class: mz2-a neet model date: 11-04-20 time: 3hrs wtn-04 ... · mz2-a_neet_wtn-04_exam.dt.11-04-20...

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Class: MZ2-A NEET MODEL Date: 11-04-20

Time: 3hrs WTN-04 Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)

➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)

➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of

Questions: 180.

➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.

Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate

will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be

deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet

only.

-:Note:-

Physics : 01 to 45

Chemistry : 46 to 90

Botany : 91 to 135

Zoology : 136 to 180

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.narayanagroup.com/

MZ2-A_NEET_WTN-04_Exam.Dt.11-04-20

Narayana CO Schools

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01. A sound wave has a frequency of 3KHZ and wave length 35cm.

How long will it take to travel 1.5 km.

1) 1.42 sec 2) 1.56 sec

3) 1.64 sec 4) 1.82 sec

02. The wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 HZ and

speed is 660 m/sec in a given medium is ________

1) 2 m 2) 3 m 3) 4 m 4) 6 m

03. A person is listing to a tone of 250 HZ sitting at a distance of 450m

from the source of the sound. The time interval between successive

compressions from the source is __________

1) 0.001 sec 2) 0.002 sec

3) 0.004 sec 4) 0.003 sec

04. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and a heard the echo after

2 sec. The distance of the cliff from the person is _______ (Speed of

sound v is 330 m/sec.)

1) 330 m 2) 340 m 3) 360 m 4) 346 m

05. An echo is heard in 3 sec. The distance of the reflecting surface

from the source is ______________(Speed of sound v is 330 m/sec.)

1) 502 m 2) 495 m 3) 365 m 4) None

06. A stone is dropped from the top of tower 500 m high into a pond of

water at the base of the tower. The splash heard at the top

after_______sec.( 2340 / sec, 10 /soundV m g m s= = )

1) 11 2) 11.47 3) 13.56 4) None


Narayana CO Schools

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07. The frequency of a source of sound is 1000 HZ. How many times

does it vibrate in a minute is _____________

1) 6000 2) 60000 3) 600 4) None

08. A sound wave travels at a speed of 330 m/sec. If its wave length is

1.5 cm. The frequency of the wave is __________

1) 22000 HZ 2) 2000 HZ

3) 21000 HZ 4) 14000 HZ

09. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an

echo 5 sec later. The speed of sound in water is (If the distance of

the object from the submarine is 3600m)

1) 1440 m/sec 2) 1400 m/sec

3) 1500 m/sec 4) 1700 m/sec

10. A sound wave has a frequency of 2KHZ and wavelength 35cm .The

sound will take _______ sec to travel a distance of 1.5 km.

1) 3.24 2) 2.14 3) 4.6 4) 5.34

11. Sound can travel through

1) Solids, liquids and gases 2) gases

3) liquids 4) solids

12. Which of the following voice is likely to have minimum frequency

1) baby girl 2) Baby boy

3) A man 4) A women

13. Unwanted sound is called__________

1) Noise 2) Time 3) Frequency 4) None

14. Shrillness of a sound is determined by the ___________of vibration.

1) Frequency 2) Mass

3) Velocity 4) Wavelength

15. Loudness is determined by the ___________of vibration.

1) Frequency 2) Amplitude

3) Mass 4) Time


Narayana CO Schools

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16. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Its time period is

___________

1) 1 sec 2) 0.2 sec 3) 0.1 sec 4) 0.4 sec

17. The unit of frequency is ___________

1) Hertz 2) sec 3) 1m− 4) 2m

18. Time taken by an object to complete one oscillation is

called_________

1) Frequency 2) Mass

3) Time period 4) None

19. The sound from a mosquito is produced when it vibrates its wings

at an average rate of 500 vibrates per second. The time period of

the vibration is __________

1) 0.002 sec 2) 0.001 sec

3) 3 sec 4) None

20. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Its frequency is

________

1) 20 Hz 2) 10 Hz 3) 30 Hz 4) None

21. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance of the obstacle is

________m. ( )330 / sec, 0.1secV m t= =

1) 16.50 2) 17.50 3) 15.50 4) 18.00

22. The audible range of an average human ear lies between 20 Hz to

3__________ 10 .Hz

1) 30 2) 20 3) 40 4) 35

23. Infrasound has frequencies less than __________Hz.

1) 30 2) 20 3) 40 4) 35

24. Ultrasound has frequencies more than ________Hz.

1) 30,000 2) 40,000 3) 10,000 4) 20,000

25. A sound wave travels at a speed of 330 m/sec. If its wavelength is

2 m. The frequency of the wave is ______________Hz.

