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Test Type : MAJOR [EX-ALLEN] Test Pattern : NEET

TEST DATE : 03 - 07 - 2016

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat

only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination

and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3180720

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

1

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET- II 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

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Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along withPaper code and Your Form No.

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Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSETARGET : NEET - II 2016

Paper Code : 0999DM610515005

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

1/360999DM610515005

Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/03-07-2016

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. An ideal gas expands in such a way that

PV2 = constant throughout the process.

(1) In the process, T-V diagram is a parabola

(2) In the process, T-V diagram is a straight line

(3) Such an expansion is possible only with

heating

(4) Such an expansion is possible only with cooling

2. In YDSE the separation between the slits is halved

and the distance between slit and the screen is

doubled. The fringe width is :-

(1) unchanged (2) halved

(3) doubled (4) four times

3. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very

slowly (see the figure). The coefficient of friction

between the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the

line joining the centre of the hemispherical surface

to the insect makes an angle with the vertical,

the maximum possible value of is given by

O

R

Insect

(1) cot = 3 (2) tan = 3

(3) sec = 3 (4) cosec = 3

4. A nucleus nmX emits one particle and two

– particles. The resulting nucleus is :-

(1)

m 6n 4 Z (2) m 6

n Z

(3) m 4n X (4)

m 4n 2 Y

5. A block of ice at –20°C having a mass of 2 kg

is added to a 3 kg water at 15°C. Neglecting heat

losses and the heat capacity of the container :-

(1) The final temperature will be 0°C.

(2) Ice will completely melt

(3) Water will partially freeze

(4) Final temperature will be more than 0°C

1. PV2 =

(1) T-V

(2) T-V

(3)

(4)

2. YDSE :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

3.

( )

1/3

:-

O

R

(1) cot = 3 (2) tan = 3

(3) sec = 3 (4) cosec = 3

4. nmX, (–)

(1)

m 6n 4 Z (2) m 6

n Z

(3) m 4n X (4)

m 4n 2 Y

5. 2 kg –20°C 15°C

3 kg

(1) 0°C

(2)

(3)

(4) 0°C

2/36 0999DM610515005

Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/03-07-2016

6. A fresh radioactive sample is given at t = 0. Its

decay fraction are 1

5at t1 instant and

4

5 at t2

instant. Its mean life is :-

(1)2 1t t

ln 2

(2)

2 1t t

ln 4

(3) 2 1t t

2

(4)

2 1t t

4

7. The resultant of two vectors P

and Q

is R

. If

Q

is doubled then the new resultant vector is

perpendicular to ' P

'. R is equal to :

(1)

2 2P Q

2PQ

(2) Q

(3) P

Q(4)

P Q

P Q

8. Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to

Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:-

(1) 9

31(2)

5

27

(3) 3

23(4)

7

29

9. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards

each other under the action of their internal attraction.

If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the

speed of centre of mass of the system will be :-

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) Zero (4) 1.5 v

10. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and

that of 24He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused

to form one 24He then the energy released is :-

(1) 25.8 MeV (2) 23.6 MeV

(3) 19.2 MeV (4) 30.2 MeV

6. t = 0

t1 1

5 t2

4

5

:-

(1)2 1t t

ln 2

(2)

2 1t t

ln 4

(3) 2 1t t

2

(4)

2 1t t

4

7. PQR

Q

P

R

(1)

2 2P Q

2PQ

(2) Q

(3) P

Q(4)

P Q

P Q

8. :-

(1) 9

31(2)

5

27

(3) 3

23(4)

7

29

9. v 2v :-

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) (4) 1.5 v

10. 2.2 MeV 24He 28 MeV

24He

:-

(1) 25.8 MeV (2) 23.6 MeV

(3) 19.2 MeV (4) 30.2 MeV

3/360999DM610515005


11. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a

transition from A to B along a path AB as shown

in the figure,

A

B

5

2

4 6

V(in m )3

P(in kPa)

The change in internal energy of the gas during

the transition is :

(1) –20 kJ (2) 20 J

(3) –12 kJ (4) 20 kJ

12. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of

a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The

gravitational potential at a point situated at

a

2 distance from the centre, will be :-

(1) GM

a

(2)

2GM

a

(3)

3GM

a

(4)

4GM

a

13. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1

and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the

voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively :

V1 V2 V3

A

L C R=100

220V, 50Hz

(1) 100 V, 2.0 A (2) 150 V, 2.2 A

(3) 220 V, 2.2 A (4) 220 V, 2.0 A

14. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the

horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its

highest point as seen from the point of projection, is:-

(1) 45° (2) 60°

(3) tan–1

12 (4) tan–1

32

11. 1 AB A B

A

B

5

2

4 6

V(in m )3

P(in kPa)

:

(1) –20 kJ (2) 20 J

(3) –12 kJ (4) 20 kJ

12. M a

a

2

:-

(1) GM

a

(2)

2GM

a

(3)

3GM

a

(4)

4GM

a

13. V1 V

2

300 V3 A

:

V1 V2 V3

A

L C R=100

220V, 50Hz

(1) 100 V, 2.0 A (2) 150 V, 2.2 A

(3) 220 V, 2.2 A (4) 220 V, 2.0 A

14. 45° :-

(1) 45° (2) 60°

(3) tan–1

12 (4) tan–1

32

4/36 0999DM610515005


15. A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating

in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with

a constant angular speed i. Another disk of

moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the

rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero

angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate

with a constant angular speed f. The energy lost

by the initially rotating disc to friction is :-

(1)

2b ti

t b

I I12 I I (2)

22bi

t b

I12 I I

(3)

22ti

t b

I12 I I (4)

2b ti

t b

I II I

16. Water rises to height 'h' in capillary tube. If the

length of capillary tube above the surface of water

is made less than 'h', then -

(1) water does not rise at all.

(2) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and

then starts overflowing like a fountain.

(3) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and

stays there without overflowing.

(4) water rises upto a point a little below the top

and stays there.

17. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed

on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above

the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on

the spring so that the spring is compressed by a

distance d. The net work done in the process is:-

(1) mg (h–d) + 12

Kd2 (2) mg (h+d) +12

Kd2

(3) mg (h+d) – 12

Kd2 (4) mg (h–d) – 12

Kd2

18. The centre of mass of a body :

(1) Lies always outside the body

(2) May lie within, outside or on the surface of

the body

(3) Lies always inside the body

(4) Lies always on the surface of the body

19. The centre of mass of two masses m & m' moves

by distance x

5 when mass m is moved by distance

x and m' is kept fixed. The ratio m '

m is :-

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/4 (4) None of these

15. It i Ib f :-

(1)

2b ti

t b

I I12 I I (2)

22bi

t b

I12 I I

(3)

22ti

t b

I12 I I (4)

2b ti

t b

I II I

16. 'h' 'h' (1) (2)

(3)

(4)

17. K m h d

(1) mg (h–d) + 12

Kd2 (2) mg (h+d) +12

Kd2

(3) mg (h+d) – 12

Kd2 (4) mg (h–d) – 12

Kd2

18. (1) (2) (3) (4)

19. m m' x

5

m' m x

m '

m :-

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/4 (4)

5/360999DM610515005


20. A car P approaching a crossing at a speed of

10 m/s sounds a horn of frequency 700 Hz when

40 m in front of the crossing. Speed of sound in

air is 340 m/s. Another car Q is at rest on a road

which is perpendicular to the road on which car

P is reaching the crossing (see figure). The driver

of car Q hears the sound of the horn of car P when

he is 30 m in front of the crossing. The apparent

frequency heard by the driver of car Q is

P40m Crossing

30 m

Q

(1) 700 Hz (2) 717 Hz

(3) 1000 Hz (4) 679 Hz

21. The work done by a force F

= 3ˆ6x i N, in

displacing a particle from x = 4 m to x = –2 m is :-

(1) 360 J (2) 240 J

(3) –240 J (4) –360J

22. A particle moves along a straight line such that

its displacement at any time t is given by :

s = (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m

The displacement when the acceleration becomes

zero is :-

(1) 0 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) –2 m

23. Two large holes are cut in a metal sheet. If this

is heated, distances AB and BC, (as shown)

