ieso question paper 2013

IESO 2013

7th International Earth Science Olympiad Student Code:

Statement

Mas

s of P

lanet

Radi

us of

Plan

et

Incli

natio

n of

Rot

ation

Axis

with

re

spec

t to i

ts Or

bital

Plan

e

Rotat

ion P

eriod

Leng

th of

Sem

i-majo

r axi

s of t

he

orbi

t

Ecce

ntric

ity of

Orb

it

Total

Mas

s of S

atelli

tes

Dens

ity of

Atm

osph

ere

Wate

r Vap

our P

erce

ntag

e

Gree

n Ho

use E

ffect

Mag

netic

Fiel

d St

reng

th

Geot

herm

al Ac

tivity

The yearly mean temperatures of planets do not match with theirexpected black body temperature. Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one day differssignificantly from one planet to another.Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one year at theequator of the planet differs significantly from one planet to another. On some planets, there is a large latitudinal percentage variation intemperatures. Mean temperature (averaged over a day) on Earth is different ondifferent days.

Mysore, India, September 11 19, 2013 (Theory Test - Astronomy)


Statement

Mas

s of

Pl

anet Ra

dius

of

Plan

et

Incli

natio

n of

Ro

tation

Axis

wi

th re

spec

t to

its O

rbita

l Plan

e Rotat

ion P

eriod

Leng

th of

Sem

i-majo

r axi

s of

the o

rbit

Ecce

ntric

ity of

Orb

it

Total

Mas

s of S

atelli

tes

Dens

ity of

Atm

osph

ere

Wate

r Vap

our P

erce

ntag

e

Gree

n Ho

use E

ffect

Mag

netic

Fiel

d St

reng

th

Geot

herm

al Ac

tivity

The yearly mean temperatures of planets do not match with theirexpected black body temperature. X X X X

Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one day differssignificantly from one planet to another. X X X X X

Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one year at theequator of the planet differs significantly from one planet to another. X X X X X X X

On some planets, there is a large latitudinal percentage variation intemperatures. X X

Mean temperature (averaged over a day) on Earth is different ondifferent days. X X



Theoretical TestAstronomy

Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 28.5

Instructions:1. Please write your student code on the cover page as well as on the top right of

every page of answer sheet / calculations sheets.2. Please write your answers legibly. Illegible answers will be counted as incorrect.3. Please write your final answers in appropriate boxes in the main answer sheet.

For numerical questions, show the calculations on blank calculation sheetsprovided.

4. For numerical questions, you may attempt part of the answer even if you don'tknow the final result. There will be stepwise marking.

5. You can get as many calculations sheets as you want. Just raise your hand to askfor extra sheets. The volunteers will bring extra sheets to your table.

6. Write question number clearly at the top of the calculations sheet.7. Read the entire question group carefully before starting to answer. Each question

has a point value assigned and indicated on the right hand side of the question.8. Any inappropriate examination behaviour will result in your withdrawal from the

IESO.



A1. We list a few facts below about temperatures at the surface of Venus, Earth and Mars. (a) The yearly mean temperatures of planets do not match with their expected black

body temperature. (b) Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one day differs

significantly from one planet to another. (c) Absolute variation in the temperature during the course of one year at the equator of

the planet differs significantly from one planet to another. (d) On some planets, there is a large latitudinal percentage variation in temperatures. (e) Mean temperature (averaged over a day) on Earth is different on different days.

In the table given in your answer sheet, we list a number of physical properties related to a planetand its various motions, which may or may not be relevant in explaining the facts above. In thetable, tick in appropriate rows those properties which are relevant for each of the facts above.Number of relevant parameters for each row can be none, one or more than one.Total 10 points for correct tick-marks.Warning: Every wrong tick mark has penalty of -0.2 points.

A2. The maximum altitude of the Sun as seen from Mysore on summer solstice day andwinter solstice day are 78o 51' and 54o 17' respectively. Using this information, obtain theinclination of the Earth's axis () and find the latitude of Mysore (). (6 points)

A3. The mass ratio of Pluto and Charon is 8:1. The period of revolution of Charon around Pluto is about 6.387 days. You are given thatMPluto = 1.31 x 1022 kg, RPluto = 1195 km, G = 6.672 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2the Minimum and maximum distance of Pluto from Earth are 4284.7 x 106 km and 7528 x 106 km respectively. (a) Find the length of the semi-major axis of Charon's orbit of revolution about Pluto.

