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Test Type : MAJOR [EX-ALLEN] Test Pattern : NEET

TEST DATE : 17 - 07 - 2016

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

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only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination

and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3180720

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

1

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Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

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8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

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ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSETARGET : NEET - II 2016

Paper Code : 0999DM610515007

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1/390999DM610515007

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is

given by T = 2g

where is about 100 cm and

is known to have 1mm accuracy. The period is

about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured

by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The

percentage error in g is :-

(1) 0.1% (2) 1%

(3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%

2. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly

with time t as bt. The particle starts from the origin

with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled

by the particle in time t will be :-

(1) v0t +

1

3bt2

(2) v0t +

1

3bt3

(3) v0t +

1

6bt3

(4) v0t +

1

2bt2

3. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path

of constant radius r such that its centripetal

acceleration ac is varying with time t as, a

c = k2rt2,

the power delivered to the particle by the forces

acting on it is :-

(1) 2mk2r2t (2) mk2r2t

(3) 4 2 5mk r t

3(4) Zero

1. T = 2g

100 cm 1mm

(T) 2

100

0.1 g :-

(1) 0.1% (2) 1%

(3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%

2. t bt

v0

t :-

(1) v0t +

1

3bt2

(2) v0t +

1

3bt3

(3) v0t +

1

6bt3

(4) v0t +

1

2bt2

3. m r

ac

ac = k2rt2, k

:-

(1) 2mk2r2t (2) mk2r2t

(3) 4 2 5mk r t

3(4)

2/39

Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/17-07-2016

0999DM610515007

4. The diagram shows a force-extension graph for a

rubber band. Consider the following statements

:-

Ext

ensi

on

Force(I) It will be easier to compress this rubber than

expand it

(II) Rubber does not return to its original length

after it is stretched

(III) The rubber band will get heated if it is

stretched and released

Which of these can be deduced from the graph :-

(1) III only (2) II and III

(3) I and III (4) I only

5. A rocket of mass M is launched vertically from the

surface of the earth with an initial speed V.

Assuming the radius of the earth to be R and

negligible air resistance, the maximum height

attained by the rocket above the surface of the earth

is :-

(1) 2

gRR 1

2V

(2) 2

gRR 1

2V

(3) 2

2gRR 1

V

(4) 2

2gRR 1

V

6. The potential V is varying with x and y as

21V y 4x

2 volt. The field at (1m,

1m) is:

(1) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m (2) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m

(3) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m (4) ˆ ˆ2i 2 jV / m

7. The resistance across M and N in the given figure

is :-

. .

A

B CM N

rrr

r

r

r

(1) r/2 (2) r/3 (3) 6r (4) 2r

4. :-

(I)

(II)

(III)

:-(1) III (2) II III(3) I III (4) I

5. M V R:-

(1) 2

gRR 1

2V

(2) 2

gRR 1

2V

(3) 2

2gRR 1

V

(4) 2

2gRR 1

V

6. V x y 21V y 4x

2

(1m, 1m)

(1) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m (2) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m

(3) ˆ ˆ2i jV / m (4) ˆ ˆ2i 2 jV / m

7. M N

. .

A

B CM N

rrr

r

r

r

(1) r/2 (2) r/3 (3) 6r (4) 2r


3/390999DM610515007

8. One turn of insulated wire in the form of a planar

square frame with side = 0.2 m and resistance

1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field

perpendicular to the magnetic field lines. The

current passing through the turn when magnetic

field starts to decrease at a constant rate of 0.1T/

s is :-

(1) 4 mA (2) 2 mA (3) 1 mA (4) 0

9. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a

region containing electric and magnetic fields:

(1) E

must be parallel to B

(2) v

must be perpendicular to E

(3) v

must be perpendicular to B

(4) E must be equal to vB

10. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential

difference of 100 V and disconnected from the

source of emf. A slab of dielectric is then inserted

between the plates. Which of the following three

quantities change?

(i) The potential difference

(ii) The capacitance

(iii) The charge on the plates

(1) only (i) and (ii) (2) only (i) and (iii)

(3) only (ii) and (iii) (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

11. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass

prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum

deviation which of the following is true ?

(1) PQ is horizontal

(2) QR is horizontal

(3) RS is horizontal

(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal.

12. Which of the following is used in optical fibres?

(1) Total internal reflection

(2) Scattering

(3) Diffraction

(4) Refraction

8. = 0.2 m 1

0.1T/s

(1) 4 mA (2) 2 mA (3) 1 mA (4) 0

9.

(1) E

B

(2) v

E

(3) v

B

(4) E vB

10. 100 V

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) 11.

(1) PQ(2) QR (3) RS (4) PQ RS

12.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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0999DM610515007

13. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric

experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will:-

(1) be doubled

(2) be halved

(3) become more than double

(4) become less than double

14. A photon and an electron have equal energy E

photon

/ electron

is proportional to :-

(1) E (2) 1

E

(3) 1

E (4) Does not depend upon E

15. Which of the following statements is correct for

diamagnetic materials :-

(1) r < 1

(2) is negative and low

(3) does not depend on temperature

(4) All of the above

16. The force required to just move a body up the

inclined plane is double the force required to just

prevent the body from sliding down the plane.

The coefficient of friction is µ. The inclination

of the plane is :

(1) tan–1 µ (2) tan–1 (µ/2)

(3) tan–1 (2µ) (4) tan–1 (3µ)

17. In YDSE setup, light of wavelength 640 nm is

used with d = 0.8 mm and D = 1m. If intensity at

central maximum is I0 and its position is y = 0,

then :-

(1) Intensity at y = 0.4 mm is zero

(2) Intensity at y = 0.4 mm is 0I

2

(3) Intensity at y = 0.4 mm is 0I

2

(4) Intensity at y = 0.4 mm is I0

13.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14. E

photon

/ electron

:-

(1) E (2) 1

E

(3) 1

E (4) E

15.

(1) r < 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

16.

µ

(1) tan–1 µ (2) tan–1 (µ/2)

(3) tan–1 (2µ) (4) tan–1 (3µ)

17. YDSE 640 nm d = 0.8 mm D = 1m I0 y = 0

(1) y = 0.4 mm

(2) y = 0.4 mm 0I

2

(3) y = 0.4 mm 0I

2

(4) y = 0.4 mm I0


5/390999DM610515007

18. In Bohr's model of hydrogen-like species, which

of the following is true?

(1) KE of electron in ground state of hydrogen

atom is equal to KE of electron in n = 3 state

of Li2+

(2) KE of electron in n = 3 state of hydrogen is

equal to KE of electron is ground state

of Li2+

(3) Energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state

is equal to energy of Li2+ ion in n = 2 state

(4) None of these

19. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous

emission of two particles with respective half lives

1620 and 810 years. The time (in years) after

which one-fourth of the material remains is :-

(1) 1080 (2) 2430

(3) 3240 (4) 4860

20. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number

curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y

and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The

process that would release energy is :-

30 60 90 120

5.0

7.58.08.5

YX

W

Z

Mass number of nuclei

B.E

./nu

cleo

n i

n M

eV

(1) Y 2Z (2) W X + Z

(3) W 2Y (4) X Y + Z

21. Current in the circuit will be :-

20

30

20 5V

i

(1) 5

A40

(2) 5

A50

(3) 5

A10

(4) 5

A20

18.

