed Decision-Makinge) Satisficing

Ans:

Page: 210

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.Section Reference: Knowing When to Quit

102. __________ is a form of decision entrapment that leads people to do things that the facts of a situation do not justify.

a) Intuitionb) Nonprogrammed Decision-Makingc) Satisficingd) Bounded rationalitye) Escalating commitment

Ans:

Page: 211

Level: Moderate


103. All of the following statements relating to escalating commitment are correct EXCEPT:a) the tendency to escalate commitments often outweighs the willingness to disengage

from them.b) decision makers may rationalize negative feedback resulting from an escalated

commitment as a temporary condition.c) an escalated commitment may result in a decision maker protecting his or her ego by

not admitting that the original decision was a mistake.d) once it is determined that a chosen course of action is “not working,” decision makers

will re-group and select a different course of action.e) decision makers may characterize any negative results from an escalated commitment

as a “learning experience” can be overcome with added future effort.

Ans:

Page: 211

Level: Easy


104. All of the following are ways to avoid getting trapped in escalating commitments EXCEPT:

a) setting limits in advance on your involvement and commitment to a particular course of action.

b) making your own decisions.c) carefully determining just why you are continuing a course of action.d) reminding yourself of the costs of a course of action.e) All of the above are ways to avoid getting trapped in escalating commitments.

Ans:Page: 211Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Identify the key decision-making traps and issues.Section Reference: Knowing When to Quit

105. All of the following approaches can be used to increase creativity EXCEPT:a) establishing high expectations for creativity.b) using associative play.c) switching members among teams.d) using analogies.e) using metaphors to describe a problem.

Ans:Page: 213Level: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making.


Fill in the blank

106. __________ is the process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity.

Ans:Page: 196

Level: Easy



107. The 5-step process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem is referred to as ________.

Ans: Page: 196

Level: Easy



108. A(n) ________ exists when the decision-maker faces two or more ethically uncomfortable alternatives.

Ans:

Page: 198

Level: Easy



109. __________ is the philosophical study of morality.

Ans:Page: 198Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.Section Reference: Ethical Reasoning and Decision Making

110. __________ decisions simply implement solutions that have already been determined by past experience as appropriate for the problem at hand.

Ans: Page: 200

Level: Easy



111. A(n) __________ occurs when an unexpected problem can lead to disaster if not resolved quickly and appropriately.

Ans:

Page: 200

Level: Easy



112. __________ environments exist when information is sufficient to predict the results of each alternative in advance of implementation.

Ans:

Page: 201

Level: Easy



113. A(n) __________ is the degree of likelihood of an event’s occurrence.

Ans: Page: 201

Level: Easy



114. __________ is a short-hand term suggesting that, while humans are capable of exercising reason and logic, they have their limits.

Ans:Page: 203

Level: Medium



115. __________ is choosing the first alternative that appears to give an acceptable or satisfactory resolution of the problem.

Ans:Page: 204

Level: Easy



116. __________ is the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a given situation.

Ans:Page: 204

Level: Easy



117. Many managers use simplifying strategies or “rules of thumb” as a means of making it easier to deal with uncertainty and limited information in problem situations. These simplifying strategies are called __________.

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Easy



118. The __________ involves assessing a current event based on past occurrences that are easily available in one’s memory.

Ans:Page: 205

Level: Difficult



119. The __________ bases a decision on similarities between the situation at hand and one’s stereotypes of similar occurrences.

Ans: Page: 205

Level: Easy



120. The __________ involves assessing an event by taking an initial value from historical precedent or an outside source, and then incrementally adjusting this value to make a current assessment.

Ans:

Page: 205

Level: Medium



121. The __________ is the tendency to seek confirmation for what is already thought to be true and to neglect opportunities to acknowledge or find disconfirming information.

Ans:

Page: 206

Level: Easy



122. The __________ is a tendency for the decision maker to overestimate the degree to which he or she could have predicted an event that has already taken place.

Ans:

Page: 206

Level: Easy



123. __________ developed a framework for helping managers choose the Decision-Making methods most appropriate for various problem situations to insure both better choices and implementation.

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Easy


124. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ decisions are made when the manager or team leader solicits input from other people and then, based on this information and its interpretation, makes a final choice.

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Easy


125. In the Vroom, Yetton, and Jago decision-making model, __________ decisions are made by both consulting with others and allowing them to help make the final choice.

Ans:

Page: 208

Level: Easy


126. The generation of a novel idea or unique approach to solving performance problems or exploiting performance opportunities is known as __________.

Ans:

Page: 211

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Stages of Creative Thinking

127. Switching members among teams to gain insights from diverse experiences when working on problems is referred to as ___________.

Ans:

Page: 213

Level: Medium



Essay

128. Define Decision-Making. What are the five basic steps involved in the rational decision model?

Page: 196-197Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.


129. Describe the difference between programmed and Nonprogrammed decisions. Provide an example of each type of decision.

Page: 200Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe what is involved in the decision-making process.


130. Explain the basic differences between the classical decision model and the behavioral decision model.

Page: 203

Level: Medium




131. Describe the concept of escalating commitment. Explain why escalating commitment can occur.

Page: 210-211

Level: Medium


132. Define creativity and identify the individual and the team creativity drivers.

Page: 211-212Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss what can be done to stimulate creativity in decision making.Section Reference: Personal Creativity Drivers


File: ch10, Chapter 10: Conflict and Negotiation

True/False

1. Conflict occurs whenever disagreements exist in a social situation over issues of substance, or whenever emotional antagonisms create frictions between individuals or groups.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Discuss the types and levels of both functional and dysfunctional conflict, as well as culture and conflict in organizations.

Section Reference: Conflict in Organizations

2. In today’s environment, research shows that managers and team leaders spend relatively little time dealing with conflicts.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



3. Substantive conflict involves a fundamental disagreement over ends or goals to be pursued and the means for their accomplishment.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Types of Conflict

4. A dispute with one’s boss over a plan of action to be followed, such as a marketing strategy for a new product, is an example of emotional conflict.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



5. Substantive conflict is commonly known as a clash of personalities.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



6. When emotional conflicts creep into work situations, they can be conducive to teamwork because they get people to talk about their feelings.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



7. Intrapersonal conflict occurs within the individual because of actual or perceived pressures from incompatible goals or expectations.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Level of Conflict

8. Approach-approach conflict, avoidance-avoidance conflict, and approach-avoidance conflict are different types of interpersonal conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



9. Choosing between a valued promotion in the organization or a desirable new job with another firm is an example of approach-approach conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



10. Avoidance-avoidance conflict occurs when a person must choose between two negative, equally unattractive alternatives.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Easy



11. An example of approach-avoidance conflict is being asked to accept a job transfer to another town in an undesirable location or to have one’s employment with an organization terminated.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



12. Being offered a higher paying job whose responsibilities entail unwanted demands on one’s personal time is an example of approach-avoidance conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Easy



13. Interpersonal conflict occurs between two or more individuals in opposition to each other, and may be either substantive or emotional or both.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Easy



14. Two persons debating each other aggressively on the merits of two different proposed advertising campaigns is an example of emotional interpersonal conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



15. Two persons continually in disagreement over each other’s choice of work attire is an example of an emotional interpersonal conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



16. Intergroup conflict occurs among different teams or groups in an organization.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Easy



17. Conflict between functional departments such as marketing and manufacturing is a common example of intragroup conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



18. The use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize intergroup conflict.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



19. The classical example of interorganizational conflict is conflict among functional groups or departments, such as marketing and manufacturing, in organizations.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



20. An example of interorganizational conflict is the disagreements between unions and the organizations employing the union members.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



21. Conflict in organizations can be upsetting both to the individual directly involved and to others affected by its occurrence.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Functional and Dysfunctional Conflict

22. Functional conflict results in positive benefits to individuals, the group, or the organization.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



23. Unfortunately, functional conflict cannot bring important problems to the surface and as such they cannot be addressed constructively.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Medium



24. Functional conflict can cause decisions to be considered carefully and to be perhaps reconsidered to ensure that the right course of action is being followed.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



25. Functional conflict can offer opportunities for creativity that can improve individual, team, or organizational performance.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



26. Functional conflict is also referred to as constructive conflict.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



27. Dysfunctional conflict works to the individual’s, group’s, or organization’s disadvantage often diverting energies and hurting group cohesion.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



28. Daniel and Carol are unable to work together because of their interpersonal differences. This exemplifies a destructive substantive conflict.

Ans:

Page: 223

Level: Medium



29. Attitudes toward time is a cultural difference that can have a substantial impact on conflict.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Culture and Conflict

30. Individuals who are not able to recognize and respect the impact of culture on behavior may contribute to the emergence of functional conflict.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult



31. Conflict resolution occurs when the reasons for a dysfunctional conflict are eliminated.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Explain the stages and causes of conflict and how conflict can be managed.

Section Reference: Conflict Management

32. The conflict resolution process begins with a good understanding of its causes and recognition of the stage to which it has developed.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy



33. Conflict antecedents establish the conditions from which conflicts are likely to develop.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Stages of Conflict

34. When the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of felt conflict exists.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult



35. In the context of the stages of conflict, when the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of perceived conflict exists.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium



36. Perceived conflict is experienced as tension that motivates the person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium



37. Conflict that is experienced as tension and motivates a person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort is called felt conflict.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy



38. When conflict is expressed openly in behavior, it is said to be manifest conflict.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy



39. Manifest conflict may be resolved by removing or correcting its antecedents.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium



40. Suppression is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution.

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Easy



41. Horizontal conflict occurs between hierarchical levels. It commonly involves supervisor-subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results.

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Hierarchical Causes of Conflict

42. Vertical conflict occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level. It commonly involves goal incompatibilities, resource scarcities, or purely interpersonal factors.

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



43. Role ambiguity conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations proves unclear or upsetting.

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Easy



44. Disputes and open disagreements may erupt among units and people when workflow independence is high.

Ans:

Page: 226

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Contextual Causes of Conflict

45. Disputes and open disagreements may erupt among units and people when workflow interdependence is high.

Ans:

Page: 226

Level: Easy



46. Resource scarcity is a likely cause of conflict in organizations that are experiencing downsizing or financial difficulties.

Ans:

Page: 226

Level: Medium



47. Conflict can be created by the power or value asymmetries that exist when interdependent people or groups differ substantially from one another in status and influence or in values.

Ans:

Page: 226

Level: Medium



48. People working in roles such as project liaison can serve as linking pins to reduce interdependence between groups, such as engineering and sales, which are prone to conflict.

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Indirect Conflict Management Strategies

49. An appeal to common goals can focus the attention of potentially conflicting parties on one mutually desirable conclusion.

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Medium



50. In some situations, conflict is superficially managed by scripts, which are behavioral routines that become part of the organization’s culture.

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Easy



51. If conflict is severe and recurring, the continual use of hierarchical referral may not result in true conflict resolution.

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Medium



52. An example of the indirect conflict management approach of using scripts is a monthly meeting of department heads which is held presumably for purposes of coordination and problem solving but actually becomes a polite forum for superficial agreement.

Ans:

Page: 227-228

Level: Medium



53. Managed interdependence, appeals to common goals, upward referral, and altering scripts and myths are examples of direct conflict management strategies.

Ans:

Page: 226-228

Level: Medium



54. Avoidance involves pretending a conflict does not really exist.

Ans:

Page: 228

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Direct Conflict Management Strategies

55. Lose-lose strategies may result from outright competition or authoritative command where the solution is dictated by an authority figure.

Ans:

Page: 228

Level: Medium



56. Accommodation is a conflict management strategy may be used when an issue is trivial.

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



57. Three criteria for effective negotiation are quality, harmony, and efficiency.

Ans:

Page: 231

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Explain the nature of negotiation in organizations.

Section Reference: Negotiation Goals and Outcomes

58. An example of constituency negotiation occurs when representatives of management and labor negotiate a collective bargaining agreement.

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Organizational Settings for Negotiation

59. The hard approach to distributive negotiation may lead to a win-lose outcome.

Ans:

Page: 233

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Identify alternative strategies for negotiation, common negotiation pitfalls, and third-party roles in negotiation.

Section Reference: Approaches to Distributive Negotiation

60. When negotiating for a pay raise, it is important to do research and find out what others make for a similar position inside and outside the organization.

Ans:

Page: 234

Level: Easy



61. The myth of the fixed pie occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down.

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Common Negotiation Pitfalls

62. In arbitration, the neutral third party has the power to issue a binding decision.

Ans:

Page: 236

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Third Party Roles in Negotiation

Multiple Choice

63. Which of the following statements about conflict is incorrect?a) Managers and team leaders can spend considerable time dealing with conflicts.b) The manager or team leader may act as a mediator to resolve conflicts between other

people.c) Managers and team leaders should always push conflict to the highest level.d) Managers and team leaders should be able to recognize situations that have the

potential for conflict.e) Managers and team leaders should be able to deal with conflict situations in ways that

will best serve the needs of both the organization and the people involved.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



64. Conflict as it is experienced in the daily workplace involves at least two basic forms. These are __________.

a) rational conflict and irrational conflictb) sanctioned conflict and ad-hoc conflictc) substantive conflict and emotional conflictd) bureaucratic conflict and personal conflicte) institutional conflict and rational conflict

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



65. __________ involves interpersonal difficulties that arise over feelings of anger, mistrust, dislike, fear, resentment, and the like.

a) Substantive conflictb) Emotional conflictc) Indigenous conflictd) Rational conflicte) Impulsive conflict

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



66. Samantha stated that she does not like her coworker, Mary. Samantha said, “Mary always rubs me the wrong way.” Samantha is experiencing __________ conflict with Mary.

a) substantive b) emotional c) indigenous d) rational e) impulsive

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Difficult



67. Choosing between a valued promotion in the organization or a desirable new job with another firm is an example of __________ conflict.

a) retreat-advance b) avoidance-avoidance c) advance-retreat d) avoidance-approach e) approach-approach

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



68. An example of __________ conflict is being asked to accept a job transfer to another town in an undesirable location or to have one’s employment with an organization terminated.

a) avoidance-avoidance b) approach-approach c) retreat-retreat d) avoidance-approach e) approach-avoidance

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



69. Being offered a higher paying job whose responsibilities entail unwanted demands on one’s personal time is an example of __________.

a) avoidance-avoidance conflict

b) approach-approach conflictc) approach-avoidance conflictd) retreat-retreat conflicte) avoidance-approach conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



70. Two persons debating each other aggressively on the merits of two different proposed advertising campaigns is an example of __________.

a) substantive intrapersonal conflictb) substantive group conflictc) emotional interpersonal conflictd) substantive interpersonal conflicte) emotional intrapersonal conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



71. Two persons continually in disagreement over each other’s work attire is an example of __________.

a) substantive intrapersonal conflictb) substantive group conflictc) emotional interpersonal conflictd) substantive interpersonal conflicte) emotional intrapersonal conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



72. Conflict between functional departments such as marketing and manufacturing is a common example of __________.

a) interpersonal conflictb) intergroup conflictc) intragroup conflictd) interorganizational conflicte) extra-organizational conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



73. Use of cross-functional teams and task forces is one way of trying to minimize __________ and promote more creative and efficient operations.

a) interpersonal conflictb) intragroup conflictc) intergroup conflictd) interorganizational conflicte) extra-organizational conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



74. __________ most commonly occurs in the context of the competition and rivalry that characterize firms operating the same markets.

a) Shared organizational conflictb) Intraorganizational conflictc) Cross-organizational conflictd) Interorganizational conflicte) Extra-organizational conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



75. All of the following are examples of interorganizational conflict EXCEPT:a) disagreements between unions and the organizations employing the union members.b) disagreements between government regulatory agencies and the organizations subject

to their surveillance. c) the battle between U.S. businesses and their global rivals.d) disagreements with members of another work team.e) disagreements between organizations and those who supply them with raw materials.

Ans:

Page: 221-222

Level: Difficult



76. Continuing battles between U.S. businesses and their global rivals such as Ford versus Hyundai and AT&T versus Verizon are examples of which of the following?

a) Interorganizational conflictb) Intergroup conflictc) Intrapersonal conflictd) Interpersonal conflicte) Substantive conflict

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



77. All of the following are considered levels of conflict EXCEPT:a) emotional conflict.b) interorganizational conflict.c) intergroup conflict.d) intrapersonal conflict.e) interpersonal conflict.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Easy



78. Which of the following is not considered a benefit of functional conflict?a) Functional conflict can bring important problems to the surface so they can be

addressed.b) Functional conflict can cause decisions to be considered carefully.c) Functional conflict can cause decisions to be reconsidered to ensure that the right

course of action is being followed.d) Functional conflict can decrease the amount of information used for decision making.e) Functional conflict can offer opportunities for creativity that can improve individual,

team, or organizational performance.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Difficult



79. The type of conflict that diverts energies, hurts group cohesion, promotes interpersonal hostilities, and overall creates a negative environment for workers is called __________.

a) inappropriate conflictb) inconsistent conflictc) functional conflictd) dysfunctional conflicte) contradictory conflict

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Medium



80. Individuals who are not able to recognize and respect cultural differences may contribute to the emergence of __________.

a) constructive conflictb) functional conflictc) dysfunctional conflictd) appropriate conflicte) useful conflict

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium



81. The __________ process begins with a good understanding of the causes of conflict and recognition of the stage to which conflict has developed.

a) conflict fortitudeb) conflict reconciliationc) conflict resolutiond) conflict judgmente) conflict determination

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Medium



82. __________ establish the conditions from which conflicts are likely to develop.a) Conflict antecedentsb) Perceived conflicts

c) Manifest conflictsd) Felt conflictse) Distinct conflicts

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy



83. In the context of the stages of conflict, when the antecedent conditions become the basis for substantive or emotional differences between people or groups, the stage of __________ exists.

a) felt conflictb) distinct conflictc) manifest conflictd) perceived conflicte) apparent conflict

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult



84. Conflict that is experienced as tension and motivates a person to take action to reduce feelings of discomfort is called __________.

a) perceived conflictb) felt conflictc) distinct conflictd) manifest conflicte) apparent conflict

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult



85. When conflict is expressed openly in behavior, it is considered ____________.a) felt conflictb) perceived conflictc) apparent conflictd) distinct conflicte) manifest conflict

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Difficult



86. __________ is a superficial and often temporary form of conflict resolution that leaves the situation open to future conflict over similar issues.

a) Leniencyb) Suppressionc) Neglectd) Avoidancee) Tolerance

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



87. __________ commonly involves supervisor-subordinate disagreements over resources, goals, deadlines, or performance results.

a) Line-staff conflictb) Upright conflictc) Bureaucratic conflictd) Horizontal conflicte) Vertical conflict

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



88. _________ occurs between persons or groups at the same hierarchical level.a) Horizontal conflictb) Role conflictc) Vertical conflictd) Line-staff conflicte) Bureaucratic conflict

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



89. __________ commonly involve goal incompatibilities, resource scarcities, or purely interpersonal factors.

a) Bureaucratic conflictsb) Cross-diagonal conflictsc) Horizontal conflictsd) Hierarchical conflictse) Vertical conflicts

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



90. __________ conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations is unclear or upsetting in some way, such as a team member receiving different expectations from the leader and other members.

a) Vertical b) Horizontalc) Line-staffd) Taske) Role ambiguity

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



91. Which of the following is (are) a common cause(s) of conflict in organizations?a) Unresolved prior conflictsb) Resource scarcitiesc) Role ambiguitiesd) Structural differentiatione) All of the above

Ans:

Page: 225-226

Level: Medium




92. When people are unclear about how their objectives or those of their teams fit with those being pursued by others, or when their objectives directly compete in a win-lose fashion, which of the following may be the cause of conflict?

a) Unresolved prior conflictsb) Resource scarcitiesc) Domain ambiguitiesd) Structural differentiatione) Task interdependencies

Ans:

Page: 226

Level: Medium



93. In a course team where members are arguing over content choices for a PowerPoint presentation, it might help to remind everyone that the goal is to impress the instructor and get an “A” for the presentation and that this is only possible if everyone contributes their best. This is an example of which indirect conflict management strategy?

a) Managed interdependenceb) Appeals to common goalsc) Upward referrald) Altering scripts and mythse) None of the above

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Difficult



94. The conflict management style of __________ involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.

a) avoidanceb) accommodationc) competitiond) compromisee) collaboration

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



95. Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

a) Avoidanceb) Competitionc) Accommodationd) Compromisee) Collaboration

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Difficult



96. Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?

a) Avoidanceb) Competitionc) Accommodationd) Compromisee) Collaboration

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Difficult



97. The conflict management style of __________ involves being uncooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by working against the wishes of the other party, engaging in win-lose competition, and/or forcing things to a favorable conclusion through the exercise of authority.


Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



98. The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.


Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



99. Len emphasizes cooperation and assertiveness in dealing with conflict situations in his department. Differences are worked through together so that everybody’s concerns are addressed and everyone gains something in the end. Len uses which conflict management style?

a) Competitionb) Avoidancec) Collaborationd) Accommodatione) Compromise

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Difficult



100. __________ may be used when issues are more important to others than to yourself or when you want to build “credits” for use in later disagreements.

a) Collaboration and problem solving

b) Avoidancec) Authoritative commandd) Accommodatione) Compromise

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Medium



101. Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?

a) Avoidanceb) Authoritative commandc) Accommodationd) Collaboratione) Unassertiveness

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



102. __________ occurs when a formal authority simply dictates a solution and specifies what is gained and what is lost by whom.

a) Competitionb) Avoidancec) Collaborationd) Authoritative commande) Compromise

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Medium



103. Two important goals must be considered in negotiation. These goals are __________.a) substantive goals and emotional goalsb) statutory goals and discretionary goalsc) interpersonal goals and intrapersonal goalsd) substance goals and relationship goalse) direct goals and indirect goals

Ans:

Page: 230-231

Level: Medium



104. __________ goals deal with outcomes that relate to the “content” issues under negotiation.

a) Relationship b) Substance c) Object d) Discretionary e) Material

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Easy



105. The dollar amount of a wage agreement in a collective bargaining situation is an example of a(n) __________ goal.

a) emotional b) discretionary c) relationship d) substance e) article

Ans:

Page: 230-231

Level: Difficult



106. __________ goals deal with outcomes that relate to how well people involved in the negotiation and any constituencies they may represent are able to work with one another once the process in concluded.

a) Process b) Substance c) Relationship d) Collaborative e) Statutory

Ans:

Page: 231

Level: Medium



107. An example of a(n) __________ goal is the ability of union members and management representatives to work together effectively after a contract dispute has been settled.

a) emotional b) discretionary c) relationship d) substance e) article

Ans:

Page: 231

Level: Medium



108. __________ negotiation occurs when substance issues are resolved and working relationships are maintained or even improved.

a) Effectiveb) Decisivec) Collaboratived) Conclusivee) Efficient

Ans:

Page: 231

Level: Medium



109. The manager negotiates directly with one other person in __________ negotiation.a) intergroup b) constituency c) two-party d) group e) intragroup

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium



110. In __________ negotiation, the manager is part of a group that is negotiating with another group to arrive at a decision regarding a problem or situation affecting both.

a) group b) two-party c) intragroup d) intergroup e) constituency

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium



111. In __________ negotiation, the manager is involved in negotiation with other persons, with each party representing a broader constituency.

a) intergroup b) constituency c) two-party d) group e) intragroup

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Easy



112. __________ negotiation focuses on positions staked out or declared by the parties involved who are each trying to claim certain portions of the available pie.

a) Integrative b) Distributive c) Good-faith d) Consolidating e) Process

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Negotiation Strategies

113. __________ negotiation focuses on the merits of the issues, and the parties involved try to enlarge the available pie rather than stake claims to certain portions of it.

a) Integrative b) Distributive c) Good-faith d) Consolidating e) Process

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium



114. __________ negotiation takes place when each party holds out to get its own way.a) Soft distributiveb) Hard distributivec) Direct distributived) Indirecte) Integrative

Ans:

Page: 233

Level: Medium



115. __________ distributive negotiation takes place when one party is willing to make concessions to the other to get things over with.

a) Indirectb) Hard distributivec) Direct distributived) Integrativee) Soft distributive

Ans:

Page: 233

Level: Medium



116. Gaining truly integrative agreements rests on which set of factors?a) Friendly interpersonal relationships, constructive task roles, and good informationb) Supportive attitudes, constructive behaviors, and good informationc) Supportive attitudes and valuesd) Constructive plans and cooperative behaviorse) Good information, ethical values, and effective maintenance roles

Ans:

Page: 234

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: How to Gain Integrative Agreements

117. All of the following are important behavioral foundations for gaining integrative agreements EXCEPT:

a) the ability to separate the people from the problem in order to prevent emotional considerations from affecting the negotiations.

b) the ability to focus on positions rather than interests.c) the ability to avoid making premature judgments.d) the ability to keep the acts of alternative creation separate from their evaluation.e) the ability to judge possible agreements on an objective set of criteria or standards.

Ans:

Page: 234

Level: Difficult



118. __________ is the tendency in negotiations to stake out your position based on the assumption that in order to gain your way, something must be subtracted from the other party’s way.

a) The myth of the fixed pieb) Escalating commitmentc) Overconfidenced) The telling probleme) The selling problem

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Medium



119. The negotiating pitfall of __________ occurs when people become committed to their demands and are reluctant to back down once the demands have been stated.

a) the myth of the fixed pieb) escalating commitmentc) overconfidenced) the telling probleme) the selling problem

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Medium



120. The negotiation pitfall of __________ occurs when negotiators believe that their positions are the only correct ones.

a) the myth of the fixed pieb) escalating commitmentc) overconfidenced) the telling probleme) the selling problem

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Medium



121. Negotiations can break down because of a(n) __________ problem, wherein the parties don’t really talk to one another, at least not in the sense of making themselves truly understood.

a) telling b) selling c) perceptual d) hearing e) cognitive

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Medium



122. In __________, a neutral third party tries to engage the parties in a negotiated solution through persuasion and rational argument.

a) arbitrationb) mediationc) accommodationd) compromisee) ADR

Ans:

Page: 236

Level: Medium



Fill in the blank

123. __________ involves a fundamental disagreement over ends or goals to be pursued and the means for their accomplishment.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Medium



124. Emotional conflict is commonly known as a(n) __________.

Ans:

Page: 220

Level: Easy



125. __________ occurs within the individual because of actual or perceived pressures from incompatible goals or expectations.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



126. Approach-approach conflict, avoidance-avoidance conflict, and approach-avoidance conflict are different types of __________.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



127. __________ occurs when a person must choose between two positive and equally attractive alternatives.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



128. __________ occurs when a person must choose between two negative and equally unattractive alternatives.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Medium



129. __________ conflict occurs when a person must decide to do something that has both positive and negative consequences.

Ans:

Page: 221

Level: Difficult



130. __________ conflict results in positive benefits to individuals, the group, or the organization.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



131. Functional conflict is also called __________.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



132. Dysfunctional conflict is also called __________.

Ans:

Page: 222

Level: Easy



133. __________ occurs when the underlying reasons for a destructive conflict are eliminated.

Ans:

Page: 224

Level: Easy



134. __________ conflict occurs between persons or groups working at the same hierarchical level.

Ans:

Page: 225

Level: Medium



135. Decoupling is a simple indirect conflict management strategy used to reduce __________.

Ans:

Page: 227

Level: Medium



136. __________ conflict occurs when no one gets what he/she wants, while the underlying reasons for conflict remain unaffected and a similar conflict is likely to occur in the future.

Ans:

Page: 228

Level: Easy



137. __________ is preferred to gain true conflict resolution when time and cost permit.

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Medium



138. __________ may be used when an issue is trivial, when more important issues are pressing, or when people need to cool down temporarily and regain perspective.

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Medium



139. __________ may be used to arrive at temporary settlements of complex issues or to arrive at expedient solutions when time is limited.

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Medium



140. When conflict management results in one party achieving its desires and the other party not achieving its desires, the conflict is considered to be a __________ conflict.

Ans:

Page: 229

Level: Easy



141. __________ is the process of making joint decisions when the parties involved have different preferences.

Ans:

Page: 230

Level: Easy



142. Principled negotiation is another name for __________.

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium



143. The __________ is the range between one party’s minimum reservation point and the other party’s maximum reservation point in a negotiating situation.

Ans:

Page: 233

Level: Medium



144. In the __________ approach to negotiation, participants would say: “Let’s find a way to make this work for both of us.”

Ans:

Page: 232

Level: Medium



145. When people state their demands and then become committed to them and are reluctant to back down, they are demonstrating the negotiation pitfall known as __________.

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Difficult



146. In __________, a neutral third party works with persons involved in a negotiation to help them resolve impasses and settle disputes

Ans:

Page: 235

Level: Medium



147. In __________, a neutral third party tries to engage the parties in a negotiated solution through persuasion and rational argument.

Ans:

Page: 236

Level: Medium



148. In __________, a neutral third party acts as judge with the power to issue a decision binding for all parties.

Ans:

Page: 236

Level: Medium



Essay

149. What is conflict? In what ways are managers involved with conflict?Page: 220

Level: Medium



150. What is the difference between functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict?

Page: 222-223

Level: Medium



151. In the context of direct conflict management approaches, what are assertiveness and cooperativeness? How are assertiveness and cooperativeness related to each of the five basic direct conflict management approaches?

Page: 229

Level: Difficult



152. What is negotiation? What are the two primary goals in the negotiation process? Provide an example of each type of goal. In the context of these goals, when is negotiation effective?

Page: 230-231

Level: Medium



153. Explain the basic nature and likely results of distributive and integrative negotiation?Page: 232-234

Level: Difficult




File: ch11, Chapter 11: Communication and Collaboration

True/False

1. Communication is the process of sending and receiving symbols with attached meanings.

Ans: Page: 242Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: The Communication Process

2. Successful organizations value and promote effective communication across organizational boundaries but fortunately not at the interpersonal level.

Ans:

Page: 242

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

Section Reference: The Communication Process

3. The key elements in the communication process include a source, who encodes an intended meaning into a message; a receiver, who decodes the message into a perceived meaning; and noise, which is any disruption in the transference of the message.

Ans: Page: 242Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: The Communication Process

4. The role of the “source” in the communication process is to encode an intended meaning into a message.


5. The role of the “receiver” in the communication process is to decode the message into a perceived meaning.


6. Static is the term used to describe any disturbance that influences the effectiveness of the communication process.


7. The process of translating an idea or thought into a message consisting of verbal, written, or nonverbal symbols, or some combination of them, is called decoding.


8. Communication channels are the pathways through which messages are communicated.


9. Encoding-decoding conduits are the pathways through which messages are transmitted.

Ans:

Page: 243Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: The Communication Process

10. Fortunately, the choice of communication channel does not have an impact on the communication process.


11. The communication process is completed when a message is sent.


12. In order for meaning to be assigned to any received message, its contents must be interpreted through encoding.

Ans: Page: 243Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.


13. The process of decoding is complicated by many factors, including the knowledge and experience of the receiver and his or her relationship with the sender.


14. Feedback is the process through which the receiver communicates with the sender by returning another message.

Ans: Page: 243Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

15. Feedback communicates how one feels about something another person has done or said.


16. Unfortunately, in most workplaces, there is too much feedback rather than too little.


17. Nonverbal communication occurs by facial expressions, body position, eye contact, and other physical gestures.

Ans: Page: 244Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.

Section Reference: Nonverbal Communication

18. Communicating with someone through facial expressions, body posture, eye contact, and other physical gestures is referred to as non-audible communication.



19. Nonverbal communication affects the impressions that people make on others. It also can hold the key to what someone is really thinking or what he/she really means.



20. Nonverbal communication can take place through the physical arrangement of space.

Ans: Page: 244Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.


21. Kinesics is the study of the way space is utilized, whereas proxemics is study of gestures and body postures.



22. Furniture placement can provide nonverbal communication.

Ans: Page: 244Level: Medium



23. When Sam cannot listen objectively to Tinesha due to a lack of trust, he is experiencing an interpersonal barrier to communication.

Ans: Page: 245Level: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.

Section Reference: Communication Barriers

24. Interpersonal barriers occur when individuals are not able to objectively listen to the sender due to things such as lack of trust, personality clashes, and a bad reputation.

Ans:

Page: 245

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


25. Semantic barriers occur only when people communicate in two different languages.




26. The ability to listen well is a distinct asset to anyone whose job involves a large proportion of their time spent communicating with other people.


Section Reference: Active Listening

27. Telling and listening are two sides of the communication process.



28. The ability to help the source of a message say what he or she really means is called dynamic listening.



29. The concept of active listening comes from the work of counselors and therapists, who are trained to help people express themselves and talk about things that are important to them.

Ans: Pages: 246-247Level: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


30. To be an effective active listener, a person should listen only for content –– trying to hear exactly what is being said.

Ans: Page: 247Level: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


31. To be an effective active listener, research suggests, that people should only pay attention to verbal expressions and ignore nonverbal expressions.

Ans:

Page: 247

Level: Easy



32. Ethnocentrism is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.


Section Reference: Cross-Cultural Communication

33. Crossed legs are quite acceptable in the United Kingdom but are rude in Saudi Arabia if the sole of the foot is directed toward someone.

Ans:

Page: 249

Level: Medium



34. The U.S. is a low-context culture where words convey only part of a message, while the rest of the message must be inferred from body language and additional contextual cues.



35. International business experts advise that one of the best ways to gain understanding of cultural differences is to hire people from different countries.

Ans:

Page: 250

Level: Medium



36. Information flows in organizations through both formal and informal channels of communication.

Ans: Page: 251Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.

Section Reference: Communication Channels

37. Formal channels of communication follow the chain of command established by an organization’s hierarchy of authority.

Ans: Page: 251Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Channels

38. Informal channels of communication do not adhere to the organization’s hierarchy of authority.


39. Both formal channels and informal channels follow the chain of command.

Ans: Page: 251Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Channels

40. A grapevine transfers rumors and other unofficial information through networks of friendships and acquaintances.


41. Being part of a grapevine can provide a sense of security from “being in the know” and can help fulfill the needs of people involved in them.


42. The primary disadvantage of grapevines occurs when they transmit incorrect or untimely information.


43. The primary disadvantage of grapevines is that they transfer information slowly and fairly inefficiently.

Ans: Page: 252Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.


44. Channel richness is the capacity of a communication channel to convey information in an effective manner.


45. In general, the richest communication channel is face-to-face communication.


46. In general, the leanest communication channel is a posted notice or bulletin.


47. Leaner channels work well for more routine and straightforward messages, whereas richer channels work well with complex and open-ended messages.

Ans: Page: 252Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Channels

48. Upward communication follows the chain of command from top to bottom.

Ans: Page: 253Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

49. One of the major functions of downward communication is to achieve influence by providing information.


50. A lack of adequate downward communication is often cited as a management failure.

Ans: Page: 252Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

51. The flow of messages from lower to higher organizational levels is downward communication.


Section Reference: Communication Flows

52. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about the organization’s strategies and policies.


53. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about what lower-level employees are doing and the problems they are having.


54. Inside an organization, employees communicate across departmental levels through parallel communication.


55. For lateral communication to be effective, people must be willing and able to communicate across departmental or functional boundaries.

Ans:

Page: 253Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

56. For lateral communication to be effective, people must be willing to listen to other functions and departments from the perspective of serving their needs as “internal customers.”


57. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is referred to as organizational ecology.


58. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is known as organizational proxemics.


59. A problem in electronic communication today is controlling one’s emotions.



60. In a 24/7 world, most companies take the cue from P & G in telling employees it is not acceptable to turn their presence status to off or unavailable.

Ans: Page: 255Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.


61. With the rise of social networking tools, the withholding of information is becoming more difficult giving customers more information power than ever.

Ans: Page: 255Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Section Reference: Collaboration Technologies

62. Interest in transparency concepts are on the decline with so much information available on the internet.


Section Reference: Interactional Transparency

63. A supportive communication principle is to focus on the problem and not the person.


Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles

64. When engaging in supportive communication, it is helpful for a person to use absolutes such as, “You never listen to me.”

Ans:

Page: 257

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.


Multiple Choice

65. There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.

a) semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects

b) cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects

c) mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects

d) physical distractions, semantic problems, absence of feedback, cultural differences, absence of commitment to effective communication, and cultural differences

e) tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback



66. In all interpersonal communication, it is important to understand the sources of __________ that can easily cause problems in the communication process.

a) communicatingb) e-mailingc) noised) talkinge) writing



67. Potential noise comes from all of the following EXCEPT:

a) cultural similarities.b) semantic problems.c) mixed messages.d) absence of feedback.e) physical distractions.



68. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to two-way communication?a) Two-way communication goes from sender to receiver and back again.b) Two-way communication is characterized by the normal interactive conversation in

our daily experiences.c) Research indicates that two-way communication is often less effective than one-way

communication.d) Two-way communication is more time consuming than one-way communication.e) Two-way communication is more costly than one-way communication.



69. In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that __________.

a) two-way communication is more accurateb) one-way communication is more accuratec) both types of communication are the same in terms of accuracyd) two-way communication is more accurate in large firms, and one-way

communication is more accurate in small firmse) two-way communication is more accurate in small firms, and one-way

communication is more accurate in large firms


Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

70. Which of the following is NOT an effective way to give constructive feedback?a) Limit how much feedback the receiver gets at one time.b) Focus on things the receiver can control.c) Give feedback when the receiver is most ready to accept it.d) Be general so as not to hurt the person’s feelings.e) Give feedback directly and in a spirit of mutual trust.

Ans: Page: 243Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

71. The art of impression management during interviews requires careful attention to __________.

a) dressb) verbal communicationc) timelinessd) nonverbal aspects of communicatione) both verbal and nonverbal aspects of communication



72. Research indicates that __________ communication is more accurate and effective than __________ communication.

a) one-way; two-wayb) individual; groupc) team; individuald) two-way; one-waye) one-way; group



73. __________ communication is more costly and time consuming than __________ communication.

a) One-way; two-wayb) Individual; groupc) Team; individuald) Two-way; one-waye) One-way; group



74. Examples of one-way communication include all of the following EXCEPT:a) memos.b) discussion boards.c) letters.d) e-mail.e) voice mail.



75. Because of their efficiency, __________ are frequently used in work settings.a) three-way communicationsb) two-way communicationsc) one-way communicationsd) group communicationse) individual communications



76. __________ occurs when individuals block out information or only hear things that match preconceived notions.

a) Mangled messagesb) Selective listeningc) Perceptual distractionsd) Semantic problemse) Communication barriers



77. Which of the following may lead to an interpersonal barrier?a) Lack of trustb) Personality clashesc) A bad reputationd) Stereotypes/prejudicese) All of the above

Ans: Page: 245Level: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.Section Reference: Communication Barriers

78. John dislikes his co-worker, Dylan. Dylan must miss the morning staff meeting as he has other work-related responsibilities to complete at this time. It is John’s responsibility to fill Dylan in on what happened at the meeting. Many times John decides to leave out critical details or pointers that may help Dylan to be more successful in getting things done. John is engaging in which communication barrier?

a) Selective listeningb) Filteringc) Semantic barriersd) Physical distractionse) None of the above

Ans: Page: 245Level: DifficultLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.Section Reference: Communication Barriers

79. When in doubt regarding the clarity of your written or spoken message, the recommended course of action to follow is:

a) “keep it smart and short.”b) “keep it straightforward and simple.”c) “keep it simple and smart.”d) “keep it short and simple.”

e) “keep it sophisticated and savvy.”



