class 10 nso 5 years e book14

8/10/2019 Class 10 Nso 5 Years e Book14

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10 5 (2009-2013)

Including Set A and Set B of

Year 2012 and 2013

ebo

okNATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD


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Copyright 2014 Science Olympiad Foundation. Printed with the permision of Science Olympiad Foundation. No part of

this publication may be reproduced, transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying,recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the copyright holder. Ownership of an ebook does not give the

possessor the ebook copyright.

All disputes subject to Delhi jurisdiction only.

Disclaimer : The information in this book is to give you the path to success but it does not guarantee 100% success as

the strategy is completely dependent on its execution. And it is based on last years papers of NSO exam.

Published by : MTG Learning Media (P) Ltd.

Corporate Ofce : Plot 99, 2nd Floor, Sector 44 Institutional Area, Gurgaon, Haryana.Phone : 0124 - 4951200Web: mtg.in Email: [email protected]

Regd. Ofce : 406, Taj Apt., Ring Road, Near Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi-110029


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12 thNSO 2009

13 thNSO 2010

14 thNSO 2011

15 thNSO 2012 - SET A

15th

NSO 2012 - SET B

16 thNSO 2013 - SET A

16th NSO 2013 - SET B

Contents

CLASS 10


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MTG WORKBOOKS / OLYMPIAD BOOKS

CLASS 1

CLASS 2

CLASS 3


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CLASS 4

CLASS 5

CLASS 6



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CLASS 7

CLASS 8


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CLASS 10

CLASS 9


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CLASS 12

CLASS 11


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Class

1 to 10


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FOUNDATION COURSEFor Classes 8, 9 & 10

JEE Main & Advamced | AIPMT | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE


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Year 2009

12th

Class 10


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212th NSO | Level-I | Class 10

MENTAL ABILITY

1. The sides of a regular hexagon of length 2 cm are extended. The alternate sides meet in 6 new points.

The area of the star-shaped region so obtained is______

(A) 12 3 cm 2 (B) 6 2 cm 2 (C) 6 3 cm2 (D) 12 2 cm 2

2. Find the number of triplets of integers in arithmetic progression, the sum of whose squares is 1994.(A) 36 (B) 45 (C) 12 (D) Does not exist

3. In right angled triangleABC, BC = 5,AC = 12, andAM =x

MN

AC, NP

BC N is on AB. If y = M N + N P , then

A

N

MC

P

B

(A) y =1

2(5x + 12) (B) y = +

5 12

12 5

x(C) y =

-144 7

12

x(D) y = 12x

4. Four parallel lines are cut by two transversalst1 andt2 as shown in the given

figure. If AB = 2 cm, EF = 3 cm and CD = 2 cm, then length of GH is _____

(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm

E

F

A

B

G

H

C

D

t1 t2(C) 5 cm (D) 3 cm

5. Which one of the following is correct ?

(A) 3 37 7{( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 2)} 24 3 37 7= ( 7 + 3 + 4)( 7 + 3 6)

(B)3 37 7

{( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 + 2 )} + 24 3 37 7= ( 7 + 3 + 4)( 7 + 3 6)

(C)3 37 7{( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 + 2)} 24-

3 37 7= ( 7 + 3 4)( 7 + 3 6)- -

(D)3 37 7{( 7 + 3 )( 7 + 3 2)} + 24- 3 37 7= ( 7 + 3 4)( 7 + 3 + 6)

6. O is the centre of a circle of diameter 4 cm and OABC is a square. If the

shaded area is1

3area of the square, then the side of the square is______

(A) 3p cm (B) 3p cm

A

OB

C(C) 3 p cm (D) 3p cm

7. This table shows the relationship between area (a) and width

(w) for rectangles that have perimeter of 40 centimetres. Which

algebraic equation correctly describes this relationship?

Area ( ) (cm)a 2

75 5

96 8

100 10

96 12

75 15

Width ( ) (cm)w

(A) a = 15 w (B) a = 10 w + 25

(C) a = 20w w2

(D) a = 100 w2

8. Babul visits Japan and Australia on his vacation. The exchange

rates between United States dollars and the currencies of the

countries he is visiting are shown in the adjoining figure.

When he arrives in Australia, he still has 10,500 Japanese yen. How

much is this worth in Australian dollars ?

(A) 64.72 Australian dollars (B) 99.53 Australian dollars

(C) 162.23 Australian dollars (D) 171.97 Australian dollars

9. The table shown here contains co-ordinates for two endpoints of a circle's diameter.

Which of these points is the centre of the circle?x y

2 5

2 5(A) (2, 0) (B) (6, 5) (C) (1, 5) (D) (0, 5)

CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009


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3 12th NSO | Level-I | Class 10

10. At an electronics store, Sara earns a 5%

commission on her sales. The table here

shows her sales for four weeks.

Week 1 2 3 4

Sales Rs. 1920 Rs. 1680 Rs. 3360 Rs. 2640

Sara's Sales

What was Sara's total commission for these four weeks?

(A) Rs. 12 (B) Rs. 40 (C) Rs. 120 (D) Rs. 480

11. The table shown here contains pricing information for

the chopper (a kitchen tool) that is advertised on television.

The price depends on how soon a customer calls after

the end of the advertisement.

Minutes (m ) after television

advertisement ends

Price perchopper

(in Rs.)

0

m

10 34.95

10


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27. Statement I : Respiration is an exothermic process.

Statement II : CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O, is an endothermic process.

(A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.

(C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

28. The given figure shows important products of chlor-alkali process.What are X, Y and Z respectively ?

NaCl

At anode At cathode

(aq. solution)X Y Z

(A) NaOH, Cl2, H

2

(B) H2, Cl

2, NaOH

(C) Cl2, H

2, NaOH

(D) Cl2, NaOH, H

2

29. In the given flow chart I, II, III and IV are ______

(A) Electrolysis, Concentration, Roasting, Calcination

(B) Concentration, Electrolysis, Calcination, Roasting

(C) Calcination, Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting

(D) Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting, Calcination

30. GasXwhen directed towards a burning candle

extinguishes it. The compound in ignition tube

is _____

(A) H2S (aq) (B) dil. H

2SO

4

Thread

Ignition tube

Wash bottle

X

Sodium hydrogencarbonate

Thread

Ignitiontube

(C) NaCl (D) NaOH

31. xFe + yH2O zFe3O4 + wH2

What are x, y, z and w respectively ?(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 1, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 4 (D) 3, 3, 3, 3

32. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below

Column I Column II

(a) R2C CR2 R2CHCHR2 (i) Roasting

(b) ZnCO3D

ZnO + CO2 (ii) Calcination

(c) 2ZnS + 3O2D

2ZnO + 2SO2 (iii) Thermite process

(d) Fe2O3 + 2Al2Fe + Al2O3 (iv) Addition

(A) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (iii) (B) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (iii)

(C) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii) (D) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)

Ore

I

Metals ofhigh reactivity

Metals ofmedium

reactivity

Metals of lowreactivity

II

Carbonateore

Sulphideore

Sulphide ores

Roasting

Metals

Refining

Pure metal

III IV

Oxide of metal

Reduction to metalPurification of metal

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33. Statement I : Soap solution appears cloudy.

Statement II : Soap micelles are large enough to scatter light.

(A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.

(C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

34. Suresh took some sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it.Test tube

Spatula containing

sulphur powder

Burner

He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube as shown

in figure.

When he brought a wet litmus paper near the test tube then he

observed______

(A) No effect on litmus paper (B) Blue litmus turns red

(C) Red litmus turns blue (D) Unpredictable

35. A liquidXis used in medicine such as tincture of iodine, cough syrups, etc. On reaction with sodium

metal it gives a gas Y which burns with a pop sound. On reaction with conc. H2SO4 it gives an

unsaturated hydrocarbon. What are X and Y respectively ?

(A) CH3

COOH, O2

(B) C2

H5

OH, CO2

(C) CH3

COOC2

H5

, H2

(D) CH3

CH2

OH, H2

36. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column I (Acid) Column II (Source)

(p) Acetic acid (i) Sting of bees

(q) Butyric acid (ii) Apples

(r) Formic acid (iii) Vinegar

(s) Lactic acid (iv) Rancid butter

(t) Maleic acid (v) Sour milk

(A) (p) (iii), (q) (i), (r) (ii), (s) (v), (t) (iv) (B) (p) (ii), (q) (v), (r) (iii), (s) (iv), (t) (i)

(C) (p) (iii), (q) (iv), (r) (i), (s) (v), (t) (ii) (D) (p) (i), (q) (ii), (r) (v), (s) (iii), (t) (iv)

Directions for Q.Nos. 37 and 38 : Read the passage carefully and answer the given questions.