(3 points)(b) Find the ratio a:RPluto, where 'a' is the distance of the Centre of Mass of the

Pluto-Charon system from the center of Pluto . (2 points) (c) Theoretically, what is the minimum diameter of the optical telescope which can

resolve the system from Earth? Ignore effects of Earth's atmosphere.(2 points)

A4. The diagram on the next page shows the Hertzprung-Russell diagram (H-R diagram)with six positions (A F) indicated. The y-axis is given in terms of Solar Luminosity(L) and x-axis gives effective surface temperature (T) of stars in Kelvin.(a) Which letters indicate the position of stars that have the largest and the smallest

diameters respectively? (2 points)(b) Which letters indicate the stars with the same spectral class but with different

luminosities? (1 points)(c) Which letters indicate the stars that are primarily burning Hydrogen? (1.5 points)(d) Which letter would indicate position of a white dwarf in this diagram? (1 point)



Theoretical TestAstronomy Answer Sheet

A1. Please see next page

A2. Inclination of the Earth's axis is

Latitude of Mysore is

A3. Pluto and Charon:(a) Semi-major axis =

(b) a:RPluto =

(c) Diameter =

A4. H-R diagram (a) Star of Largest Diameter Star of Smallest Diameter

(b) Give letters of stars

(c) Give letters of stars

(d) White Dwarf letter



Sheet for numerical calculations (write question number clearly)


7th International Earth Science Olympiad

Theoretical TestAstronomy Model Answers

A1. Atmosphere of PlanetsSee table: + 0.5 points for each correct marking, -0.2 for each wrong marking.

A2. For winter solstice, aw = 90 For summer solstice (in northern tropical region), as = 180 (90 + )

= 90 + Using these, Inclination of the Earth's axis, = 23o 26'Latitude of Mysore, = 12o 17'(1.5 points for each of the four steps)

A3. Pluto and charon:

(a) By Kepler's Third Law, a03=

G(M pl+M ch)T2

42=9GM plT

2

322(1.5 points)

Hence a0=1.96107m (1.5 points)(b) The distance of barycentre from Pluto will be a0/9. (1 point)

By comparing, a:b = ab= 1.96510

7

91.195106=1.83 (1 points)

(c) One should try to resolve the Pluto-charon system, when the Pluto is closest to the Earth asthats when the angular separation will be highest. (0.5 point) Let us say we are using optical wavelengths around 550nm (a slightly better approximationwill be to use blue end of visible light around 400 nm)

D=1.22 =1.22 d pl

a015cm (1.5 points)

A4. H-R diagram (a) Star of Largest Diameter B Star of Smallest Diameter C (2 points)

(b) D and F (1 point)

(c) A, E and F (1.5 points)

(d) C (1 point)



Practical TestAstronomy Questions

Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 34

Instructions:1. Please write your student code on the cover page as well as on the top right of

every page of answer sheet / calculations sheets.2. Please write your answers legibly. Illegible answers will be counted as incorrect.3. Please write your final answers in appropriate boxes in the main answer sheet.

For numerical questions, show the calculations on blank calculation sheetsprovided.

4. For numerical questions, you may attempt part of the answer even if you don'tknow the final result. There will be stepwise marking.

5. You can get as many calculations sheets as you want. Just raise your hand to askfor extra sheets. The volunteers will bring extra sheets to your table.

6. Write question number clearly at the top of the calculations sheet.7. Read the entire question group carefully before starting to answer. Each question

has a point value assigned and indicated on the right hand side of the question.8. Any inappropriate examination behaviour will result in your withdrawal from the

IESO.

Mysore, India, September 11 19, 2013 Practical Test - Astronomy


1. Construct a Sundial for Mysore (Latitude = +12o 16' N, Longitude = 77o 33'E). You canignore corrections due to equation of time. Materials given: a square plastic board of size of 40 cm x 40 cm, a 1 metre long metalrod, 2 nut bolts, a 30 cm scale and marker pens to make Sundial markings on theplasticboard. Use the following procedure.

To make a simple Sundial, you should make the shadow of the rod fall in the equatorialplane. For this, push the rod through the hole at the centre of the board.