A BC

(1) both will increase

(2) both will decrease

(3) AB increases, BC decreases

(4) AB decreases, BC increases

24. If an electric heater is rated at 1000 W, then the

time required to heat one litre of water from 20°C

to 60°C is:-

(1) 1 min 24 sec (2) 2 min 48 sec

(3) 4 min 17 sec (4) 5 min 36 sec

20. P 10 /40

700

340 /Q

() Q P

30 Q

P40m Crossing

30 m

Q

(1) 700 (2) 717

(3) 1000 (4) 679

21. F

= 3ˆ6x i N x = 4 m

x = –2 m :-

(1) 360 J (2) 240 J (3) –240 J (4) –360J

22. t :

s = (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m

:-

(1) 0 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) –2 m

23. AB BC ()

A BC

(1)

(2)

(3) AB BC

(4) AB BC

24. 1000 W, 20°C 60°C :-

(1) 1 min 24 sec (2) 2 min 48 sec

(3) 4 min 17 sec (4) 5 min 36 sec

6/36 0999DM610515005


25. If wire of length L form a loop of radius R and

have n turn. Find magnetic field at centre of loop

if current flowing in loop is I :-

(1)20

2

IL

4 R

(2)20

2

IL n

4 R

(3)2 2

0I 4 n

4 L

(4)0

4

I 42n2 × L

26. Three capacitors 1, 2 and 4F are connected in

series to a 10 volt source. The charge on the plates

of middle capacitor is:-

(1) 7 C (2) 40

C7

(3)20

C7 (4)

1C

7

27. Force between A and B is F. If 75% charge of A is

transferred to B then force between A and B is :

A B

Q4Q

(1)F

4(2) 4F

(3) F (4) None

28. In the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the

reading of ammeter A is:-

2

4

0.3

12

1.5 VA

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A (3) 3 A (4) 4 A

25. L R n I :-

(1)20

2

IL

4 R

)

(2)20

2

IL n

4 R

(3)2 2

0I 4 n

4 L

(4)0

4

I 42n2 × L

26. 1, 2 4F 10 volt :-

(1) 7 C (2) 40

C7

(3)20

C7 (4)

1C

7

27. A B F A 75% B A B :

A B

Q4Q

(1)F

4(2) 4F

(3) F (4)

28. A :-

2

4

0.3

12

1.5 VA

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A (3) 3 A (4) 4 A

7/360999DM610515005


29. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the

plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation

between its plates is 'd'. The space between the

plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of

the dielectrics has dielectric constant K1=3 and

thickness d

3 while the other one has dielectric

constant K2 = 6 and thickness 2d

3. Capacitance

of the capacitor is now:-

(1) 1.8 pF (2) 45 pF

(3) 40.5 pF (4) 20.25 pF

30. A coil of 50 turns and 4cm radius carries 2A

current then magnetic field at its centre is :-

(1) 3.14 mT (2) 157 mT

(3) 15.7 mT (4) 1.57 mT

31. In order to shift a body of mass m from a circular

orbit of radius 3R to a higher radius 5R around

the earth, the work done is :-

(1)3GMm

5R(2)

1 GMm

15 R

(3)GMm

2R(4)

GMm

5R

32. Heat is supplied to a di-atomic gas at constant

pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is :-

(1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3

(3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5

33. The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R

and an inductor of inductance L are connected in

series in an AC circuit of frequency f is :-

(1) 2 2 2R 2 f L (2) 2 2 2R 4 f L

(3) 2 2 2 2R 4 f L (4) 2 2 2 2R 2 f L

34. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an

arc of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the

centre; then the new magnetic moment is :-

(1) (2M/) (2) (M/)

(3) (3 3 M/) (4) (3M/)

29.

9 pF 'd'

K1= 3 d

3

K2 = 6

2d

3

:-

(1) 1.8 pF (2) 45 pF

(3) 40.5 pF (4) 20.25 pF

30. 50 4 2A

(1) 3.14 mT (2) 157 mT

(3) 15.7 mT (4) 1.57 mT

31. m 3R 5R :-

(1)3GMm

5R(2)

1 GMm

15 R

(3)GMm

2R(4)

GMm

5R

32. Q : U : W :-

(1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3

(3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5

33. R L f AC :-

(1) 2 2 2R 2 f L (2) 2 2 2R 4 f L

(3) 2 2 2 2R 4 f L (4) 2 2 2 2R 2 f L

34. M 60°

:-

(1) (2M/) (2) (M/)

(3) (3 3 M/) (4) (3M/)

8/36 0999DM610515005


35. The magnetic needle of a tangent galvanometer

is deflected at an angle 30° due to a magnet. The

horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

is 0.34 × 10–4 T which is along the plane of the

coil. The magnetic field due to magnet is :-

(1) 1.96 × 10–4 T (2) 1.96 × 10–5 T

(3) 1.96 × 104 T (4) 1.96 × 105 T

36. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a

current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point

O (common centre of all the three arcs) is :-

(1) 05 I

24 r

r

r

r

I

O

(2) 0I

24 r

(3) 011 I

24 r

(4) zero

37. Current I flows through a long conducting wire

bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The

magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector

of the angle XOY at a distance r from O is :-

45°XO

I

r

P

I

Y

(1) 0I

r

(2)

02 I

r

(3) 0I

( 2 1)4 r

(4)

0 2I( 2 1)

4 r

38. A man moves towards a plane mirror with a

velocity v in a direction making an angle with

the normal to the mirror. The magnitude of

velocity of the image relative to man normal to

mirror will be

(1) 2 v (2) 2 v cos

(3) 2 v sin (4) 2v/cos

35. 30° 0.34 × 10–4 T :-

(1) 1.96 × 10–4 T (2) 1.96 × 10–5 T

(3) 1.96 × 104 T (4) 1.96 × 105 T

36. I 'O' () :-

(1) 05 I

24 r

r

r

r

I

O

(2) 0I

24 r

(3) 011 I

24 r

(4)

37. I XOY O r P :-

45°XO

I

r

P

I

Y

(1) 0I

r

(2)

02 I

r

(3) 0I

( 2 1)4 r

(4)

0 2I( 2 1)

4 r

38. v

(1) 2 v (2) 2 v cos

(3) 2 v sin (4) 2v/cos

9/360999DM610515005


39. A concave mirror gives an image three times as

large as the object placed at a distance of 20 cm

from it. For the image to be real, the focal length

should be -

(1) –10 cm (2) –15 cm

(3) –20 cm (4) –30 cm

40. Which is incorrect :-

(1) The angle of dip at magnetic poles is 90°

(2) Due to earth magnetic field cosmic particles

which coming from space can never reach the

magnetic equator.

(3) At magnetic poles density of cosmic particles

is maximum

(4) Magnetic meridian is a straight line.

41. The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused

by -

(1) drift of holes

(2) diffusion of charge carriers

(3) migration of impurity ions

(4) drift of electrons

42. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming linearly

polarised light of intensity I0. Now the intensity

of light passing through the polaroid after

polarisation would be-

(1) I0 (2) I0/2 (3) I0/4 (4) zero

43. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minute.