Elements when arranged in order of increasing atomic number Z,lead to the classification known as the

'Modern Periodic Law'. Prediction of properties of elements could be made with more precision when

elements were arranged on the basis of increasing atomic number.

37. An element belongs to group 17. It is present in third period and its atomic number is 17. What is

the atomic number of the element belonging to same group and present in fifth period ?

(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 53

38. What are a, b, c, d and e in the given figure ?

a b c

d As Se

S n e Te

a b c d e

(A) Si P S Ge Sb

(B) Si P S Sb Ge

(C) Si P Sb S Ge

(D) P S Si Ge Sb

39. In both evaporation and transpiration water is lost in the form of vapour yet they differ because______

(A) Transpiration is a physical process and evaporation is a physiological process

(B) Transpiration is a physiological process and evaporation is a physical process

(C) Rate of water loss differs (D) Frequency of water loss is different in both of them

40. Diaphragm is a thin muscular membrane that separates abdominal cavity from thoracic cavity. When

diaphragm of man is completely dome shaped it shows______

(A) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration (B) Beginning of expiration and end of inspiration

(C) Increased rate of breathing (D) Decreased rate of breathing

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41. The heart is a hollow, muscular, cone-shaped organ, lying between thea

b

c

d

e

lungs in the thoracic cavity. In the given diagram of heart, certain partshave been labelled as a, b, c, d and e. Select the correct option.

(A) The part labelledccloses shortly after the start of ventricular systole whilethe d closes shortly after the diastole starts

(B) The parts labelled c and d have three and two flaps respectively

(C) The part labelled b carries impure blood(D) The part labelled a carries pure blood whilee carries impure blood

42. When the plant Mimosa pudica is touched, it begins to fold up and droop. The types of movementit shows are given below. Select the correct option.

(i) Seismonastic movement (ii) Nyctinastic movement

(iii) Thigmonastic movement (iv) Chemonastic movement

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (i)

43. Refer the given figure and select the correct option.

a b

c

d

(A) The parts labelled a and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively

(B) The parts labelled c and b give rise to seed and fruit respectively

(C) The part labelled d results in endosperm

(D) Both (A) and (C)

44. When parents P1 and P2 were crossed, F2 progeny was produced with three fourth similar featuresin phenotype to P2 and F1 and one fourth possessed contrasting traits. If the traits being considered

here are for height with 'T' for tall and 't' for short. What will be the possible genotype of P 1 andone fourth of F2 ?(A) tt and Tt (B) Tt and tt (C) Tt and Tt (D) tt and tt

45. Water harvesting is an age old concept in India. Given below are few water harvesting and waterconveyance structures (Column I) used in different states (Column II). Match column I with column IIand select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II(a) Khadins, nadis (i) Bihar(b) Bandharas, tals (ii) Kerala(c) Bundis (iii ) U.P.(d) Ahars, pynes (iv) Rajasthan(e) Surangams (v) Maharashtra

a b c d e(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)(B) (iv) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)(C) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)(D) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

46. The rate at which producers in an ecosystem capture and store chemical energy as biomass is called _____

(A) Gross primary productivi ty (B) Net primary productivity(C) Net secondary productivity (D) Gross secondary productivity

47. The figure shows the arrangement of blood vesselsin the uterus wall and placenta of a pregnant woman.

Which of the following will increase in concentrationin the blood as it flows from 1 to 2 ?

(A) Amino acids (B) Carbon dioxide

Space filled

with mother's blood

Baby's blood

Umbilical cord

Developing baby

1 2

Placenta

(C) Glucose (D) Oxygen

CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009


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48. Speciation is the formation of one or more new species from an existing species. A new species

of organism is formed when ______

(A) A series of mutation occur so that an organism becomes different from the others in population, but it still

shows successful interbreeding

(B) Climate changes drastically leading to structural changes in the given population

(C) A group of organisms isolated from the rest of the species by geographical barrier

(D) None of these

49. Statement I : Mendel picked common garden pea plants for the focus of his research.

Statement II : Garden pea plants can be grown easily in large numbers and their reproduction cannot

be manipulated.

(A) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.

(C) Statement I is true and statement II is false (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

50. Which of the following statements regarding the given figure of human

ab

c

de

brain are correct ?

(i) Labelled part a is involved in control of blood pressure, salivationand vomiting

(ii) Labelled part bis responsible for precision of voluntary actions and

maintaining the posture and balance of the body

(iii) The part labelledcis responsible for change in size of the pupil and

activity like walking in a straight line

(iv) The secretions of part labelled d are responsible for functioning of hypothalamus

(v) The part labelled e receives and integrates signals from spinal cord.

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (v) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CLASS 10 | 12th NSO - 2009


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13th

Year 2010

Class 10


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13th NSO | Level-I | Class - 10 2

MENTAL ABILITY

1. A triangle has sides 8 cm, 17 cm and 15 cm. The area of the triangle is ________

(A) 50 cm2 (B) 68 cm2 (C) 40 cm2 (D) 60 cm2

2. In the adjoining figure, if BO and CO are the bisectors ofEBC &

DCB respectively the value ofBOC is ________

(A) 60 (B) 120

A

B C

O

6070

1 2

6070

1 2

E D(C) 30 (D) 90

3. What is the area of a right angled triangle if the radius of its circumcircle is

3 cm and altitude drawn to the hypotenuse is 2 cm?

(A) 4 3 cm2 (B) 6.5 cm2

A

B C

D

(C) 7 cm2 (D) 6 cm2

4. The areas of two similar trianglesABCand DEFare 144 cm2 and 81 cm2 respectively. If the long est

side of larger ABC be 36 cm, then the longest side of the smaller triangle DEF is ________

(A) 20 cm (B) 26 cm (C) 27 cm (D) 30 cm

5. If 2x 3y = 7 and (a + b) x (a + b 3) y = 4a + b represent coincident lines, then a and b satisfy

the equation ________

(A) a + 5b = 0 (B) 5a + b = 0 (C) a 5b = 0 (D) 5a b = 0

6. If the equation x2 bx + 1 = 0 does not possess real roots, then ________

(A) 3


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13th NSO | Level-I | Class - 103

12. Consider the adjoining diagram :

What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint

the given figure such that no two adjacent regions have the same

colour?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

13. In the given qu estion, a set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that thecharacters in the set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character.

(A) 3515

5

80

2

6

9 7

64

65

13

11

16

8

?(B) 48

(C) 72

(D) 120

14. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how will ACID be written?

(A) 1394 (B) IC94 (C) BDJE (D) 1D3E

15. Find the missing number if 17 : 52 : : 1 : ?(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 51

SCIENCE

16.

V

I

V

I

Fig-(I)

V

I

Fig-(II)

V

I

Fig-(III) Fig-(IV)

The relation between the potential difference ( V) and current (I) across a conductor is correctly

represented by ________

(A) Fig-(I) (B) Fig-(II) (C) Fig-(III) (D) Fig-(IV)

17. Optical density of a medium depends on ________

(A) Density of the medium (B) Thickness of the medium

(C) Velocity of light in that medium (D) None of these

18. Two equilateral prisms are arranged as shown in figure such that a ray

P

Q

White

lightXof white light is incident at point X. The ray of light which emerges out

of the prism Q ________

(A) Will show all the colours of spectrum (B) Will be white light

(C) Will be orange in colour (D) Will be dull white in colour

19. A long sighted person cannot see objects clearly at a distance less than 40 cm from his eyes. The

power of the lens needed by him to read a paper at 25 cm is ________

(A) 2.5 D (B) +2.5 D (C) 6.25 D (D) +1.5 D

20. During a planned manoeuvre in a space flight, a free-floating astronautXpushes another free-floating

astronaut Y, the mass of X being greater than that of Y. Then, the magnitude of the force exerted

by astronaut X on astronaut Y is ________

(A) Equal to zero (B) Equal to the force exerted byY on X

(C) Greater than the force exerted byYon X (D) Less than the force exerted by Y on X

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010


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21. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.

Statement 1 : Fine particles in atmosphere scatter the light of shorter wavelength more.

Statement 2 : Sky appears blue.

(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

22. Which of the following is the best thing to do during heavy lightning ?

(A) Lying on the ground in an open place (B) Going into the nearest water body

(C) Staying indoors away from metall ic doors or windows

(D) Standing under a tall tree

23. Study the diagram carefully and select the correct statement.

Water

P

Q

R

(A) Water flowing through hole 'P' will move a smaller distance as compared

to that through 'Q' and 'R'.

(B) Water flowing through hole 'Q' will move maximum distance.

(C) Water flowing through 'R' will move more distance than 'Q' but less than 'P'.

(D) Water flowing through all holes will travel same distance as pressure exerted by a liquid is equal in all

directions.

DIRECTION : Read the passage carefully and answer Q. nos. 24 and 25.

