cisco.selftestengine.642 998.v2015!03!06.by.danny.154q unprotected

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SelfTestEngine.642-998,154.Questions

Number: 642-998Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 15.06

These are the most accurate study questions. Just focus on these and sit in your exam.All the answers of all questions are well modified.All the answers are appropriate and updated.Many new questions are added , Good for review go ahead and pass the exam now.Fixed the Exhibit size and Drag drops/hot spot questions.

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Exam A

QUESTION 1Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?

A. GLBPB. VRRPC. HSRPD. SSOE. NSF

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?

A. Cisco Nexus 5596UPB. Cisco Nexus 4000C. Cisco Nexus 3016D. Cisco Nexus 2232E. Cisco Nexus 2248

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the datacenter?

A. PAgP port channelB. LACP


C. vPCD. vPC+E. host vPC

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 4Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.

Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?

A. TransparentB. One-ArmC. RoutedD. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?

A. OSPF peer authenticationB. OSPF route authenticationC. OSPF process authenticationD. OSPF database exchange authentication



Explanation/Reference:answer is corrected.

QUESTION 6Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?

A. data center locationB. support for heterogeneous compute environmentsC. a collapsed core and distribution layerD. choice of a hypervisor



QUESTION 7Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements?

A. cloud computeB. storageC. desktopD. network



QUESTION 8Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?

A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully aware of the virtual machine locations andnetworking policies.

B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.


C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.



QUESTION 9Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?

A. OTVB. MPLSC. LISPD. ACE

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 10Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?

A. Cisco Nexus 1000vB. Cisco Nexus 5500C. Cisco Nexus 7000D. Cisco MDS 9222i




QUESTION 11Which web browser does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A. Microsoft Internet Explorer 6.0 or higherB. SafariC. Google Chrome 21.xx or higherD. Safari 5.0E. Mozilla Firefox 3.x or lower



QUESTION 12Which item is a component of Cisco DCNM?

A. Cisco DCNM for SAN and Cisco DCNM for LANB. Cisco DCNM for Cisco UCS ManagerC. Cisco DCNM for B- and C-Series serversD. Cisco DCNM FabricPath license



QUESTION 13What is the primary function of NetFlow?

A. NetFlow requires changes to the packet and provides statistics based on these packet flows.B. NetFlow identifies packet flows for both ingress and egress IP packets and provides statistics based on these packet flows.C. NetFlow does not use flows to provide statistics for accounting.D. NetFlow does not use flows to provide statistics for network monitoring.




QUESTION 14Which two match fields does Cisco NX-OS use as the defaults when you create a flow record? (Choose two.)

A. match interface inputB. match interface outputC. export destination IP addressD. TCP port numberE. export format

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 15


While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question. How many computers were identified as candidates tobe virtualized on Hyper-V?

A. 1B. 5C. 11D. 14E. 22



QUESTION 16


While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.Highest Average CPU Utilization?

A. 100%B. 75%C. 52%D. 109%E. 200%



QUESTION 17


While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.Highest Maximum CPU Utilization?

A. 10%B. 24%C. 56%D. 100%E. 138%



QUESTION 18


While using the Microsoft Assessment and planning toolkit, please answer the following question.What is the average CPU utilization

A. 6.61%B. 0.16%C. 52.31%D. 1.09%E. 13.31%



QUESTION 19


Give the above configuration example answer the following question What is the Server type configured in the above example?

A. B200 1.12B. B250 M2C. B220 M3

D B300 M3




QUESTION 20


Give the above configuration example answer the following question

What is the memory size per Host?

A. 64GBB. 128 GBC. 164 GBD. 192 GBE. 256 GB




QUESTION 21Which Cisco product is deployed for content routing purposes?

A. Cisco ACE GSSB. Cisco ACE applianceC. Cisco content Engine 500D. Cisco ACE module



QUESTION 22Which statement is correct about the Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch?