(1)

Li2+ n = 3

(2) n = 3

Li2+

(3) Li2+

n = 2

(4) 19. 1620 810

1/4 :-

(1) 1080 (2) 2430

(3) 3240 (4) 4860

20. W, X, Y Z :-

30 60 90 120

5.0

7.58.08.5

YX

W

Z

MeV

(1) Y 2Z (2) W X + Z

(3) W 2Y (4) X Y + Z

21. :-20

30

20 5V

i

(1) 5

A40

(2) 5

A50

(3) 5

A10

(4) 5

A20

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0999DM610515007

22. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From thestudy of truth table it can be found that to producea high output (1) at R, we must have :-

X

YP

Q

R

(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1

(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0

23. What is the current through an ideal PN-junction

diode shown in figure below ?

–+

–+1V 3V

100

(1) Zero (2) 10 mA

(3) 20 mA (4) 50 mA

24. The phase difference between input and outputvoltage of a CE circuit is :-(1) 0° (2) 90°(3) 180° (4) 270°

25. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown will be:-

~

A

R=55

V 110V

X =5L

X =5C

(1) 2A (2) 2.4A

(3) Zero (4) 1.7A

26. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury

in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel

vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If for steel is

12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is :-

(1) 9 × 10–6/°C (2) 6 × 10–6/°C

(3) 36 × 10–6/°C (4) 27 × 10–6/°C

27. A lead bullet at 27°C just melts when stopped by

an obstacle. Assuming that 25% of heat is absorbed

by the obstacle, then the velocity of the bullet at

the time of striking is (M.P. of lead = 327°C,

specific heat of lead = 0.03 cal/g°C, latent heat of

fusion of lead = 6 cal/g and J = 4.2 joule/cal) :-

(1) 410 m/s (2) 1230 m/s

(3) 307.5 m/s (4) None of the above

22. R (Output) (1) (Input) :-

X

YP

Q

R

(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0

23. PN-

–+

–+1V 3V

100

(1) (2) 10 mA

(3) 20 mA (4) 50 mA

24. (Input) (Output) :-(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 180° (4) 270°

25. :-

~

A

R=55

V 110V

X =5L

X =5C

(1) 2A (2) 2.4A

(3) (4) 1.7A

26.

153 × 10–6/°C

144 × 10–6/°C

12 × 10–6/°C :-

(1) 9 × 10–6/°C (2) 6 × 10–6/°C

(3) 36 × 10–6/°C (4) 27 × 10–6/°C

27.

25%

27°C

( = 327°C,

= 0.03 cal/g°C

= 6 cal/g J = 4.2 joule/cal) :-

(1) 410 m/s (2) 1230 m/s

(3) 307.5 m/s (4)


7/390999DM610515007

28. A gas is filled in a cylinder. Its temperature is

increased by 20% on kelvin scale and volume is

reduced by 10%. How much percentage of the

gas will leak out :-

(1) 30 % (2) 40 % (3) 15 % (4) 25 %

29. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of

thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a

cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius

2R made of material of thermal conductivity K2.

The two ends of the combined system are

maintained at two different temperatures. There

is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface

and the system is in steady state. The effective

thermal conductivity of the system is :-

(1)K1+K

2(2)

1 2

1 2

K K

K K

(3)1 2K 3K

4

(4)

1 23K K

4

30. Two identical flutes produce fundamental notes

of frequency 300 Hz at 27°C. If the temperature

of air in one flute is increased to 31°C, the number

of the beats heard per second will be :-

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

31. A trolley of mass 5 kg 5kg

2kg

C

BA

on a horizontal

smooth surface is

pulled by a load of

mass 2 kg by means

of uniform rope ABC

of length 2 m and

mass 1 kg. As the load falls from BC = 0 to

BC = 2m, its acceleration in m/s2 changes from:-

(1) 20

6 to

20

5(2)

20

8 to

30

8

(3) 20

5 to

30

6(4) None of the above

28.

20% 10%

:-

(1) 30 % (2) 40 %

(3) 15 % (4) 25 %

29. R

K1 K

2

R 2R

:-

(1) K1+K

2(2)

1 2

1 2

K K

K K

(3)1 2K 3K

4

(4)

1 23K K

4

30. 27°C 300 Hz

31°C

:-

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

31. 5 5kg

2kg

C

BA

2 1 ABC

2

BC = 0 BC = 2

2

(1) 20

6

20

5(2)

20

8

30

8

(3) 20

5

30

6(4)

8/39


0999DM610515007

32. In the figure shown the U

O XX1 X2 X3

potential energy (U) of

a particle is plotted

against its position 'x'

from origin. The

particle at:

(1) x1 is in stable equilibrium



(4) None of these

33. In a simple pendulum, the breaking strength of thestring is double the weight of the bob. The bob isreleased from rest when the string is horizontal. The

string breaks when it makes an angle with the

vertical–

(1) 1 1

cos3

(2) = 60°

(3) 1 2

cos3

(4) = 0

34. In an experiment with a beam balance an unknownmass m is balanced by two known masses of 16kg

and 4 kg as shown in figure. The value of theunknown mass m is :–

16kg m

1 2

m 4kg

1 2

(1) 10 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 8 kg (4) 12 kg

35. A disc of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal

surface and then rolls up an inclined plane asshown in the figure. If the velocity of the disc isv, the height to which the disc will rise willbe :–

h

v

(1)

23v

2g (2)

23v

4 g(3)

2v

4g(4)

2v

2g

32. U

O XX1 X2 X3

(U)

'x'

(1) x1

(2) x2

(3) x3

(4)

33.

(1) 1 1

cos3

(2) = 60°

(3) 1 2

cos3

(4) = 0

34. 16 kg 4 kg mm

16kg m

1 2

m 4kg

1 2

(1) 10 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 8 kg (4) 12 kg35. M R

v :–

hv

(1)

23v

2g (2)

23v

4 g(3)

2v

4g (4)

2v

2g


9/390999DM610515007

36. The diagram (figure) shows a venturimeter,

through which water is flowing. The speed of

water at X is 2 cm/s. The speed of water at Y

(taking g = 1000 cm/s2) is :–

x

5.1mm

y

(1) 23 cm/s (2) 32 cm/s

(3) 101 cm/s (4) 1024 cm/s

37. Four charges are placed

+q

+q

–q

–q

q0

39

12

6

at the circumference of

a dial clock as shown in

figure. If the clock has

only hour hand, then

the resultant force on a charge q0 placed at the centre,

points in the direction which shows the time as:–

(1) 1:30 (2) 7:30

(3) 4:30 (4) 10:30

38. A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27 tiny

drops. The change in energy is :–

(1) 2TD2 (2) 4TD2

(3) TD2 (4) None of these

39. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a

200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is

removed the cube is 2 cm above water level. The

side of cube is :–

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm40. The equation of motion of a particle of mass

1 g is 2

2

d xdt

+ 2x = 0 where x is displacement

(in m) from mean position. The frequency ofoscillation is (in Hz) :

(1) 12

(2) 2

(3) 5 10 (4) 1

5 10

41. The length of a spring is when a force of 4 N

is applied on it and the length is when 5 N force

is applied. Then the length of spring when 9 N

force is applied is-

(1) 5 – 4 (2) –

(3) 5 – 4 (4) 9 ( – )

36.

X 2

g =1000 Y :–

x

5.1mm

y

(1) 23 cm/s (2) 32 cm/s

(3) 101 cm/s (4) 1024 cm/s

37.

