current affairs quiz 26...the reforms shall, inter alia, include— (a) doorstep delivery of...

www.examshack.com Current Affairs Quiz 26

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Question 1:

Which of the following recommended

provisions from Verma Committee Report

have been operationalized/accepted in the

2013 Criminal Law (Amendment) Act?

1. Absence of physical resistance is not

to be treated as consent.

2. Marital rape should be an offence

regardless of the age of the wife.

3. Penalise the act of voyeurism i.e.

capturing images of, or watching, a

woman engaging in sexual acts or

when her genitals are exposed with.

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below.

Options:

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to 2013

Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, Marital rape

Is not an offence if the wife is over 16 years of

age.

//Nirbhaya Act has been in focus again

because of the brutal gang rape incident that

happened in Hyderabad. //

Source:

https://www.prsindia.org/sites/default/files/b

ill_files/Comparison_of_Criminal_Laws.pdf

Question 2:

National Food Security Act envisages which of

the following reforms in Targeted Public

Distribution System?

1. doorstep delivery of foodgrains to the

Targeted Public Distribution System

outlets

2. application of information and

communication technology tools

including end-to-end computerization

3. diversification of commodities

distributed under the Public

Distribution System over a period of

time

4. introducing schemes, such as, cash

transfer, food coupons, or other

schemes, to the targeted beneficiaries


given below?

Options:

a. 2 and 3 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: d

Explanation:

The Central and State Governments shall

endeavour to progressively undertake

necessary reforms in the Targeted Public

Distribution System in consonance with the

role envisaged for them in NFSA Act.

The reforms shall, inter alia, include—

(a) doorstep delivery of foodgrains to the

Targeted Public Distribution System outlets;

(b) application of information and

communication technology tools including

end-to-end computerisation in order to

ensure transparent recording of transactions

at all levels, and to prevent diversion;

(c) leveraging ''aadhaar'' for unique

identification, with biometric information of

entitled beneficiaries for proper targeting of

benefits under this Act;

(d) full transparency of records; (e) preference

to public institutions or public bodies such as

Panchayats, selfhelp groups, co-operatives, in

licensing of fair price shops and management

of fair price shops by women or their

collectives;

(f) diversification of commodities distributed

under the Public Distribution System over a

period of time;

(g) support to local public distribution models

and grains banks;

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(h) introducing schemes, such as, cash

transfer, food coupons, or other schemes, to

the targeted beneficiaries in order to ensure

their foodgrain entitlements specified in

Chapter II, in such area and manner as may be

prescribed by the Central Government

Question 3:

Crimean Peninsula is located between which

of the following seas?

1. Caspian Sea

2. Sea of Azov

3. Black Sea

4. Sea of Maramara


given below.

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 and 4 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

This is one of the easiest Questions. Even if

one does not know where Crimea is , one

should be able to mark it as Black Sea and Sea

of Azov are the only connected seas in the

options. Just by eliminating the rest of the

options, one can arrive at correct answer.

//location of Crimea is important as it is often

in news because of Russia’s tensions with

Ukraine. //

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/internation

al/russia-ukraine-leaders-to-meet-in-

paris/article30259787.ece

Question 4:

Which of the following is not an objective of

The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers'

Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001?

Options:

a. To establish an effective system for

the protection of plant varieties, the

rights of farmers and plant breeders

and to encourage the development of

new varieties of plants.

b. To recognize and protect the rights of

researchers in respect of their

contributions made at any time in

conserving, improving and making

available plant genetic resources for

the development of new plant

varieties.

c. To accelerate agricultural

development in the country, protect

plant breeders’ rights; stimulate

investment for research and

development both in public & private

sector for the development new of

plant varieties.

d. Facilitate the growth of seed industry

in the country which will ensure the

availability of high quality seeds and

planting material to the farmers.

Answer: b

Explanation:

Objective is to recognize and protect the

rights of farmers in respect of their

contributions made at any time in conserving,

improving and making available plant genetic

resources for the development of new plant

varieties.

The rights given under PPV&FR Act are:

Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive

rights to produce, sell, market, distribute,

import or export the protected variety.

Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may

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exercise for civil remedy in case of

infringement of rights.

Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any

of the registered variety under the Act for

conducting experiment or research. This

includes the use of a variety as an initial

source of variety for the purpose of

developing another variety but repeated use

needs prior permission of the registered

breeder.