BulbP

220 V

BulbQ

Mains

An electric bulb 'P' rated 220 V, 60 W is working at full efficiency. Another

identical bulb 'Q' is connected across the mains as shown here.

24. The total power consumed is ________

(A) 20 W (B) 40 W (C) 30 W (D) 70 W

25. What will be the total power if the bulbs are connected in parallel?

(A) 120 W (B) 60 W (C) 200 W (D) 70 W

26. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.Column I Column II

(a) Flemings left hand rule (i) Application of electromagnetic induction

(b) Flemings right hand rule (ii) Direction of magnetic force on a current carrying conductor in

uniform magnetic field

(c) Solenoid (iii) Similar to bar magnet

(d) Electric generator (iv) Direction of induced current.

(A) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) (B) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

(C) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) (D) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)

27. A few substances are arranged in order of increasing force of attraction between their particles.

Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?(A) Milk, Sugar, Air (B) Air, Sugar, Milk (C) Sugar, Milk, Air (D) Air, Milk, Sugar

28. Two mixtures containing mustard oil and water, and carbon disulphid e and water are poured into

separating funnels and kept undisturbed for some time. Two layers separate out according to their

densities. Which of the following observations do you think are correct ?

(A) (i) and (ii)Oil

Water

Water Oil

Oil

Water

Water

Water

Carbondisulphide Water

Carbondisulphide

Carbondisulphide

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010


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29. Which of the following involves fractional distillation?

i. Separation of constituents from liquefied air.

ii. Separation of constituents from crude petroleum.

iii. Separation of carbon tetrachloride from water.

iv. Separation of naphthalene from common salt.

(A) i and ii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iv (D) i and iii

30. 1.2375 g of cupric oxide on being heated in a current of hydrogen, gave 0.9322 g of the metal. In

another experiment, 0.9369 g of pure copper was dissolved in nitric acid. Excess of acid evaporated

and the residue was ignited. The weight of the cupric oxide left was 1.2469 g. Which law of chemical

combination is shown by the above results?

(A) Law of constant proportions (B) Law of multiple proportions

(C) Law of conservation of mass (D) Law of constant volumes


Statement 1 : Only one out of every 12000 alpha particles rebound in Rutherfords experiment.

Statement 2 : Most of the space in the atom is empty.(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.


(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Electron (i) Chadwick

(b) Proton (ii) J.J. Thomson

(c) Nucleus (iii) Goldstein

(d) Neutron (iv) Rutherford

(A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

33. Out of 4 g of methane and 11 g of CO2, which has more number of molecules?

(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Both have equal number of molecules (D) It is not possible to compare

34. SolutionX is taken into test tube-1 and made to react with dilute

HCl. Gas Yis evolved in the reaction which is made to pass through

the delivery tube into test tube-2 having solution Z and a milkysolution is obtained. What are X, Y and Z respectively ?

(A) NaOH, CO2

, Na2

CO3

Thistle funnel

Iron standRubber cork

Hard glasstest tube

Dilutehydrochloric

acid

Delivery tube

Test tube 2

Gas Y

SolutionZ

Substance X

Test tube 1

(B) Ca(OH)2

, H2

, Ca(HCO3

)2

(C) Ca(OH)2

, CO2

, CaCO3

(D) CaCO3

, CO2

, Ca(OH)2

35. Which of the following elements does not belong to the same period ?16 19 20 238 9 10 11, , andP Q R S

(A) 16

8 P (B)

19

9 Q (C)

20

10 R (D)

23

11S

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010


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36. Study the following flow chart and mark the correct options from the given choices to fill (i), (ii),

(iii), (iv), (v) and (vi).

Organic compounds(Hydrocarbons)

Open chain or

Aliphatic

Closed chain or

Cyclic

Saturated

(i)e.g.

Unsaturatede.g.

Alicyclic Aromatic

(vi)e.g.

Saturated

(iv)e.g.

Unsaturated

(v)e.g.(ii) (iii)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)

(A) Cyclobutane Cyclobutene Butane Butene Butyne Benzene

(B) Benzene Butene Cyclobutane Butyne Butane Cyclobutene

(C) Butane Butene Butyne Cyclobutane Cyclobutene Benzene

(D) Butene Butyne Butane Cyclobutene Cyclobutane Benzene

37. Four test tubes P, Q, R and S were taken and filled half with a solution of aluminium sulphate in

water. Clean piece of metal zinc was placed in test tube P, iron nail in test tube Q, copper wire in

test tube R and aluminium wire in test tube S. What colour change will be observed in all the four

test tubes respectively ?

(A) White, brown, blue, green

Zinc

metal

Iron

nail

Copper

wire

Aluminium

wire

Aluminiumsulphatesolution P Q R S

(B) Colourless, colourless, colourless, colourless

(C) Colourless, brown, blue, colourless

(D) Colourless, green, blue, colourless

38. Three students were given colourless liquids of water, lemon juice and a mixture of water and lemon

jui ce. After testing these liq uids wit h pH paper, a sequ ence in colour chan ge of pH paper was

reported. Which is the correct sequence ?

(A) Blue, red and green (B) Orange, green and green

(C) Green, red and red (D) Red and green

39.

Ethanol + CO + Energy2

I

II

III

Lactic acid +Energy

CO + H O + Energy2 2

Glucose Pyruvate

The above flow chart shows the three steps of glucose breakdown in different conditions. Which of

the given steps is responsible for muscle cramps?

(A) Step I (B) Step II (C) Step III (D) Both (A) & (B)

40. The given figure is associated with which of the following types of plant tissues ?

(A) Vascular bundle

(B) Epidermis

(C) Endodermis

(D) Pith

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41. The given figure shows the pathway taken by a nerve impulse

in a reflex action. Which part serves as a link between other

neurons ?

(A) P

(B) Q

PQ

SR

Message to brain

(C) R

(D) S

42. Each ovule consists of a large oval shaped cell called the embryo sac and the mature embryo sac

contains ________ nuclei.

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Five (D) Eight

43. Which of the followin g conditions will give the most benefits to the farmers?

(A) Use of high quality seeds, fertilizers and no irrigation.

(B) Use of quality seeds, irrigation, fertilizers and crop protection measures.

(C) Use of ordinary seeds, irrigation and fertilizers.

(D) Use of quality seeds, irrigation and protection measures.

44. Which of the following is correct about chromosomes?

(A) It is composed of DNA and lipids. (B) It is composed of DNA and proteins.

(C) It is composed of DNA only. (D) It is composed of RNA and proteins.

45. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the

given figure ?

(A) It shows Mendel's monohybrid cross.

Violet flowers White flowers

F generation1

F generation2

(B) The ratio of violet and white flowers is 3 : 1.

(C) Violet flowers are dominant.

(D) All of these.

46. Preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils. What type of fossil is

shown in the figure ?

(A) Fossil of a tree trunk (B) Fossil of Trilobite

(C) Fossil of Ammonite (D) Fossil of Knightia

47. The green plants or producers capture _______ of energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves to

prepare food by photosynthesis.

(A) 2% (B) 1% (C) 10% (D) 50%

48. In a grassland ecosystem which of the following groups of animals are likely to occupy the sametrophic level ?

(A) a, b, c

a b c d e

(B) b, c, e

(C) c, d, e

(D) b, d, e

49. Ozone higher up in the atmosphere acts as a shield to prevent UV rays from reaching the Earth's

surface. These UV rays are responsible for which of the following diseases?

(i) Skin cancer (ii) Eye damage (iii) Lung cancer

(iv) Damage to immune system (v) Colour blindness

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) (C) (i), (iii), (v) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)

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Statement 1 : Our main aim of conservation is to preserve the biodiversity.

Statement 2 : Loss of biodiversity leads to loss of ecological stability.





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14th

Year 2011

Class 10


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2

MENTAL ABILITY

1. On a page of a telephone directory, there are 300 telephone numbers. The frequency dist ribut ion

of the digits at the unit's place is given below :

Unit digit 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Frequency 35 21 28 30 25 14 16 38 38 55

Without looking at the page, a number is chosen at random from the page. What is the probabili ty

that the digit at the unit's place of the number chosen is greater than 3 but less than 9 ?

(A) 186/300 (B) 131/300 (C) 161/300 (D) 216/300

2. A hall-room 39 m 10 cm long and 35 m 70 cm broad is to be paved with equal square tiles. Find

the number of tiles required so that the tiles exactly t.

(A) 483 (B) 358 (C) 475 (D) 583

3. 30 trees are planted in a straight line at intervals of 5 metres. To water them, the gardener needs

to bring water for each tree, separately from a well, which is 10 metres from the rst tree in line

with the trees. How far will he have to walk in order to water all the trees beginning with the rst

tree? Assume that he starts from the well.

(A) 4785 metres (B) 4795 metres (C) 4800 metres (D) None of these

4. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase in the area of the triangle is _____.