80. Semantic barriers to communication involve __________.a) foreign communicationb) weak communication linksc) breaks in communication transmissionsd) loud noises that disrupt what is communicatede) a poor choice or use of words and mixed messages

Ans: Page: 246Level: DifficultLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


81. The popular KISS principle of communication stands for __________.a) keep it swift and safeb) keep it short and simplec) keep it step-by-stepd) keep in style and standarde) keep it speedy and specific



82. __________ is the ability to help the source of a message say what he or she really means.a) Ordered listeningb) Expressive listeningc) Trained listeningd) Formal listeninge) Active listening



83. There are two sides to the communication process __________ and __________.a) forwarding a message; receiving a messageb) forwarding a message; listening to a messagec) sending a message; reinforcing a messaged) telling a message; reinforcing a messagee) sending a message; receiving a message



84. Guidelines for active listening include all of the following EXCEPT:a) listen for content.b) listen for feelings.c) watch for mistakes.d) respond to feelings.e) reflect back.

Ans:

Page: 247Level: EasyLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


85. The success of international business practices such as outsourcing often rests with the quality of __________.

a) ethnocentrismb) honestyc) ethicsd) cross-cultural communicatione) an individual’s ability to speak one language



86. __________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to try to understand alternative points of view.

a) Self-preservationb) Self-centerednessc) Ethnocentrismd) Individual affirmatione) Personal protection.



87. The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious in respect to __________ differences.

a) language b) moral c) outsourcing d) stamina e) writing



88. __________ cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.a) High and low-continuity b) Low-content c) High-content d) Low-context e) High-context



89. Which of the following countries is a low-context culture?a) United Statesb) Indiac) Japand) Francee) Scotland



90. Members of high-context cultures use all of the following to convey their messages EXCEPT:

a) body language.b) the physical setting.c) past relationships.d) words for only a limited part of a message.e) explicit words for the majority of a message.



91. Which of the following statements is accurate?a) Many Asian cultures are considered low context cultures.b) Most Western cultures are high context cultures.c) Canada is a high-context culture.d) Many Middle Eastern cultures are considered low-context cultures.e) The United States is a low-context culture.



92. __________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.

a) Ethnocentrismb) Proxemicsc) Kinesicsd) Internal affirmatione) Self importance



93. The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.

a) geographic differencesb) language differencesc) religious differencesd) lifestyle differencese) ethnic differences



94. Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate?

a) People must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country.

b) Ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds.

c) Language differences represent a major difficulty in cross-cultural communication.d) Gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world.e) People must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different

national cultures.



95. Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?

a) Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

b) In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.

c) Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.d) Members of high-context cultures use words to convey only a limited part of the

message.e) In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or

interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.

Ans: Pages: 249-250Level: DifficultLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.


96. Examples of communication channels include all of the following EXCEPT:a) face-to-face meetings.b) e-mail.c) online discussions.d) decoding.e) written letters.


97. All of the following statements about information channels are correct EXCEPT:a) networking takes place through the use of informal channels.b) informal channels adhere to an organization’s hierarchy of authority.c) informal channels coexist with the formal channels of an organization.d) informal channels diverge from formal organization channels by skipping levels in

the hierarchy or cutting across vertical chains of command.e) informal channels help to create open communications in organizations and ensure

that the right people are in contact one another.


98. Grapevines have the advantage of __________.a) always including the leaders of the organizationb) separating “those with information” from “those who shouldn’t have information”c) sharing information that is always correctd) ensuring that everyone who needs to hear the information gets the informatione) being able to transmit information quickly and efficiently



99. The primary disadvantage of grapevines is, it __________.a) provides a sense of security from “being in the know”b) provides social satisfaction as information is exchanged interpersonally c) helps fulfill the needs of people involved in themd) transmits incorrect or untimely informatione) transmits information quickly and efficiently


100. When messages get more complex and open-ended, __________are necessary to achieve effective communication.

a) leaner channelsb) richer channelsc) more channelsd) senior channelse) correct channels


101. __________work well for more routine and straightforward messages, such as announcing the location of a previously scheduled meeting.

a) Elegant channelsb) Additional channelsc) Richer channelsd) Leaner channelse) Foreign channels


102. Downward communication does all of the following EXCEPT:a) follows the chain of command top to bottom.b) achieves influence through information.c) helps create a sense of security and involvement among receivers who feel they know the

whole story.d) as a favorite management strategy that often occurs.e) helps minimize the spread of rumors.


103. The flow of messages at the same levels across organizations is known as __________.a) team communicationb) upward communicationc) downward communicationd) lateral communicatione) collaborative communication


104. All of the following are true of the study by Detert and Burris on leadership behaviors EXCEPT:

a) personalized behavior is not enough to generate employee voice.b) if leaders are going to overcome employee restraint in speaking up, they must indicate

openness to change.c) openness behaviors send a clear signal that voice is welcome.d) many individuals don’t feel safe speaking up in their organizations.e) transformational leader behaviors are enough to signal openness.

Ans: Page: 254Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

105. The term __________ is sometimes used to describe rudeness in electronic communication.

a) flamingb) filteringc) selective perceptiond) noisee) presence


106. __________ differences in organizations create potential communication barriers between persons of higher and lower ranks.

a) Minority vs. majorityb) Culturalc) Statusd) Gendere) Age


Learning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.

Section Reference: Status Effects

107. Given the authority of their positions, managers may be inclined to do a lot of __________, but not much __________.

a) screaming; talkingb) intuitively deciding; sound evaluating.c) decision making; listeningd) answering; creatinge) telling; listening



108. Because communication is frequently biased when flowing upward, subordinates may __________.

a) only communicate with their bosses only when they have to.b) use email as a means to communicate with their bosses.c) communicate to their bosses only in writing.d) filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear.e) tell their bosses everything they know about a subject.



109. The mum effect can occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:a) an employee’s fear of retribution for bringing bad news.b) an employee’s unwillingness to identify personal mistakes.c) an employee’s general desire to please.

d) an employee’s desire to be polite.e) an employee’s desire to speak out at meetings.



110. A potential advantage of electronic communication is __________.a) people are interacting with machines so interactions are often impersonalb) allowing broader and more immediate access to informationc) nonverbal communications is removed from interactionsd) recipients are typically accurate is identifying the tone or intent of emaile) people are interacting less with each other directly



111. Software that allows users to view others’ real-time availability and readiness to communicate is known as __________.

a) the 24/7 environmentb) presence-aware toolsc) electronic eavesdroppingd) privacy toolse) flaming



112. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the effects of status on interpersonal communication?

a) Status differences in organizations create potential communication barriers between persons of higher and lower ranks.

b) Given the authority of their positions, managers may be inclined to do a lot of listening but not much telling.

c) Communication is frequently biased when flowing upward in organizational hierarchies.

d) Subordinates may filter information and tell their superiors only what they think the boss wants to hear.

e) Higher-level decision makers may take the wrong actions because of biased and inaccurate information supplied from below.



113. The term “flaming” is sometimes used to describe rudeness in __________.a) verbal communicationb) written communicationc) electronic communicationd) nonverbal communicatione) communications in large group settings



114. The use of computers makes people feel less inhibited, more impatient in what they say, and more likely to engage in __________.

a) the mum effectb) information overload

c) flamingd) collaborative approachese) feedback.



115. The open and honest sharing of information is known as __________.a) feedbackb) constructive feedbackc) interactional transparencyd) disconfirmatione) the mum effect



116. A result of the rise of social networking tools and additional collaboration technologies has been __________.

a) a reduction of status differentials and breaking down of corporate silosb) an increase of status differentials and breading down of corporate silosc) an increase of status differentials and an increase in corporate silosd) a reduction of status differentials and an increase in corporate silose) less information power for customers

Ans: Page: 256Level: DifficultLearning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.

Section Reference: Collaboration Technologies

117. Which of the following is NOT a component of interactional transparency?a) Sharing relevant informationb) Being forthcoming regarding motivesc) Proactively seeking feedbackd) Guarding against corporate fraude) Proactively giving feedback



118. A set of tools to approach difficult conversations are known as __________.a) transparencyb) supportive communication principlesc) presence-aware toolsd) proxemicse) active listening



119. The primary emphasis of supportive communication is to avoid __________.a) transparency and disconfirmationb) defensiveness and transparency

c) defensiveness and disconfirmationd) selective listening and defensivenesse) disconfirmation and selective listening



120. __________ occurs when an individual feels his self-worth is being questioned.a) Transparencyb) Defensivenessc) Flamingd) Proxemicse) Disconfirmation



121. __________ occurs when individuals feel they are being attacked and they need to protect themselves.

a) Transparencyb) Defensivenessc) Flamingd) Proxemicse) Disconfirmation




122. Which of the following is NOT a supportive communication principle?a) Focus on the problem and not the person.b) Be specific and descriptive, not global or evaluative.c) Own, rather than disown, the communication.d) Seek to be heard and understood.e) Be congruent – match the words with the body language.



Fill in the blank

123. __________ is a process of sending and receiving messages with attached meanings.

Ans:Page: 242Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: The Communication Process

124. __________ is the process through which a receiver communicates with a sender by returning another message.

Ans: Page: 243Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

125. __________flows from sender to receiver only, as in the case of a written memo or a voice-mail message.



126. In __________ communication, there is no direct and immediate feedback from the recipient of a message.

Ans:Page: 243Level: MediumLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.


127. __________ communication goes from sender to receiver and back again.




128. When verbal and nonverbal messages do not match, receivers will pay more attention to the __________.



129. __________ communication takes place through facial expressions, body position, eye contact and other physical gestures.



130. __________ is the study of gestures and body postures.



131. __________ is the act of speaking without using words.

Ans:

Page: 244

Level: Medium



132. __________ barriers to communication involve a poor choice or use of words and mixed messages.



133. Interruptions such as a telephone ringing, someone knocking on your door, or someone dropping by your office when you are trying to communicate with someone else are examples of __________ in effective communication.



134. Suppose you work for an international food company. Although you like your boss, one thing that bothers you is that he openly believes that his culture is superior to other cultures. This common problem is called __________.



135. __________is the tendency to believe one’s culture and its values are superior to those of others.



136. The types of information flows in organizations are __________ and __________.


137. __________ is the study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications.

Ans: Page: 253Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

138. __________ channels follow the chain of command established by an organization’s hierarchy of authority.


139. __________ takes place through the use of information channels that do not adhere to an organization’s hierarchy of authority.


140. The tendency to sometimes withhold information from a desire to be polite and a reluctance to transmit bad news is sometimes called the __________.



141. __________ tools are software that allow a user to view others’ real-time availability status and readiness to communicate.



142. __________ in communication occurs when individuals feel they are being attacked and they need to protect themselves.



143. In supportive communication, we are supposed to focus on the problem and not the __________.



144. __________ occurs when an individual feels his or her self-worth is being questioned.

Ans: Page: 257Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss ways we can build more collaborative work environments.Section Reference: Supportive Communication Principles

Essay

145. What are the key elements in the communication process?

Page: 242-243Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: The Communication Process

146. What does the term “feedback” refer to in the context of interpersonal communication? Why is it important? In practice, how does the feedback process typically work and how is it accomplished effectively?

Page: 243Level: DifficultLearning Objective 1: Describe the communication process, feedback and communication, and nonverbal communication.Section Reference: Feedback and Communication

147. What is active listening and what are the recommended guidelines for its use?

Page: 246-247Level: MediumLearning Objective 2: Discuss issues in interpersonal communication including communication barriers, active listening, and cross-cultural communication.Section Reference: Active Listening

148. Briefly describe each of the following communication flows: downward, upward, and lateral. What does each type of flow accomplish in an organization?

Pages: 252-253Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Define communication channels, communication, and status effects.Section Reference: Communication Flows

149. What are supportive communication principles?

Page: 257

Level: Medium



File: ch12, Chapter 12: Power and Politics

True/False

1. Power is a behavioral response to the exercise of influence.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.

Section Reference: Power and Influence

2. Influence is the ability to get someone to do something you want done or the ability to make things happen in the way you want them to.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium



3. Few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium



4. The foundation for power rests in interdependence.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Interdependence, Legitimacy, and Power

5. Stanley Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

Ans:

Page: 265

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Obedience

6. The basic conclusion of Stanley Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

Ans:

Page: 266

Level: Medium



7. According to Chester Barnard, subordinates accept a directive from a superior when one or the other of the following conditions is met: (a) the subordinate can and must understand the directive, or (b) the subordinate must feel mentally and physically capable of carrying out the directive.

Ans:

Page: 266

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Acceptance of Authority and Zone of Indifference

8. To accept and follow a manager’s order, the subordinate does not need to understand how the proposed action will help the organization.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Difficult



9. When employees believe the organization has not delivered on its implicit promises, in addition to disobedience, there is more loyalty, lower turnover intentions, and high job satisfaction.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Easy



10. A zone of indifference is the range of authoritative requests to which a subordinate is willing to respond without subjecting the directions to critical evaluations or judgment.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



11. According to Chester Barnard, directives falling within the zone of indifference are obeyed, whereas those falling outside of it are not considered legitimate under the terms of the psychological contract.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



12. When a boss would like a subordinate to do something outside the zone of indifference, the manager must attempt to enlarge the zone to accommodate additional behaviors.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



13. The zone of indifference is fixed.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



14. Position power is available to a manager solely as a result of her or his position in the organization.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.

Section Reference: Position Power

15. There are seven important aspects of position power: legitimate, reward, coercive, process, information, representative power, and subordination.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



16. Power can be based on punishment instead of reward.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Easy



17. Legitimate power, or formal hierarchical authority, stems from the extent to which a manager can control subordinates’ behavior because they believe the boss has the right to do so.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



18. Having the formal authority to approve or deny employees requests for job transfers, equipment purchases, overtime, or personal time off are examples of a manager’s legitimate power.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Easy



19. Voluntarism is the degree to which an employee contributes his or her time and energy to charitable organizations.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Medium



20. Coercive power is the extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control other people.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Medium



21. The presence of unions and organizational policies on employee treatment can weaken the ability of a manager to use coercive power.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Easy



22. Specialists who determine the procedures by which investment proposals will be analyzed and evaluated are utilizing process power.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Difficult



23. Information power may complement legitimate hierarchical power.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Difficult



24. Representative power is based upon access to and/or control of information.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Difficult



25. Personal power resides in the individual and is independent of that individual’s position within an organization.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Personal Power

26. Four bases of personal power are expert power, rational persuasion, referent power, and coalition power.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



27. Expert power is the ability to control another’s behavior through the possession of knowledge, experience, or judgment that the other person does not have but needs.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Easy



28. Expert power is absolute, not relative.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Difficult



29. Rational persuasion involves both explaining the desirability of expected outcomes and showing how specific actions will achieve these outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



30. The personal power of rational persuasion can be developed by always honoring implied and explicit social contracts in order to build trust.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Difficult



31. Referent power is the ability to control another’s behavior because, through the individual’s efforts, the person accepts the desirability of an offered goal and a reasonable way of achieving it.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



32. Referent power is the ability to control another’s behavior because of the individual’s desire to identify with the power source.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



33. A person’s referent power can be enhanced when the individual taps into the morals held by another or shows a clearer long-term path to a morally desirable end.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



34. Coalition power is the ability to control another’s behavior indirectly because the individual owes an obligation to you or another as part of a larger collective interest.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



35. To build a coalition, individuals negotiate trade-offs to arrive at a common position.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



36. Power-oriented behavior is action directed primarily at developing or using relationships in which other people are to some degree willing to defer to one’s wishes.

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity

37. The effective manager is one who succeeds in building and maintaining high levels of both position power and personal power over time.

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Easy



38. A manager’s personal power can be enhanced by demonstrating to others that his or her work unit is highly relevant to organizational goals and can respond to urgent organizational needs.

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Easy



39. Nelson Mandela used his personal and position as president of South Africa to help transform a whole society using a rugby team.

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Medium



40. Three personal characteristics expertise, tactfulness, and experience have special potential for enhancing personal power in an organization.

Ans:

Page: 273

Level: Difficult



41. Managers can enhance their personal power by building expertise through advanced training and education, participation in professional associations, and involvement in the early stages of projects.

Ans:

Page: 273

Level: Easy



42. By learning better ways to negotiate, persuade people, and understand the goals and means people are willing to accept, an individual can learn political savvy in order to increase his or her personal power.

Ans:

Page: 273

Level: Easy



43. A manager’s referent power is increased by characteristics that enhance his or her “likeability” and create personal attraction in relationships with other people.

Ans:

Page: 273

Level: Medium



44. Most managers attempt to increase the visibility of their job performance by: expanding the number of contacts they have with senior people, making oral presentations of written work, participating in problem-solving task forces, sending out notices of accomplishments, and generally seeking additional opportunities to increase personal name recognition.

Ans:

Page: 274

Level: Medium



45. By defining a problem in a manner that fits the manager’s expertise, it is natural for that manager to be in charge of solving it, which in turn subtly shifts his or her position power.

Ans:

Page: 274

Level: Medium



46. The most common strategies of turning power into relational influence include friendliness, coalition, bargaining, and higher authority but exclude reason, assertiveness, and sanctions.

Ans:

Page: 274

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Relational Influence Techniques

47. Friendliness, assertiveness, bargaining, and higher authority are used more frequently to influence supervisors than to influence subordinates.

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Difficult



48. Downward influence generally includes mobilization of both position and personal power sources, whereas upward influence is more likely to draw on personal power.

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Medium



49. Empowerment is the process by which managers help others to acquire and use the power needed to make decisions affecting themselves and their work.

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Discuss the keys to empowerment, power as an expanding pie, and getting from empowerment to valuing people.

Section Reference: Empowerment

50. The traditional view of power considers it to be relational in terms of problems and opportunities, whereas the empowerment view looks at power in terms of the ability to make things happen.

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Keys to Empowerment

51. When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to contract it.

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Difficult



52. The key to empowering all employees is to change the concept of power within the organization from a view that stresses power over others to one that emphasizes the use of power to get things done.

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Power as an Expanding Pie

53. A clearer definition of roles and responsibilities may help managers empower others.

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Easy



54. By providing opportunities for creative problem solving coupled with the discretion to act, real empowerment increases the total power available in the organization.

Ans:

Page: 277

Level: Easy



55. The Machiavellian tradition of organizational politics considers managers to be political when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits.

Ans:

Page: 278

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

56. The second tradition of organizational politics involves the use of power to develop socially acceptable ends and means that balance individual and collective interests.

Ans:

Page: 279

Level: Medium


57. Organizational politics can serve a number of important functions, including overcoming personnel inadequacies, coping with change, and substituting for formal authority.

Ans:

Page: 280

Level: Medium


58. Managers may gain a better understanding of political behavior to forecast future actions by placing themselves in the position of other persons involved in critical decisions or events.

Ans:

Page: 280

Level: Medium


59. Organizational politics are inherently bad.

Ans:Page: 280Level: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.

Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

60. Workflow linkages for lateral political action involve contacts with units that precede or follow in a sequential production chain.

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Easy


61. Individuals can employ three common strategies to protect themselves against the adverse effects of organizational politics. Individuals can take action but avoid risk, redirect accountability and responsibility, or maintain a low profile.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Politics of Self-Protection

62. People who are really devious will engage in political self-protection by using the redirecting techniques of: blaming the problem on someone or some group who has difficulty engaging in self-defense; blaming the problem on uncontrollable events; or escalating commitment to a losing course of action.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult


63. Agency theory reflects the notion that managers are “agents” of the owners and suggests that public corporations can function effectively even though its managers are self-interested and do not automatically bear the full consequences of their managerial actions.

Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Politics and Governance

64. To place appropriate controls on agents, stockholders with a large stake in the firm take an active role on the board of directors and a strong, independent board is established.

Ans:

Page: 284

Level: Medium


65. Organizational governance is the pattern of authority, influence, and acceptable managerial behavior established at the top of the organization.

Ans:

Page: 286

Level: Easy


66. Whereas organizational governance was an internal and rather private matter in the past, it is today becoming more public and controversial.

Ans:

Page: 286

Level: Medium


Multiple Choice

67. The essence of power is __________.a) personal desireb) the ability to provide supportc) a distinguished reputationd) control over the behavior of otherse) having a Machiavellian personality.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium



68. In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is inaccurate?

a) The unstated underpinning of legitimacy in most organizations is an implicit technical and moral order.

b) In U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.

c) In other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.

d) In firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies.

e) Senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.

Ans:

Page: 265

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Interdependence, Legitimacy, and Power

69. Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.a) learn from personal failuresb) obey the commands of an authority figurec) are willing to use coercive power to gain influenced) are motivated by financial rewardse) are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

Ans:

Page: 265

Level: Medium



70. Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?

a) Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

b) Experimental subjects were falsely told that the purpose of the experiment was to determine the effects of punishment on the learning of word pairs.

c) Experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs.

d) The experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.

e) The basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

Ans:

Page: 265-266

Level: Difficult



71. Barnard’s studies on obedience and compliance relate to all of the following concepts EXCEPT:

a) compliance in organizations stemmed from the “consent of the governed.”b) in every day organizational life, subordinates accepted or followed a managerial

directive only if specific circumstances were met.c) obedience is not the only reason for compliance in organizations.d) subordinates must believe that a management directive is consistent with the purpose

of an organization, but not necessarily the personal interests of the individual.e) Bernard built his analysis on the notion of a psychological contract between the

individual and the firm.

Ans:

Page: 266

Level: Medium



72. According to Barnard, all of the following conditions must be met for a subordinate to accept or follow a directive EXCEPT:

a) the subordinate can and must understand the directive.b) the subordinate must feel mentally and physically capable of carrying out the

directive.c) the subordinate must believe that the directive is not inconsistent with the purpose of

the organization.d) the subordinate must believe that the directive is not inconsistent with his or her

personal interests.e) the subordinate must know how the directive will help the organization.

Ans:

Pages: 266-267

Level: Medium



73. The __________ is an unwritten set of expectations about a person’s exchange of inducements and contributions with an organization.

a) psychological contractb) zone of indifferencec) political agreementd) rational persuasione) interorganizational pact

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



74. A __________ is the range of authoritative requests to which a subordinate is willing to respond without subjecting the directives to critical evaluation or judgment.

a) territory of unconcernb) region of inattentionc) region of insensibilityd) section of apathye) zone of indifference

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



75. Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.a) subjected to slight scrutinyb) ignoredc) rejectedd) obeyede) subjected to severe scrutiny.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



76. When a boss wants a subordinate to do things falling outside the zone of indifference, as identified by Chester, the manager must ______________.

a) publicize the importance of the zone to employeesb) acknowledge the power and influence of the zonec) limit the zone to highlight certain behaviorsd) enlarge the zone to accommodate additional behaviorse) explain the zone to employees

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



77. Managers derive power from both organizational and individual sources, which are called __________.

a) bureaucratic power and individual powerb) authority power and indigenous powerc) position power and personal powerd) statutory power and individual powere) hierarchical power and personal power

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Easy



78. All of the following are types of position power EXCEPT:a) reward power.b) coercive power.c) legitimate power.d) statutory power.e) information power.

Ans:

Pages: 268-269

Level: Medium



79. When Linda, a manager in a department store, tells someone to do something and refers to the fact that she is the boss and therefore the other person must do as asked, she is trying to use which type of power to influence the other person’s behavior?

a) Personal powerb) Reward powerc) Legitimate powerd) Coercive powere) Process power

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Easy



80. What type of power does a manager exercise when he or she approves or denies employee requests such as job transfers, equipment purchases, personal time off, or overtime work?

a) Legitimate powerb) Expert powerc) Coercive powerd) Referent powere) Reward power

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



81. What type of power does a manager exercise when he or she offers pay raises, bonuses, special assignments, or compliments as incentives to subordinates?

a) Legitimate powerb) Expert powerc) Coercive powerd) Referent powere) Reward power

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



82. A manager who withholds positive outcomes, such as special assignments or bonuses, as a means for controlling the behavior of employees is using which type of power?

a) Legitimate powerb) Expert powerc) Coercive powerd) Process powere) Reward power

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Medium



83. Consider a financial analyst who reviews, analyzes, and makes recommendations regarding investment proposals from other organizational units. What type of position power is the analyst most likely using in doing her/his job?

a) Reward powerb) Coercive powerc) Legitimate powerd) Process powere) Information power

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Medium



84. Karl is the manager of an engineering department. He refuses to allow engineering drawings to be circulated outside of the department. Karl is exercising which type of power?

a) Coercive powerb) Information powerc) Legitimate powerd) Process powere) Representative power

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium



85. Which type of power is being used by an investor relations manager who is responsible for anticipating the questions of investors and guiding the types of responses that senior management makes?

a) Legitimate powerb) Information powerc) Representative powerd) Reward powere) Coercive power

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium



86. President Barack Obama chose Jay Carney to be the White House press secretary. As a result, he became “the face of the administration.” Jay Carney holds which type of power?

a) Legitimate powerb) Coercive powerc) Representative powerd) Reward powere) Legal power

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Difficult



87. The four bases of personal power are __________, __________, __________, and __________.

a) legitimate; expert; information; referentb) coercive; expert; reward; rational persuasionc) reward; process; rational persuasion; coalitionsd) referent; reward; legitimate; experte) expert; rational persuasion; referent; coalitions

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Difficult



88. Ralph makes it a point to always offer help in technical areas in which he is skilled and knowledgeable. His subordinates trust his judgment, and form one of the most productive units in the company. What type of power is Ralph exerting?

a) Legitimate powerb) Coercive powerc) Referent powerd) Reward powere) Expert power

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



89. In leading his work team on any project, Mike and the team members will typically discuss the project goals and the best way to achieve those goals. Which form of personal power is Mike using?

a) Process powerb) Expert powerc) Referent powerd) Rational persuasione) Information power

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



90. __________ behavior is action directed primarily at developing or using relationships in which other people are willing to some degree to defer to one’s wishes.

a) Skill-orientedb) Endowment-orientedc) Capability-oriented

d) Power-orientede) Referent-oriented

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Difficult



91. __________ can be enhanced when managers are able to demonstrate to others that their work units are highly relevant to organizational goals and are able to respond to urgent organizational needs.

a) Statutory powerb) Personal powerc) Position powerd) Hierarchical powere) Bureaucratic power

Ans:

Page: 272

Level: Easy



92. In order to increase their centrality and criticality in the organization, managers may seek to acquire a more central role in the workflow by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a) having information filtered through them.b) occupying an office convenient to main traffic flows.c) expanding their network of communication contacts.d) increasing their political savvy.

e) making at least part of their job responsibilities unique.

Ans:

Pages: 272-273

Level: Difficult



93. A manager may attempt to increase task relevance to add criticality by doing which of the following?

a) By becoming an internal coordinator within the firmb) By moving to provide unique services and information to other unitsc) By shifting the emphasis on his or her group’s activities toward emerging issues

central to the organization’s top prioritiesd) By becoming an external representative of the firme) All of the above

Ans:Page: 273Level: DifficultLearning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.Section Reference: Power and Influence Capacity

94. Which strategy for exercising relational influence can be described as “using the exchange of benefits as a basis for negotiation?”

a) Assertivenessb) Sanctionsc) Bargainingd) Reasone) Coalition

Ans:

Page: 274

Level: Medium



95. Which one of the following strategies for exercising relational influence can be defined as “using a direct and forceful personal approach?”

a) Assertivenessb) Reasonc) Coalitiond) Sanctionse) Higher authority

Ans:

Page: 274

Level: Medium



96. Managers may attempt to increase the visibility of their job performance by doing which of the following?

a) Expanding the number of contacts they have with senior peopleb) Making oral presentations of written workc) Participating in problem-solving task forcesd) Sending out notices of accomplishmentse) All of the above

Ans:Page: 274Level: EasyLearning Objective 2: Describe the key sources of power and influence, power and influence capacity, and the relational influence techniques.Section Reference: Relational Influence Techniques

97. Research on the various ways of exercising relational influence has concluded that __________ is the most popular strategy overall.

a) coalitionb) bargainingc) reasond) friendlinesse) sanctions

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Medium



98. __________ is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work teams and other creative worker involvement groups.

a) Reengineeringb) Continuous improvementc) Empowermentd) Strategic human resource managemente) Total quality management

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Medium



99. Which statement about empowerment is not true?a) In business today, managers in progressive organizations are expected to be good at

empowering the people with whom they work.b) Rather than considering power to be something at higher levels, power can be shared

by everyone working in flatter and more collegial structures.c) The concept of empowerment is part of the sweeping change being witnessed in

today’s corporations.d) Empowerment is a key foundation of the increasingly popular self-managing work

teams and other creative worker involvement groups.e) One of the bases for empowerment is the need to maintain older views of power

itself.

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Medium



100. When an organization attempts to move power down the hierarchy, it must also alter the existing pattern of __________ power.

a) personal b) individual c) special d) position e) exclusive

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Medium



101. When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to __________ it.

a) neutralize b) contract c) inactivate d) balance e) expand

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Easy



102. The key to expanding the amount of available power in an organization is to change from a view that stresses __________ to a view that emphasizes __________.

a) power over others; power over thingsb) power over others ; power over selfc) power over others; power to get things doned) power over self; power to get things donee) power over subordinates; power over peers

Ans:

Page: 276

Level: Medium



103. Which of the following statements about empowerment is NOT correct?a) A clearer definition of roles and responsibilities may help managers empower others.b) Empowerment increases the total power available in an organization by providing

opportunities for creative problem solving coupled with the discretion to act.c) Empowerment means that all managers need to emphasize different ways of

exercising influence.d) Special support may be needed for managers so that they become comfortable in

developing their own power over events and activities.e) Executives and middle managers will change their thinking about and use of

traditional position and personal power without having any inducement for changing their thinking or for acting on it.

Ans:

Pages: 276-277

Level: Difficult



104. Beyond just empowering employees, Jeffrey Pfeffer suggests that organizations place employees at the center of their strategy by taking all of the following steps EXCEPT:

a) develop employment security for a selectively recruited workforce.b) pay high wages with incentive pay and the potential for employee ownership.c) encourage information sharing and participation with an emphasis on self-managed

teams.d) emphasize individual training and skill development with little cross-utilization of

talent and cross–training.e) pursue egalitarianism with little pay compression across units and enable extensive

internal promotion.

Ans:

Page: 277

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: From Empowerment to Valuing People

105. According to the Machiavellian tradition, __________ is the management of influence to obtain ends not sanctioned by the organization or to obtain sanctioned ends through nonsanctioned influence means.

a) organizational psychologyb) organizational sociologyc) organizational powerd) organizational politicse) social science

Ans:

Page: 278

Level: Easy


106. In building on the Machiavellian tradition, managers are often considered __________ when they seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization or that push legal limits.

a) reasonableb) deviousc) politicald) rationale) effective

Ans:

Page: 278

Level: Easy


107. One tradition in the analysis of organizational politics treats it as a necessary function resulting from differences in the self-interests of individuals. Which one of the following statements about this tradition is NOT accurate?

a) Organizational politics is viewed as the art of creative compromise among competing interests.

b) Politics arise because individuals need to develop compromises, avoid confrontation, and live together.

c) Organizationally powerful individuals negotiate with others to establish the goals of the organization and the acceptable means for achieving them.

d) Managers seek their own goals or use means that are not currently authorized by the organization.

e) Organizational politics is the use of power to develop socially acceptable ends and means that balance individual and collective interests.

Ans:

Page: 279

Level: Difficult


108. Which statement about political forecasting is false? Managers can attempt to forecast future political actions by __________.

a) placing themselves in the position of other persons involved in critical decisions or events

b) examining the benefits for all concerned parties with respect to each decision and action

c) considering the costs to all involved parties regarding each decision and actiond) spontaneously taking action with little thoughte) framing the situation in the context of a political payoff matrix

Ans:

Page: 280

Level: Medium


109. Which one of the following statements about subunit power is accurate?a) International units are typically more powerful than are staff groups.b) Units toward the bottom of the organizational hierarchy are often more powerful than

those toward the top.c) Subtle power differentials are found among units at or near the same level in a firm.d) Every unit has the same power.e) Units have no power.

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Difficult


110. Political __________ links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.

a) savvyb) movementc) eventfulnessd) responsee) action

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Difficult


111. With respect to political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve formal staff units that have special expertise.

a) workflowb) approvalc) serviced) advisorye) auditing

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Medium


112. In the context of political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve organizational units that have the right to evaluate the actions of others after action has been taken.

a) workflowb) approvalc) serviced) advisorye) auditing

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Easy


113. Individuals can employ three common strategies to protect themselves against organizational politics. These three strategies are __________.

a) protecting accountability, maintaining dominant values, and defending turfb) forbearance of foes, redirecting accountability and responsibility, and maintaining a

low profilec) avoiding action and risk taking, redirecting accountability and responsibility, and

defending turfd) abstaining from cultural involvement, promotion of competing interests, and

maintaining a low profilee) forbearance of foes, directing task activities, and maintaining a low profile

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult


114. In the context of self-protection against organizational politics, the methods of avoiding action and risk taking include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) working to the rules.b) playing dumb.c) depersonalization.d) passing the buck.e) routine or creative stalling.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult


115. “Creative stalling” is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee __________.

a) treats customers, clients, or subordinates as numbers, things or objectsb) accepts blame for the negative consequences of his/her actionsc) pretends to not be aware of the rules, policies, or procedures or of events that have

occurredd) adheres strictly to all the rules, policies, and procedures, and does not allow

deviations or exceptionse) spends time delaying implementation of undesirable changes

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Medium


116. In the context of self-protection against organizational politics, the methods of redirecting accountability includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a) rewriting history.b) blaming the problem on someone or some group that has difficulty defending

themselves.c) working to the rules.d) blaming the problem on uncontrollable events.e) escalating commitment to a losing course of action.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Easy


117. __________ is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by claiming to be an early supporter of something that turns out to be successful, or one who had initial reservations if a programs fails.

a) Passing the buckb) Buffing (or rigorous documentation)c) Preparing a blind memod) Rewriting historye) Scapegoating

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Medium


118. __________ is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by blaming the problem on someone or some group that has difficulty engaging in self-defense.

a) Passing the buckb) Buffing (or rigorous documentation)c) Preparing a blind memod) Rewriting historye) Scapegoating

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult


119. Defending turf is a method of political self-protection that can result from one of the following situations __________.

a) minimized commitment to a course of actionb) managers seeking to improve their power by attempting to expand the jobs their

groups performc) organizations having various departments and groups with aligning interestsd) teams working closely togethere) managers sacrificing their personal interests for the sake of their departments

Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Difficult


120. __________ theory suggests that public corporations can function effectively even though their managers are self-interested and do not automatically bear the full consequences of their managerial actions.

a) Representativeb) Agencyc) Empowermentd) Legitimate powere) Indifference theory

Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Easy


121. Which one of the following statements accurately describes a key premise of agency theory?

a) By protecting stockholder interests, all the interests of society are served.b) Stockholders do not have a clear interest in greater returns.c) Managers are self-interested and willing to sacrifice those self-interests for others

(particularly stockholders.d) Employees monitor how agents handle company strategies.e) Newspapers report how agents manage company strategies.

Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Difficult


122. Which of the following control mechanisms is commonly used to ensure that executives and managers, as agents of the firm’s owners, act in the best interests of those owners?

a) Pay plan incentives do not align the interests of management and stockholders.b) The establishment of a strong, independent board of directors.c) Stockholders with a large stake in the firm taking a weak role on the board.d) Stockholders read board of director reports.e) People read what is stated in newspapers.

Ans:

Page: 284

Level: Medium


123. The issue of __________ is an important ethical consideration with respect to agency theory.

a) pay of manufacturing workers

b) pay of service workersc) pay of lower level managersd) pay of middle level managerse) pay of chief executive officers

Ans:

Page: 284

Level: Medium


124. Under which of the following conditions does the resource dependence of an organization increase?

a) As needed resources become scarcerb) As outsiders have less control over needed resourcesc) As more substitutes for a particular type of resource are availabled) As more companies can provide the necessary key resourcese) As competitor firms become weaker in your market

Ans:

Page: 284

Level: Difficult


125. According to research by Hillman, Shropshire, and Cannalla, which of the following is true?

a) Larger firms were more likely to have female board members than smaller corporations.

b) Firms with more female employees were more likely to have a female board member.

c) Firms with less diversification and more closely related products and services were more likely to have a female board member.

d) Firms doing a lot of business with organizations that also had a female board member were more likely to have female board members.

e) All of the above are true.

Ans:Page: 285Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Politics and Governance

Fill in the blank

126. The ability to get someone else to do something you want done or to make things happen the way you want is called __________.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium



127. __________ is what a person has when exercising power and it is expressed by others’ behavioral response to this exercise of power.

Ans:

Page: 264

Level: Medium



128. __________ argued that subordinates accept or follow directives from a boss only under special circumstances.

Ans:

Page: 266

Level: Easy



129. Chester Barnard refers to the area in which authoritative directions are obeyed as the __________.

Ans:

Page: 267

Level: Medium



130. __________, or formal authority, is the extent to which a manager can use subordinates’ internalized values or beliefs that the “boss” has a “right of command” to control their behavior.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



131. __________ is the extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control other people.

Ans:

Page: 268

Level: Medium



132. __________ power is the extent to which a manager can deny desired rewards or administer punishments to control other people.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Medium



133. The source of __________ power is the placing of an individual in a position to influence how inputs are transformed into outputs from a firm, department or small group.

Ans:

Page: 269

Level: Difficult



134. __________ power is the access to and/or the control of information.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium



135. __________ is the formal right conferred by the firm to speak as a representative for a potentially important group composed of individuals across departments or outside the firm.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium



136. __________ power resides in the individual and is independent of that individual’s position.

Ans:

Page: 270

Level: Medium



137. When a person controls another’s behavior by convincing him or her of the desirability of a goal and a reasonable way of achieving it, __________ is being used.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Difficult



138. __________ is the ability to control another’s behavior because the person wants to identify with the power source.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



139. __________ is the ability to control another’s behavior indirectly because the individual owes an obligation to you or another as part of a larger collective interest.

Ans:

Page: 271

Level: Medium



140. __________ is the process by which managers help others to acquire and use the power needed to make decisions affecting themselves and their work.