Now put this device on a flat surface such that it rests on a board edge and one end of therod. The board should be exactly perpendicular to the rod. For this, fix the nut bolts onthe rod on both the sides of the board. The other end of rod should be pointing towardsthe north celestial pole. Write your student code on the plastic board. Show thisarrangement to the examiner. (1 point)(a) Measure length of the rod from the end towards the North Celestial Pole to the board

and write on the answer sheet. Mark North facing and South facing sides of theboard with letters N and S respectively. (3 points)

(b) Mark lines showing the direction of the shadow of the rod on the board for thewinter solstice day. Make markings for every 2 hours. (4 points)

(c) Mark the similar lines for summer solstice day. (3 points)(d) Where do you expect the shadow of the rod will be seen on the equinox days? Write

answer as N (North side) / S (South side) / B (both sides) / X (neither side).(1 point)

2. You are given a sky map which shows sky for 24 hours x 120 degrees. You are also givena list of all constellations with their IAU designations. Assume that today is the date ofclosing ceremony i.e. 19th September 2013 and you are told that it is a full moon day.

(2 points each) (a) Mark the Celestial Equator on the map at appropriate place. Denote it with letter 'Q'.(b) Mark the Ecliptic (apparent path of the Sun over one year) on the map at appropriate

place. Denote it with letter 'E'.(c) Mark the Sun's position on the map for the noon of given day. Denote it with letter

'S'.(d) Mark the Moon's position on the map for the noon of given day. Denote it with letter

'M'.(e) Write the three letter IAU code of the constellation you will observe on the zenith at

the time of Moonrise. Mark the position of the zenith on the map as 'Z'.(f) Write the three letter IAU code of the constellation you will observe on the nadir at

the time of Moonrise. Mark the position of the nadir on the map as 'N'.



3. Picture 1 shows star trails captured by an Astronomy Olympiad student. (a) Identify constellation(s) in the picture. Write the three letter IAU code of the

constellation(s) in your answer sheet. There are more than one constellations / partsof constellations visible in the picture. Identify as many as you can. (4 points)

(b) Write the letters from the following table, corresponding to the stars, if they arepresent in the picture. (2 points)

A. Deneb B. Rigel C. Spica

D. Dubhe E. Algol F. Regulus

G. Denebola H. Mizar I. Betelgeuse

(c) Let us assume that stars numbered as 1 and 2 have nearly the same Right Ascension(R.A.) Find exposure time of the photograph. (4 points)

Picture 1: Photo Credit: Mr. Chiraag Juwekar. Taken on 25/03/2012



List of Constellations with IAU Codes


No. Constellation Code No. Constellation Code No. Constellation Code

1 Andromeda And 31 Cygnus Cyg 60 Orion Ori2 Antlia Ant 32 Delphinus Del 61 Pavo Pav

3 Apus Aps 33 Dorado Dor 62 Pegasus Peg4 Aquarius Aqr 34 Draco Dra 63 Perseus Per

5 Aquila Aql 35 Equuleus Equ 64 Phoenix Phe6 Ara Ara 36 Eridanus Eri 65 Pictor Pic

7 Aries Ari 37 Fornax For 66 Pisces Psc8 Auriga Aur 38 Gemini Gem 67 Pisces Austrinus PsA

9 Bootes Boo 39 Grus Gru 68 Puppis Pup10 Caelum Cae 40 Hercules Her 69 Pyxis Pyx

11 Camelopardalis Cam 41 Horologium Hor 70 Reticulum Ret

12 Cancer Cnc 42 Hydra Hya 71 Sagitta Sge13 Canes Venatici CVn 43 Hydrus Hyi 72 Sagittarius Sgr

14 Canis Major CMa 44 Indus Ind 73 Scorpius Sco15 Canis Minor CMi 45 Lacerta Lac 74 Sculptor Scl

16 Capricornus Cap 46 Leo Leo 75 Scutum Sct17 Carina Car 47 Leo Minor LMi 76 Serpens Ser

18 Cassiopeia Cas 48 Lepus Lep 77 Sextans Sex19 Centaurus Cen 49 Libra Lib 78 Taurus Tau

20 Cepheus Cep 50 Lupus Lup 79 Telescopium Tel21 Cetus Cet 51 Lynx Lyn 80 Triangulum Tri

22 Chamaleon Cha 52 Lyra Lyr 81 Triangulum Australe TrA23 Circinus Cir 53 Mensa Men 82 Tucana Tuc

24 Columba Col 54 Microscopium Mic 83 Ursa Major UMa

25 Coma Berenices Com 55 Monoceros Mon 84 Ursa Minor UMi26 Corona Australis CrA 56 Musca Mus 85 Vela Vel

27 Corona Borealis CrB 57 Norma Nor 86 Virgo Vir28 Corvus Crv 58 Octans Oct 87 Volans Vol

29 Crater Crt 59 Ophiucus Oph 88 Vulpecula Vul30 Crux Cru


This is colour inverted copy of the central part of the picture in the question paper.