A. Is nonblockingB. Perform only layer 2 switchingC. Has up to 48-Gbps wire-speed performanceD. Balances lower cost with lower-performance access layer switching



QUESTION 23Which three fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco's MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three)

A. LUN ZoningB. Read-Only ZonesC. Internet-Switch LinkD. Fibre Channel Congestion Control


E. FC link AggregationF. FSPF

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 24Which two Cisco service modules can be deployed in redundant pairs with active active fail over?

A. ACEB. CSMC. NAMD. FWSME. SSLSM

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 25Used in combination with DHCP snooping, which feature helps prevent spoofing attacks in the data center access layer?

A. RPFB. Port securityC. RFC 3704 filteringD. Dynamic ARP Inspection




QUESTION 26A government agency data center that is used for tax processing is located in an earthquake fault zone. A backup data center, located 300 km away, islinked to the main data center over an OC-3 connection. Which of the following provides the best solution to extend the SAN for business continuanceand for support of their IP applications?

A. Synchronous replication using FCIPB. iSCSlC. FCIP and asynchronous replicationD. Dark fiber connectivity and use of synchronous replication over FC


Explanation/Reference:answer is valid.

QUESTION 27Refer to exhibit,


what would you recommend to a customer who is almost out of slots for 10-Gigabit Ethernet connections in the aggregation module?

A. Add a second aggregation moduleB. Move the CSM modules to separate service layer switchesC. Move the CSM modules to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6508 SwitchesD. Upgrade the Cisco Catalyst 6508 switches in the aggregation layer to Cisco Catalyst 6613 Switches



QUESTION 28Refer to the exhibit


Asymmetric connection attempts in the aggregation layer are occurring on redundant Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM modules what change mightprevent this problem?

A. Implement route tuning and root guardB. Add more Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM modules to each Cisco Catalyst 6500 switch.C. Reduce the over subscription on the aggregation-to-access links.D. Configure round-robin load balancing between the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM modules.



QUESTION 29


Refer to the exhibit

What port type should be used between two switches to maximize performance?

A. BB. EC. FD. NLE. TE




QUESTION 30Which two functions enable lossless Ethernet in data center devices? (Choose two)

A. Classical QoSB. InfiniBand supportC. Policy flow controlD. Collision avoidance supportE. CoS-based bandwidth management

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 31Under which two circumstances is Layer 2 adjacency required? (Choose two.)

A. When HSRP is usedB. When NSF with SSO is configuredC. When NIC teaming is implementedD. When clustered applications are supportedE. When multiple access layer switches are attached to an aggregation module

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 32What are three benefits of storage consolidation? (Choose three.)

A. Management costs are reduced, since fewer people are needed to administer the common management applications


B. bandwidth demands on the network are reducedC. corporate data is more accessibleD. Fibre Channel is no longer needed to transport trafficE. existing disk is utilized more effectively

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 33Which access layer design can improve STP stability with the use of enhanced features like UDLP, loop guard and BPDU guard?

A. Loop-free modelsB. triangle topologiesC. U and inverted U modelsD. any model using PVST+



QUESTION 34Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM mode of operation results in the least impact to IP addressing scheme?

A. RoutedB. BridgedC. TransparentD. pass-through




QUESTION 35Refer to the exhibit.


Which two actions can be performed to improve routing between server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. integrate service modules in the aggregation switchesB. define separate VLANs for the different server subnetsC. define different VSSs toward the access and core layersD. define different VRFs toward the access and core layersE. define different VDCs toward the access and core layers

Correct Answer: DESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 36Which two are benefits of using a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch for server LAN and SAN connectivity if FCoE is deployed? (Choose two)

A. multiple fault domainsB. reduced number of server adaptersC. better storage utilizationD. reduced cablingE. migration of storage devices from Fibre Channel to FCoE

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation




A customer has two sites with separate SAN setups and Brocade switches. The customer is considering using the sites for disaster recovery purposesand needs to connect them. The sites are about 150 km apart. The bandwidth required is estimated to be less than 800 Mb/s;What is the most cost-effective solution?