+q

+q

–q

–q

q0

39

12

6

q0

:(1) 1:30 (2) 7:30

(3) 4:30 (4) 10:30

38. D 27 :–(1) 2TD2 (2) 4TD2

(3) TD2 (4)

39. :–(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

40. 12

2

d xdt

+ 2x = 0 x

(Hz)

(1) 1

2(2) 2

(3) 5 10 (4) 1

5 10

41. 4N

5N 9N

(1) 5 – 4 (2) –

(3) 5 – 4 (4) 9 ( – )

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0999DM610515007

42. T

'F'

AB P C P :-

C

PF

A B

2

(1) 4

3 (2)

(3) 2

3 (4)

3

2

43. 2400 m/s 1/60 :-

(1) 19.6 ms–2 (2) 30.2 ms–2

(3) 40 ms–2 (4) 49.8 ms–2

44. 100 V DC 10µF :-

100 V

10µF

8µFA

10µF

10µF 10µF

B

(1) 100 C (2) 500 C

(3) 250 C (4) 300 C

45. m l A B v

A v

Bv

B

:

B

A l4

3l 4

(1) A3v (2) v

A(3) < v

A(4)

A2v

42. A T shaped object with dimensions shown in the

figure, is lying a smooth floor. A force 'F'

is

applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that the

object has only the translational motion without

rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C:-

C

PF

A B

2

(1) 4

3 (2)

(3) 2

3 (4)

3

2

43. In the first second of its flight, rocket ejects

1/60 of its mass with a velocity of 2400 m/s. The

acceleration of the rocket is:-

(1) 19.6 ms–2 (2) 30.2 ms–2

(3) 40 ms–2 (4) 49.8 ms–2

44. Five capacitors are connected to a DC potential of

100V as shown in the adjoining figure. Find charge

in 10µF capacitor :-

100 V

10µF

8µFA

10µF

10µF 10µF

B

(1) 100 C (2) 500 C

(3) 250 C (4) 300 C

45. A string of mass m and length l hangs from ceiling

as shown in the figure. Wave in string moves

upward. vA and v

B are the speeds of wave at A

and B respectively. Then vB

is :

B

A l4

3l 4

(1) A3v (2) v

A(3) < v

A(4)

A2v


11/390999DM610515007

46. An element 'P' has atomic number 56. What will

be the formula of its halide ?

(1) PX (2) PX2

(3) PX3

(4) P2X

3

47. Arrange the following in order of increasing

dipole moment : H2O, H

2S, BF

3.

(1) BF3 < H

2S < H

2O

(2) H2S < BF

3 < H

2O

(3) H2O < H

2S < BF

3

(4) BF3 < H

2O < H

2S

48. According to VSEPR theory

(1) the shape of the molecule depends upon the

bonded electron pairs

(2) pair of electrons attract each other in valence

shells

(3) the pairs of electrons tend to occupy such

positions that minimise repulsions

(4) the pairs of electrons tend to occupy such

positions that minimise distances from each

other.

49. In which of the following molecule, N-atom is not

sp2 hybridised :-

(1) Nitronium ion (2) Nitrate ion

(3) Trisilylamine (4) Borazine

50. Solid BeH2 and solid BeCl

2 are differ in :-

(1) Hybridisation state

(2) Planarity of molecule

(3) Octet completion

(4) Polymerisation

51. Which of the following compound formed

silicones on hydrolysis :-

(1) (CH3)SiCl

2(2) (SiH

3)

3N

(3) SiCl4

(4) All

52.(gas) (milky)

Ca(OH)2A B C D

2

CgasH O E

Then incorrect statement is :-

(1) A is NaHCO3

(2) B is metal carbonate which insoluble in H2O

(3) Both A and E have amphoteric nature

(4) D is CaCO3

53. Br2 + 2X– 2Br– + X

2

Cl2 + 2Y– 2Cl– + Y

2

The incorrect match regarding above reaction is:-

(1) X2 = I

2(2) Y

2 = I

2

(3) X2 = Cl

2(4) Y

2 = Br

2

46. 'P' 56 –

(1) PX (2) PX2

(3) PX3

(4) P2X

3

47. : H

2O, H

2S, BF

3.

(1) BF3 < H

2S < H

2O

(2) H2S < BF

3 < H

2O

(3) H2O < H

2S < BF

3

(4) BF3 < H

2O < H

2S

48. VSEPR (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49. N-sp2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

50. BeH2 BeCl

2 :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

51.

:-

(1) (CH3)SiCl

2(2) (SiH

3)

3N

(3) SiCl4

(4) 52.

(gas) (milky)

Ca(OH)2A B C D

2

CgasH O E

:-

(1) A, NaHCO3

(2) B

(3) A E

(4) 'D' CaCO3

53. Br2 + 2X– 2Br– + X

2

Cl2 + 2Y– 2Cl– + Y

2

:-(1) X

2 = I

2(2) Y

2 = I

2

(3) X2 = Cl

2(4) Y

2 = Br

2


12/39 0999DM610515007

54. Oxyacid of chloride show similarity in :-

(1) Basicity and oxidising nature

(2) Hybridisation state and Basicity

(3) Shape and bond angle

(4) Number of bond and acidic nature

55. K2MnO

4 can be converted into KMnO

4 by :-

(1) Passing CO2 gas

(2) Passing Cl2

(3) Electrolytic oxidation

(4) All of these

56. Increasing value of magnetic moments of :-

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(III) [Cr(NH3)

6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H

2O)

4]2+

is :

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I

(3) II < III < I < IV

(4) I < II < IV < III

57. Which of the following statements correct ?

(1) [Pt(NO3)

2(en)

2]2+ complex ion can show

linkage isomerism

(2) [Cr(CO3)(NH

3)

4]Br can show ionization

isomerism

(3) FeCl3.6H

2O can show hydrate isomerism

(4) [FeCl3(NH

3)

3] can exhibit structural

isomerism

58. When FeCl3 reacts with K

4[Fe(CN)

6] then which

of the following compound is formed :-

(1) Brown ring complex

(2) Sodium nitroprusside

(3) Turnbull's blue

(4) Prussion blue

59. Which of the following statement is not correct

regarding calcination ?

(1) Impurities are removed in the form of

elemental vapours

(2) Carbonate ores convert into their oxides

(3) Temperature of the process is maintained

below the melting point of the mixture

(4) Lower oxidation state oxides are oxidised

further

60. Which one of the following removes temporary

hardness of water ?

(1) Slaked lime (2) Plaster of paris

(3) CaCO3

(4) Hydrolith

54. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

55. K2MnO

4, KMnO

4 :-

(1) CO2

(2) Cl2

(3) (4)

56. :-(I) [Fe(CN)

6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(III) [Cr(NH3)

6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H

2O)

4]2+

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I

(3) II < III < I < IV

(4) I < II < IV < III

57. (1) [Pt(NO

3)

2(en)

2]2+

(2) [Cr(CO

3)(NH

3)

4]Br

(3) FeCl

3.6H

2O

(4) [FeCl3(NH

3)

3]

58. FeCl

3, K

4[Fe(CN)

6]

(1) (2) (3) (4)

59. (1) (2)

(3)

(4)

60. (1) (2) (3) CaCO

3(4)


13/390999DM610515007

61. Which of the following is optically active :-

(1) CH –CH3 2–CHCl

Cl(2) CH –CH3 –CH2

Cl Cl

(3) CH –C3 –CH3

Cl

Cl

(4) H –CH2 2C –CH2

Cl Cl

62. Which of the following is correct :-

(1)

CH=CH2

Br /CCl2 4

CH=CH2

Br+

CH=CH2

Br

(2)

NH2

Br /CS2 2

NH2

Br

Br

Br

(3)

OH

Conc. (HNO +H SO )3 2 4

OHNO2

NO2

O N2

(4) All

63. Which of the following has maximum boiling

point ?