Farmers' Rights

A farmer who has evolved or

developed a new variety is entitled

for registration and protection in like

manner as a breeder of a variety;

Farmers variety can also be registered

as an extant variety;

A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow,

exchange, share or sell his farm

produce including seed of a variety

protected under the PPV&FR Act,

2001 in the same manner as he was

entitled before the coming into force

of this Act provided farmer shall not

be entitled to sell branded seed of a

variety protected under the PPV&FR

Act, 2001;

Farmers are eligible for recognition

and rewards for the conservation of

Plant Genetic Resources of land races

and wild relatives of economic plants;

There is also a provision for

compensation to the farmers for non-

performance of variety under Section

39 (2) of the Act, 2001 and

Farmer shall not be liable to pay any

fee in any proceeding before the

Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal

or the High Court under the Act.

Source:

https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/policies-and-

schemes/crops-related/protection-of-plant-

varieties-and-rights-of-farmers/protection-of-

plant-varieties-and-farmers-rights-act-2001

Question 5:

Consider the following statements:

1. When World War 2 broke out towards

the end of 1939, Lord Willingdon, the

then Viceroy of India, did not receive

the kind of support that he wanted

from the Congress for war efforts.

2. When Jinnah articulated the idea of

Pakistan in the Karachi Resolution of

1940, the British endorsed the

essence of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

Options:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Lord Linlithgow is

the viceroy between 1936-1944

Statement 2 is incorrect: Idea of Pakistan was

articulated in Lahore Session.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-

ed/congress-and-

partition/article30270109.ece

Question 6:

With reference to 104th Constitutional

Amendment Act, consider the following

statements:

1. It extended the reservation of seats

for Anglo-Indians, SCs and STs in the

Lok Sabha and states assemblies from

Seventy years to Eighty years.

2. Special majority is required to pass

the bill extending reservation for SCs,

STs and Anglo-Indians by way of

amending Article 334.


correct?

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Options:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Reservation for

Anglo-Indians hasn’t been extended.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It requires special

majority with ratification by not less than half

the state legislatures.

Source: https://www.business-

standard.com/article/politics/lok-sabha-

clears-bill-to-extend-political-reservation-to-

scs-sts-till-2030-119121001244_1.html

Question 7:

Published annually since 2005, the Climate

Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks

countries’ efforts to combat climate change.

Which of the following statements are correct

with reference to CCPI 2020?

1. Sweden is ranked first in CCPI 2020.

2. India ranks higher than China in terms

of climate change efforts.

3. United States is ranked last according

to this index.


given below.

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The CCPI 2020

results illustrate the main regional differences

in climate protection and performance within

the 57 evaluated countries and the EU. Still no

country performs well enough in all index

categories to achieve an overall very high

rating in the index. Therefore, once again the

first three ranks remain empty.

Statement 2 is correct: India is ranked in top

10 nations (9th rank) for the first time. China is

ranked 30th in this index.

Statement 3 is correct: In this year’s index,

Sweden leads the ranking on rank 4, followed

by Denmark (5) and Morocco (6). The bottom

five in this year’s CCPI are Islamic Republic of

Iran (57), Republic of Korea (58), Chinese

Taipei (59), Saudi Arabia (60) and the United

States (61), rated low or very low across

almost all categories.

Published by: Germanwatch, the NewClimate

Institute and the Climate Action Network

publish the index annually.

Categories considered: The ranking results are

defined by a country’s aggregated

performance in 14 indicators within the four

categories “GHG Emissions”, “Renewable

Energy” and “Energy Use”, as well as on

“Climate Policy”, in a globally unique policy

section of the index.

Source: https://www.climate-change-

performance-index.org/

Question 8:

Which one of the following statements is

incorrect about Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

(PSLV)?

Options:

a. PSLV is the first Indian launch vehicle

to be equipped with liquid stages

b. The vehicle successfully launched two

spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008

and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 –

that traveled to Moon and Mars

respectively.

c. PSLV has failed only once — the

maiden flight of the PSLV D1 in

September 1993.

d. The vehicle has recently marked its

‘Golden Jubilee’ launch by injecting

India’s advanced radar imaging

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satellite RISAT-2BR1 into its intended

orbit.