(A) 100 2% (B) 200% (C) 300% (D) 400%

5. If

1

21

22

2

+

=

a

ba

a b ab( ) and a + b = 5, then nd a and b respectively.

(A) 3, 2 (B) 4, 1 (C) 2, 3 (D) 1, 6

6. If the animals which can walk are called 'swimmers', animals who crawl are called 'ying', those

living in water are called 'snakes' and those which y in the sky are called 'hunters', then what

will a lizard be called ?

(A) Swimmers (B) Snakes (C) Flying (D) Hunters

7. For the set of numbers 2, 2, 4, 5 and 12, which of the foll owing expressions is true ?

(A) Mean = Median (B) Mean > Mode (C) Mean < Mode (D) Mode = Median

8. Namita walks 14 metres towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 metres and then turns

to her left and walks 10 metres. Again turning to her left she walks 14 metres. What is the shortest

distance (in metres) between her starting point and the present position ? (A) 10 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 38

9. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there each of which is not only exactly div isib le by 4 but

also has 4 as a digit ?

(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 12

10. Simplify by combining similar terms : 3 147 7

3

1

37

1

3 +

(A)

189

3 3 (B)

175

3 3 (C)

208 3

3 (D)

203

3 3

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3

11. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English

alphabet ?

(A) C (B) E (C) I (D) T

12. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form

ax2 + bx + 1 = 0 having real roots is ______.

(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 12

13. Consider the foll owing statements : When two straight lines intersect,

(i) adjacent angles are complementary (ii) adjacent angles are supplementary

(iii) opposi te angles are equal (iv) oppos ite angles are supplementary

Which of the following statements must be true?

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)

14. If sinq + sin2q = 1, then cos2q + cos4q = _______ .

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 2

15. The middle digit of a number between 100 and 1000 is zero and the sum of t he other digi ts i s 11.

If the digits be reversed, the number so formed exceeds the original number by 495; nd it.

(A) 304 (B) 308 (C) 403 (D) 803

SCIENCE

16. The answer to which of the following options will dis tingu ish between a magnetic material and a

non-magnetic material?

(A) Is it a metal or a non metal? (B) Is it a conductor or an insulator?

(C) Can it be given an electric charge?

(D) Does it affect the direction in which a compass needle points?

17. Figure shows a ray of light P striking a mirror AB . The mirror AB and

the mirror CD make an angle of 120 with each other. The angle of

reection of ray P at CD is _____.

(A) 20 (B) 30

(C) 50 (D) 70

18. A boy of mass 55 kg, runs up 40 stairs, each measuring a height of 0.15 m, in 5 s. Column II

gives numerical values for quantities described in column I. Match both the columns and select

the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Work done by all the forces (i) Change in potential energy

(b) Work done by conservativ e forces (ii) Change in kinetic energy

(c) Work done by external forces (iii) Change in mechanical energy

(d) Work done in unifo rm acceleration (iv) Zero

(A) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

(C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

19. The equation, E = Dmc 2 gives the amount of energy released as a result of nuclear ssion. What

does Dm stand for?

(A) The original mass of the nuclei (B) The nal total mass of the nuclei

(C) The increase in total mass of the nuclei

(D) The difference in mass between the original nuclei and the product nuclei

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4

20. A body is left free on a frictionless inclined plane as shown in the gure. It

takes 4 seconds to reach the bottom of the plank. What time would it take

to slide from point P to point Q?

(A) 1 s (B) 2 s

(C) 3 s (D) 4 s

21. The diagram shows a resistor connected to a cell of e.m.f. 2 V.How much heat energy is produced in the resistor in six seconds?

(A) 2.5 J (B) 4.8 J

(C) 10 J (D) 60 J

22. Rectangular components o f a force are applied to move a body. One of the components i s 30 N.

What should be the other component to obtain a resultant force of 50 N?

(A) 30 N (B) 40 N (C) 50 N (D) 90 N

23. In the circuit shown here, at which point i s the current least ?

(A) P

(B) Q (C) R

(D) S

24. An optician while testing the eyes nds the vision of a patient to be 6/12. By this he means that

______.

(A) The person can read the letters of 6 inches from a distance of 12 m.

(B) The person can read the letters of 12 inches from 6 m.

(C) The person can read the letters from 6 m which the normal eye can read from 12 m .

(D) The focal length of eye lens has become half that of the normal eye.

25. The diagram shows waves set up in a rope by a studentmoving the free end up and down at a steady rate.

What is the wavelength of the waves shown , and what wil l

be the wavelength when the student doubles the frequency

at which the free end is moved up and down?

Wavelength as shown Wavelength when frequency doubled

(A) 0.50 m 1.00 m

(B) 0.50 m 0.50 m

(C) 1.00 m 1.00 m

(D) 1.00 m 0.50 m

26. Refer the given statements and select the correct option . Statement 1 : Aeroplanes always y at low altitudes.

Statement 2 : Acco rding to Newton 's third law of motion, for every action there is an equal and

opposite reaction.



(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

27. Aqua-regia is ______.

(A) HNO3+ HCl (B) HNO

3+ 3HCl (C) 3HNO

3+ HCl (D) H

2SO

4+ 3HCl

28. As compared to the pure metal, the electric al conducti vity and melting point of an alloy is ____.

(A) More (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Can't generalise

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29. In the given gure, the red-brown gas evolved is _____.

(A) Oxygen

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Carbon monoxide

30. Acetic acid was added to a solid X taken in a test tube. A colourless and odourl ess gas was

evolved. The gas was passed through lime water which did not turn milky. However the gas burnt

with a pop sound. It was concluded that ______.

(A) Solid X is sodium and the gas evolved is CO2

(B) Solid X is sodium and the gas evolved is H2

(C) Solid X is sodium acetate and the gas evolved is CO2

(D) Solid X is sodium chloride and the gas evolved is H2

31. Two non-metals X and Y combi ne with each other by sharing electrons to form compound Z. Which

is the correct statement for compound Z?

(A) Undergoes ionic reactions and soluble in organic solvents.(B) Undergoes ionic reactions and soluble in water.

(C) Undergoes molecular reactions and soluble in organic solvents.

(D) Undergoes molecular reactions and soluble in water.

32. A compound P is taken in a at bottomed ask as shown in

gure. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added drop by drop. A gas Q is

evolved which is then passed in a test tube containing R. A solid

precipitate S is formed. R is frequently used in white washing.

During white washing a layer of R is applied on the wall and it

reacts with gas Q (present in air) to produce white shiny layer

of S on the wall. P, Q, R and S respectively are _____.

P Q R S

(A) Na2SO

4 SO

2 Ca(OH)

2 CaSO

4

(B) Na2SO

3 O

2 Ca(OH)

2 CaO

(C) Na2CO

3 O

2 Ca(OH)

2 CaCO

3

(D) Na2CO

3 CO

2 Ca(OH)

2 CaCO

3

33. Given below are the melting points and the atomic radii of four elements P, Q, R and S each having n

electrons in the outermost shell of their atoms. Which element will have the highest atomic number?

Element P Q R S

Melting point (C) 1.34 1.54 1.96 2.05At om ic radius (A ) 1.20 1.31 1.36 1.42

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

34. Monty fully lled a glass bottle with water, put a stopper on it and placed it upright in the freezer

overnight. When he looked at it in the morning, the stopper was off the bottle and a column of

ice had emerged through the opening of the bottle.

Which one of the foll owing is the best explanation for what Monty had observed?

(A) The bottle had contracted when it was put in the freezer and the water could no longer t into it.

(B) Extra water condensed from the air in the freezer and then froze to form the column of ice.

(C) The bottle and stopper had contracted, allowing the water to pour out and form the ice column.

(D) The volume of water increased when the water froze, forcing the stopper off the bottle and forming thecolumn of ice.

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6

35. When liquid carbon disulphide (CS2) is added to water taken in a tube, which is the correct

observation?

(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

36. Light is passed through the solution of X and solution of Y. The following f igure shows th e

observation.

What could be X and Y ?

(A) X = Milk Y = Mud

(B) X = Mud Y = Milk

(C) X = Milk Y = Copper sulphate

(D) X = Copper sulphate Y = Milk

37. How many moles of gold are present in an ornament cont aining 88.65 g of gold ? (Atomic mass

of Au is 197 u)

(A) 0.5 mol (B) 0.45 mol (C) 4.5 mol (D) 5.0 mol

38. Match the names of the scientists giv en in column-I with contri butions towards the understanding

of the atomic structure as given in column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given

below.