(1) CH3COOH (2) CH

3–CH

2–OH

(3) CH3–CH

2–NH

2(4) CH

3–CH

2–CH=O

64. Correct order of stability is :-

(1) CH –CH3 2 > CH =CH > CH C2 .. .. ..

(2) CH C>CH =CH>CH –CH 2 3 2

. . .

(3) CH –COO3 > O

(4) CH –CH–CH3 3 > CH –O–CH3 2

65. Which of the following is most stable conformer

of Butane ?

(1)

H

Me

Me

HH

H(2)

H

Me

H

HMe

H

(3) MeH H

H

HMe

(4)

H HH

Me

H

Me

61. :-

(1) CH –CH3 2–CHCl

Cl(2) CH –CH3 –CH2

Cl Cl

(3) CH –C3 –CH3

Cl

Cl

(4) H –CH2 2C –CH2

Cl Cl

62. :-

(1)

CH=CH2

Br /CCl2 4

CH=CH2

Br+

CH=CH2

Br

(2)

NH2

Br /CS2 2

NH2

Br

Br

Br

(3)

OH

Conc. (HNO +H SO )3 2 4

OHNO2

NO2

O N2

(4) 63. ?

(1) CH3COOH (2) CH

3–CH

2–OH

(3) CH3–CH

2–NH

2(4) CH

3–CH

2–CH=O

64. :-

(1) CH –CH3 2 > CH =CH > CH C2 .. .. ..

(2) CH C>CH =CH>CH –CH 2 3 2

. . .

(3) CH –COO3 > O

(4) CH –CH–CH3 3 > CH –O–CH3 2

65. ?

(1)

H

Me

Me

HH

H(2)

H

Me

H

HMe

H

(3) MeH H

H

HMe

(4)

H HH

Me

H

Me


14/39 0999DM610515007

66.C

C

=

HH C3

HH C3

Baeyer 's

reagent Product is :-

(1)

OH

H C3

H C3

OH

H

H(2)

OH

H C3

H

OH

H

CH3

(3)

OH

H

H C3

OH

CH3

H(4) (2) & (3) both

67.

C

HD

Cl

Cl

NaI

acetone Product is :-

(1)

I

C

HD

I

(2)

Cl

C

HI

D

(3)

Cl

C

HD

I

(4)

I

C

HI

D

68. Which of the following belongs to secondary air

pollutants :-

(1) CO2

(2) Hydrocarbon

(3) Peroxyacetylnitrate (4) NO

69. Which of the following is correct statement for

Aspirin :-

(1) It is effective in relieving pain

(2) It has antiblood clotting action

(3) It is a neurologically active drug

(4) All

66.C

C

=

HH C3

HH C3

Baeyer 's :-

(1)

OH

H C3

H C3

OH

H

H(2)

OH

H C3

H

OH

H

CH3

(3)

OH

H

H C3

OH

CH3

H(4) (2) (3)

67.

C

HD

Cl

Cl

NaI

acetone :-

(1)

I

C

HD

I

(2)

Cl

C

HI

D

(3)

Cl

C

HD

I

(4)

I

C

HI

D

68. (secondary air

pollutants) :-(1) CO

2(2) Hydrocarbon

(3) Peroxyacetylnitrate (4) NO

69. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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70. CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

2 2

HBr

R OX 3CH ONaY;

X & Y are :-

(1) X = CH –CH–3 CH –Br2

CH3

,

Y = CH –CH–3 CH –O–CH2 3

CH3

(2) X = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

Br

, Y = CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

(3) X = CH –CH–3 CH –Br2

CH3

, Y = CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

(4) X = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

Br

, Y = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

O–CH3

71.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

=

O

X 32

3

H OBr

AlBrY Z

(major)

; Z is

(1)

Br

NH2

(2)

Br

OH

(3)

Br

C–NH2

=

O

(4)

Br

NH2

BrBr

72. Which of the following does not give alcohol on

reduction :-

(1) CH –C–Cl3

=

O

(2) CH –C–OC H3 2 5

=

O

(3) (CH3CO)

2O (4) CH –C–NH3 2

=

O

73. Number of sp hybridised carbon atom in the given

compound is :

CH2=CH–CC–CH

2–CN

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

70. CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

2 2

HBr

R OX 3CH ONaY;

X Y :-

(1) X = CH –CH–3 CH –Br2

CH3

,

Y = CH –CH–3 CH –O–CH2 3

CH3

(2) X = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

Br

, Y = CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

(3) X = CH –CH–3 CH –Br2

CH3

, Y = CH –C=3 CH2

CH3

(4) X = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

Br

, Y = CH –C–3 CH3

CH3

O–CH3

71.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

=O

X 32

3

H OBr

AlBrY Z

( )

; Z

(1)

Br

NH2

(2)

Br

OH

(3)

Br

C–NH2

=

O

(4)

Br

NH2

BrBr

72. :-

(1) CH –C–Cl3

=

O

(2) CH –C–OC H3 2 5

=

O

(3) (CH3CO)

2O (4) CH –C–NH3 2

=

O

73. sp C :

CH2=CH–CC–CH

2–CN

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4


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74.

CH –OH2

CH–OH

C=O

CH –OH2

4HIO Product obtained is :-

(1) H2C=O (2) H–COOH

(3) CO2

(4) All

75. Which is most reactive for SN2 reaction :-

(1) Cl

(2) Cl

(3) Br (4)

Cl

76. Which of the following has standard enthalpy of

formation is equal to zero :-

(1) Hg (s) (2) Xe (s)

(3) Br2 (l) (4) S

monoclinic

77. If freezing point of aqueous solution of salt MX4

( = 90%) is –3ºC then it's boiling point will be

(Assume it is 100% ionise at boiling temperature

& kf = 1.86 km–1, k

b = 0.52 km–1) :-

(1) 100.9ºC (2) 101.3ºC

(3) 102.3ºC (4) 103.3ºC

78. EMF of following concentration cell will be :-

Cl2(1 atm)|(Cl(1 M)|| Cl–(0.1 M)|Cl

2(2 atm)

(1) 0.5 V (2) 0.089 V

(3) –0.5 V (4) –0.089 V

79. The relative lowering in vapour pressure of an aqueous

solution of urea which is 6% by weight, is :-

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.8

(3) 0.019 (4) Can't predict

80. Equivalent conductivity of Cr2(SO

4)

3 is related to

molar conductivity by the expression :-

(1) eq

= m

3

(2)

eq = 3

m

(3) eq

= m

(4) eq

= m

6

81. If AB crystallizes in zinc blende structure with

B– ions at lattice points, what fraction of

tetrahedral voids is occupied by A+ ions :-

(1) 25% (2) 100%

(3) 50% (4) 75%

82. Muddy water can be purified through coagulation

using :-

(1) common salt (2) alum

(3) sand (4) lime

74.