1) 165 2) 175 3) 155 4) 185


Narayana CO Schools

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26. Pitch of sound is determined by its

1) Frequency 2) Amplitude

3) Speed 4) Loudness

27. The loudness of sound depends on

1) Its amplitude 2) its frequency

3) Its time period 4) its speed

28. The loudness of sound is determined by the

1) amplitude of vibration

2) ratio of amplitude and frequency of vibration

3) frequency of vibration

4) Product of amplitude and frequency of vibration

29. 1 hertz is equal to

1) 1 vibration per minute 2) 10 vibration per minute

3) 60 vibration per minute 4) 600 vibrations per minute

30. Ultra sound has frequency of vibration

1) between 20 Hz and 20,000Hz 2) above 20,000 Hz

3) between 500 Hz and 10,000 Hz 4) between 20 Hz and 40,000 Hz

31. Loudness of sound is measured in units of

1) decibel 2) hertz 3) metre 4) m/s

32. A pendulum oscillates 30 times in 3 seconds then its time period

is

1) 0.2 2) 0.3 4) 0.4 4) 0.1

33. Calculate the wavelength of sound wave whose frequency is 220Hz

and speed is 1440ms− in given medium

1) 2 m 2) 1 m 3) 3 m 4) 4 m

34. The frequency of sound is 200 Hz. How many times does it vibrate

in a minute?

1) 6000 2) 12000 3) 24000 4) 1200


in a second?

1) 300 2) 400 3) 6000 4) 18000


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36. S.I unit of speed is

1) m 2) sec 3) m/s 4) Hz

37. A sound wave travel at speed of 1339ms− . If its wave length is 1.5 cm.

What is the frequency of the wave

1) 2266 2) 22600 3) 22000 4) 22800

38. The magnitude of maximum displacement of a vibrating particle

about its mean position is

1) amplitude 2) frequency 3) time period 4) All of these

39. The wave length and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed

is

1) frequency

wavelength 2) frequency wavelength

3) frequency wavelength− 4) wavelength

frequency

40. The wave length of a sound wave frequency is 110 Hz and speed is

1220ms− is given in medium is

1) 2 m 2) 1 m 3) 3m 4) 4m

41. A person is listening to a tone of 50 Hz. What is its time period

1) 0.02 s 2) 0.002 s 3) 0.2 s 4) 0.1 s

42. What is the range frequencies associated with infra sound

1) 1 and 20 Hz 2) 2 and 20 Hz

3) 3 and 20 Hz 4) 4 and 20 Hz

43. What is the rage of the average human ear is

1) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz 2) 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz

3) 40 Hz to 40,000 Hz 4) 50 Hz to 50,000 Hz

44. Sound waves of the frequency above 20,000 Hz is

1) infrs sound 2) ultrasound

3) Both (1) and (2) 4) neither (1) nor (2)


in one second

1) 3000 2) 50 3) 100 4) 150


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46. The number of moles of nitrogen atom in 56g nitrogen is