Answer: c

Explanation:

The PSLV has failed only twice — the maiden

flight of the PSLV D1 in September 1993 and

the PSLV C-39 in August 2017.

Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the

third generation launch vehicle of India. It is

the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped

with liquid stages. After its first successful

launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as the

reliable and versatile workhorse launch

vehicle of India with 39 consecutively

successful missions by June 2017.

Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two

spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars

Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 – that later

traveled to Moon and Mars respectively

Source:

https://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/pslv

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-

tech/science/pslv-c48-carrying-risat-2br1-lifts-

off-from-sriharikota/article30276126.ece

Question 9:

With reference to Jal Shakti Abhiyan, consider

the following statements:

1. Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA) is a time-

bound, mission-mode water

conservation campaign which was

supplemented through special

interventions including Block and

District Water Conservation Plans, 3D

Village Contour Mapping.

2. It had a target of providing potable

water in adequate quantity i.e. 55

litre per capita per day (lpcd).

3. Phase 2 of JSA which was run from 1st

October to 30th November 2019 has

targeted Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka,

Puducherry and Tamil Nadu only.


correct?

Options:

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Special Intervention

areas of JSA include – Block and District Water

Conservation Plans, promotion of efficient

water use for irrigation and better choice of

crops through Krishi Vigyan Kendra Mela,

Urban Waste Water Reuse, 3D Village Contour

Mapping etc

Statement 2 is incorrect: It did not have any

quantifiable targets. It only aimed to make

water conservation a ‘people’s movement’

through ongoing schemes like the MGNREGA

and other government programmes.

Statement 3 is correct: The JSA was run in two

Phases: Phase 1 from 1st July to 15th

September 2019 for all States and Union

Territories; and Phase 2 from 1st October to

30th November 2019 for States and UTs

receiving the retreating monsoon (Andhra

Pradesh, Karnataka, Puducherry and Tamil

Nadu).

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-

ed/not-many-lessons-learnt-from-water-

planning-failures/article30289651.ece

https://ejalshakti.gov.in/JSA/JSA/Home.aspx

Question 10:

The deadline for the government’s Accessible

India campaign has been extended due to

slow progress. Which of the following are

components of Accessible India Campaign

(Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan):

1. Built Environment Accessibility

2. Transportation System Accessibility

3. Technical Education Accessibility

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4. Information and Communication Eco-

System Accessibility

5. Organizational or Systemic

Accessibility


given below.

Options:

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat

Abhiyan) has the following three important

components

1. Built Environment Accessibility

2. Transportation System Accessibility

3. Information and Communication Eco-

System Accessibility

Source: https://vikaspedia.in/social-

welfare/differently-abled-welfare/schemes-

programmes/accessible-india-campaign

Question 11:

The panel that produced the draft of the

Personal Data Protection Bill was headed by -

Options:

a. B.N. Srikrishna

b. K.S. Puttuswamy

c. Aruna Sundarajan

d. Deepak Mohanty

Answer: a

Explanation:

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/da

ta-protection-bill-not-in-line-with-

draft/article30307560.ece

Question 12:

Whakaari/White Island is a stratovolcano has

been active for at least 150,000 years. It is

located in -

Options:

a. Timor-Leste

b. Fiji

c. Australia

d. New Zealand

Answer: d

Explanation:

Volcanic eruptions of White island in

December 2019 has killed quite a few people

and it has been in news ever since.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/internation

al/new-zealand-police-identify-volcanic-

eruption-victim/article30307567.ece

Question 13:

Google has recently to US Federal Reserve

Board detailing the successful example of UPI-

based digital payment in India in order to

build "FedNow" -- a new interbank real-time

gross settlement service (RTGS) for faster

digital payments in the US. Which of the

following statements are correct about UPI?

1. National Payments Corporation of

India (NPCI) deployed a real-time

payment system UPI in 2016.

2. UPI-PIN, which is used to authorize all

bank transactions, has to be a 6-digit

passcode.

3. UPI can be linked digital wallets and

debit cards too.


given below.

Options:

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 2 is incorrect: UPI-PIN (UPI

Personal Identification Number) is a 4-6 digit

pass code you create/set during first time

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registration with this App. You have to enter

this UPI-PIN to authorize all bank transactions.

//Paytm UPI uses 4-digit pin. //

Statement 3 is incorrect: Customer cannot

link a wallet or card to UPI, only bank

accounts can be added.