CH –OH2

CH–OH

C=O

CH –OH2

4HIO :-

(1) H2C=O (2) H–COOH

(3) CO2

(4) 75. SN2 :-

(1) Cl

(2) Cl

(3) Br (4)

Cl

76. :-(1) Hg (s) (2) Xe (s)

(3) Br2 (l) (4) S

monoclinic

77. MX4 ( = 90%)

–3ºC (100% k

f = 1.86 km–1, k

b = 0.52 km–1) :-

(1) 100.9ºC (2) 101.3ºC

(3) 102.3ºC (4) 103.3ºC

78. :-Cl

2(1 atm)|(Cl(1 M)|| Cl–(0.1 M)|Cl

2(2 atm)

(1) 0.5 V (2) 0.089 V

(3) –0.5 V (4) –0.089 V

79. 6% :-(1) 0.2 (2) 0.8

(3) 0.019 (4) 80. Cr

2(SO

4)

3

:-

(1) eq

= m

3

(2)

eq = 3

m

(3) eq

= m

(4) eq

= m

6

81. AB B– A+ :-(1) 25% (2) 100%

(3) 50% (4) 75%

82. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


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83. What is the equivalent weight of hydrochloric acid

in given redox reaction :-

MnO2+ 4HCl MnCl

2 + 2H

2O + Cl

2

If molar mass of hydrochloric acid is M.

(1) M (2) M/2

(3) 3M/4 (4) 2M

84. In a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2, the degree of

dissociation of Mg(OH)2 is , find concentration

(C) of Mg(OH)2 if concentration of [OH–], is 2 :-

(1) (2) 2

(3) 1/ (4) 1/2

85. The rate of certain reaction depends on

concentration according to the equation

1

2

K Cdc

dt 1 K C

, what is the order, when

concentration (c) is very-very high :-

(1) zero order

(2) third order

(3) first order

(4) second order

86. What is the mole fraction of the solute in 2.5 m

aqueous solution :-

(1) 0.043 (2) 0.086 (3) 0.43 (4) 0.25

87. Which gas shows real behavior ?

(1) 16g O2 at STP occupies 11.2 L

(2) 1g H2 in 0.5 L flask exerts pressure of 24.63

atm at 300K

(3) 1 mol NH3 at 300 K and 1 atm occupies

volume 22.4 L

(4) 5.6 L of CO2 at STP is equal to 11 g

88. Which two orbital are located along the axis and

not between the axis ?

(1) 2xy zd , d (2) xy zd , d

(3) yz xd , p (4) 2 2z x yp ,d

89. For the reaction :

SnO2(s) + 2H

2(g) 2H

2O(g) + Sn(l).

Calculate Kp at 900 K where the equilibrium

steam-hydrogen mixture was 45% H2 by volume.

(1) 1.49 (2) 1.22

(3) 0.67 (4) None of these

90. 2 mol of zinc is dissolved in HCl at 25ºC. The

work done is open vessel :-

(1) –2.477 kJ (2) –4.955 kJ

(3) 0.0489 kJ (4) None of these

83. :-

MnO2+ 4HCl MnCl

2 + 2H

2O + Cl

2

M (1) M (2) M/2

(3) 3M/4 (4) 2M

84. Mg(OH)2 Mg(OH)

2

[OH–] 2 Mg(OH)

2 (C) :-

(1) (2) 2

(3) 1/ (4) 1/2

85.

1

2

K Cdc

dt 1 K C

,

(c) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

86. 2.5 m :-(1) 0.043 (2) 0.086

(3) 0.43 (4) 0.25

87. ?(1) STP 16g O

2 , 11.2 L

(2) 0.5 L 1g H2 , 300 K 24.63 atm

(3) 1 NH3 , 300K 1 atm 22.4 L

(4) STP 5.6 L CO2 , 11 g

88.

(1) 2xy zd , d (2) xy zd , d

(3) yz xd , p (4) 2 2z x yp ,d

89. :

SnO2(s) + 2H

2(g) 2H

2O(g) + Sn(l)

900 K Kp

H2 45%

(1) 1.49 (2) 1.22

(3) 0.67 (4) 90. 25ºC 2 HCl

:-(1) –2.477 kJ (2) –4.955 kJ

(3) 0.0489 kJ (4)


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91.

(A)

(B)

Identify the given figures :

(1) A - Cycas B - Ginkgo

(2) A - Cycas B - Cycas

(3) A - Ginkgo B - Cycas

(4) A - Ginkgo B - Ginkgo

92. Which of the following character is not a related

to Red Algae ?

(1) Sexual reproduction is oogamous.

(2) They occur in both well lighted areas and great

depths of oceans.

(3) The food stored in them is cyanophycean starch,

very similar to amylopectin and glycogen.

(4) They reproduce asexually by non motile spores.

93. The places where wild animals are kept in

protected environment under human care which

enable us to learn about their food habits and

behaviour is called :-

(1) Museum

(2) Botanical garden

(3) Herbarium

(4) Zoological park

94. Which of the following is/are correct

combinations with respect to their mycelium and

mode of sexual reproduction :-

(A) Albugo – Coenocytic mycelium and oogamy.

(B) Rhizopus – Aseptate mycelium and Isogamy.

(C) Puccinia – Septate mycelium and Anisogamy.

(D) Trichoderma – Septate mycelium and

conidia formation

(1) Only (A) and (B)

(2) Only (B) and (C)

(3) Only (C) and (D)

(4) Only (B) and (D)

91.

(A)

(B)

:-

(1) A - B -

(2) A - B -

(3) A - B -

(4) A - B -

92. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 94.

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (A) (B)

(2) (B) (C)

(3) (C) (D)

(4) (B) (D)


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95. The term 'Systematics' is derived from :-

(1) English word 'Systema'

(2) Greek word 'Systema'

(3) Latin word 'Systema'

(4) Hindi word 'Systema'

96. Identify the following figures (A-D).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

A B C D

(1) Euglena Chlamydo-monas

Funaria Salvinia

(2) Paramoecium Chara Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Euglena Chara Marchantia Pteridium

(4) Paramoecium Chlamydo-monas

Funaria Selaginella

95. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 96. (A-D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


20/39 0999DM610515007

97. What is prothallus ?

(1) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and

thalloid gametophyte of bryophytes

(2) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid

gametophyte of pteridophytes

(3) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid

gametophyte of bryophytes

(4) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and

photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte of

pteridophytes

98. Which structure helps in attachement of bacteria

to rocks in streams and to host tissues?

(1) Longer pili

(2) Flagella

(3) Mesosome

(4) Fimbriae

99. How many statements are correct ?

(A) Animal cells contain membrane bound

organelle called centriole which help in cell

division.

(B) Lipids are arranged within the plasma

membrane with the polar head towards the

inner sides and the hydrophobic tails towards

the outer side.

(C) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be

traversed by plasmodesmata which connect

the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.

(D) The quasi fluid nature of lipid enables lateral

movement of proteins within the overall

bilayer.

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

100. A student coming out cell fractionation of a tissue

and forgot to label his tubes. The contents of one

tube when studied showed organelles bounded by

membrane with activity of catalase enzyme.

These organelles could be :-

(1) SER

(2) Chloroplast

(3) Lysosome

(4) Peroxisome

97.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 99. ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

100. :-(1) SER

(2) (3) (4)


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101. I ensures the production of haploid phase

in the life cycle of sexually reproducing

organisms whereas II restores the diploid

phase.

Choose the correct word for I and II blanks

I II

(1) Mitosis Meiosis

(2) Mitosis Amitosis

(3) Amitosis Meiosis

(4) Meiosis Fertilisation

102. Select the pair of structure which are common in

both prokaryotes and eukaryotes cells :-

(1) Cell membrane and Mitochondria

(2) Ribosome and Lysosome

(3) Microbodies and Vacuole

(4) Cell membrane and Ribosome

103. Which statement is not true ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by

mitosis

(2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but

DNA Replication only once.