1) 2 mol 2) 4 mol 3) 8 mol 4) 10 mol

47. The number of mole of N-atom in 18.0661023 nitrogen atom is

1) 1 mol 2) 2 mol 3) 3 mol 4) 4 mol

48. The number of atoms in 32g of SO2 is approximately

1) 239 10 2) 231.5 10 3) 232 10 4) 236 10

49. B has two isotopes ( )10 19%B and ( )11 81%B . The atomic mass of B is

1) 10.81 2) 11.5 3) 11 4) 10.5

50. The atomicity of a species is ‘x’ and its atomic weight is ‘y’. The

molecular weight of the species is

1) x y+ 2) x

y 3) xy 4) x y−

51. Avogadro’s number is the number of molecules present in

1) 1G of molecule 2) 1 atom of molecule

3) Grammolecular mass 4) 1 litre of molecule

52. The number of moleucles present in are milli litre of a gas at STP is

known as

1) Avogadro number 2) Boltzman number

3) Loschmidt number 4) Universal gas constant

53. The vapour density of gas is 22. It cannot be

1) Carbondioxide 2) Nitrous oxide

3) Propane 4) methane

54. The mass of 112 cm3 of methane at STP

1) 0.16g 2) 0.08g 3) 0.8g 4) 14g

55. The gas having same number of molecules as 16g of oxygen is

1) 16g of O3 2) 16g of SO3

3) 48g of SO3 4) 1gm of Hydrogen gas

56. The number of electrons present in one mole of Azide ion are ( )3N −

1) 21N 2) 20N 3) 22N 4) 43N

57. The number of molecules present in 71.12 10 cc− of a gas at STP is

1) 236.02 10 2) 123.01 10 3) 126.02 10 4) 233.01 10


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58. Number of electrons in 1.8 grams of H2O are

1) 236.02 10 2) 233.01 10 3) 230.602 10 4) 2360.22 10

59. The vapour density of ethyl alcohol vapour is

1) 46 2) 23 3) 92 4) 69

60. The number of atoms in 0.004 g of magnesium will be

1) 204 10 2) 208 10 3) 2010 4) 206.02 10

61. 1 mole of CO2 contains

1) 3 grams atoms of oxygen 2) 31022 CO2 molecules

3) 61023 ‘O’ atoms 4) 61023 ‘C’ atoms

62. The number of moles of hydrogen in 0.224 atoms of H2 gas at STP

1) 1 2) 0.1 3) 0.01 4) 0.001

63. Which of the following contain 91023 oxygen atoms?

1) 0.25 moles of glucose (C6H12O6)

2) 0.5 moles of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH)

3) 1.0 moles of dimethyl ether (CH3OCH3)

4) 0.01 moles of sucrose (C12H22O11)

64. Number of atoms in 0.1 moles of a triatomic gas is

( )23 16.02 10 moleAN −=

1) 226.026 10 2) 231.806 10 3) 233.6 10 4) 221.8 10

65. The number of water molecules is maximum in

1) 18gram of water 2) 18 moles of water

3) 18 molecules of water 4) 1.8 gram of water

66. Which has maximum number of molecules among the following?

1) 44 gm CO2 2)48 gm O3 3) 8 gm H2 4) 64 gm SO2

67. 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms are present in

1) 0.5 moles of BaCO3 2) 1 mole of BaCO3

3) 2 moles of BaCO3 4) 0.25 moles of BaCO3

68. The number of atoms present in 10 grams of CaCO3 are

1) 5N 2) 0.5N 3) 10N 4) 1N

69. The empirical formula of Acetic acid is

1) CH3COOH 2) C2H4O 3) CH2O 4) CHO


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70. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2. One mole of this

compound has a mass of 42gm. Its molecular formula is

1) CH2 2) C2H2 3) C3H6 4) C3H8

71. The percentage of carbon in CO2 is

1) 27.27% 2) 29.27% 3) 30.27% 4) 26.17%

72. The empirical formula of an organic compound is CH2O. Its vapour

density is 45. The molecular formula of the compound is

1) CH2O 2) C2H4O2 3) C3H6O3 4) C6H12O6

73. Which pair of species have same percentage of carbon?

1) CH3COOH and C6H12O6 2) CH3COOH and C2H5OH

3) HCOOCH3 and C12H22O11 4) C6H12O6 and C12H22O11

74. How many grams of calcium oxide is obtained on heating 100g of

CaCO3(s)?

1) 50g 2) 40g 3) 56g 4) 44g

75. The volume of CO2 evolved at STP on heating 50g CaCO3

1) 11.2 litre 2) 22.4 litre 3) 5.6 litre 4) 24.4 litre

76. KClO3 decomposes to KCl and O2. If the volume of O2 obtained in

this reaction is 1.12 litre at STP, weight of KCl formed in the

reaction is

1) 7.45 g 2) 2.48 g 3) 4.96 g 4) 1.24 g

77. How many litres of Oxygen at STP are required for complete

combustion of 39 grams of liquid benzene? (Atomic weight C = 12,

H = 1, O = 16)

1) 84 2) 22.4 3) 42 4) 11.2

78. How many moles of potassium chlorate should be decomposed

completely to obtain 67.2 litres of oxygen at STP?