Source: https://www.npci.org.in/upi-faq-s

Question 14:

OSIRIS Rex mission will be NASA’s first to

collect samples from an asteroid and return to

Earth. It will bring back samples from which

asteroid?

Options:

a. Ceres

b. Vesta

c. Bennu

d. Ultima Thule

Answer: c

Explanation:

OSIRIS-REx will travel to a near-Earth asteroid

called Bennu and bring a small sample back to

Earth for study. The mission was launched on

Sept. 8, 2016, from Cape Canaveral Air Force

Station. As planned, the spacecraft reached

Bennu in 2018 and will return a sample to

Earth in 2023.

Source:

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/n

asa-asteroid-hunter-chooses-landing-site-on-

boulder-strewn-space-rock/

Question 15:

Satapada Island is located in which of the

following states?

Options:

a. Andhra Pradesh.

b. Assam

c. West Bengal

d. Odisha

Answer: d

Explanation:

Satapada Island is located in Chilika Lake,

Odisha. It is a major attraction because of the

Irrawaddy dolphins which are often spotted

off the island.

//Green Nobel Prize winner Prafulla

Samantara with other green activists has

opposed the 415-km-long coastal highway

from Digha in West Bengal to Gopalpur (but

discussion on Satapada-Gopalpur stretch) in

south Odisha proposed by the Central and

State governments.//

The proposed highway will pass through

Chilika lake, Bhitarkanika and related eco-

sensitive areas.

The project will destroy more than 33% of the

natural mangrove forests in these areas and

may lead to increased sea erosion.//

Source:

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/o

disha/2019/dec/15/coastal-highway-may-

skip-odishas-chilika-to-protect-lagoon--

2076405.html

Question 16:

With reference to the Natyashastra, consider

the following statements:

1. It deals exclusively with different

forms of Indian classical dances.

2. It is also known as the fifth Veda.

3. The gestures are taken from

Atharvaveda, while the music was

taken from Samaveda.


correct?

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only.

b. 2 only.

c. 1 and 3 only.

d. 1 only.

Answer: b

Explanation:

statement 1 is incorrect: Its many chapters

contain detailed treatments of all the diverse

arts that are embodied in the classical Indian

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concept of the drama, including dance, music,

poetics, and general aesthetics.

statement 2 is correct: It is also known as the

fifth veda as it has been evolved by taking

words from the Rigveda

statement 3 is incorrect: Music from the

Samaveda, gestures from the Yajurveda and

emotions from the Atharvaveda.

Natyashastra, in full Bharata

Natyashastra, is a detailed treatise

and handbook on dramatic art that

deals with all aspects of classical

Sanskrit theatre.

It is believed to have been written by

the mythic Brahman sage and priest

Bharata (200 BC – 200 AD).

//Recently, a three-day festival on

Natyasastra was organised in Chennai (Tamil

Nadu)//

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/ar

t/a-comprehensive-overview-of-natya-

sastra/article30123562.ece

Question 17:

With reference to countries and their

navigational satellite systems consider the

following systems:

1. China : QZSS

2. Japan : Beidou

3. Russia : GLONASS

4. European Union : Galileo

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly

matched?

Options:

a. 2, 3 and 4 only.

b. 3 and 4 only.

c. 1, 2 and 4 only.

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Navigation Satellite systems from

different countries are – GPS by the USA,

GLONASS by Russia, Galileo by European

Union, BeiDou by China, QZSS by Japan and

NavIC by India.

// the US Congress has consented to

designate India's Navigation in Indian

Constellation (NavIC) as its “allied”

navigational satellite system along with the

Galileo of the European Union and QZSS of

Japan.//

At the same time, it has designated

Russia' GLONASS and Chinese Beidou

as a “non-allied system”.

The tag of the “allied” navigational

satellite system allows the US satellite

navigation system to co-operate or to

exchange data with these satellite

navigation systems.

This tag is designated as part of the

conference report of the National

Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)

2020.

The designation of India's NavIC as an

“allied system” is part of the

American effort to develop a

prototype program for multi-global

navigation satellite systems.

Source:

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/us-

congress-consents-to-designate-indias-navic-

as-allied-system/articleshow/72467886.cms

Question 18:

With reference to the Economic Census,

consider the following statements:

1. It is carried out by the Ministry of

Finance.