A. Connect the Brocade switches directly with Fibre Channel links and set the maximum amount of BB_Credits.B. Use DWDM connectivity, available from the local telco provider.C. Add Cisco MDS 9222i switches and use FCIP connectivity between the two sites.D. Add Cisco MDS 9124 switches and connect them directly with optical links by taking advantage of their extended amount of BB_Credrts.}



QUESTION 38Which two functions are commonly combined to provide load balancing and redundancy in data center services across the data center core? (Choosetwo)

A. Cisco ACE Layer 7 policiesB. route health injectionC. global server toad balancingD. EIGRP unequal-cost load balancing

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 39What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other missior-critical traffic?

A. VSANsB. zonesC. QoSD. IVR



QUESTION 40What are three effective ways to service multicast traffic in a data center environment? (Choose three)

A. Deploying VRFs per address familyB. Configuring IGMP/PIM in the Cisco catalyst 6500 series FWSMC. Configuring IGMP/PIM in the Cisco ACE moduleD. Configuring IGMP/PIM in the MSFC on a Cisco catalyst 6500 switchE. Configuring service modules in transparent or bridge mode

Correct Answer: BDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 41Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)

A. synchronous replicationB. asynchronous replication


C. OLTPD. tape backupE. e-mail


Explanation/Reference:corrected.

QUESTION 42Your customer has a number of data storage requirements: ·servers are not responsible for volume management or data migration·storage is provisioned in real time·legacy and heterogeneous storage assets can be consolidated and fully utilized ·data can be protected using simplified snapshot and replicationtechniques ·date can be assigned to different classes easily which solution would meet these requirements?

A. VSANsB. Wide-Area Application Services (WAAS)C. fabric-based virtualizationD. LUN zoningE. host-based virtualization



QUESTION 43A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a sustained I/O rate of 75 MBps.The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port linecard. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four- port, host-optimized quad?

A. OneB. twoC. threeD. four

Correct Answer: C


Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 44Using the default VDC high availability options in the Cisco Nexus 7010 switches, which situation occurs?

A. if a single supervisor is in use, a graceful restart is forcedB. If dual supervisors are in use, a supervisor switchover is forced.C. The VDC is deleted, and no further action is performed.D. The VDC is deleted and then re-created with the startup configuration.



QUESTION 45Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?

A. Storage Services Module (SSM)B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel moduleC. Multiprotocol Services moduleD. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2



QUESTION 46Which condition requires a Layer 2 access design?

A. multicast applications


B. Improved convergence timeC. load balancing of uplink pathsD. service modules in the aggregation layer



QUESTION 47What should be implemented to mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks in the data access layer?

A. VACLsB. PVLANsC. Reverse Path ForwardingD. Dynamic ARP Inspection



QUESTION 48What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choosethree.)

A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devicesB. Provides comprehensive data analysisC. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systemsD. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMwareE. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario

Correct Answer: BDESection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 49What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server?

A. specific application requirements, like GPU computingB. when power and cooling are constrainedC. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)D. when the environment is high-performance computing



QUESTION 50From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable server over a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server?

A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.



QUESTION 51Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)

A. space availabilityB. power capacityC. cooling capacityD. PCI compliance


E. application performance

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 52A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM- FEX feature. Which statement about VM-FEX is true?

A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCSManager.

B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within CiscoUCS Manager.

C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.



QUESTION 53Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS bladeservers?

A. high-availability during fabric failoverB. proper placement of server roleC. over committing CPU resourcesD. additional virtual machine scalability




QUESTION 54On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows XPB. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higherC. OS XD. VMware vSphere 4.0E. VMware vSphere 5.0



QUESTION 55Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 56Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)

A. federation and VSAN scopingB. VM-aware discovery and path analysisC. fabric performance monitoringD. event lookup


E. VSAN zoning



QUESTION 57Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? (Choose three.)

A. packet captureB. packet decodeC. filter and error scanD. configure virtual machineE. configure Cisco UCS Manager



QUESTION 58

Select and Place:


Correct Answer:




QUESTION 59

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:




QUESTION 60Which document is the least relevant as an output deliverable from the design phase?


A. high-level designB. site requirements specificationC. configurationsD. migration plan



QUESTION 61Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?

A. server virtualizationB. desktop virtualizationC. distributed computingD. private cloudE. power efficiency



QUESTION 62Which item can be used as an alternative reconnaissance tool to the NetApp OnCommand Balance application?