Ans:

Page: 275

Level: Easy



141. With respect to political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve contacts with units that precede or follow in a sequential production chain.

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Medium


142. In the context of political action and subunit power, __________ linkages involve contacts with units that are established to help with problems.

Ans:

Page: 281

Level: Difficult


143.__________ is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee adheres strictly to all the rules, policies, and procedures, and does not allow deviations or exceptions.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Difficult


144. __________ is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee treats customers, clients, or subordinates as numbers, things or objects.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Easy


145.__________ is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection where the employee slows down the pace of work to expand the task so that the individual appears to be working hard.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Easy


146. __________ is a political self-protection approach of redirecting responsibility by defining the task in such a way that it becomes someone else’s formal responsibility.

Ans:

Page: 282

Level: Easy


147. __________ reflects the notion that managers are “agents” of company owners.

Ans:

Page: 283

Level: Easy


148. __________ refers to the pattern of authority, influence, and acceptable managerial behavior established at the top of the organization.

Ans:

Page: 286

Level: Easy


Essay

149. Define power from an organizational behavior perspective. What is the difference between power and influence?

Page: 264Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.


150. Describe the zone of indifference.

Page: 267Level: EasyLearning Objective 1: Define interdependence, legitimacy and power, obedience, acceptance of authority and the zone of indifference.


151. What are the six forms of position power and the four forms of personal power? Briefly describe each form.

Page: 268-271

Level: Difficult




152. What are the two traditions in organizational politics?

Page: 278-279Level: MediumLearning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Traditions of Organizational Politics

153. What does the term organizational governance mean?

Page: 286Level: EasyLearning Objective 4: Discuss the traditions of organizational politics, the politics of self-protection, and politics and governance.Section Reference: Politics and Governance

File: ch13, Chapter 13: Leadership Essentials

True/False

1. A key way of differentiating between management and leadership is to argue that the role of management is to promote adaptive or useful change while the role of leadership is to promote stability or to enable the organization to run smoothly.

Page: 292

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Discuss managers versus leaders, trait leadership perspectives, and behavioral leadership perspectives.

Section Reference: Managers versus Leaders

2. Both management and leadership are needed in an organization, and if managers do not assume responsibility for both, then they should ensure that someone else handles the neglected activity

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Medium



3. Leadership is the process of influencing others to understand and agree about what needs to be done and how to do it, and the process of facilitating individual and collective efforts to accomplish shared objectives.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



4. Leadership appears in two forms: implicit leadership and explicit leadership.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Medium



5. Formal leadership is exerted by persons who are appointed or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



6. Informal leadership is exerted by persons who become influential because they have special skills that meet the resource needs of others.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



7. Trait perspectives assume that traits play a central role in differentiating between leaders and non-leaders or in predicting leader or organizational outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Trait Leadership Perspectives

8. The “great person-trait approach” is a new approach to studying leadership that focuses on the relationship between empowerment and leadership.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Easy



9. Trait theories reveal that leaders who tend to be energetic, operate on an even keel, are ambitious, and have a high need for achievement.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Easy



10. Trait perspectives indicate that leaders crave power not as a means to achieving a vision or desired goals but as an end in itself.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Medium



11. Leaders must have enough emotional maturity to recognize their own strengths and weaknesses, and have to be oriented toward self-improvement.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Easy



12. Prosocial power motivation refers to a high need for achievement.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Medium



13. Leaders do not need to be brilliant and they usually do not have to possess extensive specific knowledge concerning their industry, firm, and job.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Difficult



14. The behavioral perspective of leadership assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Behavioral Leadership Perspectives

15. Leadership studies conducted at the University of Michigan derived two basic forms of leader behavior called consideration and initiating structure.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



16. Two basic forms of leader behavior, called employee-centered and production-centered, were identified as a result of leadership studies conducted at the University of Michigan.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



17. According to the Michigan leadership studies, employee-centered supervisors are those who place strong emphasis on their subordinates’ welfare.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



18. The results of the Michigan leadership studies indicate that production-centered supervisors tend to have more productive work groups than employee-centered supervisors.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



19. Sometimes the more general terms of human relations oriented leadership and task oriented leadership are used to refer, respectively, to employee-centered supervisors and production-centered supervisors.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



20. Two basic forms of leader behavior derived by leadership studies at Ohio State University include employee-centered and production-centered behaviors.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



21. A highly considerate leader is sensitive to people’s feelings and, much like the employee-centered leader, tries to make things pleasant for his or her followers.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



22. A leader high in initiating structure is concerned with defining task requirements and other aspects of the work agenda.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



23. Initial results of the Ohio State leadership studies were deceptive in indicating that effective leaders were high on both consideration and initiating structure.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



24. Consideration is analogous to socioemotional leadership and initiating structure is analogous to task leadership.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



25. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be moderate on: consideration behaviors and initiating structure behaviors.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



26. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton developed the “leadership grid” approach, which emphasizes combinations of concern for production and concern for people.

Ans:

Pages: 294-295

Level: Medium



27. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton’s leadership grid results are plotted on a fifteen-position grid.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



28. According to the leadership grid, leaders with a 1/1 style are termed “impoverished,” while a 5/5 style is labeled “middle of the road.”

Ans:

Page: 295

Level: Medium



29. According to the leadership grid, a leader with a 9/1 style has high concern for people and high concern for production.

Ans:

Page: 295

Level: Medium



30. According to the leadership grid, a leader with a 9/9 style is high on both concern for people and concern for production, and has the ideal leadership style.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium



31. Some research carried out in the United States, Britain, Hong Kong and Japan, on cross cultural implications shows that leadership behaviors should be carried out in the same ways in alternative cultures.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Easy



32. Successful leaders adjust their influence attempts to the situation.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Easy



33. Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with situational contingencies to predict leader or organizational outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 2: Outline the situational contingency approaches to leadership.

Section Reference: Situational Contingency Leadership

34. According to situational leadership theories, leader flexibility should be the most predictive in stable environments or when leaders lead the same people over time.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Difficult



35. According to situational leadership theories, prosocial power motivation is likely to be most important in complex organizations where decision implementation requires lots of persuasion and social influence.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium



36. According to situational leadership models, leader traits and behaviors will have less impact in a strong situation than in a weak unstructured situation.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium



37. Fiedler’s leadership contingency view holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader’s style and the demands of the situation.

Ans:

Page: 296-297

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Fiedler’s Leadership Contingency View

38. The least-preferred co-worker scale is a measure of a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom respondents have been able to work least well.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



39. Fielder argues that low LPC leaders have a relationship-motivated leadership style, whereas high LPC leaders have a task-motivated leadership style.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



40. According to Fiedler’s contingency theory, the relationship-motivated leader has greater group effectiveness under high or low situational control.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Difficult



41. In Fiedler’s contingency theory, situational control is a function of leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



42. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource perspective, a leader should use directive or nondirective behavior depending on the following situational contingencies: the leader’s or subordinate group members’ ability or competency, stress, experience, and group support of the leader.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Medium



43. Cognitive resource theory views nondirective leader behavior as most helpful for performance when the leader is competent, relaxed, and supported.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Difficult



44. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource theory, group member ability becomes most important when the leader is directive and receives strong support from group members.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Difficult



45. In Fiedler’s LPC instrument, the biggest controversy concerns exactly what Fiedler’s LPC instrument measures.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Easy



46. In leader match training, leaders are trained to diagnose the situation to match their high or low LPC scores with situational control.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Medium



47. Because unanswered questions concerning Fiedler’s contingency theory remain, the perspective and the leader match program have relatively little support.

Ans:

Page: 299

Level: Medium



48. Robert House’s path-goal leadership theory has its roots in the expectancy model of motivation.

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Path-Goal View of Leadership

49. House’s path-goal theory of leadership assumes that a leader’s key function is to adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingencies that influence the accomplishment of personal goals and organizational goals.

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Easy



50. In House’s leadership theory, the term path-goal emphasizes how a leader influences subordinates’ perceptions of both work goals and personal goals and the links found between these two sets of goals.

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Easy



51. Directive leadership is predicted to have a positive impact on subordinates when the task is ambiguous; it is predicted to have just the opposite effect for clear tasks.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult



52. Supportive leadership will increase the satisfaction of subordinates who work on highly repetitive tasks or on tasks considered to be unpleasant, stressful, or frustrating.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Medium



53. Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that most aspects have been thoroughly validated.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Medium



54. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory focuses on the situational contingency of maturity, or “readiness,” of followers.

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Hersey and Blanchard Situational Leadership Model

55. Hersey and Blanchard argue that situational leadership requires adjusting the leader’s emphasis on task behaviors and relationship behaviors according to the readiness of followers to perform their tasks.

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Medium



56. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a “telling” leadership style is best for low follower readiness.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Medium



57. Substitutes for leadership can prevent a leader from behaving in a certain way or nullify the effects of a leader’s actions.

Ans:

Page: 304

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Substitutes for Leadership

58. Passive followership beliefs are beliefs that followers should express opinions, take initiative, and constructively question and challenge leaders.

Ans:

Page: 308

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 3: Compare the implicit leadership theories and implicit followership theories.

Section Reference: Implicit Followership Theories

59. Transactional leaders are those leaders who are capable of having a profound and extraordinary effect on followers.

Ans:

Page: 309

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Discuss the inspirational and relational perspectives of leadership.

Section Reference: Charismatic Leadership

60. Conger and Kanungo developed a five-stage charismatic leadership model.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



61. Transformational leadership involves leader-follower exchanges necessary for achieving routine performance agreed upon between leaders and followers.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Transactional and Transformational Leadership

62. Transactional leadership includes the four dimensions of charisma, inspiration, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



63. Dark-side charismatic can have negative effects on followers.

Ans:

Page: 313

Level: Easy



Multiple Choice

64. The role of __________ is to promote adaptive or useful change.a) directingb) managementc) leadershipd) administratione) supervision

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



65. __________ is the process of influencing others to understand and agree about what needs to be done and how to do it, and the process of facilitating individual and collective efforts to accomplish shared objectives.

a) Supervisionb) Directingc) Managementd) Administratione) Leadership

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



66. Leadership appears in two forms, which are __________. a) formal leadership and informal leadershipb) explicit leadership and implicit leadershipc) administrative leadership and supervisory leadershipd) behavioral leadership and mechanistic leadershipe) organic leadership and mechanistic leadership

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



67. __________ is exerted by persons appointed to or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations.

a) Informal leadershipb) Administrative leadershipc) Bureaucratic leadershipd) Formal leadershipe) Authoritative leadership

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



68. The __________ to studying leadership sought to identify important differences between leaders and non-leaders.

a) behavioral approachb) methodical approachc) contingency approachd) scientific approache) great person-trait approach

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Medium



69. The __________ assumes that leadership is central to performance and other outcomes.a) behavioral perspectiveb) trait perspectivec) contingency perspectived) contemporary perspectivee) psychological perspective

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



70. Which of the following is NOT a trait with positive implications for successful leadership?a) Prosocial power motivationb) Emotional maturityc) Perseveranced) Flexibilitye) All of the above

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Easy



71. Leadership studies at the University of Michigan developed which two basic forms of leader behavior?

a) Consideration and initiating structureb) Implicit and explicitc) Proactive and reactived) Employee centered and production centerede) In-groups and out-groups

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



72. According to the Michigan leadership studies, __________ supervisors are those who place strong emphasis on their subordinates’ welfare.

a) production-centeredb) administration-centeredc) employee-centeredd) task-centerede) process-centered

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



73. According to the Michigan leadership studies, __________ supervisors are primarily concerned with getting the work done.

a) process-centeredb) production-centeredc) employee-centeredd) administration-centerede) task-centered.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



74. Leadership studies conducted at Ohio State University derived which two basic forms of leader behavior?

a) Consideration and initiating structureb) Implicit and explicitc) Proactive and reactived) Employee centered and production centerede) In-groups and out-groups

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



75. According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in __________ is sensitive to people’s feelings and tries to make things pleasant for the followers.

a) initiating structureb) attention to detailc) task orientationd) consideratione) human relations orientation

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



76. According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in __________ is concerned with spelling out the task requirements and clarifying other aspects of the work agenda.

a) consideration

b) initiating structurec) attention to detaild) production orientatione) employee orientation

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



77. Consideration is sometimes called __________ leadership and initiating structure is sometimes called __________ leadership.

a) socioemotional; taskb) task; socioemotionalc) socioemotional; 9/9d) production-centered; task-orientede) human relations oriented; employee-centered

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



78. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be __________ on consideration and __________ on initiating structure.

a) low; lowb) low; highc) moderate; moderated) high; lowe) high; high

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Easy



79. When using the leadership grid, results are plotted on a nine-position grid that places concern for __________ on the vertical axis and concern for __________ on the horizontal axis.

a) structure; performanceb) people; productionc) task orientation;human relationsd) initiating structure; consideratione) financial performance; people

Ans:

Page: 294-295

Level: Medium



80. Which of the following does NOT provide an accurate description of leadership styles in the Blake and Mouton leadership grid?

a) A 1/1 manager is termed team management.b) A 1/9 manager has minimum concern for production and maximum concern for

people.c) A 5/5 manager is a middle of the road manager.d) A 9/1 manager has maximum concern for production and minimum concern for

people.e) A 9/9 manager has a maximum concern for both people and production.

Ans:

Page: 295

Level: Difficult



81. Leaders with a 1/9 leadership style possess which of the following?a) Low concern for production and high concern for peopleb) Low concern for people and high concern for productionc) Low concern for both people and productiond) High concern for both people and productione) None of the above

Ans:

Page: 295

Level: Medium



82. According to Blake and Mouton, the “country club management” term refers to leaders with:a) Low concern for production and high concern for peopleb) Low concern for people and high concern for productionc) Low concern for both people and productiond) High concern for both people and productione) None of the above

Ans:

Page: 295

Level: Medium



83. According to the leadership grid, a 9/1 leader has a(n) _________________ style.a) country club managementb) impoverishedc) task managementd) team managemente) middle of the road

Ans:

Page: 295-296

Level: Medium



84. Research conducted in the United States, Britain, Hong Kong and Japan show that leadership behaviors _________________.

a) are the same in all four countriesb) are not importantc) must be carried out in different ways in alternative culturesd) must be carried out the same way in different culturese) change consistently by country

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium



85. Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with __________ to predict leader or organizational outcomes.

a) industry experienceb) educational backgroundc) leadership experienced) agee) situational contingencies

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Easy



86. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to situational leadership theories?

a) Leader flexibility should be the most predictive in stable environments or when leaders lead the same people over time.

b) Prosocial power motivation is likely to be most important in complex organizations where decision implementation requires lots of persuasion and social influence.

c) An example of a strong situation is a highly formal organization with lots of rules and procedures.

d) Leader traits and behaviors will have less impact in a strong situation than in a weak, unstructured situation.

e) The effects of traits are enhanced by their relevance to the leader’s situational contingencies.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Difficult



87. In Fiedler’s leadership contingency theory, a leader’s style is essentially a(n) ________.a) powerb) strengthc) trait measure

d) personalitye) ego

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Medium



88. Fiedler argues that high LPC leaders have a(n) __________ style, whereas low LPC leaders have a(n) __________ style.

a) consideration; initiating structureb) employee-centered; production-centeredc) task-oriented; human-relations orientedd) relationship-motivated; task-motivatede) consideration; mechanistic

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with regard to Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership?

a) Situational control is the extent to which leaders can determine what their group is going to do and what the outcomes of their actions and decisions are going to be.

b) The least preferred co-worker scale is a measure of a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom the respondent has been able to work least well.

c) Fiedler argues that high LPC leaders have a relationship-motivated style.d) Fiedler argues that relationship-oriented leaders have greater group effectiveness

under high and low situational control, whereas task-oriented leaders have more effective group effectiveness under moderate situational control.

e) Fiedler argues that low LPC leaders have a task-motivated style.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Difficult



90. In his contingency theory of leadership, Fiedler measures high, moderate, and low situational control with which of the following three variables?

a) human relations orientation, task identity, and personal powerb) leader-member relations, task structure, and position powerc) position power, human relations orientation, and environmental complexityd) human relations orientation, task variety, and environmental complexitye) personal power, task variety, and leader-member relations

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



91. According to Fiedler, the extent to which a position enables a leader to use his or her task expertise and authority to reward or punish subordinates is called __________.

a) leader-member relationsb) position powerc) leadership styled) task structuree) situational control

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Medium



92. Assume you are the supervisor of a group of bank tellers. Your subordinates are highly supportive, their jobs are well defined, and you have clear authority to evaluate and reward their performance. Which of the following leadership styles would be most recommended based upon Fiedler’s theory?

a) task-motivatedb) relationship- motivatedc) human relationsd) team- motivatede) achievement- motivated

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Difficult



93. Suppose that the following features characterize the leadership situation in a specific work team: (a) The skills required in each team member’s job, the order in which tasks are to be performed, and the interdependencies among the various jobs are all clearly defined. (b) The supervisor frequently criticizes team members and readily punishes them because he has the power to do so. (c) Because the supervisor is punitive, the team members try to undermine his authority and sabotage his leadership. Which leadership style likely would be most effective in this situation?

a) task- motivatedb) relationship-motivatedc) human relationsd) team- motivatede) achievement- motivated

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Difficult



94. According to Fiedler’s cognitive resource theory, whether a leader should use directive or nondirective behavior depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT:

a) the leader’s or subordinate group members’ ability or competency.b) stress.c) experience.d) industry.e) group support of the leader.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Difficult



95. The biggest controversy about Fiedler’s contingency theory concerns __________.a) the three variables that Fiedler chose to measure –– high, moderate, and low controlb) what Fiedler’s LPC instrument measuresc) Fiedler’s notion of situational controld) Fiedler’s definition of position powere) Fielder’s behavioral interpretation

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Medium



96. In __________, leaders are trained to diagnose the situation to match their high or low LPC scores with situational control.

a) diagnostic developmentb) situational control analysisc) leader match trainingd) situational diagnosticse) leader analysis profiling

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Medium



97. Which of the following leadership theories has it roots in the expectancy model of motivation?

a) Attribution theoryb) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theoryc) House’s path-goal theoryd) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theorye) Fiedler’s contingency theory

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Medium



98. In House’s leadership theory, __________ refers to how a leader influences subordinates’ perceptions of both work goals and personal goals and the links found between these two sets of goals.

a) goal-linkageb) goal-congruencec) path-congruenced) path-goale) linking-pin

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Difficult



99. House’s path-goal theory of leadership assumes that a leader’s key function is to _________ in the work setting.

a) maintain his or her work behaviorsb) keep changing his or her behaviorsc) reinforce his or her typical behaviorsd) adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingenciese) teach employees his or her normal behaviors

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Difficult



100. According to House’s path-goal leadership model, which of the following behaviors is part of a directive leadership style?

a) showing concern for the status and needs of subordinatesb) soliciting the suggestions of subordinatesc) displaying confidence that subordinates are able to meet high performance standardsd) treating subordinates as equalse) spelling out the what and how of subordinates’ tasks

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Difficult



101. According to House’s path-goal model, which of the following behaviors is part of achievement-oriented leadership?

a) showing concern for the status and needs of subordinatesb) soliciting the suggestions of subordinatesc) emphasizing challenging goals, stressing performance excellence, and displaying

confidence that subordinates are able to meet high standards of performanced) using suggestions of subordinates when making decisionse) spelling out the what and how of subordinates’ tasks

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Difficult



102. According to the path-goal leadership theory, a manager is showing a participative leadership style when he/she __________.