The time between 20% and 80% decay will be-

(1) 20 min (2) 40 min

(3) 30 min (4) 25 min

44. A potential difference of 20 kV is applied

across an X-ray tube. The minimum

wavelength of X-rays generated (in Å) is -

(1) 0.62 (2) 1.24 (3) 0.31 (4) 6.2

45. In the following common emitter circuit if

= 100, VCE = 7V, VBE = Negligible, RC = 2k,

then IB is :-

B

RB

iB

E

C

RC

iC

15V

(1) 0.01 mA (2) 0.04 mA

(3) 0.02 mA (4) 0.03 mA

39. 20 cm

(1) –10 cm (2) –15 cm

(3) –20 cm (4) –30 cm

40. :-

(1) 90°

(2)

(3)

(4)

41. p-n -

(1) (holes)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42.

I0 45°

-

(1) I0 (2) I0/2 (3) I0/4 (4)

43. 20 20%

80% -

(1) 20 min (2) 40 min

(3) 30 min (4) 25 min

44. X- 20 X- (Å ) -(1) 0.62 (2) 1.24 (3) 0.31 (4) 6.2

45. = 100, V

CE = 7V, V

BE = RC

= 2k IB

B

RB

iB

E

C

RC

iC

15V

(1) 0.01 mA (2) 0.04 mA

(3) 0.02 mA (4) 0.03 mA

10/36 0999DM610515005


46. Incorrect statements among the following is/are :-

(1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic

(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonding atoms

(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide

(4) None of these are incorrect

47. Tetrahalides of group 14 elements (except that of

carbon) act as :-

(1) Reducing agents (2) Lewis acid

(3) Lewis bases (4) None of these

48. Find the correct option :-

(1) NH3 < NF

3 (Dipole moment)

(2) CO < CO2 [C–O bond length]

(3) NH2– > NH4

+ (Bond angle)

(4) I3– < N

3– [lone pair of electron]

49. Select correct about the following change :-

NO2+ NO

2 NO

2–

(1) Increase of N–O bond order

(2) Decrease of O–N–O bond angle

(3) Decrease of N–O bond length

(4) All of the above

50. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Both SO2 and ClF

3 are polar and planar.

(2) N–H bond length is more in N2H

4 as

compared to N2H

2.

(3) Anionic part of PCl5(s) has octahedral

structure.

(4) KO2, O

2 and BaO

2 are paramagnetic.

51. Which is incorrect match :-

(1) Borax; cyclic compound having 2 six membered

ring.

(2) P4O10;cyclic compound having 4 six membered

rings.

(3) Beryl; cyclic silicate in which 12 oxygen

atoms are monovalent.

(4) (HPO3)3; cyclic compound in which 3 P–P

linkage are present

46. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Al2O3 BeO

(4)

47. 14 () :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

48. :-

(1) NH3 < NF

3 ()

(2) CO < CO2 [C–O ]

(3) NH2– > NH4

+ ()

(4) I3– < N

3– [e– ]

49. :-

NO2+ NO

2 NO

2–

(1) N–O

(2) O–N–O

(3) N–O

(4)

50. ?

(1) SO2 ClF

3

(2) N2H

4 N–H N

2H

2

(3) PCl5(s)

(4) KO2, O

2 BaO

2

51. :-

(1) ; 2

(2) P4O10; 4

(3) ;12

(4) (HPO3)3; 3 P–P

11/360999DM610515005


52. Which of the following is not correct for given

reaction :-

XeF6 2H OA 2H OB 2H OC

(1) C is XeO3 and pyramidal in shape

(2) B is XeOF2

(3) A is XeOF4 and has sp3d2 hybridisation

(4) A, B and C have same oxidation state of Xe

53. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-

(1) ZnCO3 Zn Calcination followed by

smelting

(2) Al(OH)3 Al Calcination followed by

electrolytic reduction

(3) PbS Pb Partial roasting followedby self reduction

(4) Cu2S Cu Roasting followed by

carbon reduction

54. The yellow colour solution of Na2CrO

4 changes

to orange red on passing CO2 gas due to the

formation of :-

(1) CrO5

(2) CrO3

(3) Na2Cr2O7 (4) Cr2O3

55. Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) [Pt(NO3)

2(en)

2]2+ complex ion can show

linkage isomerism

(2) [Cr(CO3)(NH

3)

4]Br can show ionization

isomerism

(3) FeCl3. 6H2O can show hydrate isomerism

(4) [FeCl3(NH3)3] can exhibit structural isomerism

56. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) NO+ (2) CO

(3) O2– (4) CN–

57. Which one of the following does not correctly represent

the order of the property indicated against it ?

(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn – increasing melting point

(2) Ti < V < Mn < Cr – Increasing 2nd ionisation

enthalpy

(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn – Increasing number of

oxidation states

(4) Ti+3 < V+3 < Cr+3 < Mn+3 increasing magnetic

moment

52. :-

XeF6 2H OA 2H OB 2H OC

(1) C XeO3

(2) B XeOF2

(3) A XeOF4 sp3d2

(4) A, B C Xe

53. :-

(1) ZnCO3 Zn

(2) Al(OH)3 Al

(3) PbS Pb

(4) Cu2S Cu

54. Na2CrO4 CO2

:-

(1) CrO5 (2) CrO3

(3) Na2Cr2O7 (4) Cr2O3

55. :-

(1) [Pt(NO3)2(en)2]2+

(2) [Cr(CO3)(NH3)4]Br

(3) FeCl3. 6H2O

(4) [FeCl3(NH

3)3]

56. ?

(1) NO+ (2) CO

(3) O2– (4) CN–

57.

?

(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn –

(2) Ti < V < Mn < Cr – 2nd

(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn –

(4) Ti+3 < V+3 < Cr+3 < Mn+3

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58. In which of the following compounds nitrogen

exhibits highest oxidation state ?

(1) N3H (2) NH

2OH

(3) N2H

4(4) NH

3

59. Identify the wrong statement in the following :-

(1) Atomic radius of the elements increases as we

moves down to first group of the periodic

table.

(2) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as

one moves across from left to right in the 2nd

period of the P.T.

(3) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the

positive charge on the cation smaller in the

ionic radius

(4) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the

negative charge on the anion larger in the

ionic radius

60. Square planar complex ion is :-

(1) [PtCl4]2–

(2) [PtClBr(H2O)2]

(3) [Pt(NH3)(Py)(H

2O)I]+1

(4) All of these

61. The total energy of the electron of H-atom in the

second quantum state is –E2. The total energy of

the He+ atom in the third quantum state is :-

(1) 3

2E2 (2)

2

3E2

(3) 4

9E2 (4)

16

9E2

62. The enthalpy change (H) for the reaction,

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is

–92.38 KJ at 298 K. The internal energy change

U at 298 K is :-

(1) –92.38 KJ (2) –87.42 KJ

(3) –97.34 KJ (4) –89.9 KJ

63. Which mixture forms a buffer when dissolved in

1 lit. of water :-

(1) 0.2 mol NaOH and 0.2 mol HBr

(2) 0.2 mol NaCl and 0.3 mol HCl

(3) 0.4 mol HNO2 and 0.2 mol NaOH

(4) 0.5 mol NH3 and 0.5 mol HCl

58. ?