Column-I Column-II

(P) Dalton (i) Atomi c number

(Q) E. Goldstein (ii) Indivisibility of atoms

(R) Moseley (iii ) Neutrons

(S) J.Chadwick (iv) Canal rays

(A) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (iv), (R) (i), (S) - (iii) (B) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (i), (R) - (iv), (S) (iii)(C) (P) - (iv), (Q) - (ii), (R) - (i), (S) - (iii) (D) (P) - (iii), (Q) - (iv), (R) - (i), (S) - (ii)

39. The given gure represents a plant cell after being placed

in a strong sugar solution. The different parts have been

labelled as a, b, c, d & e. Which of the following is the

correct labelling ?

a b c d e

(A) Cell wall Sugar solution Protoplasm Vacuole Cell membrane

(B) Cell membrane Sugar solution Protoplasm Vacuole Cell wall

(C) Cell wall Sugar solution Vacuole Protoplasm Tonoplast (D) Cell membrane Sugar solution Vacuole Protoplasm Tonoplast

40. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct opti on from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Suicide bag of the cell (i) Mitochondria

(b) Power house of the cell (ii) Ribosome

(c) Protein factory of the cell (iii) Lysosome

(d) Kitchen of the cell (iv) Endoplasmic reticulum

(e) Circulatory system of the cell (v) Chloroplast

(A) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv), e-(v) (B) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(v), e-(iv)

(C) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(v),e-(ii) (D) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v),e-(iv)

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41. A leafy shoo t is placed in a beaker containing a solut ion of a coloured dye.

The given gure shows part of a section of the shoot after two days. Which

part is now most coloured by the dye ?

(A) a (B) b

(C) c (D) d

42. The given diagram shows some stages in the carbon cyc le. W,X , Y and Z are carbon compounds.

What is W ?

(A) Carbon compounds in animals

(B) Carbon compounds in plants

(C) Carbon dioxide in the air

(D) Coal and oil

43. Which of the following organisms show mixotrophic nutrition?

(A) (B) (C) (D) Both (B) & (C)

44. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct opti on from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Auxin (i) Fruit ripening

(b) Cytokinins (ii) Phototropism

(c) Gibberellins (iii) Stimulation of cell division

(d) Abscisic acid (iv) Suppression of cell division

(e) Ethylene (v) Stomatal opening and closing

(vi) Growth of lateral buds

(vii) Stem elongation in "rosette" plants

(A) a-(iii), (vi), b-(vii), c-(ii), d-(i),(iv), e-(v) (B) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(iii),(vi), d-(vii), e- (i), (iv)

(C) a-(iii), (vi), b-(ii), c-(vii), d-(v),e-(i),(iv) (D) a-(ii), b-(iii), (vi), c-(vii), d-(v),e-(i), (iv)

45. Sperms travel during an ejaculation from the (i) , where they are stored to the (ii) , from

where they are transpor ted to the ejaculatory duct and then to the (iii) , which carries both

reproductive and excretory uids. A vasectomy is a surgical procedure for contraceptive purposes in

which the _(iv) is cut and block ed so as to prevent sperms from being present in the semen.

Select the correct sequence of terms to complete the above paragraph.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) Vas deferens Epididymis Urethra Vas deferens

(B) Vas deferens Epididymis Urethra Seminiferous tubules

(C) Epididymis Vas deferens Urethra Vas deferens

(D) Epididymis Vas deferens Urethra Seminiferous tubules

46. Which of the follow ing cont rol measures would not help to prevent the spread of malaria?

(A) Boiling drinking water (B) Covering windows with netting

(C) Draining swamps (D) Spraying insecticides on stagnant water

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47. Which of Mendel's laws states that when two homozygous indi viduals with one or more sets of

contrasting characteristics are crossed, the characteristics which appear in F1hybrids are dominant

and those which do not are recessive ?

(A) Law of segregation (B) Law of dominance

(C) Law of independent assortment (D) None of these

48. Rabi and Kharif crops are the major crops of India. Given below is a list of crops. Categorize them

as Rabi and Kharif crops.

Paddy, Wheat, Soyabean, Mustard, Maize, Cotton, Barley, Sugarcane.

(A) Rabi crops : Paddy, Wheat, Cotton, Sugarcane

Kharif crops : Soyabean, Mustard, Maize, Barley

(B) Rabi crops : Wheat, Mustard, Barley, Sugarcane

Kharif crops : Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton

(C) Rabi crops : Wheat, Mustard, Barley

Kharif crops : Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton, Sugarcane

(D) Rabi crops : Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton, Sugarcane

Kharif crops : Wheat, Mustard, Barley

49. The correct s equence of taxonomic categories is ______.

(A) Division Class Family Order Genus Species

(B) Phylum Order Class Family Genus Species

(C) Class Division Order Family Genus Species

(D) Division Class Order Family Genus Species

50. Refer the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Hepatitis is a communicable disease.

Statement 2 : Hepatitis can pass from an infected person to a healthy person.

(A) Both the statements 1 & 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.(B) Both the statements 1 & 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both the statements 1 & 2 are false.


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15th

Year 2012

SET A

Class 10


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2

MENTAL ABILITY

1. 105 goats, 140 donkeys and 175 cows have to be taken across a river. There is only one boat

which will have to make many trips in order to do so. The lazy boatman has his own conditions

for transporting them. He insists that he will take the same number of animals in every trip and

they have to be of same kind. He will naturally like to take the largest possible number each time.

The number of animals went in each trip is _________. (A) 75 (B) 35 (C) 154 (D) 63

2. In the given diagram, the circle stands for College Professors, the triangle stands for Surgical

Specialists, and Medical Specialists are represented by the rectangle. Surgical Specialists who are

also Medical Specialists but not College Professors are represented by _____.

(A) B

(B) C

(C) X

(D) Z

3. The zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x3 5x2 2x + 24, if it is given that the product of its two

zeroes is 12 are ______.

(A) 3, 4, 2 (B) 3, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2

4. Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water image of the given combination.

QUARREL

(A)QUARREL

(B)ARREL

QU (C)EL

QUA RR (D)L

QUA RR

E

5. In the given gure, ifDE

BC= 2

3 and AE = 10 cm, then AB is ____.

(A) 16 cm

(B) 12 cm

(C) 15 cm

(D) 18 cm

6. Values of pand qfor which the given system of linear equations have innite number of solutions

are ______.

2x + 3y = 9

(p + q)x + (2p q)y = 3(p + q + 1)

(A) p=1, q= 5 (B) p q= =5

3

1

3, (C) p= 4, q= 2 (D) p= 4, q= 1

7. Anita, Armaan, Narayani, Harsha and Ashish went on some days out during half term. The only one

who went out bowling was Harsha. No-one except Narayani and Ashish went to the park. Anita, Armaan

and Narayani watched a lm together at the cinema. Everyone except Harsha went swimming. The

only child who did not visit the play centre was Armaan. Who visited the most places?

(A) Anita (B) Armaan (C) Ashish (D) Narayani

8. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10 metres. These stones have to

be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried

the job with one of the end stones by carrying them in succession. In carrying all the stones he

covered a distance of 3 km. Find the number of stones.

(A) 26 (B) 23 (C) 25 (D) 20

A

B C

D

E

105

75 65

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4

17. A mirror is broken into two parts and these parts are separated by a

distance of 1 cm as shown in gure. The focal length of the mirror is

10 cm. Find the location of the images (in cm), formed by the two parts

of mirror. The object is midway between the two principal axes.

(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 2

15 cm

1 cm

(C) 2, 2 (D) 0.5, 1

18. A partic le is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the

velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that ______.

(A) Its velocity is constant (B) Its acceleration is constant

(C) Its kinetic energy is conserved (D) None of these

19. Match Column-I with Column-II and mark the correct opti on from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) gh at height h (i) g h

R1

2

(b) gh at depth h (ii)GM

R2

(c) gpoles (iii) g h

R1

(d) g (iv) maximum

(A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(C) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (D) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

20. A uniform magnetic eld is directed into the page. A charged particle, moving

in the plane of the page, follows a clockwise spiral of decreasing radius as

shown in the given gure. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The charge is positive and slowing down.(B) The charge is negative and slowing down.

(C) The charge is positive and speeding up.

(D) The charge is negative and speeding up.

21. Which of the foll owing statements is/are correct?

(i) The distance between two consecutive compressions is called frequency of sound wave.

(ii) Sound propagates as pressure variations.

(iii) Compressions are narrower in a high pitched sound .

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iii)

22. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the follow ing is not

ultimately derived from the sun's energy?

(A) Geothermal energy (B) Wind energy (C) Fossil fuels (D) Biomass

23. The number of alphabetical capital letters such as A, B, C, D, which are not laterally inverted by

a plane mirror is ______.

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) 13

24. Two metallic wires Aand Bare connected in series. Wire Ahas length land radius r, while wire B

has length 2l and radius 2r. If both the wires are of same material then nd the ratio of the total

resistance of series combination to the resistance of the wire A.

(A) 34

(B) 32

(C) 62

(D) 65

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25. Read the given statements and mark the correct option .