1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 2

79. 0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with excess of Ag powder to

produce a gas whose volume at STP is

1) 224 mL 2) 112 mL 3) 336 mL 4) 448 mL

80. The number of molecules of CO2 liberated by the complete

combustion of 0.1g atom of graphite in air is

1) 23.01 10 2) 36.02 10 3) 26.02 10 4) 33.01 10


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81. The percentage weight of deuterium in heavy water

1) 80% 2) 60% 3) 40% 4) 20%

82. An oxide of nitrogen contains 36.8% by weight of nitrogen. The

formula of the compound is

1) N2O 2) N2O3 3) NO 4) NO2

83. If 75.2% of compound is carbon and the rest of the weight is

hydrogen, the formula of the compound is

1) C3H6 2) C2H2 3) C2H4 4) CH4

84. The weight of oxygen required to completely react with 27 grams of

‘Al’ is

1) 8 gm 2) 16 gm 3) 32 gm 4) 24 gm

85. 26cc of CO2 are passed over red-hot coke. The volume of CO evolved

is

1) 15cc 2) 10 cc 3) 32 cc 4) 52 cc

86. A compound has 20% of nitrogen by weight. If one molecule of the

compound contains two nitrogen atoms, the molecular weight of

the compound is

1) 35 2) 70 3) 140 4) 280

87. The weight of oxygen gas liberated by the heating of 2.45g of KClO3

is

1) 0.96 grams 2) 9.6 grams

3) 96 grams 4) 0.096 grams

88. How many grams of 80% pure marble stone (CaCO3) on calcination

can give 14 grams of quick lime (CaO)

1) 31.25 gr 2) 25 gr 3) 100 gr 4) 3.125 gr

89. The volume of CO2 gas liberated at STP by heating 5 grams of pure

limestone (CaCO3)

1) 22.4 L 2) 11.2 L 3) 1.12 L 4) 0.112 L

90. The volume of O2 at STP required for completely burnt out 100 ml

of ethane (C2H6) is

1) 350 ml 2) 3.50 ml 3) 750 ml 4) 75 ml


Narayana CO Schools

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91. Arrangement of leaves on the stem (or) branch is called

1) Antotaxy 2) Phyllotaxy

3) Venation 4) Heterophylly

92. The number of leaves at each node in whorled phyllotaxy

1) one 2) two

3) More than two 4) Nil

93. Pulvinous leaf base is present in

1) Solanum 2) Allium 3) Tomato 4) Pisum

94. Identify the plant in which modification of petiole is seen.

1) Alstonia 2) Pisum

3) Australian acacia 4) Taeniophyllum

95. In Pisum sativum(pea), climbing organs are modification of

1) Root 2) Stem

3) Leaf 4) Floral bud

96. Which one of the following statement is correct with reference to

Monocots?

1) Monocots show parallel venation

2) Monocots show leaves with reticulate venation

3) Monocots show swollen leaf base

4) Monocots show convergent reticulate venation

97. What is the ratio of number of leaves at each node of china rose

and Guava.

1) 1:3 2) 1:2 3) 2:1 4) 3:1

98. Arrange the following plants which show whorled, alternate and

opposite phyllotaxies respectively.

I) Alstonia II) Calotropis III) Sunflower

1) I, II, III 2) II, III, I 3) III, II, I 4) I, III, II

99. Most important vegetative organ for photosynthesis is

1) Stem 2) Leaf

3) Flower 4) Root


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100. Pinnately compound leaf is found in

1) Guava 2) Neem

3) Silk cotton 4) Mustard

101. Th arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as

1) Inflorescence 2) Phyllotaxy

3) Heterophylly 4) Placentation

102. A flower which can be divided into two equal parts in one particular

vertical plane is described as

1) Actinomorphic 2) Zygomorphic

3) Asymmetric 4) Floret

103. Bisexual flowers contain

1) Only Androecium

2) Only Gynoecium

3) Both Androecium and Gynoecium

4) Neither Androecium and Gynoecium

104. Asymmetrical flowers are found in

1) Cassia 2) Pisum 3) Canna 4) Chilli

105. Papilionaceous corolla consists of

1) One standard, 2 wings and 2 keel petals

2) One standard, 2 wings and 1 keel petal

3) Two standard, 1 wing and 2 keel petals

4) One standard, 1 wing and 1 keel petal

106. Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

A) Epigynous I) Gulmohar

B) Hypogynous II) Sunflower ray florets

C) Perigynous III) Mustard

D) Zygomorphic IV) Peach

1) , , ,A I B II C III D IV− − − − 2) , , ,A II B III C IV D I− − − −

3) , , ,A III B IV C II D I− − − − 4) , , ,A IV B II C III D IV− − − −


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107. Which of the following organs are accessory organs?