(1) N3H (2) NH

2OH

(3) N2H

4(4) NH

3

59. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60. :-

(1) [PtCl4]2–

(2) [PtClBr(H2O)2]

(3) [Pt(NH3)(Py)(H2O)I]+1

(4)

61. H– –E2

He+ :-

(1) 3

2E

2(2)

2

3E

2

(3) 4

9E

2(4)

16

9E

2

62. N2(g) + 3H

2(g) 2NH

3(g)

298 K –92.38 KJ

U :-

(1) –92.38 KJ (2) –87.42 KJ

(3) –97.34 KJ (4) –89.9 KJ

63. 1 :-

(1) 0.2 mol NaOH 0.2 mol HBr

(2) 0.2 mol NaCl 0.3 mol HCl

(3) 0.4 mol HNO2 0.2 mol NaOH

(4) 0.5 mol NH3 0.5 mol HCl

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64. With the help of following data, find out the

change in heat content for the reaction :

C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g)

Bond Bond energy (kJ)

C–H 413

C–C 348

C=C 610

H–H 436

(1) –128kJ (2) +128kJ

(3) + 256kJ (4) –256kJ

65. Some inert gas is added at constant volume to the

following reaction at equilibrium

NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)

Predict the effect of adding the inert gas :-

(1) The equilibrium shifts in the forward direction

(2) The equilibrium shifts in the backward

direction

(3) The equilibrium remains unaffected

(4) The value of Kp is increased

66. At 25°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A

(mol. wt. = 40) is 100 torr, while that of pure liquid

B is 40 torr, (mol. wt. = 80). The vapour pressure

at 25°C of a solution containing 20 g of each A

and B is :-

(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr

(3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr

67. Which of the following expressions is correct in

case of a CsCl unit cell (edge length, a) :-

(1) rc + ra = a (2) rc + ra = a/ 2

(3) rc + r

a =

3a

2(4) r

c + r

a = a/2

68. At low pressure, the van der waals equation become:-

(1) PVm = RT (2) P(Vm – b) = RT

(3) m2m

aP V RT

V

(4) 2

m m

RT aP

V V

69. Oxidation state of "S" in Peroxodisulphuric acid

and Sodium tetrathionate are–

(1) + 6, + 5, 0 (2) + 6, + 6, + 6

(3) + 6, + 4, + 2 (4) + 6, + 2, 0

64. :

C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g)

(kJ)

C–H 413

C–C 348

C=C 610

H–H 436

(1) –128kJ (2) +128kJ

(3) + 256kJ (4) –256kJ

65.

NH4HS(s) NH

3(g) + H

2S(g)

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Kp

66. 25°C A (= 40) 100 B (= 80) 40

25°C20 g

A 20 g B :-

(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr

(3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr

67. CsCl (edge length, a) :-

(1) rc + r

a = a (2) r

c + r

a = a/ 2

(3) rc + ra = 3a

2(4) rc + ra = a/2

68. :-

(1) PVm

= RT (2) P(Vm – b) = RT

(3) m2m

aP V RT

V

(4) 2

m m

RT aP

V V

69. "S"

(1) + 6, + 5, 0 (2) + 6, + 6, + 6

(3) + 6, + 4, + 2 (4) + 6, + 2, 0

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70. Which statement is false for the balanced equation

given below :-

CS2 + 3O

2 — 2SO

2 + CO

2

(1) One mole of CS2 will produce one mole of CO

2

(2) The reaction of 16 g of oxygen produces

7.33 g of CO2

(3) The reaction of one mole of O2 will produce

2/3 mole of SO2

(4) Six molecules of oxygen requires three

molecules of CS2

71. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) molecularity of a reaction can be fractional.

(2) Zero order reaction never stops.

(3) A first order reaction must be homogeneous.

(4) The rate constant of a reaction becomes equal

to the pre-exponential factor when the

absolute temperature is infinity.

72. For the cell,

Mn(S)

| Mn+2(aq)

(0.4M) | | Sn+2(aq)

(0.04M)| Sn(S)

,

Calculate free energy change (G) at 298 K.

Given : 2

o

Mn | MnE = –1.18V ;

2

o

Sn | SnE

= –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 kJ (2) –194.93 kJ

(3) –180.93 kJ (4) None of these

73. Which of the following statements are not true?

(1) Blood is positively charged sol.

(2) Soap solution contains ionic micelles as the

colloidal particles.

(3) Blood is purified by the process of dialysis.

(4) Chemical adsorption first increases then

decreases with increase in temperature.

74. Which of the following 0.05 M aqueous solution

will have the lowest freezing point ?

(1) Potassium iodide (2) Sodium sulphate

(3) Sucrose (4) Aluminium oxalate

75. The required amount of KBr (molar mass = 119)

in gram to start the precipitation of AgBr in

500 mL solution of 0.05 M AgNO3 will be :-

(KSP of AgBr = 5 × 10–13)

(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g

(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g

70. :-CS2 + 3O2 — 2SO2 + CO2

(1) CS2 CO

2

(2) 16 g 7.33 g CO2

(3) O2 2/3 SO

2

(4) CS2

71. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

72. , Mn

(S) | Mn+2

(aq) (0.4M) || Sn+2

(aq) (0.04M)| Sn

(S)

298 K(G)

: 2

o

Mn | MnE = –1.18V ;

2

o

Sn | SnE

= –0.14 volt

2.303RT

F = 0.06

(1) 180.93 kJ (2) –194.93 kJ

(3) –180.93 kJ (4)

73. (1) (2)

(3) (4)

74. 0.05 M

(1) (2) (3) (4)

75. 0.05 M AgNO3 500 AgBr

KBr

(= 119) :-(AgBr KSP = 5 × 10–13)

(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g

(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g

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76. CH –CH=CH X(major)2 2 H–BrR O2 2

X is :-

(1) CH–CH –CH2 3

Br

(2) CH –CH–CH2 3

Br

(3) CH –CH –CH2 2 2

Br

(4) CH –CH –CH2 2 3Br

77. Nylon 2-Nylon 6 is :-

(1) Biodegradable polymer

(2) Copolymer

(3) Polyamide

(4) All

78. C–C bond length is maximum in :-

(1) CH2=CH2 (2) CHCH

(3) CH2=CH–CH=CH

2(4) CH

2=C=CH

2

79.

OH

X YH

(1) O3

(2) H O/Zn2

; Y is :-

(1) CH3–(CH

2)4–CH=0 (2) (CH )2 4

CH=0

CH=0

(3) CH3–CH

2–CH=0 (4) CH2

CH=0

CH=0

80. + Cl X YAlCl3 KMnO4 ; Y is :-

(1) COOH

(2) COOH

(3) COOH

(4)

COOH

76. CH –CH=CH 2 2H–BrR O2 2

X ( )

X :-

(1) CH–CH –CH2 3

Br

(2) CH –CH–CH2 3

Br

(3) CH –CH –CH2 2 2

Br

(4) CH –CH –CH2 2 3Br

77. Nylon 2-Nylon 6 :-

(1)

(2) Copolymer)

(3)

(4)

78. C–C :-

(1) CH2=CH2 (2) CHCH

(3) CH2=CH–CH=CH

2(4) CH

2=C=CH

2

79.

OH

X YH

(1) O3

(2) H O/Zn2

; Y :-

(1) CH3–(CH

2)4–CH=0 (2) (CH )2 4

CH=0

CH=0

(3) CH3–CH

2–CH=0 (4) CH2

CH=0

CH=0

80. + Cl X YAlCl3 KMnO4 ; Y :-

(1) COOH

(2) COOH

(3) COOH

(4)

COOH

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81. C–NH

O

X (major)Br /Fe2 ; X is :-

(1) C–NH

O

Br

(2) C–NH

O

Br

(3) NH–C

O

Br

(4)C–NH

O

Br

82. Which of the following has maximum melting

point :-

(1) Cl

COOH

(2) NH2

COOH

(3) NO2

COOH

(4)

CH3

83. Which can show aldol condensation reaction :-

(1)

O

Me Me (2)

O

Ph Me

(3)

O

Me H (4) All

84. CH –CH –CH=O3 2 (1) Tollen's reagent

(2) H

X

X(1) Ca(OH)2

(2) drydistillationY

Y is :-

(1) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5

O

(2) CH3–CH

2–CH

3

(3) CH3–CH

3(4) CH –C–C H3 2 5

O

85. Optically inactive compound is :-

(1)

H Me

OHOH

HMe

(2)

OH

OH

(3) HS H(4) All

81. C–NH

O

X ( )Br /Fe2 ; X :-

(1) C–NH

O

Br

(2) C–NH

O

Br

(3) NH–C

O

Br

(4)C–NH

O

Br

82. :-

(1) Cl

COOH

(2) NH2

COOH

(3) NO2

COOH

(4)

CH3

83. :-

(1) O

Me Me(2)

O

Ph Me

(3) O

Me H(4) All

84. CH –CH –CH=O3 2 (1)

(2) H X

X(1) Ca(OH)2

(2) Y

Y :-(1) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5

O

(2) CH3–CH

2–CH

3

(3) CH3–CH

3(4) CH –C–C H3 2 5

O

85. :-

(1)

H Me

OHOH

HMe

(2)

OH

OH

(3) HS H(4)

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86. Which of the following can have structure with

sp3 C atoms only :-

(1) Acetic acid (2) C3H

6

(3) Acetonitrile (4) C2H3Cl

87. H N–NH2 2

H

O

The above reaction completes with the

mechanism.