2. It is conducted once in every 5 years.


correct?

Options:

a. 1 only.

b. 2 only.

c. Both 1 and 2.

d. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: d

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Explanation:

statement 1 is incorrect: It is being carried out

by the Ministry of Statistics and Program

Implementation (MoSPI) in collaboration with

Common Service Centre (CSC), a Special

Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under Ministry of

Electronics and IT.

statement 2 is incorrect: Six Economic

Censuses, (EC) have been conducted by the

Union Ministry of Statistics and Program

Implementation. till date. The first Economic

Census was undertaken in 1977. The Second

EC was carried out in 1980 followed by the

Third EC in 1990. The fourth edition took

place in 1998 while the fifth EC was held in

2005. The Sixth edition of Economic Census

was conducted in 2013. Present one is the 7th

one. So, there is no frequency as such.

Source:

https://www.google.com/url?q=https://pib.g

ov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID%3D15734

72&sa=D&ust=1587866791938000&usg=AFQj

CNFTIKG67J9CEOd2N9QBBRMdC9aJWg

Question 19:

Recently in the news, Strandhogg is refers to:

Options:

a. An Android system bug.

b. An island near Lakshadweep .

c. A newly discovered Exoplanet by

NASA.

d. Indigenously developed drug to

control Measles.

Answer: a

Explanation:

StrandHogg is a bug which poses a

threat to the Android operating

systems. It allows real-time malware

applications to pose as genuine

applications and access user data of

all kinds.

Source:

https://www.livemint.com/technology/tech-

news/what-is-strandhogg-and-why-has-it-got-

home-ministry-s-cybersecurity-arm-worried-

11576500411484.html

Question 20:

How does a Scheduled Commercial Bank

differ from Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs)?

1. Unlike commercial banks, UCBs are

only partly regulated by the Reserve

Bank of India (RBI).

2. While there is a clear distinction

between a commercial bank’s

shareholders and its borrowers, in a

UCB borrowers can double up as

shareholders.


given below:

Options:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2.

d. Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: c

Explanation:

There are three key points of difference

between scheduled commercial banks and

urban co-operative banks (UCBs).

1. Unlike commercial banks, UCBs are

only partly regulated by the RBI.

While their banking operations are

regulated by the RBI, which lays down

their capital adequacy, risk control

and lending norms, their

management and resolution in the

case of distress is regulated by the

Registrar of Co-operative Societies

either under the State or Central

government.

2. Unlike commercial banks which are

structured as joint stock companies,

UCBs are structured as co-operatives,

with their members carrying

unlimited liability.

3. While there is a clear distinction

between a commercial bank’s

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shareholders and its borrowers, in a

UCB borrowers can double up as

shareholders.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/b

anking-and-finance/exposure-norms-of-

urban-co-operative-banks-to-be-tightened-

6152956/

Question 21:

Consider the following statements

1. The armed rebellion took place in

Khurda of Odisha in 1817.

2. It briefly shook the foundations of

British rule in the eastern part of

India.

3. It took place under the leadership of

Baxi Jagabandhu.

Identify the revolt that correctly matches the

above description.

Options:

a. Rampa Rebellion

b. Khond Rebellion

c. Munda Uprising

d. Paika Rebellion

Answer: d

Explanation:

The President of India recently laid

the foundation stone for a memorial

to mark 200 years of the Paika

Rebellion.

The Paika Memorial will come up in a

10-acre plot at the bottom of Barunei

Hill in Odisha’s Khurda district.

The Paikas (pronounced “paiko”,

literally ‘foot soldiers’), were a class of

military retainers who had been

recruited since the 16th century by

kings in Odisha from a variety of social

groups.

They render martial services in return

for hereditary rent-free land (nish-kar

jagirs) and titles.

The advent of the British and

establishment of colonial rule brought

new land revenue settlements, which

led to the Paikas losing their estates.

They unfurled the banner of rebellion

against the British under the

leadership of Baxi Jagandhu

Bidyadhara as early as 1817 to throw

off the British yoke.

They briefly shook the foundations of

British rule in the eastern part of

India.

The Paikas attacked British symbols of

power, setting ablaze police stations,

administrative offices and the

treasury during their march towards

Khurda, from where the British fled.