1) Androecium and gynoecium 2) Corolla and Androecium

3) Calyx and Corolla 4) Calyx and Gynoecium

108. The mode of arrangements of sepals or petals in floral bud with

respect to the other members of the same whorl is known as

1) Placentation 2) Phyllotaxy

3) Aestivation 4) Inflorescence

109. A flower which can be divided in to two equal radial halves in any

radial plane passing through the centre is described as

1) Actinomorphic 2) Zygomorphic

3) Asymmetric 4) All of these

110. Which one of the following is the outermost whorl of the flower?

1) Corolla 2) Androecium

3) Gynoecium 4) Calyx


Column-I Column-II

I) Valvate aestivation A) Cotton

II) Twisted aestivation B) Cassia

III) Imbricate aestivation C) Calotropis

IV) Vexillary aestivation D) bean

1) , , ,I A I B III C IV D− − − − 2) , , ,I C II A III B IV D− − − −

3) , , ,I B II C III D IV A− − − − 4) , , ,I D II A III B IV C− − − −

112. Racemase type of inflorescence is characterized by

1) irregular arrangement of flowers

2) basipetal arrangement of flowers

3) indefinite arrangement of flowers

4) limited growth of peduncle

113. Status of the ovary in an Epigynous flower

1) Superior 2) Half superior

3) Half inferior 4) Inferior


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114. In citrus, the stamens are

1) Monoadelphous 2) Diadelphous

3) Polyadelphous 4) Polyandrous

115. In Dianthus and primrose, the placentation is

1) Axile 2) Marginal

3) Basal 4) Free central

116. Diadelphous stamens are found in

1) pea 2) lily

3) china rose 4) salvia

117. Edible part in mango is

1) Epicarp 2) Mesocarp

3) Endocarp 4) Peduncle

118. Which of the following is incorrect combination?

1) Axile placentation -Lemon

2) Marginal Placentation-Pea

3) Basal Placentation-Marigold

4) Parietal Placentation– Primerase

119. Drupe is developed from

1) Monocarpellary superior ovary

2) Multi carpellary superior ovary

3) Tetra carpellary inferior ovary

4) Multi carpellary inferior ovary

120. Identify the plant bearing the fruit with an outer thin epicarp, a

middle fleshy mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.

1) Coconut 2) Citrus 3) Apple 4) Mango

121. Argemone shows one of the following Placentation’s?

1) Free central 2) Parietal

3) Bosal 4) Axile

122. Which of the following combination is incorrect?

1) Epipetalous-Brinjal 2) Epiphyllous-Lily

3) Monoadelphous-Mustard 4) A sterile stamen-Staminode


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123. Mango and Coconut fruits are drupes but they maily differ in one

of the following.

1) Endocarp 2) Mesocarp

3) Epicarp 4) Pericarp

124. Fruit is formed without fertilisation of the ovary is called

1) Parthenocarpic fruit 2) False fruit

3) Composite Fruit 4) Aggregate Fruit

125. Which of the following statements are correct?

1) The ovary develops in to fruit after fertilization

2) The ovule develops in to fruit after fertilization

3) The ovules develops in to seed after fertilization

4) Both (1) and (3)

126. Which plant among these flowers shows variation in the length of

filaments?

I) Salvia II) Mustard

III) China rose IV) Pea

1) I and II only 2) II and III only

3) III and IV only 4) All of these

127. Coleorhiza and coleoptile are the structures associated with the

seed of

1) Monocots 2) Dicots

3) Angiosperms 4) Spermatophytes

128. The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as

1) Aestivation 2) Venation

3) Placentation 4) Transpiration

129. Identify the correct statement in this below

1) The carpels in lotus are free, hence described as syncarpous

2) The carpels in tomato are free, hence described as apocarpous

3) The Ovary develops into fruit after fertilization

4) The style and ovary are connected by stigma


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130. Which one of the following is non-endospermic monocot seed?