(3) In Animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell

(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are always

genetic similar

104. In which one of the following sets of animals do

all the four give birth to young ones ?

(1) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich

(2) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus

(3) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi

(4) Kangaroo, Camelus, Dolphin, Loris

105. Omithorhynchus is a :-

(1) fossil bird

(2) flightless bird

(3) Connecting link between reptiles and aves

(4) Prototherian mammal

101. I II

I II

I II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

102.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

103.

(1)

(2) DNA

(3)

(4)

104. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) ()

(4)

105. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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106. (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1)

(2)

(3) "A"

(4) A (monoecious)(dioecious)

107. :-

(A) (B)

(1) A B

(2) A B

(3) A B BA

(4) B A A B

106. (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) All these animals are aquatic, free living.

(2) All are true coelomates.

(3) "A" has radial symmetry but remaining have

bilateral symmetry.

(4) A is monoecious but remaining are dioecious.

107. Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are

given :-

(A) (B)

(1) A and B are free swimming forms

(2) A and B are sessil form

(3) A produce B asexually and B form the A

sexually

(4) B produce A asexually and A form the B

sexually.


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108. What is meant by emasculation?

(1) Pollination between flowers of same plant

(2) Pollination between flowers of different plant

(3) Removal of anthers

(4) Artificial pollination

109. Which one of the following structure found in

dicot seed will be genetically identical with it's

maternal plant?

(1) Testa

(2) Radicle

(3) Plumule

(4) Cotyledon

110. Egg apparatus of angiosperm consists of

(1) One synergid and two egg cells

(2) Two synergid and one egg cells

(3) One central cell, two synergids and three

antipodal cells

(4) One egg cell, two polar nuclei and three

antipodal cells

111. Which one of the following tissues provides

tensile strength against bending and swaying ?

(1) Parenchyma

(2) Collenchyma

(3) Sclerenchyma

(4) Aerenchyma

112. The transverse section of plant material shows the

following anatomical features under microscope:

Palisade parenchyma towards adaxial surface and

spongy parenchyma towards abaxial surface.

Conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundle

and xylem is endarch. Two distinct patches of

parenchyma are present above and below, each

of the large vascular bundle.

Plant material should be :-

(1) Isobilateral leaf

(2) Dorsiventral leaf

(3) Monocotyledonae stem

(4) Dicotyledonae stem

113. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) When stamens are attached to the perianth,

then they are epipetalous.

(2) Coconut is a parthenocarpic fruit.

(3) A seed is made up of a seed coat and embryo.

(4) Replum is present in the ovary of flower of

sunflower.

108. (1) (2) (3) (4)

109. (1) (2) (3) (4)

110. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

111. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

112. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113. (1)

(2) (3) (4)


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114. The floral formula of the given floral diagram is

Å

(f)

(1) Å K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2)

(2) Å K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(3) Å K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(4) Å K5 C(5) A(5) G(2)

115. The four diagram (A, B, C and D) given below

represent four different types of placentation.

Which one of these is correctly identified in the

option given along with its correct example?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Example

(1) (A) Basal Mastard

(2) (B) Parietal Argemone

(3) (C) Free central Tomato

(4) (D) Axile Dianthus

Types of Placentation

114. fn;s x;s iq"i fp= dk iq"i lw= gksxk

Å

(f)

(1) Å K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2)

(2) Å K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(3) Å K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(4) Å K5 C(5) A(5) G(2)

115. uhps pkj fp= (A, B, C rFkk D) fn;s x;s gS] tks pkj fofHkUuizdkj ds chtk.MU;kl dks iznf'kZr djrs gSA buesa ls fdl,d dks mnkgj.k lfgr uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lghigpkuk x;k gS\

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

mnkgj.k

(1) (A) vk/kkjh; ljlksa

(2) (B) fHkfÙk; vkftZeksu

(3) (C) eqDr v{kh; VekVj

(4) (D) v{kh; Mk;,UFkl

chtk.MU;kl dk çdkj


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116. In cockroaches digestive juices are secreted by:-

(1) Malpighian tubles

(2) Epithelium of crop

(3) Epithelium of Gizzard

(4) Hepatic caecae

117.

The above diagram shows a type of dense

connective tissue. Which of the following is

example of such tissue :-

(1) Tendon (2) Ligament

(3) Skin (4) Both (1) & (2)

118. Following are the epithelial tissues specialised for

secretion and are included under glandular

epithelium :-

(1) Columnar and squamous

(2) Columnar and cuboidal

(3) Squamous and cuboidal

(4) Squamous, columnar and cuboidal

119. At the time of protein synthesis which group of

first amino acid is involved in peptide bond

formation?

(1) only – COOH

(2) only – NH2

(3) Both – COOH and –NH2

(4) Alcoholic

120. RuBisCO is a type of :-

(1) Simple fibrous protein

(2) Simple globular protein

(3) Conjugated protein

(4) Derived protein

121. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar

through :

(1) Phosphodiester linkage

(2) N-glycosidic linkage

(3) Ester linkage

(4) Phosphoester linkage

116. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

117.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) (2)

118. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 119.

(1) – COOH

(2) – NH2

(3) – COOH –NH2

(4) 120. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

121. (1) (2) N-

(3)

(4)


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122. How many rounds of Krebs cycle will be required

to produce 6 FADH2 molecules ?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 24

123. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH2 during

anaerobic respiration gives rise to :-

(1) 3 ATP (2) 6 ATP

(3) 1.5 ATP (4) 0 ATP

124. Which of the following is not a C4 plant ?

(1) Sugarcame (2) Rice

(3) Maize (4) Sorghum125. Study the pathway given below :

Atmospheric CO2

HCO3– Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

C acid4

C

C acid3

Transport

C acid4

B

Transport

C acid3

CO2

Fixation by Calvin cycle

Plasmodesmata

Bundle sheath

cell

Mesophyll cell

Plasma membrane

Cell wall

In which of the following options correct words

for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

A B C

(1) Fixation Transamination Regeneration

(2) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration

(3) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction

(4) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration

126. Mineral that required for growth of pollen tube

is :-

(1) Ca (2) B

(3) Mn (4) Cu

122. 6 FADH2 Krebs cycle

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 24

123. NADH2

:-(1) 3 ATP (2) 6 ATP

(3) 1.5 ATP (4) 0 ATP

124. C4 ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

125.

CO2

HCO3–

A

C acid4

C

C acid3

C acid4

B

C acid3

CO2

A, B C

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

126. :-(1) Ca (2) B

(3) Mn (4) Cu


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127. w of pure water at standard temperature which

is not under any pressure is taken to be :-

(1) Equal to s (2) Equal to TP

(3) Zero (4) Equal to OP

128. Movement of water through endodermis is :-

(1) Symplastic

(2) Through intercellular spaces

(3) Apoplastic

(4) By non living component of cell

129. Hormone that promote nutrient mobilisation

which helps in the delay of leaf senescence :-

(1) GA (2) ABA

(3) Ethylene (4) CK

130. Match the columns and choose the correct

option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Salivary amylase (I) Proteins

(B) Bile Salts (II) Milk protein

(C) Rennin (III) Starch

(D) Pepsin (IV) Lipids

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

131. An arrangement of teeth on jaw bone in humanbeings are shown in given below diagram anddifferent types of four teeth are labelled byalphabets A, B, C and D.Which one of these is not correctly identified inthe option, given along with its structure andfunciton ?