A. NetIQ PlateSpinB. VKernel vOPSC. Microsoft Assessment and Planning ToolkitD. VMware vCenter Orchestrator plug-inE. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 63Which design steps could be considered optional?

A. auditB. solution sizingC. analysisD. deployment provision



QUESTION 64Which technology differentiates a data center designed around Cisco equipment versus another vendor?

A. NPVB. NPIVC. VSANsD. FCoE



QUESTION 65Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose two.)

A. no packet manipulationB. QoS policing


C. voice, data, and wireless convergenceD. scalable routing protocolsE. provides default gateway redundancyF. QoS classification and queuing



QUESTION 66The ANSI restriction that only 239 Fibre Channel domains are allowed per SAN fabric creates challenges for the designer working on a Cisco DataCenter Unified Fabric network.

Which two approaches can the designer utilize to restrict the number of Fibre Channel domains below 239? (Choose two.)

A. Daisy chain up to 100 core Fibre Channel switches, leaving 139 domains for the network edge.B. Assign a domain ID for each blade switch and top-of-rack access layer switch.C. Use NPV to cause a fabric or blade switch to appear as a host to the core Fibre Channel switch.D. Migrate to FCoE to eliminate the need for Fibre Channel domains.E. Utilize VSANs to allow scaling well beyond 239 domain IDs.



QUESTION 67Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)

A. no packet manipulationB. QoS policingC. voice, data, and wireless convergenceD. scalable routing protocolsE. provides default gateway redundancy


F. QoS classification and queuingG. routing manipulation and filteringH. aggregates end users

Correct Answer: BEGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 68When multicast traffic is a required design element, why is the Cisco UCS 6248UP a better choice than the Cisco UCS 6140XP?

A. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not allow multicast traffic propagation.B. Cisco UCS 6140XP does not support IGMP snooping on uplink interfaces.C. Cisco UCS 6248UP employs separate unicast and multicast egress queues.D. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports PIM dense mode rendezvous points.E. Cisco UCS 6248UP supports dynamic queue mapping of IGMP v3 requests.



QUESTION 69Which two devices require a connection to an external switch for East-West switching? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 3548B. Cisco UCS 6248UPC. Cisco UCS 2208XPD. Cisco Nexus 2232PPE. Cisco UCS 6296UP




QUESTION 70What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.E. Stop using redundant power supplies.



QUESTION 71Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)

A. VDCB. VSANC. LUND. L2 firewallE. GLBPF. ECMP



QUESTION 72What technology is necessary to support vPC+?

A. MPLS


B. OTVC. FabricPathD. vCenterE. RPVSTF. MST



QUESTION 73What is configured on an NHRP to trigger failover if an SVI goes down?

A. BPDUB. weightC. interface priorityD. object trackingE. local preferenceF. cost



QUESTION 74Which two devices operate only at OSI Layer 2? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 7010B. Cisco Nexus 5548C. Cisco Nexus 5596D. Cisco Nexus 5020E. Cisco Nexus 3016F. Cisco Nexus 2248


Correct Answer: DFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 75What allows for STP to be disabled yet support a loop-free topology even on link or switch failure?

A. LACPB. OTVC. vPCD. vPC+E. FabricPath



QUESTION 76Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)

A. OSPFB. HSRPC. VRRPD. GLBPE. OCSPF. EIGRPG. MPLS

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 77Your customer has a PCI requirement to protect with a firewall access layer servers that process Visa transactions.

Which Cisco Firewall Services Module deployment topology will have the least impact on existing IP addressing?

A. TransparentB. One-ArmC. RoutedD. InlineE. Clustered



QUESTION 78What is an advantage of Cisco MDS 9000 Distributed Device Alias Services over Fibre Channel aliases?