Statement 1 : A body can have acceleration even if its velocit y is zero at a given instant.

Statement 2 : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of velocit y.



(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

26. Consider a planet in some syst em which has a mass double the mass of the earth and densityequal to the average density of the earth. If an object weighs W on the earth, then its weight on

the planet is ____.

(A) W (B) 2W (C)W

2 (D) 21/3W

27. Ananya prepared 300 g of 35% solution of cane sugar. She heated the solution for half an hour and

found that the solution now weighed 130 g. The amount of water evaporated during heating is _____.

(A) 25 g (B) 170 g (C) 195 g (D) 105 g

28. Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction?

(A) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime (B) Heating mercuric oxide

(C) Formation of manganese chloride from manganese oxide (D) Formation of zinc from zinc blende

29. 12 g of X2O

5, an oxide of element X contains 7.2 g of X. How many moles of X does 7.2 g of the

element contain?

(A) 6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 4.5

30. A large volume of copper(II) sulphate solu tion is left in an iron container overnight .

Identify the correct statement for above reacti on.

(A) The solution evaporates completely and some copper(II) sulphate crystals are left behind.

(B) The part of the container in contact with the solution is coated with copper.

(C) Some ne iron particles are formed in the solution.

(D) Atmospheric oxygen reacts with the copper(II) sulphate to give black copper(II) oxide.

31. Naturally occ urring argon (Ar) consist s of three isotopes, the

atoms of which occur in the abundances as given in the table.

The atomic weight of argon is

(A) 38.45 u (B) 37.20 u

(C) 39.98 u (D) 40.98 u

32. Ash ish took 4 test tubes P, Q, R

and S, each containing 10 mL of

different solutions as shown in

gure. Few drops of methyl orange are

added to each tube.

The solution in which tube will

turn methyl orange to red?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

33. An ion M3+contains 10 electrons and 14 neutrons. Element M has valency equal to the valency of an

other element X which has ve electrons less than Ar in its outermost shell. Identify the elements

M and X.

(A) Element M is Al and X is N. (B) Element M is N and X is Al.

(C) Element M is Ne and X is B. (D) Both elements M and X are Al.

Isotopes Abundance

36Ar 0.34%

38Ar 0.07%

40Ar 99.59%

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6

34. Compound X has the molecular formula C2H

6O.

1. X can be made by fermentation process. 2. X can be oxidi sed to Y.

3. X can react with Y to form Z and water.

To which homologous series do X, Y and Z belong?

X Y Z

(A) Alcohols Carboxylic Acids Esters

(B) Alcohols Esters Carboxylic Acids (C) Carboxylic Acids Alcohols Esters

(D) Carboxylic Acids Esters Alcohols

35. When sodium hydroxi de is added to ferric chlo ride solution, a reddish brown precip itate is formed.

The precipitate is separated from the mixture by the process of __________.

(A) Evaporation (B) Sublimation (C) Fractional distillation (D) Filtration

36. Study the given table carefully.Groups

Periods 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

2 Q R

3 P S T U

Ident if y P, Q, R, T and U.

P Q R T U

(A) Mg O Ne P Ar

(B) O Mg Ar P Ne (C) Mg O Ar P Ne

(D) O Mg Ne P Ar

Direction (Q. nos. 37 & 38) : The given graph represents

the heating curve of a substance (solid) which is heated

at a constant rate over a period of time. Observe the

graph carefully and answer the question.

37. On the heating curve diagram, the section

representing liquid only is

(A) PQ (B) QR

(C) RS (D) ST

38. Identify the process that takes place during line segment ST of the heating cu rve.

(A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Vaporisation

39. Mature sieve tube elements are devoid of ______.

(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Protein (D) Mitochondria

40. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct op tion f rom the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Thallophyta (i) Marsilea

(b) Bryophyta (ii) Pinus

(c) Pteridophyta (iii) Ulothrix

(d) Gymnospermae (iv) Ficus

(e) Ang iospermae (v) Funaria

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v)

(C) (a)-(i), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv)

41. Given below are statements about ve types of shes P, Q, R, S and T.

(i) P is surface feeder. (ii) Q feeds in the middle zone of the pond.

(iii) R and S are bottom feeders. (iv) T feeds on zooplanktons.

Identify P, Q, R, S and T and select the correct option.

(A) P is catla and Q is grass carp. (B) R is mrigal and S is catla.(C) Q is catla and T is mrigal. (D) Q is rohu and P is mrigal.

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7

42. Fill in the blanks and select the correct opt ion.

(i) _____ disease conti nues for many days and causes long term effect on the body.

(ii) _____ disease conti nues for a few days and causes no long term effect on the body.

(iii) Antibiotics commonly block biochemical pathways important for the growth of _____.

(iv) Sleeping sickness is caused by _____ and kala-azar is caused by _____.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) Chronic Acute Bacteria Leishmania, Trypanosoma

(B) Acute Chronic Virus Leishmania, Trypanosoma(C) Chronic Acute Bacteria Trypanosoma, Leishmania

(D) Acute Chronic Virus Trypanosoma, Leishmania

43. A farmer regularly sprayed insectic ides on his crops throughout the cropping season. The insectic ides

get washed off into a nearby lake where they were absorbed by the producers of the given food

chain.

Which of the following shows the correct levels of insecticides in these organisms at the end of

the cropping season? [Amount of insecticides is shown in ppm (parts per million)](A) (i) 25.0, (ii) 5.0, (iii) 0.5, (iv) 0.05 (B) (i) 0.05, (ii) 0.05, (iii) 0.05, (iv) 0.05

(C) (i) 0.05, (ii) 0.5, (iii) 5.0, (iv) 25.0 (D) (i) 25.0, (ii) 25.0, (iii) 25.0, (iv) 25.0

44. Beena conducted an experiment in which two

potato tubers were peeled and a cavity was

made in each of them. One of the potato tuber

was boiled while the other one was not. The

cavities in both tubers were lled with distilled

water and they were then placed in petri-dishes

containing 1M sucrose solution. The results are

shown in the given gures.

Select the correct statement regarding this.

(A) Water level decreased in the cavity of boiled potato tuber due to evaporation.

(B) Water level decreased in the cavity of unboiled potato tuber due to osmosis.

(C) In the cavity of unboiled potato tuber no sucrose was found while in the cavity of boiled potato tubersucrose was found.

(D) All of the above.

45. A student carried out an experiment to investigate the

conditions necessary for photosynthesis. He xed leaf 'A' of

a potted plant into a ask containing potassium hydroxide

solution. He xed another leaf 'B' of the plant into a ask

containing water and wrapped the ask with a piece of

black cloth. The plant was left in sunlight. After 6 hours hedetached and tested both leaves for starch. Which of the

following results most likely the student had found?

(A) Starch was found in both leaves A and B. (B) Starch was found in leaf A, but not in leaf B.

(C) Starch was found in leaf B, but not in leaf A. (D) Starch was not found in any leaves.

46. Which of the following is incorrect for the given gure?

(A) The part labelled as S is called protein factory of the cell.

(B) The part labelled as Q is formed with the help of part labelled as P.

(C) The part labelled as R helps in synthesis of enzymes.

(D) The functions of parts labelled as Q and R are controlled by part

labelled as P.

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8

47. Correct the following statements by replacing the terms underlined (wherever necessary) and select

the correct option.

(i) The part of human brain which regulates heart beat is called cerebrum.

(ii) Chemotropism is directi onal movement.

(iii) The centre for sexual behaviour is situated in medulla oblongata.

(iv) The plant hormone named after the fungus causing bakane disease is IAA.

(v) Centre for hunger and thir st is located in diencephalon. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(A) Hypothalamus Tropic Cerebrum Auxin Diencephalon

(B) Medulla oblongata Directional Hypothalamus Gibberellin Diencephalon

(C) Hypothalamus Tropic Cerebrum Auxin Metencephalon

(D) Medulla oblongata Directional Hypothalamus Gibberellin Metencephalon

48. Which labelled parts in the given gure produce and store sperms

respectively?

(A) S and Q

(B) P and R(C) S and R

(D) R and Q

49. Given below are four s tatements (a d) each wit h one or two blanks . Select the option wh ich

correctly lls up the blanks in any two of these statements.

(a) Wings of buttery and birds look alike and are the results of ___(i)__ evol ut ion.

(b) Vermifo rm appendix is a ___(i)__ organ and an ___(ii)__evidence of evol ut ion .

(c) Ar chaeopteryx shows ___(i)__ link bet ween two di fferent groups of organisms .

(d) Acco rding to Darwin evoluti on took place due to ___(i)__ and ___(ii)__ of the ttest.

(A) (d) (i) mutations, (ii) survival (B) (a) (i) divergent

(a) (i) convergent (b) (i) rudimentary, (ii) anatomical

(C) (b) (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical (D) (c) (i) connecting

(c) (i) missing (d) (i) small variations, (ii) multiplication

50. The given gure shows four food chains with human at the

top. Which two of these chains supply maximum amount of

energy to the human?