Practical TestAstronomy Answer Sheet

1. Sundial (a) Length of the rod = (d)

2. (e) IAU code =

(f) IAU code =

3. Star Trails(a) Constellation Names

(b) Star Letters

(c) Exposure time =



Sheet for numerical calculations (write question number clearly)



Practical TestAstronomy Model Answers

1. Sundial Length of the rod from end to the board = 8.0 cm (7.5 cm)

2. (e) IAU code Oph (We will also accept Her - 0.75)(f) IAU code Lup (We will also accept Ori - 0.75)

3. Star Trails(a) UMa (1.5 points), CVn (1 point), Leo, LMi, Dra (0.5 point each)

(b) Star Letters D, H

(c) Exposure time = 30 minutes

Numerical Calculations

Question 1: (a) As the rod should point to NCP, length of the rod on the ground side should be x = 20 / tan () = 92 cm, where is the latitude.Thus, the length on the other side is 8.0 cm. (may be 7.5 cm, given plastic board is 0.5 cm thick)

(2 points)Marking N and S (1 point)(b) winter solstice markings should be on side marked by S (1 point)Marking local noon shadow line (0.6 points)Symmetric markings for other lines at 30 degrees (0.4 points each)(c) Realising that Summer Solstice markings will be on the other side of the board (1.5 points)Actual markings for Summer Solstice (1.5 points)(d) B (1 point)

Question 3 (c) Connecting start and end points for trails of a few stars (at least 3) and drawing their perpendicularbisectors to find NCP (1.5 points)Measuring the angle subtended by these trails at the NCP as 7.5 degrees (6-9 degrees accepted)

(1 point)Estimating exposure time as 30 minutes (1.5 point)



Mysuru, India, 11 19 September 2013 1 Theory Test Atmosphere & Hydrosphere

Students Name and Code:



Instructions:

1. Please write your name and nationality in English on the cover page.

2. The time allocated for this examination is 75 minutes.

3. Please write your answer legibly, illegible answer will be counted as incorrect.

4. Please write your answer only on this test booklet (English version only). For

countries needing translation, additional question paper in their mother

tongue is provided for reference only.

5. Please circle the most appropriate answer/answers among the given options.

6. Read the entire question group carefully before starting to answer. Marks for

each sub-question are indicated on the right.

7. Some questions need the correct answer/s to be picked, some are true/false

type, some are fill in blanks, and some expect short answers. Answer

appropriately.

8. Any inappropriate examination behavior will result in disqualification.



Time allotted: 75 minutes Total Marks: 61

1. The figure below shows global freshwater withdrawal as a percentage of total available (see

legend for color code) in the year 1995 and a model projection for the year 2025CE.

Answer the following questions by choosing the correct option: (5 min)

(i) One of the countries in which there is no significant change in water stress between 1995 and 2025 CE is

A. Egypt. 1 mark

B. USA.

C. India.

D. China.

(ii) The reason for the answer of (i) above is 2 marks

A. This country is located near the equator.

B. This country has already limited water resources.



C. This country has the largest population in the world.

D. This country has a relatively higher growth rate of population.

(iii) Out of the three continents in the southern hemisphere, the most affected is Africa, the reason being, the continent as a whole 2 marks

A. has the largest fraction of desert area among the three.

B. receives the least rainfall among the three.

C. has the highest population among the three.

D. has more runoff through rivers such as Nile and Congo.

2. Weathering of rocks increases with temperature when more CO2 is added to the Earth's atmosphere. What would happen when there is no volcanic eruption on the Earth for millions of years: 5 min

(i) In addition to the long term climate change caused by changes in the Earth's orbital parameters, 2 marks

A. the Earth would gradually become warmer because of CO2 accumulation.

B. the Earth would gradually cool because of consumption of CO2 for weathering of rocks.

C. there would be no additional change in the Earth's temperature.

(ii) Water is able to weather rocks because 2 marks

A. it is present in all the three states of matter (i.e., solid ice, liquid water and water vapour) on the Earth.

B. it is the most abundant compound on the Earths surface.

C. it can dissolve silicates, when it is pure.

D. it is a polar molecule, and in addition, dissolved carbon dioxide makes it acidic.

(iii) In the past (Neoproterozoic times), the whole Earth is believed to have cooled into a 'snowball'. A possible reason could be that 1 mark

A. there were more frequent solar eclipses reducing incoming solar radiation.

B. there were frequent volcanic eruptions throwing aerosols into Earth's atmosphere, cooling the Earth.



C. changes in the orbital parameters of the Earth were more severe.

D. there were no volcanic eruptions for a long time, while weathering continued to consume the atmospheric carbon dioxide.