A. Persist across switch rebootsB. Stored on the management server, not on the switchC. Preserved when devices are moved between VSANsD. Simplify SAN migration operations



QUESTION 79Which two benefits of a VSS environment reduce overhead at the distribution layer? (Choose two)

A. Reduce reliance on STPB. Reduce alliance on HSRP


C. Reduce alliance on SSO/NSFD. Reduce alliance on ether channelE. Reduce alliance on trunking protocol



QUESTION 80In designing virtual firewalls for a data center environment using the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch, which two are valid design options? (Choose two)

A. Multiple VSSs can be assigned to a different VDCB. Different VDCs can be deployed for each virtual firewall.C. Multiple VRFs can be used, each of which can allocate a VSS for each virtual firewallD. A subset of VLANs and VRFs can be assigned to a virtual management domain.E. Multiple VRFs can be associated with each virtual firewall within a single VDC.



QUESTION 81Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer.Which design should you avoid?

A. Layer3B. InfiniBandC. Layer 2 loop-freeD. Layer 2 looped squareE. Layer 2 looped triangle





A customer has four Cisco MDS directors connected into a single SAN. Each of the switches has three VSANs configured that span the whole SANDomain IDs are statically configured on all the directors for each of the VSANs. Will this topology work?

A. No, because domain IDs are repeating in different VSANsB. No, because domain IDs are repeating within toe blue VSAN.C. Yes, because domain IDs do not have to be unique.


D. Yes, because domain Ds can be dynamically changed by the switches.



QUESTION 83A customer is adopting the Cisco MDS switches in their environment with a goal that they will eventually replace brocade switches. While the two switchtypes will coexist, they have to use standards-based interoperability mode because of the storage vendor support requirements. Which settings will haveto be used within certain values of this interpretability mode to function?

A. Only two VSANs can be usedB. Domain IDs between 97 and 127 must be usedC. Only port based zoning be usedD. Fabric can have maximum three switches



QUESTION 84A customer wants to connect a McData switch to your Cisco MDS SAN Which interop mode would you choose to maintain the maximum feature set onboth sides of the SAN?

A. interop mode 1B. interop mode 2C. interop mode 3D. interop mode 4




QUESTION 85How many Cisco catalyst 6500 series PWSM modules can be supported in a single Cisco 6500 chassis?

A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 8



QUESTION 86What simplifies troubleshooting and enhances protocol stability for OSPF?

A. Using loop back interfacesB. Modifying the SPF delay hold timeC. Advertising a default into data centreD. Changing the default reference bandwidth


Explanation/Reference:answer is valuable.

QUESTION 87


Refer to the exhibit. Each Cisco Nexus switch has two VDCs which two statements describe Layer 2/Layer 3 path selection in this environment?

A. MEC provides Layer 2 load balancing.B. VDCs reduce the size of Layer 2 failure domains.C. The VSL aids in Layer 2 load balancing during failures.


D. Advanced STP features detect loops and provide Layer 2 load balancing.



QUESTION 88What are three advantages of collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three)

A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLsB. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageabilityC. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higherE. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class swtches, because the high speed backplane provides tow fixed latency between any two

ports.

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 89Which two interpretability modes are supported when attaching to a brocade switch in native mode? (Choose two)

A. interop mode 2B. interop mode 4C. interop mode 3D. interop mode autoE. interop mode 5




QUESTION 90Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)

A. no packet manipulationB. QoS policingC. voice, data, and wireless convergenceD. scalable routing protocolsE. provides default gateway redundancyF. QoS classification and queuingG. routing manipulation and filteringH. aggregates end users

Correct Answer: CFHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 91Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?

A. LISPB. OTVC. FabricPathD. vPC



QUESTION 92Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?


A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.D. It supports FCoE.



QUESTION 93What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?

A. Hadoop clustersB. VDIC. vPCD. VSAN



QUESTION 94Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?

A. distributed load processingB. availability of blade versus rack-mountable serversC. reduced power and cooling requirementsD. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer




QUESTION 95Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?

A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.



QUESTION 96When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?

A. rack-mountable to blade serversB. physical to virtual machinesC. Fibre Channel to FCoED. iSCSI to NAS



QUESTION 97What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. Token RingB. FDDIC. EthernetD. MPLSE. Frame Relay


F. APPN/APPI



QUESTION 98What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)

A. proprietary and secureB. fast route convergenceC. support for ECMPD. support for LACPE. support for large hop limit



QUESTION 99Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. OTVB. FabricPathC. BPDUD. vPCE. VDCF. MPLS




QUESTION 100Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two 2500W power supplies if 110V power is provided to theswitch, in which power mode does the switch operate?