(1) Nucleophilic substitution – elimination

mechanism

(2) Electrophil ic addition – elimination

mechanism

(3) Electrophilic substituion – elimination

mechanism

(4) Nucleophilic addit ion – elimination

mechanism

88. Cl

G

NaOH

P

Rate of reaction is maximum if G is :-

(1) –OCH3

(2) –CH3

(3) –NO2

(4) –H

89.O

Zn-Hg

HCl

The above reaction is :-

(1) Finkelstein reaction

(2) Williamson's synthesis

(3) Clemmensen's reduction

(4) Schotten Baumann reaction

90. Incorrect match is :-

(1)

O–C–CH3

CHO

O

: Aspirin

(2) ClCl C–CH3 2 : D.D.T.

(3)H N–C–NH2 2

O: Urea

(4) H N2 SO H3 : Sulphanilic acid

86. sp3 C (1) Acetic acid (2) C3

H6

(3) Acetonitrile (4) C2H3Cl

87. H N–NH2 2

H

O

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

88. Cl

G

NaOH

P

G :-(1) –OCH3

(2) –CH3

(3) –NO2

(4) –H

89.O

Zn-Hg

HCl

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

90. :-

(1)

O–C–CH3

CHO

O

: Aspirin

(2) ClCl C–CH3 2 : D.D.T.

(3)H N–C–NH2 2

O: Urea

(4) H N2 SO H3 : Sulphanilic acid

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91. In liverworts, reduction division takes place in:-

(1) Anthridium (2) Capsule

(3) Archegonium (4) Gamete formation

92. Megasporophylls of pteridophytes are

comparable to which structure of angiosperms:-

(1) Carpel (2) Microsporophyll

(3) Stamen (4) Megasporangium

93. Two kingdom classification system used for a long

time was inadequate, so a need was felt for

including besides gross morphology, other

characteristics also. Which of the following

characters are the base of five kingdom ?

(a) Cell structure

(b) Mode of nutrition

(c) Methods of reproduction

(d) Evolutionary relationships

Options :-

(1) a & b (2) a, b & c

(3) a, c & d (4) a, b, c & d

94. Identify A,B,C and D and select the right option:-

A

BC

D

A B C D

(1) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

(2) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibres

(3) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

(4) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar

95. When a bacteriophage transfer genetic material

from one bacterium to another bacterium. This

process is called :-

(1) Transduction (2) Conjugation

(3) Replication (4) Recombination

91. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

92.

:-(1) (2)

(3) (4) 93.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (1) a b (2) a, b c

(3) a, c d (4) a, b, c d

94. A,B,C D :-

A

BC

D

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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96. Which of the followings is an example of

bryophyta that has more elaborate mechanism of

spore dispersal ?

(1) Polysiphonia (2) Marchantia

(3) Polytrichum (4) Dryopteris

97. Read the following statements regarding

Euglenoids and select the incorrect ones :-

(i) These are mostly fresh water organisms found

in stagnant water.

(ii) Their body is covered by a protein rich layer

called pellicle which makes their body flexible.

(iii) They are photosynthetic in presence of

sunlight but become heterotrophs in the

absence of sunlight.

(iv) They usually possess two flagella, one long

and one short.

(v) Euglenoids are multicellular ciliate protists.

(1) (i) and (v) (2) (iv) and (v)

(3) (iii) only (4) (v) only

98. Which one is an incorrectly matched pair ?

(1) Phycomycetes – Mucor, Albugo

(2) Ascomycetes – Penicillium, Aspergillus

(3) Basidiomycetes – Puccinia, Agaricus

(4) Deuteromyectes – Ustilago, Colletotrichum

99. Which one of the following stage is correctly

described with its event.

(1) Anaphase I The bivalent chromosomesalign on the equatorial plate

(2) Diakinesis Beginning of dissolution ofsynaptonemal complex.

(3) Metaphase Spindle fibres attach tokinetochores of chromosomes

(4) Zygotene Apperance of recombinationnodule

100. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in

human cells(eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours.

Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies

the maximum time of cell cycle ?

(1) Prophase (2) Interphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Metaphase

96.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 97.

:-

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(1) (i) (v) (2) (iv) (v)

(3) (iii) (4) (v)

98. ?

(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –

99.

(1) I

(2)

(3)

(4)

100. 24 ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

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101. Which one of the following statement is wrong

for nucleolus ?

(1) Related with NOR

(2) Nucleolus is spherical structure present in the

nucleoplasm.

(3) Nucleolus is a site for synthesis of active

Ribosomal protein

(4) The content of nucleolus is continuous with

the rest of the nucleoplasm.

102. The cell wall of algae is made up of :

(a) Cellulose (b) Galactans

(c) CaCO3

(d) Hemicellulose

(e) Suberin (f) Lignin

(g) Mannans

Choose the correct combination :-

(1) a,e,f,g (2) a,b,d,e (3) a,b,c,g (4) a,c,e,f,g

103. Non membrane bound organelle in animal cells

that help in cell division is :-

(1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosomes

(3) Golgi body (4) Centriole

104. Which statements are correct about the given

animal ?

(a) Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic

(b) Worm like marine animal

(c) Circulatory system is of close type

(d) Coelomate animals

(e) Fertilisation is internal, Direct development

(1) a, b, c, d, e are correct

(2) a, b, c, d are correct

(3) a, b, d are correct

(4) b, d, e are correct

105. Fertilisation is internal in :-

(1) Rana Tigrina, Psittacula, Scoliodon

(2) Hippocampus, Rana tigrina, Testudo

(3) Neophron, Chameleon, Scoliodon

(4) Bufo, Clarios, Pavo

101. ?

(1) NOR

(2)

(3)

(4)

102. :-(a) (b) (c) CaCo

3(d)

(e) (f) (g) :-(1) a,e,f,g (2) a,b,d,e (3) a,b,c,g (4) a,c,e,f,g

103. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

104. ?

(a) (b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(1) a, b, c, d, e

(2) a, b, c, d

(3) a, b, d

(4) b, d, e

105. :-(1) Rana Tigrina, Psittacula, Scoliodon

(2) Hippocampus, Rana tigrina, Testudo

(3) Neophron, Chameleon, Scoliodon

(4) Bufo, Clarios, Pavo

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106. The characterstic that proves the frog evolved

from fishes is :-

(1) The ability to swim in water

(2) The tadpole larva in frogs which resembles

the fishes in many character

(3) Similarity in the shape of the head

(4) The tadpole larva of frogs and fishes are

uricotelic

107. Identify the given diagram A,B and C for phylum :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A-Platyhelminthes B-Aschelminthes C-Annelida

(2) A-Platyhelminthes B-Annelida C-Aschelminthes

(3) A-Annelida B-Platyhelminathes C-Aschelminthes

(4) A-Annelida B-Aschelminthes C-Platyhelminthes

108. How many plants in the given below have corolla

with twisted aestivation ?