a) lets subordinates know what performance is expectedb) expects the highest levels of performancec) consults with subordinates and takes their suggestions into account before making

decisionsd) treats subordinates as equals during decision makinge) acts friendly to subordinates

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Medium



103. Len and John are managers. Len spends a lot of time scheduling work to be done and providing guidance on its accomplishment. John takes great care to listen to his subordinates’ concerns and act friendly toward them. In the terminology of House’s path-goal theory, Len is acting as a(n) __________ leader, while John is acting as a(n) __________ leader.

a) directive; achievement-orientedb) directive; supportivec) achievement-oriented; participatived) achievement-oriented; supportivee) autocratic; democratic

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Difficult



104. The path-goal theory predicts that ___________ leadership is called for when ambiguous tasks are performed by highly authoritarian and close-minded subordinates.

a) directiveb) supportive

c) achievement-orientedd) authoritariane) participative

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult



105. The path-goal theory predicts that a(n) __________ supervisor would help traditional assembly-line auto worker jobs, which are typically repetitive, more pleasant.

a) directiveb) supportivec) achievement-orientedd) authoritariane) participative

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult



106. Which of the following statements about House’s path-goal theory is true?a) Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out

that many aspects have not been tested adequately.

b) Training could be used to change leadership behavior to fit the situational contingencies.

c) The leader could be taught to diagnose the situation and learn how to try to change the contingency.

d) There is very little recent research concerning the theory.e) The path-goal theory is the most highly regarded leadership theory.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult



107. The __________ model focuses on the situational contingency of maturity or “readiness” of followers.

a) romance of leadership b) situational leadership c) supportive leadership d) transformational e) passive followership

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Medium



108. Hersey and Blanchard argue that situational leadership requires adjusting the leader’s emphasis on task behaviors and relationship behaviors according to the __________.

a) readiness of followers to perform their tasksb) readiness of leaders to empower their followersc) willingness of leaders to interact with their followersd) willingness of followers to embrace a broad zone of indifferencee) leader’s position power

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Medium



109. Which of the following is NOT one of the four styles of leadership identified by Hersey and Blanchard?

a) Delegatingb) Participatingc) Sellingd) Tellinge) Motivating

Ans:

Page: 303

Level: Medium



110. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a telling style of leadership is best for __________.a) low follower readinessb) low to moderate follower readinessc) moderate to high follower readinessd) high follower readinesse) veteran employees who are highly prepared for a particular job

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Easy



111. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a __________ style of leadership is best for high follower readiness.

a) delegatingb) directingc) participatingd) sellinge) telling

Ans:

Page: 303

Level: Medium



112. Use of __________ theory requires the leader to develop the capability to diagnose the demands of situations in terms of follower readiness and then to choose and implement the appropriate leadership response.

a) Attribution b) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership c) House’s path-goal d) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange e) Fiedler’s contingency

Ans:

Pages: 303-304

Level: Medium



113. All of the following are substitutes for leadership EXCEPT:a) individuals’ experience, ability and training.b) highly structured/routine jobs.c) intrinsically satisfying jobs.d) cohesive work groups.e) high leader position power.

Ans:

Page: 304

Level: Medium



114. __________ make(s) a leader’s influence either unnecessary or redundant in that they replace a leader’s influence.

a) Diverse team membershipb) Ethical team valuesc) Substitutes for leadershipd) Substitutes for followershipe) Substitutes for technology

Ans:

Page: 304

Level: Medium



115. Meindl referred to the phenomenon whereby people attribute almost magical qualities to leadership as _____________.

a) the romance of leadershipb) a leadership prototypec) leadership as attributiond) inference-based attritione) transactional leadership

Ans:

Page: 305

Level: Medium



116. According to __________ approaches, individual behavior is constructed in context, as people act and interact in situations.

a) supportive leadershipb) social constructionc) situational leadershipd) trait perspectivese) leader match training

Ans:

Page: 308

Level: Easy



117. Research suggests that high-quality LMX is associated with all of the following outcomes EXCEPT:

a) increased follower satisfaction.b) increased follower productivity.c) decreased turnover.d) increased salaries.e) slower promotion rates.

Ans:

Page: 313

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Leader-Member Exchange Theory

118. The __________ of charismatic leadership emphasizes personalized power, whereas the __________ of charismatic leadership emphasizes empowerment of followers.

f) bright side; dark sideg) selfish side; unselfish sideh) sustainable side; unsustainable sidei) dark side; bright sidej) strong side; weak side

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



119. Conger and Kanungo have argued that if leaders rely on vision articulation, environmental sensitivity, and unconventional behavior, rather than on maintaining the status quo, followers will tend to attribute __________ leadership to them.

k) traditional l) charismatic m) transactional n) transformational o) managerial

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



120. The four dimensions of transactional leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:p) contingent rewards.q) active management by exception.r) passive management by exception.s) management by example.t) laissez-faire.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



121. Which of the following is NOT one of the four dimensions of transformational leadership?

u) Charismav) Physical staminaw) Inspirationx) Intellectual stimulationy) Individualized consideration

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



122. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?z) Transformational leadership is likely to be strongest at the top-management level.aa) Transformational leadership is found throughout the organization.bb) Transformational leadership operates in combination with transactional

leadership.cc) Transformational leadership is similar to most of the traditional leadership

approaches.dd) Leaders need both transactional and transformational leadership to be successful.

Ans:

Page: 311

Level: Medium



Fill in the blank

123. The role of __________ is to promote stability or to enable the organization to run smoothly, whereas the role of __________ is to promote adaptive or useful changes.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Easy



124. __________ leadership is exerted by persons who become influential because they have special skills that meet the resource needs of others.

Ans:

Page: 292

Level: Medium



125. __________ perspectives assume that traits play a central role in differentiating between leaders and non-leaders or in predicting leader or organizational outcomes.

Ans:

Page: 293

Level: Difficult



126. In the Michigan leadership studies, __________-centered supervisors were found to have more productive work groups than did __________-centered supervisors.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



127. __________ leadership is a more general term for employee-centered supervision.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Difficult



128. __________ leadership is a more general term for production-centered supervision.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Difficult



129. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton developed the __________, based on extensions of the Ohio State leadership dimensions.

Ans:

Page: 294

Level: Medium



130. __________ theory holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader’s style and the demands of the situation.

Ans:

Page: 296

Level: Easy



131. Fielder used the __________ to measure a person’s leadership style based on a description of the person with whom the respondent has been able to work least well.

Ans:

Page: 297

Level: Difficult



132. Fiedler recently moved beyond his contingency theory of leadership by developing the__________ theory.

Ans:

Page: 298

Level: Medium



133. __________ theory assumes that a leader’s key function is to adjust his or her behaviors to complement situational contingencies that influence the accomplishment of personal goals and organizational goals.

Ans:

Page: 300

Level: Medium



134. The path-goal theory predicts that __________ leadership is expected to have a positive impact on subordinates when the task is ambiguous.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Difficult



135. The path-goal theory predicts that __________ leadership will promote satisfaction on non-repetitive tasks that allow for the ego involvement of subordinates.

Ans:

Page: 301

Level: Easy



136. _________ theory focuses on the situational contingency of maturity, or “readiness,” of followers.

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Medium



137. According to the Hersey and Blanchard situational leadership model, _________ is the extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task.

Ans:

Page: 302

Level: Easy



138. In contrast to other approaches to studying leadership, the __________ approach argues that sometimes hierarchical leadership makes essentially no difference.

Ans:

Page: 304

Level: Medium



139. People attributing romantic, almost magical qualities to leadership is known as the __________.

Ans:

Page: 305

Level: Medium



140. A(n) __________ is an image that people have in their minds regarding what a model leader should look like.

Ans:

Page: 306

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Implicit Leadership Theories

141. __________ are preconceived notions about the attributes associated with leaders that reflect the structure and content of “cognitive categories” used to distinguish leaders from nonleaders.

Ans:

Page: 306

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Implicit Leadership Theories

142. __________ are beliefs that followers should be passive, deferent, and obedient to authority.

Ans:

Page: 308

Level: Medium



143. __________ are those who, by force of their personal abilities, are capable of having a profound and extraordinary impact on followers.

Ans:

Page: 309

Level: Easy



144. __________ leadership involves leader-follower exchanges necessary for achieving routine performance agreed upon between leaders and followers.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Medium



145. __________ leadership occurs when leaders broaden and elevate followers’ interests, when they generate awareness and acceptance of the group’s purpose and mission, and when they stir followers to look beyond their own interests for the good of others.

Ans:

Page: 310

Level: Easy



146. The __________ dimension of transformational leadership provides vision and a sense of mission, and it instills pride, along with follower respect and trust.

Ans:

Page: 311

Level: Easy



Essay

147. What is leadership and how does it differ from management?

Page: 292-293

Level: Medium



148. Briefly describe the differing emphases of the trait perspectives of leadership, the behavioral perspectives of leadership, and situational contingency theories of leadership.

Page: 293-296

Level: Medium





149. Discuss Fiedler’s leadership contingency view.

Page: 296-297

Level: Medium



150. What is meant by the concept of substitutes for leadership?Page: 304

Level: Medium



151. What is the difference between transactional and transformational leadership?Page: 310-311

Level: Medium



File: ch14, Chapter 14: Leadership Challenges and Organizational Change

True/False

1. Servant leadership involves both owning one’s personal experiences and acting in accordance with one’s true self.

Ans:

Page: 322

Level: Difficult

Learning Objective 1: Define authentic, spiritual, servant, and ethical leadership.

Section Reference: Servant Leadership

2. Self-efficacy is a person’s belief that he or she can perform adequately in a situation.

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Authentic Leadership

3. Spiritual leadership has a strong research base in organizational behavior.

Ans:

Page: 321

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Spiritual Leadership

4. Greenleaf argued that the primary purpose of business should be to create a positive impact on both its employees and community.

Ans:

Page: 322

Level: Difficult



5. Spiritual leadership is viewed as a field of inquiry within the broader setting of workplace spirituality.

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Easy



6. Servant leadership is rooted in organizational behavior research.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Easy



7. Authentic leadership is similar to ethical leadership in that both types of leadership express a concern for others, integrity, and role modeling.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Ethical Leadership

8. Transformational leaders stress authenticity and self-awareness and tend to be more transactional than other leadership aspects.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Easy



9. Ethical leaders emphasize values, vision and intellectual stimulation.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Difficult



10. Research indicates that leadership is restricted to the vertical influence of a single individual in an organization.

Ans:

Page: 324

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Discuss shared leadership in work teams and self-leadership.

Section Reference: Shared Leadership in Work Teams

11. Leadership is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but extends to other people as well.

Ans:

Page: 325

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Shared Leadership in Work Teams

12. Within a team, leadership can be assigned to one person, rotated across team members or even shared simultaneously as different needs arise across time.

Ans:

Page: 325

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Locations of Shared Leadership

13. A productive, supportive climate and commitment to continuous improvement and adaptation are unnecessary for creating and maintaining team performance.

Ans:

Page: 325

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Desired Shared Conditions

14. Shared and vertical self-directing team activities tend to encourage self-leadership activities which in turn can help individuals and the team.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Shared Leadership and Self- Leadership

15. Often self-leadership activities are divided into three broad categories: behavior-focused, personal-focused and organizational-focused.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium



16. Behavior-focused strategies of self leadership include: self observation, self goal achievement, self congratulations, and self maintenance.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Behavior- Focused Strategies

17. Self observation involves examining your own behavior to increase awareness of when and why you engage in certain behaviors.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Easy



18. Heightened self awareness is a first step in behavior change.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Easy



19. Self-rewards, in conjunction with self observation, can be very useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment only when they are real and not imaginary.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Self- Rewards

20. Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment.

Ans:

Pages: 326-327

Level: Medium



21. Constructive thought patterns focus on the development of reinforcement strategies for behavioral change.

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Constructive Thought Patterns

22. Self-analysis and improvement of belief systems, mental imagery of successful performance outcomes and positive self-talk can influence a team member’s thoughts and positively affect performance.

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Medium



23. Self analysis and improvement of belief systems, mental imagery of successful performance outcomes and positive self-talk tend to serve as partial substitutes for ethical leadership.

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Difficult



24. Shared leadership is the only way to lead in business today.

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Medium



25. Often shared leadership is used in combination with vertical leadership.

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Easy



26. Project GLOBE is built around the assumption that leadership variables and cultural variables can be meaningfully applied at societal and organizational levels.

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Describe the GLOBE perspective, leadership aspects and culture, culturally endorsed leadership matches, and universally endorsed aspects of leadership.

Section Reference: The GLOBE Perspective

27. The central assumption behind the GLOBE theoretical model is that similar attributes and entities across cultures are most effective in organizations.

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Medium



28. According to the GLOBE theoretical model, over time, founders and subsequent organizational leaders respond to organizational culture and alter their behavior/leadership styles.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



29. According to the GLOBE theoretical model, acceptance of the leader by followers does NOT facilitate leader effectiveness.

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Medium



30. The cultural dimension “uncertainty avoidance” within the GLOBE theoretical model refers to reliance on social norms, rules, etc., to alleviate future unpredictability.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Leadership Aspects and Culture

31. The cultural dimension “in-group collectivism” refers to the rewarding of collective actions.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Difficult



32. The cultural dimension of institutional collectivism refers to the rewarding of collective actions versus individual rewards.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



33. Performance orientation, a cultural dimension within the GLOBE theoretical model, refers to the collective encouraging and rewarding of a group for performance improvement versus rewarding for membership.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



34. The GLOBE’s theoretical model has three broad-based leadership dimensions encompassing ten primarily leadership dimensions and a small number of leadership items and attributes.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Easy



35. The six broad-based leadership dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model are: charismatic/value based, team-oriented, participative, humane-oriented, autonomous and self-protective.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



36. The autonomous leadership dimension of the GLOBE theoretical model refers to ensuring safety and security of the individual, self-centered and face saving.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



37. The humane-oriented dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model refer to the degree to which the leader stresses support, consideration, compassion, and generosity.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



38. Cultural implicit leadership dimensions (CLT’s) within the GLOBE theoretical model, are similar to the term “prototypes.”

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Medium



39. The GLOBE theoretical model presents summary comparisons among culture clusters to indicate which clusters are most likely to endorse or refute the importance of six CLT leadership prototype dimensions.

Ans:

Page: 330

Level: Medium



40. Summary comparisons on the GLOBE study among culture clusters indicate a sharp similarity between the study’s Anglo cluster and the Middle East cluster.

Ans:

Page: 330

Level: Medium



41. The GLOBE study sought only to understand the attributes of leadership universally endorsed as relating to either effective or ineffective leadership across sampled countries.

Ans:

Page: 331

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Universally Endorsed Aspects of Leadership

42. An important point to remember from the GLOBE study is that there are dramatically different expectations for leaders in different cultures.

Ans:

Page: 332

Level: Easy



43. In addition to the traditional challenges of management, the forces of globalization as well as the state of the current economic environment provide a number of problems and opportunities to even the most experienced organizational executives.

Ans:

Page: 332

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 4: Discuss how to lead organizational change.


44. The four leadership contexts consist of stability, crisis, dynamic equilibrium, and near the edge of chaos.

Ans:

Page: 333

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Four Leadership Contexts

45. Radical change, or transformational change, results in a major overhaul of the organization or its component systems.

Ans:

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Leaders as Change Agents

46. The success of both radical and incremental change in organizations depends in part on change agents who lead and support the change processes.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



47. Unplanned change may be disruptive, such as a wildcat strike that ends in a plant closure, or beneficial, such as an interpersonal conflict that results in a new procedure designed to smooth the flow of work between two departments.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



48. Most unplanned changes may be regarded as efforts intended to deal with performance gaps in ways that benefit an organization and its members.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Difficult



49. The driving forces for change in organizations of all types and sizes can be found in the organization-environment relationship, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations.

Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Forces and Targets for Change

50. When considering the targets of change, it must be recognized that changes in any one target are likely to require or involve changes in the other targets.

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Easy



51. The planned change model suggests that a change effort be viewed as a process with three distinct phases: listening, doing, and evaluating.

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Planned Change Strategies

52. Through a force-coercion change strategy, a change agent acts unilaterally to “command” change through the formal authority of his or her position, to induce change via an offer of special rewards, or to bring about change via threats of punishment.

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Easy



53. When successful, a force-coercion change strategy results in a longer lasting, more internalized change than does a rational persuasion strategy.

Ans:

Pages: 338-339

Level: Difficult



54. Sometimes called a normative-reeducative approach, a rational persuasion strategy tries to develop direction and support for change through involvement and empowerment.

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Difficult



55. Resistance to change is any attitude or behavior that shows unwillingness to make or support a change.

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Easy



56. A helpful view of resistance to change is that it represents feedback that the change agent can use to facilitate achieving change objectives.

Ans:

Pages: 339-340

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Resistance to Change

57. People may believe that a change is not worth their time, effort, or attention, but they seldom reject a change for these reasons.

Ans:

Page: 340

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Resistance to the Change Itself

58. Resistance to the change agent is directed at the person implementing the change and often involves personality and other differences.

Ans:

Page: 340

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Resistance to the Change Agent

59. The education and communication approach for dealing with resistance to change is intended to educate people about a change before it is implemented and to help them understand the logic of the change.

Ans:

Page: 341

Level: Easy


Section Reference: How to Deal with Resistance

60. The facilitation and support approach for dealing with resistance to change seems to work best when people are frustrated by work constraints and difficulties encountered in the change process.

Ans:

Page: 341

Level: Easy



Multiple Choice

61. “Know thyself” is the essential argument of __________ leadership.a) ethicalb) authenticc) servantd) spirituale) transformational

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Easy



62. Which of the following is NOT a core quality of a spiritual leader?a) Visionb) Altruistic lovec) Hoped) Faithe) Obedience

Ans:

Page: 322

Level: Medium



63. Which of the following, refers to altruistic love?a) Defining the destination and journeyb) Forgiveness, acceptance, and honestyc) Endurance and perseveranced) Having stretch goalse) Reflecting high ideals

Ans:

Page: 322

Level: Medium



64. According to Robert Greenleaf, all of the following statements about servant leadership are correct EXCEPT:

a) the primary purpose of business should be to create a positive impact on both its employees and community.

b) the leader is attended to basic spiritual values and in serving these, serves others such as colleagues, the organization and society.

c) servant leadership is not a special case of leadership but instead is a special kind of service.

d) servant leadership helps others discover their outer spirit.e) servant leadership is best demonstrated by those with a vision and a desire to

serve others first, rather than by those seeking leadership roles.

Ans:

Page: 322

Level: Difficult



65. All of the following statements about spiritual leadership are correct EXCEPT:a) spiritual leadership can be viewed as field of inquiry within the broader setting of

moral leadership.b) spiritual leadership does not yet have a strong research base in organizational

behavior.

c) spiritual leadership theory is a causal leadership approach for organizational transformation designed to create an intrinsically motivated, learning organization.

d) spiritual leadership includes values, attitudes and behaviors required to intrinsically motivate self and others to have a sense of spiritual survival through calling and membership.

e) spiritual leadership intrinsically motivates the self and others to experience meaning in their lives, believe they make a difference and feel understood and appreciated.

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Difficult



66. Key similarities between authentic theories of leadership and ethical theories of leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) concern for others.b) ethical decision-making.c) integrity.d) honesty.e) role modeling.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Difficult



67. Key similarities between transformational theories of leadership and ethical theories leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) ethical decision-making.b) integrity.c) role modeling.d) concern for others.e) future-orientation.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Difficult



68. A key similarity shared by ethical, authentic, spiritual and transformational leadership is __________.

a) role modelingb) honestyc) inspirationd) encouragemente) fortitude

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Medium



69. Key similarities between authentic theories of leadership and ethical theories leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) a concern for others.b) ethical decision making.c) an emphasis on moral management.d) integrity.e) role modeling.