1) castor 2) orchid

3) maize 4) gram

131. Carpel consists of

1) Stigma 2) Style

3) Ovary 4) All of these

132. The seed coat has two layers, the outer ________and the inner

________ respectively

1) Testa and Testa 2) Testa and Tegmen

3) Tegmen and Tegmen 4) Testa and Scutellum

133. Identify the correct statement.

1) Wheat seed contains two cotyledons

2) Maize seed contains two cotyledons

3) Pea seed contains two cotyledons

4) Gram seed contains one cotyledon

134. Which of the following flowers shows syncarpous Gynoecium?

1) Mustard 2) Tomato

3) Rose 4) Both (1) and (2)


Column-I Column-II

I) Caster A) Endospermic monocot seed

II) Maize B) Scar on the seed coat

III) Pea C) Endospermic Dicot seed

IV) Hilum D) Non endospermic Dicot Seed

1) , , ,I C II D III B IV A− − − − 2) , , ,I A II B III C IV D− − − −

3) , , ,I C II A III D IV B− − − − 4) , , ,I D II C III A IV B− − − −


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136. In multicellular animals a group of similar calls along with

intercellular substances perform a specific function such

organisation is called ____________

1) Tissue 2) Organ

3) Epithelium 4) Organ system

137. In animals, tissues are broadly classified into _________types

1) 2 2) 3 4) 4 4) 5

138. Simple Epithelium is present in

1) Lining of body cavities 2) Ducts

3) Tubes 4) Above all

139. The Epithetical tissues are of

1) Simple and complex Epithelium

2) Simple and Compound Epithelium

3) Squamous, Cuboidal, Columnar and Ciliated Epithelium

4) Both (1) and (3)

140. What is the main functions of cuboidal epithelium of kidney?

1) Secretion 2) Absorption

3) It absorbs vitamins 4) Both (1) and (2)

141. In which epithelium nuclei are present at the base?

1) columnar epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium

3) squamous epithelium 4) ciliated epithelium

142. Where can you find isolated glandular cells?

1) liver 2) pancreas

3) Goblet cells of alimentary canal 4) salivary glands

143. Identify the epithelium

1) squamous 2) cuboidal

3) columnar 4) both (1) and (3)


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144. The epithelium of ___ of nephron in the kidney has microvilli.

1) Distal convoluted tubule 2) proximal convoluted tubule

3) collecting duct 4) above all

145. Which of the following products are released through ducts?

1) saliva 2) earwax 3) milk 4) above all

146. The ductless glands secretes

1) saliva 2) enzymes 3) sweat 4) harmones

147. The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts

are made of by

1) squamous epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium

3) compound epithelium 4) all of these

148. Identify the diagram

1) simple epithelium 2) compound epithelium

3) squamous epithelium 4) adipose tissue

149. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from

the option given

Column I Column II

A) Adhering junctions I) Help to stop substances from

leacking across a tissue

B) Gap junctions II) Perform cementing to keep

neighbouring cells together

C) Tight junctions III) Facilitate the cells to communicate

with each other

1) A – II; B – III; C – I 2) A – I; B – III; C – II

3) A – III; B – II; C – I 2) A – II; B – I; C – III


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150. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

1) b – mast cells, d – macrophages, a – fibroblast, c – collagen fibres

2) d – mast cells, a – macrophages, c – fibroblast, b – collagen fibres

3) d – mast cells, a – macrophages, b – fibroblast, c – collagen fibres

4) b – mast cells, d – macrophages, a – fibroblast, c – collagen fibres

151. The epithelial tissues associated with microvilli are

1) simple squamous and simple caboidal epithelium

2) simple squamous and simple columnar epithelium

3) simple cuboidal and simple columnar epithelium

4) simple columnar and simple transitinal epithelium

152. Cuboidal epithelium occurs in

1) ducts of glands 2) tubular parts of kidneys

3) tracheal region 4) Both (1) and (2)

153. The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately and

coverted into fats and stored in ____

1) aredar tissue 2) adipose tissue

3) denseregular connective tissue 4) dense irregular connective tissue

154. Which of the following connective tissue often serves as a support

frame work for epithelium?