Calotropis, Mustard, China rose, Soyabean, Cotton,

Petunia, Tulip, Lady finger, Cassia, Gulmohar

(1) Six (2) Four (3) Five (4) Three

109. Find out the correct sequence of labelling.

C

A

B

A B C

(1) Subsidary Epidermal Guard

cells cells cells

(2) Subsidary Guard Epidermal

cells cells cells

(3) Epidermal Guard Subsidary

cells cells cells

(4) Guard Subsidary Epidermal

cells cells cells

106. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

107. A,B C :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A- B- C-

(2) A- B- C-

(3) A- B- C-

(4) A- B- C-

108. (1) (2) (3) (4)

109.

C

A

B

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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110. When the largest posterior petal overlaps the two

lateral petals which in turn overlap the two

smallest anterior petals, this type of aestivation is

known as :-

(1) Twisted (2) Valvate

(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary

111. In monocotyledons stem, vascular bundles are

closed type because :

(1) Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium

possess the ability to form secondary xylem

and phloem

(2) Vascular bundles have no cambium and they

do not form secondary tissue.

(3) Vascular bundles have cambium and cambium

do not possess the ability to form secondary

tissue.

(4) Both (2) and (3)

112. Which of the following is true ?

(1) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen

(2) Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen

(3) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen

(4) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen

113. A flower of china rose has 25 stamens, each

microsporangium has 10 microspore mother cells.

How many pollen grains occur in that flower?

(1) 500 (2) 1000

(3) 2000 (4) 100

114. How many plants in the list given below have

endospermic seed?

Pea, groundnut, beans, castor, coconut, wheat,

maize, barley

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

115. Tetrad of megaspore in angiosperm is generally

(1) Tetrahedral

(2) Isobilateral

(3) Linear

(4) (1) & (2) both

110.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

111.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (2) (3)

112. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113. 25 10

(1) 500 (2) 1000

(3) 2000 (4) 100

114.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. (1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)

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116. Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A)Germinalepithelium

(p)Neurosensoryepithelium

(B) Gut epithelium (q)Cuboidalepithelium

(C)Olfactoryepithelium

(r)Alveoli oflungs

(D)Pavementepithelium

(s)Columnarepithelium

(1) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r

(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s

(3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

(4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s

117. Which is the incorrect statement for areolar

connective tissue :-

(1) Present below the skin

(2) Most widely distributed connective tissue

(3) Fibres are densely packed

(4) Works as support framework for epithelium

118. Each malipighian tubule of cockroach is lined

by:-

(1) Glandular and ciliated cells

(2) Non-Glandular and ciliated cells

(3) Non-Glandular and non-ciliated cells

(4) Glandular and non-ciliated cells

119. Sucrose and maltose on hydrolysis which of the

following will give respectively ?

(1) Glucose–fructose and fructose galactose

(2) Glucose-fructose and glucose-glucose

(3) Galactose-glucose and fructose-fructose

(4) Glucose-glucose and glucose-fructose

120. Which of the following groups belongs to acid

insoluble pool ?

(1) Proteins, Nucleic acids, polysaccharides,

Lipids

(2) Lipid, Nucleic acid, Fatty acids, Amino acids

(3) Nucleotides, Proteins, polysaccharides, Lipids

(4) Proteins, Monosaccharides, Nitrogen bases, Lipids

116. -I -II

-I -II

(A) (p)

(B) (q)

(C) (r)

(D) (s)

(1) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r

(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s

(3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

(4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s

117. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

118.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

119. ?(1) Glucose–fructose and fructose galactose

(2) Glucose-fructose and glucose-glucose

(3) Galactose-glucose and fructose-fructose

(4) Glucose-glucose and glucose-fructose

120. ?(1) Proteins, Nucleic acids, polysaccharides,

Lipids

(2) Lipid, Nucleic acid, Fatty acids, Amino acids

(3) Nucleotides, Proteins, polysaccharides, Lipids

(4) Proteins, Monosaccharides, Nitrogen bases, Lipids

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121. The given below is the structural formula of ?

CH OH2

H

O

OH

OH OH

(1) Sucrose (2) Ribose

(3) Glucose (4) Deoxyribose

122. The formation of succinic acid from succinyl CoA

is associated with :-

(1) Reduction of NAD+ (2) Decarboxylation

(3) Phosphorylation (4) Hydration

123. In photorespiration ATP is used in ______ and O2

is used in _______.

Fill in the blanks :-

(1) Peroxisome, Mitochondria

(2) Chloroplast, Mitochondria

(3) Peroxisome, Chloroplast

(4) Chloroplast, Peroxisome

124. Which of the following is incorrect for facilitated

transport ?

(1) Requires special membrane proteins

(2) Non selective

(3) Not uphill transport

(4) ATP not required

125. Ascent of sap takes place due to :-

(1) Root pressure (2) Transpiration pull

(3) Mass flow (4) Both (2) and (3)

126. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation,

electrons are continously lost from the reaction

centre of PS II. Which source is used to replace

these electrons :-

(1) Sunlight (2) O2

(3) H2O (4) CO

2

127. Which statement is wrong about enzyme :

(1) Most enzyme are proteinaceous although

some are RNA molecule

(2) Most coenzymes are vitamins

(3) Prosthetic group is loosely bound to the

protein part of an enzyme.

(4) A competitive enzyme inhibitor alters the Km

but does not alter the Vmax of the enzyme.

121. ?

CH OH2

H

O

OH

OH OH

(1) (2) (3) (4)

122. Succinyl CoA Succinic Acid :-(1) NAD+ (2) (3) (4)

123. ATP ______ O2

______ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

124. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ATP 125. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)

126. PS II

?

(1) (2) O2

(3) H2O (4) CO2

127. :(1) RNA

(2) (3)

(4) km V

max

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128. Which one is the terminal electron acceptor

cytochrome in ETS?

(1) O2

(2) Cytochrome ‘a’

(3) Cytochrome a3

(4) NAD+

129. Which of the following is not a function of

auxin ?

(1) Induce Dormancy

(2) Enhancing cell division

(3) Induce callus formation

(4) Maintain apical dominance

130. Which one of the following options gives correct

categorisation of three kind of digestive juices

with their content and pH, at which they work :-

AGastricjuice

BPancretic

juice

CIntestinal

Juice

(1) PepsinpH = 7.8

TrypsinpH = 1.8

NucleasespH = 2-3

(2) TrypsinpH = 7.8

PepsinpH = 1.8

NucleasespH = 1.8

(3) PepsinpH = 1.8

TrypsinpH = 7.8

EnterokinasepH = 7.8

(4) PepsinpH = 1.8

TrypsinpH = 2-3

SucrasepH = 1.8

131. Choose the correct option from the following table

Column I Column II Column III

1 Carboxy-peptidase

a Pancreaticamylase

i Monoglyceride

2 Starch b Protein ii Nucleotides

3 Fat c Lipases iii Disacharides

4 Nucleicacid

d Nucleases iv Dipeptides

(1) 1–b–iv, 2–a–iii, 3–c–i, 4–d–ii

(2) 1–d–ii, 2–c–iii, 3–b–i, 4–a–iv

(3) 1–c–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iii, 4–a–iv

(4) 1–a–iii, 2–d–i, 3–c–ii, 4–b–iv

128. ETS

(1) O2

(2) ‘a’

(3) a3

(4) NAD+

129. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 130.

pH :-

A

B

C

(1) pH = 7.8

pH = 1.8

pH = 2-3

(2) pH = 7.8

pH = 1.8

pH = 1.8

(3) pH = 1.8

pH = 7.8

pH = 7.8

(4) pH = 1.8

pH = 2-3

pH = 1.8

131. :-

I II III

1

a

i

2 b ii

3 c iii

4

d iv

(1) 1–b–iv, 2–a–iii, 3–c–i, 4–d–ii

(2) 1–d–ii, 2–c–iii, 3–b–i, 4–a–iv

(3) 1–c–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iii, 4–a–iv

(4) 1–a–iii, 2–d–i, 3–c–ii, 4–b–iv

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132. In resting condition the outer surface of the axonal

membrane possesses a __(A)__ while its inner

surface becomes __(B)__ and therefore is __(C)__:-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Positive charge Negative charge Depolarised