The British were initially taken aback

and then tried to regain lost ground

but faced stiff resistance from the

rebelling Paikas.

Many a battle ensued with some

victories to the rebels, but the British

finally managed to defeat them within

three months.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/

explained-who-were-paikas-odisha-and-what-

will-memorial-celebrate-6156664/

Question 22:

Consider the following statements with

respect to “Definition of Farmer”

1. It was defined in the National Policy

for Farmers, drafted by M.S.

Swaminathan Committee.

2. It will include all agricultural

operational holders, cultivators,

agricultural laborers and

sharecroppers.

3. It excludes tribal families or persons

who are involved in shifting

cultivation.

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Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

correct?

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 ,2 and 3

d. 1 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Definition of Farmer under National Policy for

Farmers 2007

The term “FARMER” will refer to a

person actively engaged in the

economic and/or livelihood activity of

growing crops and producing other

primary agricultural commodities.

It will include all agricultural

operational holders, cultivators,

agricultural laborers, sharecroppers,

tenants, poultry and livestock rearers,

fishers, beekeepers, gardeners,

pastoralists, non-corporate planters

and planting laborers.

It will also include persons engaged in

various farming related occupations

such as sericulture, vermiculture, and

agroforestry.

The term will also include tribal

families / persons engaged in shifting

cultivation and in the collection, use

and sale of minor and non-timber

forest produce.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-

tech/agriculture/who-is-a-farmer-

government-has-no-clear-

definition/article30131511.ece?homepage=tr

ue

Question 23:

Which of the following activities is/are the

main sources of heavy metal pollution in

rivers of India?

1. Mining industries

2. Milling industries

3. Plating industries

4. surface finishing industries


given below:

Options:

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only.

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: d

Explanation:

Samples taken from two-thirds of the

water quality stations spanning India’s

major rivers showed contamination

by one or more heavy metals,

exceeding safe limits set by the

Bureau of Indian Standards.

Iron emerged as the most common

contaminant. None of the sites

registered arsenic levels above the

safe limit.

The other major contaminants found

in the samples were lead, nickel,

chromium, cadmium and copper.

The main sources of heavy metal

pollution are mining, milling, plating

and surface finishing industries that

discharge a variety of toxic metals

into the environment.

Source:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/he

avy-metals-contaminating-indias-

rivers/article30279681.ece

Question 24:

Consider the following statements with

respect to Voice over Wi-Fi (VoWiFi)

1. It is an app based calling experience in

smartphones which uses high speed

Internet connection, available via

broadband.

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2. The calls can be made using the

mobile phone number.

3. It helps to connect when cellular

service is not available or in areas

having poor signal issues, like

dropped calls.

Which of the statements given above are

correct?

Options:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Bharti Airtel, has introduced Voice

over Wi-Fi (VoWiFi), a first for India.

Airtel Wi-Fi calling claims to enhance

indoor voice calling experience for

smartphone customers.

At the moment the service is limited

to Delhi-NCR users with compatible

devices.

Wi-Fi Calling is aimed especially for

areas where cellular networks are not

strong.

It uses high speed Internet

connection, available via broadband,

to make and receive high definition

(HD) voice calls.

Users don’t have to pay extra for

these calls as it is using a Wi-Fi

network.

The call can be made from one mobile

number to another (like normal calls),

and not using an app.

Keeping VoLTE switched on is not

essential.

Wi-Fi calls are free, even while

traveling internationally.

Source:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/t

his-word-means-wi-fi-calling-6162571/

Question 25:

The autonomous region of Bougainville has

recently voted overwhelmingly in favour of

becoming an independent country. It is an

autonomous region in which of the following

countries?

Options:

a. Falkland

b. Tasmania

c. Suriname

d. Papua New Guinea

Answer: d

Explanation:

The Autonomous Region of

Bougainville, a chain of islands that lie

959 kilometres northwest of Papua

New Guinea’s (PNG) capital, Port

Moresby, has voted unequivocally for

independence.

The referendum, however, is non-

binding.

The ultimate outcome will be

determined by a vote in Papua New

Guinea’s National Parliament

following negotiations between the

Papua New Guinean government and

the Autonomous Bougainville

Government.

Source:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/gover

nance/how-bougainville-may-be-a-new-

country-in-the-pacific-and-why-that-matters-

to-china-68400

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