A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.B. The director will operate in combined mode onlyC. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined modeD. The director cannot operate with 110V power



QUESTION 101Which feature is supported in the Cisco ASA 5580 Adaptive Security Appliance but not in the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series FWSM?

A. VPNsB. VLANsC. DS/1PSD. stateful inspection



QUESTION 102During configuration how are challenges with NPIV deployment address?

A. Sharing the same HBA by multiple virtual machinesB. virtualizing the, storage deviceC. Disruptive server replacementsD. Primary and backup storage device connectivity




QUESTION 103Which module provides a fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?

A. Storage Service ModuleB. IP ServicesModuleC. Multiservice ModuleD. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2



QUESTION 104Which benefit results from deploying Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switches in a top-of-rack access layer design?

A. increased taut toleranceB. improved server densityC. simpler logical topologyD. improved power distribution



QUESTION 105A SAN administrator would like to test FCIP using the existing 18/4-Port Multiservice Module in a Cisco MDS 9500 switch that is currently used for iSCSIconnectivity. To test FCIP, the administrator should use the SAN extension over IP package. which option will allow this test to occur?


A. .The appropriate license package it already enclosed with the 18/4 MSMB. The 120-day grace period can be used to test the functionalityC. The license package needs to be purchasedD. The switch has to be upgraded to a different Cisco NX-OS feature set



QUESTION 106


Refer to exhibit. In this situation, the link between aggregation switches fails. What can be done to prevent asymmetrical traffic flows from the core linkbetween the aggregations switches fail?

A. Implement RHIB. Implement RSTP and MST.C. Tune STP costs on access switchesD. Advertise the Agg1 switch as the primary route to the core



QUESTION 107Which is appropriate in situations where a switched fabric server is required for InfiniBand support, plus Ethernet and Fibre Channel integration?

A. Cisco SFS 3000B. Cisco SFS 7000C. Cisco MDS 9000D. Cisco Virtual Blade Switch





You are designing a new SAN the existing SAN uses eight 32-port 2-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches,and the remaining six switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has four ISLs to one of the two core switches.The disk array hastwelve 2-Gbps Fibre Channel ports. Each of the 84 servers has a dual-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel HBA.

A. two Cisco MDS 9216 switches, with two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switchB. two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switchC. two Cisco MDS 9506 switches, with one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and two 48- port Fibre Channel line cards in each switchD. Two cisco MDS 9513 switches, with two 48-port Fibre Channel line cards in each switch



QUESTION 109Which two are requirements of FCoE in a Cisco nexus environment?


A. Fibre cablingB. Use of jumbo framesC. Spanning tree protocolD. ICP-driven retransmission for flow controlE. IEEE 802.3x extensions to enable lossless Ethernet

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 110Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology allows direct access to the servers for administration but requires either SNAT or PBR for load-balanced HTTP traffic returning from the server?

A. TransparentB. One-ArmC. RoutedD. InlineE. Asymmetric Server Normalization



QUESTION 111Which two devices are Cisco recommended for a ToR data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 SeriesB. Cisco Nexus 5500 SeriesC. Cisco Nexus 4000 SeriesD. Cisco Nexus 3000 SeriesE. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series


Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 112Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access layer connectivity? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 SeriesB. Cisco Nexus 5500 SeriesC. Cisco Nexus 4000 SeriesD. Cisco Nexus 3000 SeriesE. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series



QUESTION 113Which two devices are recommended for an MoR design that includes Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5548UPB. Cisco Nexus 4004C. Cisco Nexus 3064D. Cisco Nexus 2232PPE. Cisco Nexus 2248T




QUESTION 114Which two options represent an access layer solution to virtual machine network virtualization that the network team manages just like other devices inthe data center? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 1010B. VSMC. VEMD. host vPCE. MPIO



QUESTION 115In a Cisco Nexus platform, what is the result if a service is unable to survive a few subsequent restart attempts'?