(2) Positive charge Negative charge Polarised

(3) Negative charge Positive charge Polarised

(4) Positive charge Negative charge Hyperpolarised

133. In the following diagram, Identify the parts labelled

A, B, I and II and choose the correct option :-

Biceps A CNS B Intestine

I I

II II

S.N. A I II B I II

(1) SNS Afferent Efferent ANS Sensory Motor

(2) ANS Afferent Efferent SNS Sensory Motor

(3) SNS Afferent Efferent ANS Motor Sensory

(4) CNS Afferent Efferent ANS Sensory Motor

134. The hormone which slimulates reabsorption of

Ca+2 by the renal tubules and increases Ca+2

absorption from digested food is :-

(1) Aldosterone

(2) Anti Diuretic hormone

(3) Parathormone

(4) Thyrocalcitonin

135. Grave's disease occur due to :-(1) Hypo secretion of hypothalamic hormone

(2) Hypo secretion of corticoides hormone(3) Hypo secretion of pituitary hormone

(4) Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone

136. Optic nerve arises from which of the following

layer of retina :-

(1)Sensory layer (2) Bipolar layer

(3)Outer plexiform layer (4) Ganglionic layer

137. Which ions are responsible for musclecontraction ?

(1) Ca++, K+ (2) Na+, K+

(3) Na+, Mg++ (4) Ca++, Mg++

138. Second heart sound (DUP) is produced due to:-

(1) Closure of semilunar valve

(2) Closure of tricuspid valve

(3) Opening of bicuspid valve

(4) Opening of semilunar valve

132. __(A)__

__(B)__ __(C)__ :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

133. A, B, I, II

A CNS B

I I

II II

S.N. A I II B I II

(1) SNS vfHkokgh viokgh ANS laosnh pkyd(2) ANS vfHkokgh viokgh SNS laosnh pkyd(3) SNS vfHkokgh viokgh ANS pkyd laosnh(4) CNS vfHkokgh viokgh ANS laosnh pkyd

134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

135. (1) (2) (3) (4)

136. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

137. (1) Ca++, K+ (2) Na+, K+

(3) Na+, Mg++ (4) Ca++, Mg++

138. (DUP) (1) (2) (3) (4)

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139. An artificial pacemaker is implanted

subcutaneous and connected to the heart in

patients :-

(1) having 90% blockage in the three main

coronary arteries

(2) Having a very high blood pressure

(3) With irregularity in the heart rhythm

(4) Suffering from arteriosclerosis

140. Which points are not correct about angiotensin-II?

(A) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure

(B) Activates the adrenal cortex to release

aldosterone

(C) Powerful vasconstrictor

(D) Decreases the GFR

(E) Activates the J.G. cells to release renin

(1) A, B, C (2) A, D, E

(3) C, D, E (4) B, C, E

141. Conditional reabsorption of Naand water takes

place in :-

(1) PCT

(2) DCT

(3) Henle's loop

(4) Bowman's capsule

142. Which of the following factors favour the

formation of Oxyghaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1)2OP ,

2COP , Temperature, Hconcentration

(2) 2OP ,

2COP , Temperature H concentration

(3)2OP ,

2COP ,TemperatureH concentration

(4)2OP ,

2COP , Temperature H concentration

143. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in Alveoli,

atmospheric air and tissues will be :-

(1) 0.3, 40, 45 (2) 40, 0.3, 45

(3) 0.3, 104, 28 (4) 104, 159, 40

144. Which joint is present between atlas and axis

vertebrae ?

(1) Ball & Socket Joint (2) Pivot Joint

(3) Hinge Joint (4) Saddle joint

145. How many linkage groups are present in pea and

Drosophila ?

(1) 7 and 4 (2) 4 and 7

(3) 4 and 4 (4) 7 and 7

139. ?

(1) 90%

(2) (3) (4)

140. -II

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) GFR

(E) J.G. cells (1) A, B, C (2) A, D, E

(3) C, D, E (4) B, C, E

141. Na:-

(1) PCT

(2) DCT

(3)

(4) 142.

?

(1)2OP ,

2COP , , H

(2) 2OP ,

2COP , H

(3)2OP ,

2COP ,H

(4)2OP ,

2COP , H

143.

(1) 0.3, 40, 45 (2) 40, 0.3, 45

(3) 0.3, 104, 28 (4) 104, 159, 40

144.

(1) Ball & Socket Joint (2) Pivot Joint

(3) Hinge Joint (4) Saddle joint

145. ?(1) 7 4 (2) 4 7(3) 4 4 (4) 7 7

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146. How many of the following statements are correct

about ‘‘Law of Dominance :-

(A) Characters are controlled by discrete units

called factors.

(B) Factors occurs in pairs.

(C) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the

pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive)

(D) The law of Dominance is used to explain the

expression of only one of the parental

characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1 and

the expression of both in F2.

(E) It doesn't explain the proportion of 3:1

obtained at the F2.

(1) Only 2 statements are correct

(2) Only 1 statement is correct

(3) Four statements are correct

(4) All five statements are correct

147. ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.

The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has

which polymers that protude from its surface and

controlled by the gene I ?

(1) Sugar polymers

(2) Protein polymers

(3) Lipid polymers

(4) No such polymer present

148. Identify the organism (a), (b) and (c) in the life

cycle of honey bee shown below:-

Queen

eggs

Sexual

ReproductionParthenogenesis

(c)Royal Jelly

Bee bread

(a) (b)

(1) a = Queen, b = Drone, c = worker

(2) a = Drone, b = worker, c = Queen

(3) a = worker, b = Drone, c = Queen

(4) a = Queen, b = worker, c = Drone

146. :-(A)

(B) (C)

(D) F1 F2

(E) F2 3:1

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) (4)

147. ABO I I

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

148. (a), (b) (c)

:-

(c)

(a) (b)

(1) a = , b = , c =

(2) a = , b = , c =

(3) a = , b = , c =

(4) a = , b = , c =

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149. Match the column–I with column–II ?

Column–I Column–II

(i) Golden rice (A) Increased shelf

life

(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) HGH

(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A

(iv) Transgenic pig (D) Organ

transplantation

(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D

(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

150. Which property is not shown by

Cyclosporin–A ?

(1) Immunosuppressive agent

(2) Clot buster

(3) Antifungal agent

(4) Anti-inflammatory agent

151. How many codons in the list given below are

coding for arginine amino acid ?

CUU, CUC, CGU, CGA, CGC, AGU, AGA,

AGG, CGG, AGC, UCU, UCC.

(1) Four (2) Six

(3) Eight (4) Two

152. Identify (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the structure shown

below :-

(d)

(b)

3'

5'

5'

3'

(c)

(a)

Options :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Terminator Promoter Transcriptionstart site

Templatestrand

(2) Promoter Terminator Transcriptionstart site

Codingstrand

(3) Promoter Terminator Transcriptionstop site

Templatestrand

(4) Terminator Promoter Transcriptionstart site

Codingstrand

149. –I –II ?–I –II

(i) Golden rice (A)

(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) HGH

(iii) Mouse (C) Vitamin A

(iv) (D)

(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D

(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

150. Cyclosporin–A ?

(1) Immunosuppressive agent

(2) Clot buster

(3) Antifungal agent

(4) Anti-inflammatory agent

151.

CUU, CUC, CGU, CGA, CGC, AGU, AGA,

AGG, CGG, AGC, UCU, UCC.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

152. (a), (b), (c) (d)

(d)

(b)

3'

5'

5'

3'

(c)

(a)

:-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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153. The presence of Introns is reminiscent of______

and the process of splicing represents the

dominance of _________.