(A) P and Q

(B) P and S

(C) Q and R

(D) Q and S


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15th

Year 2012

SET B

Class 10


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MENTAL ABILITY

1. The given diagram shows a square insc ribed in a circ le with centre O. The radius

of the circle is 6 cm. The perimeter of the shaded region can be written as

(pp + q) centimetres. Then the value of p and q respectively is _____.

(A) 12, 3 (B) 3, 12 (C) 3, 2 (D) 2, 3

2. Mohit, Raj, Kartik, Varun and Rajat spend some of their pocket money as given below.

I. Mohit spends ` 100 more than Raj. II. Varun spends ` 50 less than Kartik.

III. Rajat spends twic e as much as Mohit. IV. Kartik spends ` 400.

V. Raj and Varun spends the same amount.

If these statements are true, only one of the sentences below must be true. Identify it.

(A) Raj spends more than Rajat. (B) Mohit spends less than Kartik.

(C) Varun spends `350. (D) Rajat spends the least.

3. The funct ion f(x) = x3 6x2 + ax + b, where a and b are constants, is exactly divisible by (x 3)

and leaves a remainder of 55 when divided by (x + 2). The value of a and b is _____.

(A) a= 10, b= 3 (B) a= 10, b= 3 (C) a= 10, b= 3 (D) a= 10, b= 3

4. In the given diagram, AB is parallel to DC. AC and BD intersect at X.

If AB = 8 cm, AX = 4 cm, XC = 6 cm and BD = 14 cm. Find BX .

(A) 4.5 cm (B) 5.6 cm

A

B

C

D

X

(C) 8.5 cm (D) 12 cm

5. If secq + tanq = p, then sinq = ______.

(A)p

p

2

2 1 (B)

p

p

2

2

1

1

+

(C)p

p

2

2

1

1

+

(D)p

p2 1+

6. Find the mode of the following distribution of marks obtained by 80 students.

Marks obtained 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

Number of students 6 10 12 32 20

(A) 28.42 (B) 34.82 (C) 36.25 (D) 34.86

7. How many 9's in the foll owing sequence of the numbers are immediately preceded by 8 but not

immediately followed by 4?

9 8 6 2 7 9 6 2 8 9 4 8 8 9 4 9 8 4 8 8 9 4 9 8 4 9

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of these

8. Shikha and Riya are friends and their ages differ by 2 years. Shikha's father Rajiv is twice as

old as Shikha and Riya is twice as old as her sister Maya. The age of Rajiv and Maya differ by40 years. Then the age of Shikha and Riya respectively are ____.

(A) 26 years, 24 years (B) 271

3 29

1

3years, years (C) 27 years, 29 years (D) Both (A) and (B)

9. The number which will replace the question mark in the number pattern given below is _____.

(A) 262 (B) 622 (C) 631 (D) 643

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10. If cot q =3

4, then the value of

sec

sec

+

cosec

cosecis _____.

(A)1

7 (B) 1 (C)

1

3 (D) 2

11. The triangle with vertices A(4, 4), B(2, 6) and C(4, 1) is shown

in the diagram. The area ofD

ABC is ______. (A) 5 sq. units

10

8

6

4

2

0

2

6

24 2 4 6 8 10

A

B

C

x

y

4

(B) 12 sq. units

(C) 15 sq. units

(D) 20 sq. units

12. Which of the following options replaces the (?) in the adjoining gure matrix?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. In a school there are two sections of class X - section A and section B . There are 32 students in

section A and 36 students in section B. Determine the minimum number of books required for their

class library so that they can be distributed equally among students of section A or section B.

(A) 258 (B) 268 (C) 288 (D) 298

14. The graph of a polynomial f(x) is as shown in the gure.

The number of real zeroes of f(x) is_______.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

15. If sinq+ sin2q= 1, then the value of cos12q+ 3cos10q+ 3cos8q+ cos6q+ 2cos4q+ 2cos2q 2 is _____.

(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D)1

2

SCIENCE

16. A current of 0.5 A passes through a conductor in 2 seconds. How many electrons ow through this

conductor from one end to the other end during this interval of time? (Charge on each electron

is 1.6 1019 C)

(A) 6.25 1018

electrons (B) 3.15 1019

electrons (C) 1.53 1019

electrons (D) 1 1018

electrons

17. Two plane mirror s are placed parallel to each other at a distance Lapart. A point object Ois placed

between them, at a distanceL

3 from one mirror. Both mirrors form multiple images. The distance

between any two images cannot be ________.

(A)3

2

L (B)

2

3

L (C) 2L (D) None of these

18. A constant current of 3.0 A ows counter clockwise in the circular coil P as shown in gure.

What is the direction of the induced current in the coil Q on the right?

(A) Clockwise (B) Counter clockwise

P Q(C) Out of the page (D) There is no induced current.

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19. Read the given statements and select the correct option . Statement 1 : Acceleration due to gravity at a place on earth remains const ant for all objects.

Statement 2 : Acceleration due to gravity doesn't depend on the mass of the object, but only onmass of earth.

(A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

(B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.


20. The potential dif ference between the ends of a conductor is 12 V. How much electrical energy is

converted to other forms of energy in the conductor when 100 C of charge ows through it?

(A) 0.12 J (B) 8.3 J (C) 88 J (D) 1200 J

21. A hollow c opper tube of 5 m length has got external diameter equal to 10 cm and its walls are

5 mm thick. The specic resistance of copper is 1.7 108 W m. The resistance of the copper tube

is approximately _______.

(A) 5.6 103W (B) 5.6 109W (C) 5.6 105 W (D) 5.6 107W

22. A Juggler throws two balls to the same height so that one is at the halfway point going up when

the other is at the halfway point coming down. At that point _______.

(A) Their velocities and accelerations are equal

(B) Their velocities are equal but their accelerations are equal and opposite (C) Their accelerations are equal but their velocities are equal and opposite

(D) Their velocities and accelerations are both equal and opposite

23. Identical bulbs are connected in the circuit as shown in the gure.

Statement 1 : Bulb C glows brighter than bulb A.

Statement 2 : The current through bulb Cis more than the current

through bulb A.

(A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the

correct explanation of statement 1.

(B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.


24. The body wil l speed up if _______.

(A) Velocity and acceleration are in same direction (B) Velocity and acceleration are in opposite direction

(C) Velocity and acceleration are in perpendicular direction

(D) None of these

25. A metal cube is placed in an empty vessel. When water is lled in the vessel so that the cube is

completely immersed in the water, the force on the bottom of the vessel in contact with the cube

will _____.

(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain the same (D) Become zero

26. Which pairs of rays from the object in the drawing are used to

fR Rf

1

23 construct the image location produced by the convex spherical

mirror of focal length f and radius R?

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 2 and 3 (D) Any pair of rays shown will work

27. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the par t ic les of a substance are packed at d i f ferent

temperatures.

W X Y

The given graph shows the temperature changes which occur on warming the substance.

In which region of the graph would all the particl es be packed as in Y?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

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28. Study the given diagram carefull y and

identify X and Y respectively.

(A) Conc. HCl, CO2

(B) Conc. H2SO

4, HCl

(C) Conc. HNO3, H

2

(D) Conc. NaOH, Cl2

29. Raghav, Ajay and Nita were given three test tubes K, L and M respectively con taining unknown

substances. They observed the following properties about their solutions.

Substance Property

K The components can be separated by ltration.

L Particles scatter the light.

M Particles size is 109to 107 m.

On the basis of the above properties, identif y the solut ions K, L and M respectively.

(A) Ferrous sulphate solution, tonics, paints (B) Calcium carbonate solution, paints, milk(C) Muddy water, milk, calcium carbonate solution

(D) Paints, ferrous sulphate solution, calcium carbonate solution

30.

R gives back P and Qon saponication. Identify P andQ respectively.

(A) CH4, CH

2CH

2 (B) CH

3CH

2OH, CH

2CH

2

(C) CH3COOH, CH

3COOC

2H

5 (D) CH

3CH

2OH, CH

3COOH

31. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct op tion f rom the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Avogadro number (i) 63 (b) Molar volume (ii) C6H

12O

6

(c) Nitrogen element (iii ) 22,400 cm 3

(d) Formu la of glucos e (iv) 6.022 1023

(e) Molecular weight of nitr ic acid (v) Diatomic

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i)

(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v) (D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(iii)

32. Select the pairs of elements which form compounds by covalent bonding.

(i) Ca and S (ii) P and Cl (iii ) S and O (iv) F and O

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

33. Anki t prepared 25% glucose soluti on in 180 g water. He sti rred the solution for sometime to form

a saturated solution. If solubility of sugar is 30 g/100 g water, then how much sugar remains

undissolved in the solution?