A

B

C

D

Teeth Structure Function

(1) B CaninesLong &pinpointed

Tearing &shearing

(2) C Premolars Ractangular Gnawing

(3) D Molars Ractangular Chewing

(4) A IncisorsChiselshaped

Cutting /gnawing

127.

w :-

(1) s (2) TP

(3) (4) OP 128. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

129. :-(1) GA (2) ABA

(3) (4) CK

130.

-I -II

(A) (I)

(B) (II)

(C) (III)

(D) (IV)

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

131. A, B, C D ?

A

B

C

D

(1) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) A


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132.

–70 mV

+35 mV :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

133. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

134. Na+

K+

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135. I II :-

I II

a (i)

b (ii)

c (iii) Ca+2

d (iv) CaCO3

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii i iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) ii iv i iii

132. The series of events that leads to cancellation of

negative charge inside axon and then becoming zero

inside and then it become –70 mV to +35 mV is

known as :-

(1) Hyperpolarisation

(2) Depolorisation

(3) Resting state

(4) Repolarisation

133. A synapse is formed by membrane of presynaptic

neuron & post synaptic neuron which may not be

seprated by a gap called synaptic cleft it is :-

(1) Chemical synapse

(2) Neuro musculer junction

(3) Electric synapse

(4) Inter cellular spall

134. Reabsorption of Na+ along with excretion of K+

is controlled by which one of the following

hormones?

(1) Prostaglondins

(2) Aldosterone

(3) Estrogen

(4) Cortisol

135. Match the Column I with Column II :-

Column I Column II

a Myastheniagravis

(i) Increased size ofthyroid

b Tetany (ii) Affect neuromusculer junction

c Goitre (iii) Decreased Ca+2

d Calculi (iv) Accumulation ofCaCO

3

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii i iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) ii iv i iii


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136. Select the option with correct description of thestructures labelled as A,B,C,D and E in theadjacent figure showing sectional view ofCochlea:-

A

C

B

D

E

(1) A – Filled with perilymph

C – Seperates scala vestibuli from scala tympani

(2) B – Located on basilar membrane

D – Terminates at the oval window

(3) B – Contains hair cells that acts as an auditory

receptors

E – Thin elastic membrane against which hair

cells are pressed.

(4) A – Ends at the oval window

D – Filled with endolymph

137. Find out the incorrect statement

(1) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires

large amount of water for its elimination.

(2) Kidneys do not play any significant role in

ammonia removal.

(3) Human kidneys can produce only hypertonic

urine nearly five times concentrated than the

initial filtrate.

(4) Urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of

some animals to maintain a desired

osmolarity.

138. In which the following animals is correctly

matched with its waste product and excretory

structures?

Animal Waste Excretory

Product structure

(1) Frog NH3 Kidney

(2) Earthworm Urea Nephridia

(3) Cockroach Urea Malpighian tubules

(4) Prawn NH3 Protonephridia

136. A,B,C,D E :-

A

C

B

D

E

(1) A – C –

(2) B – D –

(3) B – E –

(4) A – D –

137. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

138.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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139. (A-D) :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

140. ?

(1)

(2) 9th 10th

(3)

(4)

141. :-(i) H

(ii)

(iii) (inspired) (Vital capacity)

(iv) CO2P O2

P CO2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

142. ?

(1) CO2 H

(2) CO2 H

(3) CO2 H

(4) CO2 H

139. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) In amphibia and reptiles incomplete double

circulation present.

(B) In arthropods and molluscs open circulatory

system present.

(C) In joint diastole stage semilunar valves are

closed.

(D) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from

intestine to the kidney.

How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

140. Which one of the following is the correct

description of a certain part of a normal human

skeleton ?

(1) First vertebrae is axis, which articulates with

occipital condyles

(2) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called

floating ribs

(3) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the

thigh bone articulates

(4) Parietal bone and temporal bone of the skull

are joined by fibrous joint

141. Read the following statements :-

(i) High H

concentration and higher temperature

are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from

oxyhaemoglobin

(ii) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher

than in tissue

(iii) The maximum volume of air a person can

breathe in, after a forced expiration is vital

capacity

(iv) In alveoli low CO2P and high O2

P are the

factors for dissociation of CO2 from

carbamino-haemoglobin

How many statements are correct ?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

142. Which of the following can activate the

chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the

rhythm centre ?

(1) High CO2 concentration, less H

concentration

(2) High CO2 concentration, high H

concentration

(3) Less CO2 concentration, high H

concentration

(4) Less CO2 concentration, less H

concentration


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143. Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac

cycle :-

(1) Joint diastole Atrial systole

Ventricular systole

(2) Joint diastole Atrial diastole

Venctricular systole

(3) Ventricular systole Atrial systole

Joint diastole

(4) Atrial systole Joint diastole

Ventricular systole

144. The functional unit of muscle contraction is

(1) Muscle fibre

(2) Myofibril

(3) Sarcomere

(4) Actin and Myosin protein

145. In a dihybrid (MmNn), if one gene is dominant

and another gene is incomplete dominant then, on

selfing what will be genotypic ratio:-

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2

(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

146. In F2-generation genotype and phenotypic ratio is

same, in case of :-

(1) Co-dominance

(2) Incomplete dominance

(3) Test cross

(4) All the above

147. The phenomenon in which allele of one gene

supress the activity of an allele of another gene

is known as :-

(1) Epistasis (2) Duplicate gene

(3) Recessive (4) Complementary

148. A colourblind man has a colourblind sister, but

a normal brother, then his mother would be -

(1) Colourblind

(2) Completely normal

(3) Normal but carrier

(4) May be carrier or colourblind

143.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

144.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

145. (MmNn)

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2

(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

146. F2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

147.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

148. -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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149. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4) DNA

150. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

151. S35 :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

152. :-

(1) (AUG)

(2) (UAA or UAG or UGA)

(3) (UTR)

(4)

153. Alcoholic alcohol :-

(1) Wine Beer

(2) Beer Brandy

(3) Wine Vodka

(4) Brandy Beer

154. transformants

:-

(1) Restriction site (2) Ori site

(3) Selectable marker (4) Rop site

155. (marbeting)

(1)

(2) Upstream

(3)

(4)

156. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. In transcription unit, the definition of coding andtemplate strand could be reversed if :-(1) Position of promoter & terminator could be

changed(2) Direction of coding strand is changed(3) Direction of template strand is changed(4) DNA is supercoiled

150. The RNA polymerase is only capable ofcatalysing the process of :-(1) Initiation (2) Elongation

(3) Termination (4) Modification

151. In Hershey & chase experiment radioactive S35

detected in :-

(1) Supernatant (2) Pellet

(3) Both (4) None

152. Which of the following is not include in translation

unit :-

(1) Start codon (AUG)

(2) Stop codon (UAA or UAG or UGA)

(3) UTR (Untranslated unit)

(4) Translated region

153. Alcoholic beverages having maximum &

minimum alcoholic content respectively are :-

(1) Wine & Beer

(2) Beer & Brandy

(3) Wine & Vodka

(4) Brandy & Beer

154. In a vector which of the following is helpful in

selection of transformants :-

(1) Restriction site (2) Ori site

(3) Selectable marker (4) Rop site

155. After the formation of products in the bioreactors

if undergoes through some processes, before a

finished product to be ready for marketing is

called?