A. a stateless restartB. supervisor reset or switchoverC. old process is replaced with a new processD. service modules must be moved to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switches



QUESTION 116In the process of creating Cisco TrustSec security associations, what is the role of SGTs?

A. define user identityB. define packet encryption and integrityC. applied to interfaces to define access controlD. represent user permissions and access control policies




QUESTION 117For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, when three of these can be used to identify iSCSI? (Choose three)

A. iSCSI node nameB. hostnameC. IPv4 address and subnetD. MAC addressE. IPV6 address

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 118When configuring VLANs on the FWSM, how are VLANs associated with contexts?

A. Associated with the physical FWSMB. directly associated with a single contextC. directly associated with multiple contextsD. associated with VLAN groups that are associated with a single contextE. associated with VLAN groups that are associated with multiple contexts



QUESTION 119


How many paths can be considered in NX-OX for equal-cost multipathing?

A. 4B. 8C. 12D. 16


Explanation/Reference:updated.

QUESTION 120Which features detect hardware faults and attempts recovery action?

A. Switch health analysisB. Fabric configuration analysisC. Online health management systemD. End-to-End connectivity analysisE. Cisco fabric services



QUESTION 121A customer has some performance problems in their SAN environment. They want to use a Cisco MDS 9000 Port Analyzer Adapter to connect to theCisco MDS Switch to troubleshoot the performance problems. Which two options need to be configured on the MDS Switch? (Choose two)

A. Put the port into the proper zone that will be monitored.B. Set the port speed to the value corresponding with the PAA settingC. Put the port in SD port mode.D. Configure any port channel necessaryE. Turn off flow control




QUESTION 122Which second-generation Fibre Channel module offers a full 4 GB/s line rate on all ports?

A. 12-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel moduleB. 24-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel moduleC. 24-port 1/2/4/8 Gb/s Fibre Channel moduleD. 48-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module



QUESTION 123What is the grace period in a graceful restart situation?

A. how long the supervisor waits for NSF repliesB. how often graceful restart messages are sent after a switchoverC. how long NSF-aware neighbors should wart after a graceful restart has started before tearing down adjacenciesD. how long the NSF-capable switch should wait after a graceful restart has started before tearing down adjacencies



QUESTION 124When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management?

A. FCIP


B. IPFCC. iSCSID. SNMP



QUESTION 125



What is the number of Core Processors Installed?

A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 6




QUESTION 126



What is the number of Host required for the above configurations?

A. 1B. 2C. 7D. 11E. 16




QUESTION 127

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:




QUESTION 128

Select and Place:


Correct Answer:




QUESTION 129

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:




QUESTION 130Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)

A. port channelB. static pinningC. virtual port channelD. dynamic pinningE. Equal-Cost MultipathF. RPVST



QUESTION 131Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?

A. port channelB. static pinningC. virtual port channelD. dynamic pinningE. Equal-Cost MultipathF. RPVST




QUESTION 132Which two Cisco products complement the Cisco SFS family of products to provide server-side InfiniBand integration? (Choose two)

A. iSCSI HCAB. Fibre Channel HCAC. InfiniBand switch modulesD. Fibre Channel switch modulesE. InfiniBand HCA card for IBM and Dell servers



QUESTION 133What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre channel fabric? (Choose two)

A. Port ChannelB. COPC. FCPD. FCCE. CUP



QUESTION 134Which three capabilities make the Cisco nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data centre core? (Choose three)

A. Unified I/OB. VirtualizationC. Support for 48-port Gb/s line cardD. Support for security service modules


E. High performanceF. High availability

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 135Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switching architecture requires a Switch Fabric Module?

A. Cisco Express ForwardingB. 32-Gb/s busC. 256-Gb/s switch fabricD. 720-Gb/s switch fabric





What is a feature of this spanning-tree topology?

A. VLANs are not restricted to access-switch pairsB. Only one aggregation-to-access uplink is active at a given timeC. If the link between access-switch pairs is broken, the return IP path may be broken.D. Uplink failures on access layer switches will not break connectivity between servers and service modules in the aggregation layer




QUESTION 137Which recommendation applies to OSPF in the data center core?