3. At present the Earth's surface is 70% oceans and 30 % land. If it were 100% oceans and no land, mark the following sentences as True (T) or False (F) 4 x 1.25 = 5 marks; 5 min

(i) There will be no land breeze and sea breeze ( T / F )

(ii) There will be sea breeze, but no land breeze ( T / F )

(iii) There will be seasonal rainfall in the tropics, but much weaker than at present ( T / F )

(iv) Both hemispheres will have the same season (e.g. summer) at the same time ( T / F )

4. Nansen observed that ice floating in the Arctic Ocean moves at an angle of 45 to the right

of the wind and not along the direction of the wind. Which forces in balance govern the

movement of ice?

2 marks ;2 min

A. attraction of sun, moon and earth

B. wind force, friction and Coriolis force

C. pressure gradient, gravity and Coriolis force

D. winds, molecular friction and gravity



-100 -80 -60 -40 -20 0 20 40

Temperature (deg. C)

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

90

100

110

120

130

140

he

igh

t (k

m)

A

B

D

C

E

F

5. The figure below shows the variation of temperature with height. 6 x 1 = 6 marks; 5 min

Write the names of the various layers (as marked A to F in the figure above and Column I in Table in the next page) such as troposphere, stratosphere, ionosphere, mesosphere, stratopause and tropopause, in Column II. Fill each row in column III with one or more of the following (you can leave it blank if there is



no appropriate option given): Cumulus clouds, cirrus clouds, top of cumulonimbus clouds, noctilucent clouds, aurorae, and UV absorption by ozone.

I II III

A

B

C

D

E

F

6. (i) The graph below shows a schematic of the evolution of gases H2, O2, N2 and CO2 in the

Earths atmosphere. Match the curves against the gases in the Table in the next page.

4 x 1 = 4 marks; 7 min

.



A

B

C

D

(ii) Fill in the blank:

According to this, banded iron formation (deposition of iron oxide in the form of bands) in

the Earths History started after around .............................. million years ago 1 mark

7. The mean temperature of the Earth is governed by the overall radiation energy balance, i.e., net solar radiation absorbed equals the radiation back to space. If So is the solar constant, T the mean

temperature, the albedo, and the Stefan-Boltzmann constant, then, which of the following is the correct representation of this? 2 marks; 3 min

A. (1) So = T4

B. So = 4 (1)T4

C. (1) So = 2 T4

D. (1) So = 4 T4

8. The Rainfall distribution in two regions P and Q is shown in the Table. 4 min

Monthly Rainfall (mm)

Region Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec

P 2 0 1 0 0 125 300 450 250 75 10 7

Q 98 99 102 101 100 115 100 95 105 99 101 105



Pick out the correct statement/s. 2 marks

A. The interannual variability of rainfall is more at P than at Q.

B. The intra-annual variability of rainfall is more at P than at Q.

C. The average monthly rainfall is about 120 mm at Q.

D. The averages of monthly rainfall over one year at P and Q are the same.

9. Earth is warming due to CO2 increase. In the tropical belt 30oS to 30oN, which among the

following statements are true? 2 x 2 = 4 marks; 5 min

A. Largest warming occurs in the atmospheric layer 10-14 km above the surface.

B. Largest warming occurs in the stratosphere.

C. The entire atmospheric column from surface to 50 km height warms.

D. Lower troposphere warms and stratosphere cools.

E. Warming is at the surface and rest of the atmosphere is unaffected.



10. Write the name the clouds shown below in the Table below 4 x 0.5 = 2 marks; 2 min

A

B

C

D

B A

D C



Sea level pressure (hPa)

A

B

C

D

E

F

11. The figure below shows the sea level pressure chart and the figure in the next page, the geopotential height of 500 hPa level (arbitrary units). Indicate the wind directions by marking arrows at locations A, B, C, D, and E in the figure below, and G and H in figure in the next page. 8 x 0.5 = 4 marks; 7 min