(1) Novelty, DNA world

(2) Novelty, RNA word

(3) Antiquity, DNA world

(4) Antiquity, RNA world

154. Mutations can be induced with :-

(1) Infra Red radiations

(2) 1AA

(3) Ethylene

(4) Gamma radiations

155. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became

possible with the discovery of :

(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes

(3) Probes (4) Selectable markers

156. Which body of the Government of India regulates

GM research and safety of introducing GM

organisms for public services ?

(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation

(4) Bio-safety committee

157. The universe originated how many years ago :-

(1) 3 billion years ago



(4) 5 million years ago

158. The process of evolution of different species in

a given geographical area starting from a point and

literally radiating to other area of geography

(habitat) is called :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Parallel evolution

(3) Adaptive radiation

(4) Both 1 and 2

159. The study of fossils in different aged rock showed

that most fossils exist in :-

(1) Sedimentary rock

(2) Igneous rock

(3) Marble

(4) All of these

153. ______ _________ (1) , DNA (2) , RNA (3) , DNA (4) , RNA

154. (1) (2) 1AA

(3) (4)

155. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

156. GM GM ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

157. :-(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 20 (4) 5

158.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 2

159.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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160. Read the following statements :-

(A) Sperms can be seen with naked eye

(B) Distal centriole of sperm give rise to tail of

sperm

(C) Normal sperm count is 200–300 billion/

ejaculation

(D) Tail formation in sperm occurs during

spermiogenesis

Which of the above statement is/are correct ?

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) B and D

161. Which one of the following structure of sperm is

mismatched?

(1)Acrosome - Contain spermlysins

that help in fertilisation

(2)Nucleus - Contain DNA

(3) Distal - Starts cleavage in zygote

centriole

(4) Middle piece - Contain mitochondria,

which produce energy for

movement of tail

162. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(1) The male germ cells undergo meiotic division

leading to sperm formation.

(2) The function of male sex accessory ducts and

glands are maintained by the testicular

hormones.

(3) Presence or absence of hymen is not reliable

indication of virginity.

(4) FSH act on leydig cells in release some factors

which help in spermiogenesis.

163. Ecology explains us :-

(1) How organisms, while remaining as an

individual interact with other organisms.

(2) How organism, interact with physical habitats

as a group.

(3) As a group how organisms behave like organised

wholes that is population community, ecosystem

or even as the whole biosphere

(4) All of these

160. :-

(A)

(B)

(C) 200–300

(D)

?

(1) A B (2) B C

(3) C D (4) B D

161. (1) -

(2) - DNA (3) -

(4) -

162.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) FSH

163. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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164. Due to efforts of Mr. Ramdeo Misra, the

government of India established the.....(1972)

which in later years, paved the way for the

establishment of the Ministry of environment and

forests (1984) :-

(1) CEPHERI

(2) NEERI

(3)CAZRI

(4) National committee for environmental

planning and coordination

165. Which is/are incorrect from followings ?

(A) Population ecology links ecology to

population genetics and evolution.

(B) The size of the population tell us a lot about

its status in the habitat

(C) If a new habitat is just being colonised, Birth

rate may contribute more significantly to

population growth than immigration

(D) Since resources for growth for most animal

population are finite and become limiting

sooner or later, the exponential growth model

is considered a more realistic one.

(1) A & B are incorrect

(2) B & C are incorrect

(3) C & D are incorrect

(4) D and A are incorrect166.

–15–10–505

1015202530

50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450

Mea

n a

nnu

al t

emp

erat

ure

(°C

)

Mean annual precipitation (cm)

E F

D

C

BA

Identify the biome A B C D E F from above graph

and choose the correct option in respect to their

vegetation :-

A B C D

(1) Alpine Acacia Oak Prosopis

(2) Oak Sal Teak Pine Mosses

(3) Sal, Teak Pine Oak Lichen

(4) Hopea Oak Pine Alpine

164. .....(1972)

(1984) :-

(1) CEPHERI

(2) NEERI

(3)CAZRI

(4)

165. ?(A)

(B)

(C) (Immigration)

(D)

(1) A B

(2) B C

(3) C D

(4) D A

166.

–15–10–505

1015202530

50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450

Mea

n a

nnu

al t

emp

erat

ure

(°C

)

Mean annual precipitation (cm)

E F

D

C

BA

A B C D E F :-

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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167.

This diagram is showing which type of food chain

and which organism is omnivores in this food

chain ?

(1) Grazing/Peacock (2) Parasitic/Snake

(3) Detritus/Peacock (4) Parasitic/Plants

168. Earth is an :

(1) Open system for energy and open system

for minerals

(2) Closed system for minerals and open system

for energy

(3) Closed system for energy and open system

for minerals

(4) Closed system for energy and closed system

for minerals

169. Accumulation of toxic substance in successive

trophic level in food chain is known as :-

(1) Accelerated eutrophication

(2) Biomagnification

(3) Biotype

(4) Aggregation

170. Fill in the blank.

A .......... is a unit of land with a natural boundary

having a mosaic of patches. There patches

generally represent different ...........

(1) Biome, Landscape

(2) Biome, Ecosystem

(3) Landscape, Ecosystem

(4) Landscape, Biome

167.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 168.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

169. (1) (2) (3) (4)

170.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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171. An assemblage of population of plant, animal

bacteria and fungi that live in an area and interact

with each other formed:-

(1) Ecosystem

(2) Biological community

(3) Ecology

(4) Environment

172. The total effect created by the combination of

vertical structure and architecture of dominant

species of vegetation is studied under ?

(1) Stratification

(2) Physiognomy

(3) Phytogeography

(4) Phenology

173. What will happen to a well growing herbaceous

plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the

forest in a park ?

(1) It will grow normally

(2) It will grow well because it is planted in the

same locality

(3) It may not survive because of change in its

micro climate

(4) It grows very well because the plant gets more

sunlight

174. The immediate adverse effects of drugs and

alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of :-

(1) Anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating

(2) Reckless behaviour, vandalism, violence

(3) Death

(4) Fever

175. Our health is affected by :-

(a) Genetic disorders

(b) Infections

(c) Life style

(1) a only (2) b, c only

(3) a, b only (4) a, b, c

176. Activation of B-lymphocytes is done by :-

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgE (4) IgD

177. Abdominal spasm, vomiting, Internal bleeding

and intestinal blockage are caused by which of

the following :-

(1) Wuchereria bancrofti

(2) Common round worm

(3) Plasmodium falciparum

(4) Toga virus

171. (1) (2) (3) (4)

172. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

173.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

174. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

175. :-(a) (b) (c) (1) a (2) b, c (3) a, b (4) a, b, c

176. B ?

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgE (4) IgD

177. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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178. Match the following :-

(A) Wheat (i) Sonalika

(B) Brassica (ii) Pusa swarnim

(C) Cauliflower (iii) Pusa Sadabahar

(D) Chilli (iv) Pusa shubhra

(1) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (iii)

(2) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)

(3) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)

(4) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)

179. In anther culture, anthers of some plants are used

for regeneration of new plants. These anthers can

be reffered as

(1) Protoplast

(2) haploid plant

(3) Explant

(4) Cybrid

180. Which kind of animal breeding is not correctly

matched with its utility ?

(1) To combine characters of two different species

– Interspecific hybridization

(2) To combine characters of two different breeds

– Cross breeding

(3) To remove inbreeding depression

–Out crossing

(4) To obtain pure lines – Out breeding

178. :-

(A ) (i)

(B ) (ii)

(C ) (iii)

(D ) (iv)

(1) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (iii)

(2) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)

(3) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)

(4) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)

179. anther culture)

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

180. ?(1) – (2)

– (3)

–

(4) –

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