1) Areolar tissue

2) Adipose tissue

3) dense regular connective tissue

4) dense irregular connective tissue

155. Which of the following is correct regarding blood?

1) It is a fluid connective tissue 2) it contains RBC and WBC

3) Platelets helps in coagulation 4) Above all


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156. Presence of communication junctions is the characters of

1) blood 2) skeletal muscle

3) smooth muscle 4) cardiac muscle

157. In which muscle fibers can you observe taper at both ends?

1) Striped muscle 2) unstriped muscle

3) cardiac muscle 4) above all

158. Which of the following is denucteated in their structure?

1) acidophils 2) basophils 3) neutrophils 4) RBC

159. Most of the cartilages in adult vertebrates embryos are replaced by

1) Blood 2) Cartilage 3) Bones 4) Lymph

160. What is the sight of production of blood cells in adult vertebrates?

1) Lymph 2) Blood 3) Bone marrow 4) Liver

161. Presence of intercalated discs is the character of

1) Blood cells 2) striated muscle

3) Smooth muscle tissue 4) Cardiac muscle tissue

162. Where will you find smooth muscles in our body?

1) blodo vessels 2) stomach

3) Intestine 4) above all

163. Identify the diagram

1) Cartilage 2) Bone 3) RBC 4) WBC

164. Which of the following are no nucleus in their structure?

1) Acidophils 2) Basophils

3) RBC 4) Neutrophils

165. Which tissue provides structural frame work to the body?

1) Bones 2) Smoth muscle

3) Blood 4) Lymph


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166. Which of the following is made of by many long cylindrical fibers?

1) blood 2) bones 3) muscle tissue 4) epithelium

167. Muscle fibers shorten in response to

1) stimulation 2) secretion

3) fatigue 4) both (2) and (3)

168. What is the orgon which play an important role in all the

movements of the body?

1) Cartilage 2) Bone 3) Muscles 4) Blood

169. What type of muscles can you observe in “biceps”?

1) Skeletar muscle 2) Smooth muscle

3) Cardiac muscle 4) Above all

170. Valunary actions performed by

1) Smooth muscle 2) Cardiac muscle

3) Striped muscle 4) Both (1) and (2)

171. Which of the following muscles cannot be directly controled?

1) Skeletal muscles 2) Unstriped muscles

3) Cardiac muscle 4) Above all

172. Which are correct regording cardiac muscle?

1) Presence of contractile tissue 2) presence of cell junctions

3) intercalated discs are present 4) Above all

173. Which of the following tissue has the greatest control over the body

responsiveness?

1) cardiac tissue 2) skeletal muscle

3) neural tissue 4) both (1) and (2)

174. Which of the following shows straited and involuntary in functions?

1) cardiac muscle tissue 2) striated muscle

3) smooth muscle 4) above all

175. _____ make up more than one half line volume of neural tissue

1) Axon 2) Nucleus

3) neuraglea 4) both (1) and (2)


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176. An electrical distrabance is generated in neuron which swiftly

travels along its

1) Blood 2) Bone 3) Plasma membrane 4) Nucleus

177. Recognise the figure and findout the correct matching

1) b-cellbody, c-dendrite, d-neuroglia, a-axon

2) a-cellbody, d-dendrite, c-neuroglia, b-axon

3) c-cellbody, b-dendrite, a-neuroglia, d-axon

4) d-cellbody, a-dendrite, b-neuroglia, c-axon

178. The bone cells present in the spaces called

1) Neuroglea 2) lacunae 3) gap junctions 4) above all

179. Which of the following are connective tissues?

1) Cartilage 2) Bones 3) Blood 4) above all

180. What type of epithelium is present in branchioles and fallopian

tubes?

1) ciliated epithelium 2) columnar epithelium

3) cuboidal epithelium 4) squamous epithelium

New challenges keep you away from monotony

Innovative mindset surely takes you to destiny

Clarity in Thought and Sincerity in Action is the need of the hour!!!

class: mz2-a neet model date: 11-04-20 time: 3hrs wtn-04 ... · mz2-a_neet_wtn-04_exam.dt.11-04-20...

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