Ans:

Page: 323

Level: Difficult



70. According to the text, which of the following five characteristics have been identified across projects as elements to successful team performance?

a) Perseverance; one-way communication; competent, motivated performance; efficient, goal-directed effort; and optimism

b) Resilience; hope; one-way communication; adequate resources; and a productive, supportive climate

c) Efficient, goal-directed effort; adequate resources; competent, motivated performance; a productive, supportive climate; and a commitment to continuous improvement

d) Unplanned change; resilience; faith; adequate resource; and a pattern of attentione) Shared leadership; resistance to change; one-way communication; unplanned

change; and competent, motivated performance

Ans:

Page: 325

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Desired Shared Conditions

71. All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:a) leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single

individual but to other people as well.b) the influence process often involves upward or downward hierarchical influence.c) the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence. d) leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a

superior. e) the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership

is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.

Ans:

Pages: 324-326

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Shared Leadership

72. Self-leadership activities are often divided into these three broad categories:a) behavior focused, self reward and constructive thought pattern strategies.b) cognitive, behavior and emotional strategies.c) focus, ambiguous and unfocused strategies.d) bottom-up, top-down and middle strategies.e) group, individual and team strategies.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Medium



73. Behavior-focused strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:a) self observation.b) goal setting.c) self accomplishment.d) reward.e) self correcting feedback.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Difficult



74. Which of the following statements about self-rewards is inaccurate?a) Self-rewards can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment.b) Self-rewards can be real such as a steak dinner.c) Imagery, such as imagining the receipt of a bonus, is a self-reward. d) Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can prove quite useful.e) Most people do not like to often reward themselves for their activities.

Ans:

Pages: 326-327

Level: Medium



75. __________ focus on the creation or alteration of cognitive thought processes.a) Creative solutionsb) Constructive thought patternsc) Developmental idea conceptsd) Innovative approachese) Novel-mapping

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Medium



76. __________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.a) Power negotiationb) Organizational goal settingc) Shared leadershipd) Teamworke) Individual leadership

Ans:

Page: 327

Level: Medium



77. All of the following pertain to the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT:a) the study used a multiple measure approach with a strong emphasis on

questionnaires built around the assumption that leadership variables and cultural variables can be meaningfully applied at societal and organizational levels.

b) the key assumption behind the model is that the attributes and entities that differentiate a specified culture predict organizational practices and leader attributes and behaviors that are most often carried out and most effective in that culture.

c) the study sample was comprised of middle managers in the telecommunication, food and banking industries.

d) the GLOBE project is headed by Robert House.e) the GLOBE project involves countries in Asia and North America only.

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Medium



78. The original GLOBE theoretical model includes all of the following aspects EXCEPT:a) over time, founders and subsequent organizational leaders respond to

organizational culture and alter their behaviors/leaderships styles. b) leader acceptance is a function of the interaction between CLT’s and leader

attributes and behaviors. c) leader strength is based on strong relationships inside and outside the groups.d) acceptance of the leader by followers facilitates leader effectiveness.e) leader effectiveness, over time, will increase leader acceptance.

Ans:

Pages: 328-329

Level: Medium



79. Which of the following is NOT a cultural dimension within the GLOBE theoretical model?

a) Assertivenessb) Ethical proactivityc) Future orientationd) Gender egalitarianisme) Power distance

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



80. All of the following are leadership dimensions of the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT:

a) charismatic/value based.b) team-oriented.c) fortitude.d) self-protective.e) autonomous.

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



81. Which of the following sets represent CLT leadership dimensions?a) self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-orientedb) autonomous, participative, driven, focus-orientedc) charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance drivend) implicit, explicit, specific, detailede) top-level, bottom-up, middle, secular

Ans:

Page: 329

Level: Medium



82. All of the following leadership dimensions were related to ineffective leaders, according to the GLOBE theoretical model EXCEPT:

a) irritability.b) egocentricity.c) non-cooperativeness.d) dictatorial.e) strong-minded.

Ans:

Page: 331

Level: Medium



83. Culturally contingent endorsement of leader characteristics, according to the GLOBE theoretical model involved all of the following EXCEPT:

a) individualistic.b) status conscious.c) risk taking.d) emotional.e) self sacrificing.

Ans:

Page: 331

Level: Medium



84. Which of the following does NOT reflect one of the four contexts for leadership action?a) Stabilityb) Crisisc) Retrenchmentd) Dynamic equilibriume) Near the edge of chaos

Ans:

Page: 333

Level: Medium



85. The leadership context of __________ refers to a dramatic departure from prior practice and sudden threats to high-priority goals with little or no response time.

a) stabilityb) crisisc) retrenchmentd) dynamic equilibriume) near the edge of chaos

Ans:

Page: 333

Level: Medium



86. How might a leader measure success in regard to the leadership context of dynamic equilibrium?

a) By performance on assigned goalsb) Adjustment to crisis; return to normalcyc) Movement toward successful implementation of proposed change programsd) Balance of stability and dynamic adaptation to increase fitnesse) None of the above

Ans:

Page: 333

Level: Difficult



87. Context 4, __________, is a transition zone poised between order and chaos. Here, the system must rapidly adjust while maintaining sufficient stability to learn.

a) near the edge of chaosb) middle of the roadc) on the fenced) the performance gape) None of the above

Ans:

Page: 334

Level: Easy



88. When establishing giving circles, a manager ought to do which of the following?a) Find out who is interested in participating b) Provide a schedule of meeting times and locationsc) Assign an appropriate number of peopled) Educate members in a variety of activitiese) All of the above

Ans:

Page: 335

Level: Easy



89. Another name for incremental change is __________.a) subtle changeb) original changec) frame-bending changed) basic changee) temporal change

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Medium



90. The success of both radical and incremental change in organizations depends in part on __________ who lead and support the change processes.

a) change agentsb) transition agentsc) variation agentsd) alteration agentse) transformation agents

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



91. All of the following can increase transformational change effort success EXCEPT:a) developing a sense of urgency.b) have a compelling vision.c) empower others to act.d) when the team is succeeding, keep going. Don’t stop to celebrate short-term wins

or you will stop the forward moving momentum.e) build on accomplishments.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



92. Suppose unexpected conflicts occur among numerous people in several different departments of an organization, and that these conflicts ultimately result in a new policy on interdepartmental relations. This situation and its outcome could be called __________.

a) unplanned changeb) unexpected troublec) crisis management.d) organizational upheavale) human resource conflict

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Planned and Unplanned Change

93. __________ may be disruptive, such as a wildcat strike that ends in a plant closure, or beneficial, such as an interpersonal conflict that results in a new procedure designed to smooth the flow of work between two departments.

a) Casual changeb) Involuntary changec) Unplanned changed) Fortuitous changee) Contingent change

Ans:.

Page: 336

Level: Medium



94. __________ is intentional and occurs as a result of specific efforts by a change agent.a) Charted changeb) Programmed changec) Outlined changed) Arranged changee) Planned change

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



95. The decision to construct a new overseas plant can be considered to be a(n) __________.a) performance gapb) planned changec) unplanned changed) structural changee) refreezing phase

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



96. __________ is a direct response to someone’s perception of a performance gap –– a discrepancy between the desired and actual state of affairs.

a) Unplanned changeb) Arranged changec) Contingency changed) Statutory changee) Planned change

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



97. Most planned changes may be regarded as efforts intended to deal with __________ gaps in ways that benefit an organization and its members.

a) realization b) performance c) attainment d) accomplishment e) completion

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Medium



98. The __________ that are driving organizations of all types and sizes can be found in organization-environment relationships, the organizational life cycle, and the political nature of organizations.

a) forces for changeb) change agentsc) targets of changed) instruments of changee) techniques of change

Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Medium



99. __________ represent(s) forces for change that deal with mergers, strategic alliances, and divestitures as ways of redefining organizational relationships with challenging social and political environments.

a) Organization-environment relationshipsb) The organizational life cyclec) The political nature of organizationsd) The technological nature of organizationse) The structural nature of organizations

Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Medium



100. __________ represent(s) forces for change that deal with adapting the organization’s culture and structure as it grows toward maturity.

a) Organization-environment relationshipsb) The organizational life cyclec) The political nature of organizationsd) The technological nature of organizationse) The structural nature of organizations

Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Medium



101. When considering the __________, it must be recognized that changes in any one are likely to require or involve changes in the others.

a) forces for changeb) change agentsc) targets of changed) instruments of changee) techniques of change

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Medium



102. Which of the following statements about targets of planned change is NOT correct?

a) The culture target is intended to clarify or create core beliefs and values.b) The tasks target is intended to update job designs for individuals and groups.c) The objectives target focuses on setting or modifying specific performance

targets.

d) The purpose target is intended to clarify or create mission and objectives.e) The structure target focuses on clarifying or creating strategic and operational

plans.

Ans:

Page: 337

Level: Difficult



103. People respond to a(n) __________ change strategy mainly out of the fear of being punished if they do not comply with a change directive or out of the desire to gain a reward if they do.

a) unilateral effortb) force-coercionc) rational persuasiond) shared-powere) hierarchical control

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Force- Coercion

104. When change is accomplished through __________, compliance is usually only temporary and continues only as long as the change agent and his or her legitimate authority are visible, or as long as the opportunities for rewards and punishments remain obvious.

a) hierarchical controlb) shared-powerc) rational persuasiond) force-coercione) unilateral effort

Ans:

Page: 338

Level: Medium



105. When successful, the __________ results in a longer lasting, more internalized change than does force-coercion.

a) inside-outside strategyb) rational persuasion strategyc) top-down change strategyd) community involvement strategye) hierarchical control strategy

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Rational Persuasion

106. A __________ actively and sincerely involves the people who will be affected by a change in planning and making key decisions relating to this change.

a) shared-power strategyb) collaborative effort strategy

c) lateral control strategyd) force-coercion strategye) rational persuasion strategy

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Shared Power

107. Which strategy for planned change is sometimes called a normative-reeducative approach?

a) shared-power strategyb) collaborative effort strategyc) lateral control strategyd) force-coercion strategye) rational persuasion strategy

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Difficult



108. __________ is often viewed as something that must be overcome in order for change to be successful.

a) Political maneuveringb) Power sharingc) Forced coercion

d) Resistance to changee) Rational persuasion

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Easy



109. Which of the following is NOT a reason why people resist planned change?a) fear of the unknownb) lack of a felt need to changec) lack of resourcesd) selflessnesse) insecurity

Ans:

Page: 340

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Why people Resist to Change

110. In order to minimize resistance to change, the people affected by the change should know how the change meets the benefit criterion, which means that the change should __________.

a) have a clear relative advantage for the people being asked to changeb) be as compatible as possible with the existing values and experiences of the

people being asked to changec) capitalize on the relative power positions of those affected by the change and

those implementing the change

d) be no more complex than necessary; it must be as easy as possible for people to understand and use

e) be something that people can attempt on a step-by-step basis and make adjustments as things progress

Ans:

Page: 340

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Resistance to Change Strategy

111. Which of the following statements regarding resistance to the change strategy is NOT accurate?

a) People may resist a force-coercion strategy because they resent management by command or the use of threatened punishment.

b) People may resist a rational persuasion strategy in which the data are suspect or the expertise of advocates is not clear.

c) People may resist a shared-power strategy that appears manipulative and insincere.

d) Change agents never have to deal with resistance to a change strategy.e) When a change strategy is implemented people generally “buy-into” the strategy

immediately.

Ans:

Page: 340

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Resistance to Change Strategy

112. In dealing with resistance to change, the method of __________ seems to work best when people lack information or have inaccurate information.

a) facilitation and supportb) negotiation and agreementc) education and communicationd) explicit or implicit coercione) participation and involvement

Ans:

Page: 341

Level: Difficult



113. In dealing with resistance to change, the approach of __________ seems to work best when other people have important information.

a) explicit or implicit coercionb) education and supportc) manipulation and cooptationd) facilitation and supporte) participation and involvement

Ans:

Page: 341

Level: Difficult



114. In dealing with resistance to change, the method of __________ seems to work best when people are frustrated by work constraints and difficulties encountered in the change process.

a) facilitation and supportb) negotiation and agreementc) manipulation and cooptationd) explicit or implicit coercione) participation and involvement

Ans:

Page: 341

Level: Difficult



Fill in the blank

115. __________ essentially involves both owning one’s personal experiences and acting in accordance with one’s true self.

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Difficult



116. Those high in __________are argued to have optimal self-esteem, or genuine, true, stable and congruent self-esteem as opposed to fragile self-esteem based heavily on outside responses.

Ans:

Page: 320

Level: Difficult



117. SLT stands for __________.

Ans:

Page: 321

Level: Easy



118. __________is defined as a dynamic, interactive influence process among individuals in groups for which the objective is to lead one another to the achievement of group or organizational goals or both.

Ans:

Page: 324

Level: Easy



119. Shared and vertical self-directing team activities tend to encourage __________ activities which in turn can help individuals and the team.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Difficult



120. __________ strategies, of self-leadership activities, tend to increase self-awareness leading to the handling of behaviors involving necessary but not always pleasant tasks.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Behavior-Focused Strategies

121. __________is the first step toward behavioral change.

Ans:

Page: 326

Level: Difficult



122. __________ is a major project outlining the common dimensions of leadership that are important, as well as the significant differences in how effective managers lead in different cultures.

Ans:

Page: 328

Level: Easy



123. Another name for radical change is __________.

Ans:

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy



124. The term __________is used to stress the establishment of a norm where the leader is expected to ask questions, raise issues, and help gather information for unit members.

Ans:

Page: 335

Level: Medium



125. Change that results in a major overhaul of the organization or its component systems is called __________.

Ans:

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy



126. __________ is part of an organization’s natural evolution that builds on existing ways of operating to enhance or extend them in new directions.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



127. __________ are individuals and groups who take responsibility for changing the existing behavior patterns of another person or social system.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



128. __________ occur spontaneously or randomly and without a change agent’s direction.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



129. A(n) __________ is a discrepancy between the desired and the actual conditions.

Ans:

Page: 336

Level: Easy



130. Through a(n) __________ change strategy, a change agent acts unilaterally to “command” change through the formal authority of his or her position, to induce change via an offer of special rewards, or to bring about change via threats of punishment.

Ans :

Page: 338

Level: Easy



131. A(n) __________ change strategy assumes that people will be guided by reason and self-interest in deciding whether or not to support a change.

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Rational Persuasion

132. The __________ strategy is likely to result in long-term and internalized change.

Ans:

Page: 339

Level: Difficult



133. __________ can be viewed as feedback that a change agent can use to facilitate achieving change objectives.

Ans:

Pages: 339-340

Level: Medium



Essay

134. Define shared leadership. Define the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership.

Page: 324

Level: Medium



135. Define transformational change and incremental change. Discuss the role of change agents.

Pages: 335-336

Level: Easy



136. What is the difference between unplanned change and planned change? Describe the nature of each type of change.

Page: 336

Level: Medium



137. Identify six methods for dealing with resistance to change. Indicate when each method should be used and describe the potential advantages and disadvantages that are associated with using each method.

Pages: 341-342

Level: Difficult



File: ch.15, Chapter 15: Organizational Culture and Innovation

True/False

1. Communications by Wall Street firms and employees are restricted by intensely detailed regulatory guidelines that present a challenge for individual employees who wish to promote themselves using social media tools.

Ans:

Page: 346

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 1: Describe the functions of organizational behavior, subcultures and countercultures, and national and corporate culture.

Reference: Social Media and Corporations: Don’t Cross the Line When You Go Online

Section Reference: Social Media and Corporations

2. Organizational culture is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Organizational Culture

3. In the business setting, organizational culture is called corporate culture.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



4. Most organizational cultures are similar if not identical to one another.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium



5. Cultural differences can have a major impact on the performance of organizations and the quality of work life experienced by their members.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



6. Through their collective experience, members of an organization can solve two extremely important survival issues: 1) internal adaptation, and 2) competition integration.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Functions of Organizational Culture

7. The external adaptation function of organizational culture concerns issues regarding tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



8. Three important aspects of external adaptation are: (a) separating more important from less important external forces, (b) developing ways to measure accomplishments, and (c) creating explanations for why goals are not always met.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium



9. Some of the key questions regarding external adaptation are: How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for friendship?

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Medium



10. Internal integration deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of matching methods of working and living together.

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Easy



11. The process of external adaptation often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself.

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Difficult



12. In the context of internal integration, three important aspects of working together are: (a) deciding who is a member and who is not; (b) developing a formal agreement that specifies acceptable and unacceptable behavior; and (c) getting friends and enemies to collaborate with one another.

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Difficult



13. Some of the key questions regarding internal integration are: What do we do if specific targets are not met? How do we tell others how good we are? When do we quit?

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Difficult



14. Smaller firms often have a single dominant culture with a universal set of shared actions, values, and beliefs.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Subcultures and Countercultures

15. Most larger organizations contain several subcultures as well as one or more countercultures.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Easy



16. Strong subcultures are seldom found in high-performance task forces, teams, and special project groups in organizations.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



17. A subculture has a pattern of values and philosophy that outwardly rejects the surrounding culture of the larger organization or social system.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



18. Every large organization imports potentially important subcultural groupings when it hires employees from the larger society.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Easy



19. In North American companies, subcultures and countercultures may naturally form on the basis of ethnic, racial, gender, generational, or locational similarities.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Easy



20. In Japanese organizations, subcultures often form based on the date of graduation from a university, gender, or geographic location.

Ans:

Pages: 350-351

Level: Medium



21. In European firms, subcultures may form on the basis of ethnicity, language, or gender.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Easy



22. A counterculture is a group of individuals with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that is consistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



23. Research shows that most organizations originate in several national cultures and incorporate very little features from these host cultures even when they expand internationally.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Medium


Section Reference: National Cultures and Corporate

24. One of the difficulties associated with organizations importing and accepting subcultural groupings from the larger society is that the firm may encounter extreme difficulty in coping with broader cultural changes.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Easy


Section Reference: National Culture and Corporate Culture

25. One of the difficulties associated with organizations importing and accepting subcultural groupings from the larger society is that firms that accept and build on natural divisions from the large culture may find it extremely difficult to develop sound international operations. This may help to explain why many Japanese firms have had difficulty adjusting to the equal treatment of women in their US operations.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Easy



26. The multicultural organization is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societally based subcultures into the fabric of the organization.

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium



27. The Wall Street Journal reports that older workers are at greater risk of layoffs because many employers use a “first in/first out” rule when cutting back staff.

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Ethics In OB

28. In step one of Taylor Cox’s five-step program for developing the multicultural organization, the organization should develop pluralism with the objective of multi-based socialization.

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium



29. Observable culture that is the first level of cultural analysis, refers to the way things are done in a particular organization.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Easy

Learning Objective 2: Describe the layers of cultural analysis, cultural rules and roles.

Section Reference: Layers of Culture Analysis

30. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are: observable culture, implicit culture, and uncommon cultural assumptions.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



31. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are: observable culture, shared values, and common cultural assumptions.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



32. The observable culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within the firm.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Easy



33. The second level of cultural analysis focuses on common cultural assumptions that are the taken-for-granted truths that collections of corporate members share as a result of their joint experiences.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



34. Many consultants suggest that organizations should develop a dominant and coherent set of shared values.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Easy



35. The term shared in cultural analysis implies that the group is a whole.

Ans:

Pages: 353-354

Level: Medium



36. The deepest level of cultural analysis focuses on shared values that can play a critical role in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Difficult



37. Isolating common cultural assumptions is accomplished very easily that explains why culture is a relatively superficial aspect of organizational life.