12. If the rise in global mean sea level is 55 m due to the melting of Antarctic ice, estimate the approximate volume of ice. Take the radius of Earth to be ~6720 km. (Assume that the area of the oceans does not change with sea level and ignore the small difference in densities of ice and water) 5 marks 10 min

G

H

500 hPa geopotential height



13. In an ocean where the temperature of the water column increases only by solar radiation, by what amount the temperature of a uniformly mixed column of water of depth 100 m would increase for 50 W m-2 of radiation incident for a period of 10 hours? The specific heat of water is 4200 J/kg and density is 1025 kg/m3 2 marks; 3 min

14. Cricket or baseball players are not concerned about Coriolis force deflecting the ball. But an ocean current flowing from the equator to mid-latitude is deflected by the Coriolis force because:

2 marks; 2 min

A. the cricket ball or baseball is smaller than the Earth.

B. the time of flight of the ball is much shorter than the period of Earths rotation.

C. the Earth is attracted by the sun and the moon, but the cricket ball or baseball is not.

D. the shape of the Earth is not exactly spherical, but the ball is almost spherical.



15. A tropical cyclone, when moving over tropical ocean becomes more intense, whereas when it

moves over land, it becomes weaker mainly because: 1 mark;

1 min

A. trees and buildings obstruct cyclone movement.

B. evaporation from the sea surface is higher.

C. of higher wind speed over land.

D. of higher precipitation over land.

16. Consider an ocean current that is 200 km wide and 200 m deep flowing with a uniform speed of

1 m s-1. How much water is carried by this current in one year? 2 marks; 3 min



17. Given below two zonal distributions of vertical thermal structure of the equatorial Pacific.

(figures on left and right). Identify which figure corresponds to an El Nino and which is a non-El

Nino year. 2 marks;, 2 min

Left Panel

Right panel



18. Interactions of the atmosphere, cryosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere and the biosphere among them lead to many positive and negative feedbacks in the climate system. A positive feedback is one which helps the agent which caused it to increase and a negative feedback is one which works against the agent which caused it. Identify the following observations into positive (+), negative () feedback and no feedback (0). 3 x 1 = 3 marks; 3 min

(i) Higher temperature leading to higher evaporation and so more water vapour in the troposphere ( + / / 0 )

(ii) Additional ice formation in the polar regions, increasing Earth's albedo. ( + / / 0 )

(iii) Addition of CO2 to the Earth's atmosphere (e.g., by volcanism), and increasing the temperature and weathering rate of rocks. ( + / / 0 )

19. The CO2 that reaches deep parts of the ocean takes about /________ / to return to atmosphere because\_________\ 2 marks; 2 min A. /10 years/, \of El Nino and La Nina\

B. /6 months to one year/, \of monsoons\

C. /10000 years/, \there are no currents in the deep ocean\

D. /1000 years/, \deep ocean circulation is slow\

ISEO 2013 Hydrosphere and Atmosphere Theory, Mysuru, India,

Correct Answers and marks

Question number

Subquestion number

Correct answer

Marks

1 (i) A 1

1 (ii) B 2

1 (iii) C 2

2 (i) B 2

2 (ii) D 2

2 (iii) D 1

3 (i) T 1.25

3 (ii) F 1.25

3 (iii) T 1.25

3 (iv) F 1.25

4

- B 2

Question No.

Subquestion No.

Answer Answer Answer marks

5 - A Ionosphere Aurorae 0.5+0.5

5 - B Mesosphere Noctilucent clouds

0.5+0.5

5 - C Stratopause --- 0.5+0.5

5 - D Stratosphere UV absorption by ozone

0.5+0.5

5 - E Tropopause Top of cumulonimbus clouds

0.5+0.5

5 - F Troposphere Cirrus clouds, cumulus clouds

0.5+0.5

6 (i) A - N2 1

6 (i) B - CO2 1

6 (i) C - H2 1

6 (i) D - O2 1

6 (ii) - - 2000 1

Question No

Subquestion No.

answer marks

7 - D 2

8 - B and D 1 +1

9 - A and D 2+2

10 A Cumulus congestus 0.5

10 B Cumulonimbus 0.5

10 C Cirrus 0.5

10 D Altostratus, altocumulus

0.5

11 See figures below 8 X 0.5 (For each correct arrow 0.5)

12 - 2.18x 1016 m3 Correct Area 2 Multiply by70% 2 mark Volume 1marks

13 - 0.004 C 2

14 - B 2

15 - B 1

Question no. Subquestion No Answer Marks

16 - 1.26 x 1015 m3 2

17 - Left El Nino Right non-El Nino

1 + 1

18 (i) + 1

18 (ii) + 1

18 (iii) 1

19 D 2

Total marks

At G wind is zero, so no direction


Mysuru, India, 11 19 September 2013 1 Practical Test Atmosphere




Instructions:




4. Please write your answer only on this test booklet.

5. You may respond to questions in English. For objective type questions, circle the

most appropriate answer.