(1) Elution

(2) Upstream processing

(3) Downstream processing

(4) Transformation

156. First transgenic plant was tobacco and it contains

resistant gene for –

(1) Insect resistant

(2) Herbicide resistant/weedicide resistant

(3) Pest resistant

(4) Frost resistant


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157.

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

158. (a-d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

:-

(1) a, b c (2) a, b d

(3) a b (4) a, b, c d

159. S.L.

(1)

(2) CH4, H

2 NH

3 2 : 2 : 1

(3)

(4)

160. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 55 kg

161. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

157. Mark the incorrectly matched pair ?

(1) Lemur and spotted cuscus-convergent evolution

(2) Flippers of penguins and Dolphins-Analogous

organs

(3) Tiger Cat, Koala, Kangaroo, Numbat etc-

Adaptive radiation

(4) Industrial melanism [peppered moth]-

stabilising selection

158. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the correct

ones only.

(a) Natural selection always causes adaptive

changes in population.

(b) Antibiotic resistant microbe population is

evolved by human activity

(c) Evolution is a determined process

(d) Evolution is a chance event

Options :-

(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d

(3) a and b (4) a, b, c and d

159. All of the following arrangements were made by

S.L. Miller to create primitive earth like

conditions in a laboratory scale, except one :-

(1) Electric discharge as a source of energy

(2) Closed flask containing CH4, H

2, NH

3 in the

ratio of 2 : 2 : 1

(3) Placing dead yeasts in a presterilised flask

(4) Water vapour through boiling water and

torrential rain through condensor.

160. In which of the following conditions absence of

menstrual flow will not be possible ?

(1) A woman under severe stress.

(2) A woman with reproductive health condition

(3) A pregnant female

(4) A woman having 55 kg weight

161. Saheli, a female antifertility pill is

used ?

(1) Daily (2) Weekly

(3) Quarterly (4) Monthly


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162. If fertilization of released ovum does not take place

then corpus luteum start degenerating on :-

(1) 9th day of its formation

(2) 9th day of menstrual cycle

(3) On 5th day of menstrual cycle

(4) On 23rd day of its formation

163. Which are incorrect about ecological pyramids:

(1)

Ecosystem Biomass Energy Number

Tree

(2) Lake

(3) GrassLand

(4) Ocean

164.

CD

A

B

Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases

to total global warming is given in circle. Indentify

correct option.

(A) Most abundant natural hydrocarbon

(B) Release from fertilizer industries

(C) Major product by burning of biomass

(D) Main responsible gas for ozone depletion

(1) A, B, C, D (2) D, A

(3) C, B (4) A, B

165. In 'rivet popper hypothemis' (Paul Ehrlich) rivet

indicates :

(1) Ecosystem (2) Biosphere

(3) Organism (4) Species

162. :-(1) 9 (2) 9 (3) 5 (4) 23

163. :

(1)

Ecosystem Biomass Energy Number

Tree

(2) Lake

(3) GrassLand

(4) Ocean

164.

CD

A

B

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, C, D (2) D, A

(3) C, B (4) A, B

165.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


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166. Match the column-I with II

Column -I Column -II

(A) Dodo (i) Africa

(B) Quagga (ii) Bali, Javan

(C) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(D) Steller seacow (iv) Australia

(E) Tiger subspecies (v) Russia

A B C D E

1 iv ii i v iii

2 iii iv ii i iii

3 iii i iv v ii

4 iii v iv i ii

167. Basic unit of ecology is :-

(1) Population (2) Ecosphere

(3) Organism (4) Community

168. Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) U.N. conferenceof humanenvironment

(a) Switzerland

(ii) IUCN headoffice situated at

(b) Rio dejanerrio

(iii) United nationsconference ondesertificationheld at

(c) Stockhom

(iv) UNCED earthsubmmit held at

(d) Nairobi(Kenya)

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b

(2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

(3) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a

(4) (i) d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a

166. -I -II

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(E) (v)

A B C D E

1 iv ii i v iii

2 iii iv ii i iii

3 iii i iv v ii

4 iii v iv i ii

167. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

168. :-

-I -II

(i) U.N.

(a)

(ii) IUCN headoffice

(b)

(iii)

(c)

(iv) UNCED

(d)

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b

(2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

(3) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a

(4) (i) d (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a


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169. Which statement is true concerning this food

chain ?

Grass Rabbits Snakes Hawk

(1) Each population is omnivores

(2) Each predator population has a greater biomass

than its prey population

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Each population has a greater biomass than its

predator population.

170. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

(A) Ecology at organismic level is essentially

(A) ecology which tries to understand

adaptation of organism to their environment

(B) The physicochemical components of the

habitat are (B) .

(C) The (C) census in our national parks and

biosphere reserves is often based on pug

marks and fecal pellets

Options:-

(1) A-Physical, B-Biotic

(2) A-Population, C-Lion

(3) B-Biotic, C-Siberian crane

(4) B-Abiotic, C-Tiger

171. The most hazardous metal pollutant form

automobile exhaust is :-

(1) Lead

(2) Mercury

(3) Copper

(4) Cadmium

172. Which of the following will not suffer from

minimata disease ?

(1) Rabbit

(2) Seal

(3) Fish

(4) All of these

173. DDT is categorised under :-

(1) Non-biodegradable pollutants

(2) Primary pollutants

(3) Qualitative pollutants

(4) All of these

169.

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) (2)

(4)

170.

(A) (A)

(B) (B)

(C) (C)_

(1) A-, B-

(2) A-, C-

(3) B-, C-

(4) B-, C-

171. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

172. (1) (2) (3) (4)

173. DDT :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


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174.

(1) IgM

(2)

(3)

(4)

175.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(1) A B

(2) A , B D

(3) A, C, D E

(4) B E

176. ?

(1) Diphtheria

(2) Dengue fever

(3) Typhoid

(4) Malaria

177.

(1) MRI

(2) CT-

(3)

(4)

178. :-

TN–1, -66

(1) 1 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 3

174. When our body is exposed to antigen for second

time a relatively faster and high intensity immune

response is produced. What is not true about this

response ?

(1) Main antibody formed is IgM

(2) Based on memory cells

(3) Also known as anamnestic response

(4) Gives effective immunity

175. Please read following sentences carefully .

(A) Injection of antiserum is artificial method to

induce active immunity.

(B) Skin cells forms cellular barriers of non specific

immunity.

(C) When our body is exposed to antigen for the

first time, a slow and low intensity immune

response is produced.

(D) Blood group and tissue matching is done

before transplantation.

(E) Blood circulation was discovered by William

Harvey.

Which of the above mentioned statements are

false..

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A , B and D

(3) Only A ,C ,D and E

(4) Only B and E

176. Widal test is done for ?

(1) Diphtheria

(2) Dengue fever

(3) Typhoid

(4) Malaria

177. The crystal of lead zirconate is key component of

(1) MRI

(2) CT-Scan

(3) Electrocardiography

(4) Sonography

178. Among the following how many varieties are

improved varieties of wheat :-

Jaya, Sonalika, Ratna, Kalyan sona, TN–1,

Sharbati sonora, Atlas-66

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3


38/39 0999DM610515007

179. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

180. ?

(1) MOET

(2)

(3)

(4)

179. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any

cell/explant is called :-

(1) Somatic embryogenesis

(2) Tissue culture

(3) Totipotency

(4) Micropropagation

180. Which of the following technology is used for

induced breeding in fishes ?

(1) MOET

(2) Hypophysation

(3) Intra uterine insemination

(4) Artifical Insemination

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