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Difficult



38. Rituals are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Stories, Rites, Rituals, and Symbols

39. Sagas are important because they are used to tell new members the real mission of the organization, how the organization operates, and how individuals can fit into the company.

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Easy



40. Rites are standardized and recurring activities used at special times to influence the behaviors and understanding of organizational members; rituals are systems of rites.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



41. Subcultures often arise from the type of technology deployed by the units, the specific function being performed, and the specific collection of specialists in the unit.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



42. Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of jargon.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



43. A cultural artifact is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



44. A cultural symbol is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



45. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS and Federal Express delivery personnel are examples of cultural symbols.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



46. Organizational culture often specifies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Cultural Rules and Roles

47. Cultural rules and roles are part of the operational controls of the organization and emerge from its strategic planning.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



48. To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational culture.

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Easy


Section Reference: Shared Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths

49. Shared values help turn routine activities into valuable and important actions.

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Easy




50. Shared values tie the corporation to the important values of society.

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Easy



51. By linking values and actions, the organization taps into some of the strongest and deepest realms of the individual.

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Medium



52. An organization with a “strong culture” possesses a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity, enhance collective commitment, provide a stable social system, and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls.

Ans:

Pages: 356-357

Level: Easy



53. A strong culture can be detrimental if it reinforces a broad and pluralistic view of the organization and its environment.

Ans:

Page: 357

Level: Medium



54. In many firms, the management philosophy is supported by a series of organizational myths.

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Easy



55. A common myth in organizations is the presumption of administrative competence.

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Medium



56. A common myth in organizations is the denial of trade-offs.

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Medium



57. The best organizations don’t stagnate; they innovate; they value and expect innovation, and it becomes a normal part of everyday operations.

Ans:Page: 360Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

58. Creativity is the process of creating new ideas and putting them into practice.

Ans:Page: 360Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

59. Idea creation, initial experimentation, feasibility determination, and final application are the basic steps in a typical process of organizational innovation.

Ans:Page: 361Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

60. Generating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing is the feasibility determination step of the innovation process.

Ans:Page: 361

Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

61. Innovative organizations benefit from and require top management support.

Ans:Page: 361Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

62. A number of studies suggest that the key difficulty with product development is the integration across all of the units needed to move from the idea stage to final implementation.

Ans:Page: 362Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

63. Process innovations introduce new and better work methods and operations.

Ans:Page: 363Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

64. According to a meta-analysis of 100 published statistical studies over the past 30 years, six team processes are particularly important for innovative success: 1) vision, 2) support for innovation, 3) task orientation, 4) cohesion, 5) internal communications, and 6) external communications.

Ans:Page: 363Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

65. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of exploration.

Ans:

Page: 364

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.

Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation

66. Managers cannot modify the visible aspects of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Medium

Learning Objective 4: Explain how to manage organizational culture and innovation.

Section Reference: Building, Reinforcing, and Changing Culture

Multiple Choice

67. A firm’s __________ is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the organization and guides the behavior of its members.

a) organizational structureb) control philosophyc) organizational personad) organizational climatee) organizational culture

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



68. In a business setting, a firm’s system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the company and guides the behavior of its members is called its __________.

a) institutional cultureb) corporate culturec) indigenous cultured) bureaucratic culturee) domestic culture

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



69. “What precisely needs to be accomplished, and how can it be done?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of __________.

a) external adaptationb) internal integrationc) institutional adaptationd) systematic integratione) structural adaptation

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



70. “How do members resolve the daily problems associated with living and working together?” is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of __________.

a) institutional adaptationb) structural adaptationc) internal integrationd) external adaptatione) systematic integration

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium



71. __________ involves reaching goals and dealing with outsiders.a) Institutional adaptationb) Internal integrationc) External adaptationd) Systematic integratione) Structural adaptation

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium



72. The issues concerned with __________ are tasks to be accomplished, methods used to achieve the goals, and methods of coping with success and failure.

a) structural adaptationb) strategic adaptationc) internal integrationd) institutional integratione) external adaptation

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Medium



73. __________ deals with questions such as: What is the real mission? How do we contribute? What are our goals? How do we reach our goals? What external forces are important? How do we measure results? What do we do if specific targets are not met? How do we tell others how good we are? When do we quit?

a) Institutional adaptationb) Internal integrationc) External adaptationd) Systematic integratione) Structural adaptation

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Difficult



74. __________ deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together.

a) Institutional integrationb) Internal integrationc) Structural adaptation

d) External adaptatione) Bureaucratic integration

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Medium



75. The process of __________ often begins with the establishment of a unique identity; that is, each collection of individuals and each subculture within the organization develops some type of unique definition of itself.

a) institutional adaptationb) structural adaptationc) internal integrationd) external adaptatione) systematic integration

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Medium



76. __________ deals with questions such as: What is our unique identity? How do we view the world? Who is a member? How do we allocate power, status, and authority? How do we communicate? What is the basis for friendship?

a) Institutional adaptationb) Internal integrationc) External adaptationd) Systematic integratione) Structural adaptation

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



77. Resolving the issues of __________ helps individuals develop a shared identity and a collective commitment.

a) shared meaningsb) internal integrationc) external adaptationd) cultural diversitye) management philosophy

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



78. To work together effectively, individuals need to do which of the following?a) decide collectively how to allocate power, status, and authorityb) establish a shared understanding of who will gets rewards and sanctions for specific

types of actionsc) work out acceptable ways to communicated) develop guidelines for friendshipse) all of the above.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Easy



79. __________ are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that is NOT inconsistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy.

a) Subculturesb) Counterculturesc) Subordinate culturesd) Collateral culturese) Tributary cultures

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



80. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding subcultures?a) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance task forces.b) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance special project groups.c) Subcultures reflect groups with a unique pattern of values and philosophy that are

inconsistent with the dominant culture of the larger organization or social system.d) Subcultures emerge to bind individuals working intensely together to accomplish a

specific task.e) Strong subcultures are often found in high-performance teams.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



81. The __________ is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal based subcultures into the fabric of the organization.

a) counterculture organizationb) subculture dominated organizationc) subordinate culture organizationd) multicultural organizatione) homogeneous organization

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium



82. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Taylor Cox’s five-step program for developing the multicultural organization?

a) The organization should develop pluralism with the objective of multibased socialization.

b) The firm should disentangle its culture so that there are direct relationships between naturally occurring groups and particular jobs.

c) The firm must integrate the informal networks by eliminating barriers and increasing participation.

d) The organization should break the linkage between naturally occurring group identity and the identity of the firm.

e) The organization must actively work to eliminate interpersonal conflict based on either the group identity or the natural backlash of the largest societally based grouping.

Ans:

Pages: 352-353

Level: Difficult



83. The five-step program for developing the multicultural organization was developed by __________.

a) Taylor Coxb) Geert Hofstedec) Daimler Benz and Chryslerd) Jack Welche) Richard Branson

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium



84. Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.a) unobservable culture, role models, and shared missionb) implicit culture, shared values, and common experiencesc) shared objectives, shared values, and shared missiond) observable culture, shared values, and common assumptionse) explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



85. Which is NOT one of the levels of analysis in studying organizational culture?a) Observable cultureb) Shared valuesc) Inter-organizational conflictd) Common assumptionse) Taken-for-granted truths

Ans:

Pages: 353-354

Level: Medium



86. In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the first level concerns __________, or “the way we do things around here.”

a) shared valuesb) common assumptionsc) implicit cultured) observable culturee) shared mission

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



87. The __________ culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.

a) latentb) sharedc) commond) observablee) implicit

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium



88. In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.

a) shared valuesb) observable culturec) implicit cultured) common culturee) common assumptions

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Medium



89. Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.

a) observable attitudesb) implicit needsc) common perceptionsd) shared valuese) common assumptions

Ans:

Page: 353-354

Level: Medium



90. At the deepest level of cultural analysis are __________, or the taken-for-granted truths that collections of corporate members share as a result of their joint experience.

a) shared valuesb) common assumptionsc) shared premisesd) mutual promisese) collective conjectures

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



91. Isolating __________ is often extremely difficult, but doing so helps explain why culture invades every aspect of organizational life.

a) observable attitudesb) implicit needsc) common perceptionsd) shared valuese) common cultural assumptions

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



92. To begin understanding an organization’s culture, it is often easiest to start with __________.a) observations of employee actionsb) stories about the organizationc) work group normsd) the employee handbook.e) the organization’s code of ethics

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



93. __________ are embellished heroic accounts of accomplishments, especially regarding the founding of an organization.

a) Artifactsb) Sagasc) Legendsd) Ritese) Rituals

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



94. __________ are important because they are used to tell new members the real mission of the organization, how the organization operates, and how individuals can fit into the company.

a) Legendsb) Epicsc) Ritualsd) Ritese) Sagas

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



95. Systems of rites are called __________.a) rulesb) artifactsc) routinesd) sagase) rituals

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



96. It is common for Japanese workers and managers to start their workdays together with group exercises and singing of the “company song.” Together, the exercises and songs form a __________.

a) riteb) ritualc) cultural symbold) sagae) routine

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Difficult



97. Often, the language of a subculture, and its rituals and rites, emerge from the group as a form of __________.

a) terminologyb) jargonc) patterd) lingoe) phrasing

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



98. The corporate uniforms worn by UPS and Federal Express delivery personnel are examples of __________.

a) cultural symbolsb) cultural artifactsc) cultural tokensd) cultural attributese) cultural proxies

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



99. Organizational __________ often specify/ies when various types of actions are appropriate and where individual members stand in the social system.

a) vision and missionb) culturec) strategyd) designe) communication

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



100. __________ are parts of the normative controls of the organization and emerge from its daily routines.

a) Organizational strategiesb) Organizational goalsc) Cultural vision and missiond) Cultural rules and rolese) Cultural symbols

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



101. To many researchers and managers, shared common values lie at the heart of organizational __________.

a) planningb) leadershipc) designd) culturee) structure

Ans:

Page: 356

Level: Easy


Section reference: Share Values, Meanings, and Organizational Myths

102. Organizations with __________ possess a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity, enhance collective commitment, provide a stable social system, and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls.

a) strong structuresb) strong designsc) strong culturesd) strong artifactse) strong top managers

Ans:

Pages: 356-357

Level: Medium



103. Which of the following statements about shared meanings in organizations is NOT correct?

a) What you see as an outside observer may or may not be what organizational members see.

b) Through interaction with one another, and as reinforced by the rest of the organization, workers may infuse a larger shared meaning or sense of broader purpose into their tasks.

c) Organizational members refrain from linking their actions to values and unstated assumptions.

d) Organizational culture is a “shared” set of meanings and perceptions.e) In most firms employees create and learn a deeper aspect of their culture.

Ans:

Page: 357

Level: Medium



104. In the aftermath of 9/11, many casual observers saw crane operators moving wreckage from an 18-acre pile of rubble that was once the Twin Towers at the World Trade Center. However, those actually doing the work were not just hauling away the remnants of the Twin Towers. They were rebuilding America. This is an example of which of the following?

a) Shared meaningsb) Organizational mythsc) Shared valuesd) Ritee) Ritual

Ans:

Page: 357

Level: Difficult



105. Organizational __________ are unproven and often unstated beliefs that are accepted uncritically.

a) ritesb) routinesc) sagasd) mythse) rituals

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Easy



106. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate with respect to organizational myths?a) Myths allow managers to govern.b) Organizations should discourage the use of managerial myths.c) Myths allow executives to redefine impossible problems into more manageable

components.d) Myths can facilitate experimentation and creativity.e) In many firms, the management philosophy is supported by a series of organizational

myths.

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Medium



107. The means by which creative ideas find their way into everyday practice is called __________.

a) reengineeringb) developmentc) innovationd) modernizatione) integration

Ans:Page: 360Level: EasyLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section reference: Innovation in Organizations

108. The innovation process is not complete until __________.a) an idea has been createdb) an estimate of the idea’s anticipated costs and benefits has been completedc) the test-retest procedures have been completedd) final application has been achievede) an estimate of the idea’s value and potential has been completed


109. The basic steps in the innovation process include all of the following EXCEPT:a) idea creation.b) initial experimentation.c) test and retest.d) feasibility determination.e) final application.


110. Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing?

a) Idea creationb) Initial experimentationc) Test and retestd) Feasibility determinatione) Final application


111. Which step in the innovation process focuses on establishing an idea’s potential value and application?



112. Which step in the innovation process focuses on identifying an idea’s anticipated costs and benefits?

a) Idea creationb) Initial experimentation

c) Test and retestd) Feasibility determinatione) Final application


113. Which step in the innovation process focuses on producing and marketing a new product or service, or on implementing a new approach to operations?



114. Highly innovative organizations share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:a) look to the future.b) have a low tolerance for risk.c) prize creativity.d) reward idea generators.e) are willing to cannibalize existing products in their development of new ones.

Ans:Page: 361

Level: DifficultLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

115. The introduction of new and better work methods and operations are the result of __________.

a) creativityb) product innovationsc) process innovationsd) exploitatione) exploration

Ans:Page: 363Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

116. __________ calls for the organization and its managers to stress freedom and radical thinking and therefore opens the firm to big changes-or what some call radical innovations.

a) Exploitationb) Explorationc) Management philosophyd) Process innovatione) Internal integration

Ans:Page: 364Level: MediumLearning Objective 3: Discuss the process of innovation, product and process innovations, and balancing exploration and exploitation.Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation

117. Managers should consider doing all of the following to develop a strong culture for a unit EXCEPT:

a) emphasize a shared understanding of what the unit stands for.b) stress a concern for the management over rules and procedures.c) talk about heroes of the past and their contributions, develop rituals and ceremonies

for the members.d) reinforce informal rules and expectations consistent with shared values.e) promote the sharing of ideas of information.

Ans:

Page: 365

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Management Philosophy and Strategy

118. A __________ links key goal-related issues with key collaboration issues and comes up with a series of general ways by which the firm will manage its affairs.

a) mission statementb) planning philosophyc) management philosophyd) supervisory philosophye) control system

Ans:

Page: 365

Level: Easy


Section reference: Management Philosophy and Strategy

119. A management philosophy does all of the following EXCEPT:

a) establishes generally understood boundaries for all members of a firm.b) provides a consistent way of approaching new and novel situations.c) helps hold individuals together by assuring them of a known path toward success.d) the way in which top management addresses the questions of external adaptation.e) addresses the issues associated with internal adaptation.

Ans:

Page: 365

Level: Difficult



120. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is via the __________.

a) the leaders assigned to top managementb) the people it firesc) the people it hiresd) performance system is administerse) reward systems it establishes

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Difficult



121. In many larger U.S. based firms the __________ matches the overall strategy of the firm and reinforces the __________ emerging from day-to-day activities.

a) retention practices; termination practicesb) orientation practices; development system

c) hiring practices; promotional systemd) performance program; reward systeme) reward system; culture

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Difficult



122. Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.

a) vocal aspectsb) visible aspectsc) verbal aspectsd) oral aspectse) written aspects

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Difficult



123. __________ set the tone for a culture and for cultural change.a) Production employeesb) Service workers

c) First-line supervisorsd) Middle level managerse) Top managers

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Easy



124. __________ is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations.

a) Exploitationb) Organizational cultural lagc) Explorationd) Subculturese) Process innovation

Ans:

Page: 367

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Tensions Between Cultural Stability and Innovation

125. If rule changing and rule following are not properly balanced, there is a danger of reinforcing __________.

a) innovationb) creativityc) cultural lag

d) common assumptionse) shared values

Ans:

Pages: 367-368

Level: Medium



Fill in the blank

126. The system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within an organization and guides the behavior of its members is known as __________.

Ans:

Page: 348

Level: Easy



127. When employees at 3M talk about the quality of their products and the useful products they have brought to market, they are addressing the __________ aspect of organizational culture.

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Medium



128. __________ deals with the creation of a collective identity and with finding ways of working and living together.

Ans:

Page: 349

Level: Medium



129. __________ are groups of individuals with a unique pattern of values and a philosophy that is not consistent with the organization’s dominant values and philosophy.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



130. __________ are groups of individuals with a pattern of values and philosophy that outwardly reject those of the larger organization or social system.

Ans:

Page: 350

Level: Medium



131. Managers of an acquired firm may hold values and assumptions that are quite inconsistent with those of the acquiring firm – thereby creating a(n) __________.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Medium



132. Societal cultures may actually be __________ into organizations.

Ans:

Page: 351

Level: Medium



133. A firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal-based subcultures into the fabric of the organization is known as a(n) _________ organization.

Ans:

Page: 352

Level: Medium



134. The three layers of cultural analysis are __________, __________, and __________.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Layers of Cultural Analysis

135. The __________ aspect of culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within the firm.

Ans:

Page: 353

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Layers of Cultural Analysis

136. __________ are embellished heroic accounts of the story of the founding of an organization that are found at the deepest layer of cultural analysis.

Ans:

Page: 354

Level: Medium



137. __________ serve to transmit cultural meaning.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



138. The “Miss America” type ceremonies of Mary Kay used to spotlight positive work achievements are examples of __________.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



139. __________ are standardized and recurring activities that are used at special times to influence the behaviors and understandings of organizational members.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Easy



140. A(n) __________ is any object, act, or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



141. The corporate uniform worn by UPS delivery people is an example of a(n) __________.

Ans:

Page: 355

Level: Medium



142. A(n) __________ is a commonly held cause-effect relationship or assertion that cannot be supported empirically.

Ans:

Page: 358

Level: Medium



143. The first step in the typical process of organizational innovation is __________.

Ans:

Page: 361

Level: Medium


Section Reference: The Process of Innovation

144. A new study has indicated that __________ rather than national policy makes the biggest difference with radical product innovation.

Ans:

Page: 362

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

145. __________ innovation is the introduction of new goods or services to better meet customer needs, whereas __________ innovation is the introduction into operations of new and better ways of doing things.

Ans:

Page: 362-363

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Product and Process Innovations

146. Refining an existing product to make it more saleable in a new market is an example of __________.

Ans:

Page: 364

Level: Medium


Section Reference: Balancing Exploration and Exploitation

147. A(n) __________ links key goal-related strategic issues with key collaboration issues and comes up with a series of general ways by which the firm will manage its affairs.

Ans:

Page: 365

Level: Easy



148. A well-developed __________ is important because it links strategy to a more basic understanding of how a firm is to operate.

Ans:

Page: 365

Level: Medium



149. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is through the __________ it establishes.

Ans:

Page: 366

Level: Medium



150. __________ is a condition where dominant cultural patterns are inconsistent with new emerging innovations.

Ans:

Page: 367

Level: Medium



Essay

151. What is organizational culture? What is corporate culture? Is a firm’s culture important? Why or why not?

Page: 348

Level: Easy



152. Describe the cultural functions of external adaptation and internal integration.

Page: 348-350

Level: Medium



153. What is a subculture? Where are strong subcultures found? How is a subculture different from a counterculture?

Page: 350-351

Level: Medium



154. What is innovation in organizations? List and briefly describe the four steps of the innovation process.

Page: 360-361

Level: Difficult


Section Reference: Innovation in Organizations

155. Briefly discuss how managers build, reinforce, and change culture.

Page: 366-367

Level: Difficult



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