A. Do not permit route distribution with RHI.B. Run OSPF on all VLANs to reduce convergence time.C. Adjust OSPF reference bandwidth for VLANs with 1O-Gigabit Ethernet links.D. Advertise all routes into a NSSA and summarize default routes out.



QUESTION 138A customer would like to add Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade environment with minimal disruption. The Brocade switches are using PID-0mode. Which two features will enable the creation of a Cisco-Brocade heterogeneous fabric without restricting the feature set of either switch? (Choosetwo.)

A. interop mode 1B. interop mode 2C. interop mode 3D. IVRE. Port ChannelsF. CWDM




QUESTION 139Which factor is most strongly influencing adoption of 10 Gigabit Ethernet at the server level?

A. blade server useB. storage requirementsC. mainframe IP connectivityD. smaller Layer 2 fault domain needs



QUESTION 140To protect the supervisor of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, the CoPP feature performs which two functions? (Choose two)

A. performs broadcast suppressionB. drops packets with unknown sourcesC. focuses on access and authentication attacksD. separates data plane packets from control plane packetsE. provides DoS protection independent from interface capabilities

Correct Answer: DESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 141What is one common benefit of U access and inverted U access design topologies for the access layer?

A. They both contain VLANs in switch pairsB. They are both forms of a looped design model.C. They require no STP blocking; all uplinks are active.D. They both support VLAN extension across aggregation switches.




QUESTION 142

Refer to the exhibit which mechanism is preferred for traffic load balancing in this topology, when fast convergence is the design priority?

A. Spanning Tree ProtocolB. Layer 3 Equal-Cost MultipathC. Multi chassis Ether ChannelD. Hot standby Routing Protocol




QUESTION 143In designing data center core layer throughput for SAN applications, which feature is implemented in a Cisco Nexus 7010 core switch to complementclassical QoS?

A. WRRB. WREDC. PAUSED. CoS-based virtual lanes

.



QUESTION 144Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)

A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.



QUESTION 145Which two terms relate to the capability of a physical NIC to present virtual NICs to the operating system or hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A. VM-FEXB. NPIV


C. Adapter-FEXD. NIVE. host vPCF. NIC teaming



QUESTION 146Which term is synonymous with offloading network I/O processing from the hypervisor to a physical switch ASIC?

A. VM-FEXB. NPIVC. Adapter-FEXD. NIVE. host vPCF. NIC teaming



QUESTION 147Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server?(Choose four.)

A. Cisco UCS 5108B. Cisco UCS 2204XPC. Cisco UCS 6248UPD. Cisco UCS 5596UPE. Cisco UCS P81EF. Cisco UCS 2208XP


G. Cisco UCS 6110XPH. Cisco UCS VIC 1280

Correct Answer: ACFHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 148Which Cisco technology would you specify to provide your client's data center with context- aware identity validation and Layer 2 port authentication?

A. Cisco Security ManagerB. Cisco NAC ProfilerC. Cisco TrustSecD. Cisco Anti-XE. Cisco Virtual Security Gateway



QUESTION 149Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switchport?

A. Host vPC+B. LinksecC. MACsecD. LACPE. IPsec




QUESTION 150Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?

A. packet debugB. troubleshoot performanceC. traffic analysisD. API management



QUESTION 151Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)

A. transparent operation management through an XML APIB. Cisco Nexus 7000 integrationC. template-based policy managementD. Cisco Nexus 5000 integrationE. disruptive administration model



QUESTION 152A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flowexporter? (Choose three.)

A. export destination IP addressB. source interface


C. UDP port numberD. TCP port numberE. NAT port number



QUESTION 153What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?

A. 32-bit dotted hexB. 48-bit dotted hexC. 64-bit dotted hexD. 128-bit dotted hexE. 160-bit dotted hex



QUESTION 154Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?

A. FCoEB. DCBXC. FIPD. distributed FCFE. 802.1Qbb



Explanation/Reference:answer is valid.

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