(A) 24 g (B) 30 g (C) 6 g (D) 10 g

34. Rohit categorized the elements P, Ar, B and Al into t wo categories.

Category I : Elements with same valency.

Category II : Elements with same number of shells.

Select the opti on with correct categorisation of the given elements.

(A) I P, B, Al; II P, Ar, Al (B) I Al, B; II P, Ar

(C) I

Ar, B; II

P, Al (D) I

P, Al; II

B, Ar

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35. The correct chemical formulae of the given compounds:

(i) Alumi nium phosphate, (ii) Potassium permanganate and (iii) Ammoni um carbonate are

(A) (i)-Al2PO

4, (ii)-K

2Mn, (iii)-NH

4CO

3 (B) (i)-AlPO

4, (ii)-KMnO

4, (iii)-(NH

4)

2CO

3

(C) (i)-Al(PO4)

3, (ii)-KMn, (iii)-NH

4C (D) (i)-Al

3PO

4, (ii)-KMnO, (iii)-NH

4CO

36. The given diagram shows the electro lysi s of a concentrated aqueous solution

containing both copper (II) ions and sodium ions. Which metal is deposited

at the negative electrode and why?Metal deposited Reason

(A) Copper Copper is less reactive than sodium

(B) Copper Copper is more reactive than hydrogen

(C) Sodium Copper is less reactive than hydrogen

(D) Sodium Copper is more reactive than sodium

37. A compound o f carbon, hydrogen and nit rogen contains t hese elements in the ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5.

If its molecular mass is 108, what is the molecular formula?

(A) C2H

2N (B) C

3H

4N (C) C

2HN

2 (D) C

6H

8N

2

38. Which of the following statements is i ncorrect about the trends in periodic properties in the periodic

table?

(A) Metallic character increases from Li to Cs.

(B) The acidity of oxides increases from left to right in a period.

(C) Noble gases have the highest electron afnity among all the elements in the periodic table.

(D) Ionisation energy of aluminium is lower than that of magnesium.

39. Gita is supposed to face an interview. During the rst ve minutes before the interview she

experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, increased respiratory rate, etc. Which of the

following hormones has increased in her blood and is responsible for her restlessness?

(A) GnRH (B) Estrogen (C) Adrenaline (D) Insulin

40. The given graph shows the changes in the

volume of the lungs of a person at rest overa period of 20 seconds.

(i) How many breathes per minu te was the

person taking when at rest?

(ii) At which two points on the graph C, D,

E or F was the alveolar pressure in the

lungs equal to the air pressure outside

of the body?

(i) (ii)

(A) 5 D, E

(B) 15 C, E

(C) 15 C, D

(D) 20 E, F

41. The given gure shows undisturbed

sedimentary strata at the bottom of an ocean.

The fossil found in layer Y resembles the fossil

found in layer X. This similarity most l ikely

suggests that

(A) The fossil of layer X must be more complex

than that of layer Y

(B) Modern forms of life may have evolved from earlier forms of life

(C) The fossil of layer Y was formed before the fossil of layer X

(D) Vertebrate fossils are found only in sediments

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42. Identify the given developmental stage of human embryo

and select the correct option regarding it.

Developmental stage Site of implantation

(A) Blastocyst Uterine wall

(B) Morula Uterine wall

(C) Blastula Mid part of Fallopian tube

(D) Gastrula Mid part of Fallopian tube

43. Albinism i s an inherited condit ion caused by a recessi ve allele a. A is the dominant allele for the

normal condition.

What are the genotypes of indi viduals R

and S?

R S

(A) AA AA

(B) AA Aa

(C) Aa Aa

(D) aa aa

44. The given gures show different types of animal tissue. Identify their locations and select the

correct option.

(i) (ii) (iii ) (iv) (v)

(A) Gall bladder Gastric glands Thyroid glands Lungs alveoli Fallopian tubes

(B) Gastric glands Gall bladder Lungs alveoli Bronchi Coelomic cavity

(C) Intestinal glands Sweat glands Fallopian tubes Choroid layer of eye Nasal passage

(D) Sweat glands Intestinal glands Bronchi Ciliary body of eye Trachea

45. Which phy lum do the given animals (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) belong to?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) Annelida Platyhelminthes Coelenterata Echinodermata

(B) Annelida Platyhelminthes Echinodermata Coelenterata

(C) Platyhelminthes Annelida Coelenterata Echinodermata (D) Platyhelminthes Annelida Echinodermata Coelenterata

46. Refer the given Venn diagram and select the correct

option.

(A) P - Golgi apparatus; R - Microtubules

(B) Q - Endoplasmic reticulum; R - Ribosomes

(C) S - Microtubules; Q - Ribosomes

(D) S - Golgi apparatus; P - Lysosomes

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47. Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Anti -viral drugs are harder to make.

Statement 2 : Viruses are devoid of any biochemical machinery and thus behave like dead particl es

inside the cells.

(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1

(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

48. Read the given statements .

(i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of excretory products of honeybee.

(ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that sh are grown in the water

accumulated in the paddy eld.

(iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most efcient use of available food.

(iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming.

(v) Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same eld in a denite

pattern.

Which of the given statements are incorrect?

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (i), (iv) and (v)

49. Sort out acute and chroni c diseases given in the box and select the correct option.(i) Elephantiasis (ii) Asthma (iii) Measles (iv) Dysentery

(v) Cholera (vi) Cancer (vii ) Diabetes (vii i) Diarrhoea

Acute diseases Chronic diseases

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (iv), (vi), (vii), (viii)

(B) (ii), (iv), (vii), (viii) (i), (iii), (v), (vi)

(C) (iii), (iv), (v), (viii) (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)

(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) (i), (ii), (vii), (viii)

50. Rohan grew berseem and cowpea in his eld. When the plants were about one foot high, he

ploughed them back into soil. What is the most appropriate reason for this?

(A) The crop has caught some disease.(B) Extensive growth of berseem has affected growth of cowpea plants.

(C) It helps in nutrient enrichment of soil. (D) None of these


15th NSO - SET B 7


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16th

Year 2013

SET A

Class 10


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1. About the number of pairs which have 16 as their

H.C.F and 136 as their L.C.M., we can denitely

say that

A. No such pair exists

B. Only one such pair exist C. Only two such pairs exist

D. Many such pairs exist

2. m, n are zeroes of ax2+ 7x+ c. Find the value of a

and cif the sum of zeroes is 7 and sum of squares

of zeroes is 25.

A. 1, 12 B. 1, 12

C. 1, 12 D. 1, 12

3. 10 students of class X took part in a Mathematics

quiz. If the number of girls is 4 more than the

number of boys, nd the number of boys and girls

who took part in the quiz. Which graph represents

the solution of the problem?

A.

B.

C.

D.

4. Compare the areas of the right angled triangles ABC

and DEF in which A= 30, B= 90, AC= 4 cm,

D = 60, E = 90 and DE = 4 cm.

A. Ar(DABC) > Ar(DDEF)

B. Ar(DABC) < Ar(DDEF)

C. Ar(DABC) = Ar(DDEF)

D. Can't say

5. Which pair of the given quadrilaterals is similar?

A.

B.

C.

D. None of these

6. In the given gure, ABCis a triangle and GHED is

a rectangle. BC = 12 cm, HE= 6 cm, FC=BFand

altitude AF is 24 cm. The ratio of area of rectangle

to the area of triangle is

A. 1 : 4

B. 3 : 4

C. 4 : 1

D. 4 : 3

7. There is a question followed by the three statements.

You have to study the question and the statements

and decide which of the statement (s) is/are necessary

to answer the question.

What is the total surface area of the cone?

I. The area of the base of the cone is 154 cm2.

II. The curved surface area of the cone is 550 cm2.

III. The volume of the cone is 1232 cm3.

A. I, and either II or III

B. II, and either I or III

C. III, and either I or II

D. Any two of the three

8. A die is numbered in such a way that its faces show

the numbers 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 6. It is thrown two times

and the total score in two throws is noted. Find the

probability that the total score is atleast 6.

A. 12/36 B. 10/36

C. 11/36 D. None of these

MENTAL ABILITY


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9. Which is the wrong step that shows 5 3 is

irrational?

(I) Contradiction: Assume that 5 3 is rational.

(II) Fin d copr ime a & b (b 0) such that

5 3 5 3 = =a

b

a

b,

Rearranging above equation 3 55

= =a

b

b a

b

(III) Since a& bare integers, we get 5 a

bis irrational

and so 3 is irrational.

(IV) But this contradicts the fact that 3 is irrational.

Hence 5 3 is irrational.

A. Both I and II B. Only III

C. Only II D. Both II and III

10. Find the missing number in the number pat

class 10 nso 5 years e book14

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