6. Read the entire question carefully before starting to answer. Marks for each

question are indicated on the right.




Instruction to participants about field measurement:

1. Students will be taken to the meteorological observatory located in the Agricultural farm station at Naganahalli.

2. All participants should wear cap, non-skid shoes, T-shirt and trousers suitable for carrying out the field experiment.

3. All participants must strictly follow the instruction of the instructor. 4. Care should be taken while climbing the ladder not to slip and also mind your

head not to get hurt while take the reading for wind speed 5. Initial reading for serial number 3 will be announced on the day of the test.

Measurement of the meteorological parameters

The following observations were carried out by the student:

a) Dry bulb temperature b) Wet bulb temperature c) Wind speed d) Wind direction e) Cloud types



DATA SHEET

1. Name of the Student

2. Student Code

Serial Number

Parameter Unit Reading

1 Dry bulb temperature Degree Centigrade

2 Wet bulb temperature Degree Centigrade

3 Wind speed Initial Reading=

4 Wind direction Degrees

5 Cloud type

1. Using the above data/observation answer the following questions:

Questions:

a) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures differ because (2 marks)

A. They are of different types one is mercury thermometer, the other, resistance thermometer.

B. Water has a higher specific heat than air. C. Air has a higher specific heat than water. D. Water loses energy due to evaporation.



b) Circle the correct option: (2 marks)

A. Evaporation increases with decreasing temperature, and also with increasing humidity.

B. Evaporation decreases with increasing temperature and humidity. C. Evaporation decreases with increasing wind speed and temperature. D. Evaporation increases with increasing wind speed and temperature.

c) What is the wind speed (m/s) and direction measured by you at the met station you visited? 3 marks

d) Circle the types of cloud that were observed by you at the met station you visited? 2 marks

A. Cumulus

B. Cirrus

C. Stratus

D. Nimbus

E. Altocumulus

F. Altostratus



e) The water level in the evaporimeter on 5 September 2013 was 14 cm at 09:00 Hrs. There were two episodes of rain on 7th September and 10th September with rainfall of 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the water level in the evaporimeter was 19 cm on 11th September 2013 , 09:00 Hrs. what is the average rate of evaporation during the entire period of observation in mm/hr? 5 marks



Instruction to participants about field measurement:

1. Students will be taken to the meteorological observatory located in the Agricultural farm station at Naganahalli.

2. All participants should wear cap, non-skid shoes, T-shirt and trousers suitable for carrying out the field experiment.

3. All participants must strictly follow the instruction of the instructor. 4. Care should be taken while climbing the ladder not to slip and also mind your

head not to get hurt while take the reading for wind speed

Measurement of the meteorological parameters

The following observations would be carried out by the student:

a) Dry bulb temperature b) Wet bulb temperature c) Wind speed d) Wind direction e) Cloud types

DATA SHEET

3. Name of the Student

4. Student Code

Serial Number

Parameter Unit Reading

1 Dry bulb temperature Degree Centigrade

2 Wet bulb temperature Degree Centigrade

3 Wind speed Initial Reading=

4 Wind direction Degrees

5 Cloud type

1

ISEO 2013 Atmosphere Practical,Mysuru, India,


Question number

Subquestion number

Correct answer Marks

1 (a) D 2

1 (b) D 2

1 (c) Final Reading-Initial Reading/Duration

3

1 (d) Answer to be decided

2

1 (e) 0.2 mm/hr (30/144)

5

Total marks 14


Mysuru, India, 11 19 September 2013 1 Practical Test Hydrosphere


`



Instructions:




4. Please write your answer only on this test booklet.

5. You may respond to questions in English.

6. Read the entire question carefully before starting to answer. Marks for each

question are indicated on the right.




Two sets of data pertaining to profiles of temperature, salinity and (density-1000) from two locations on from the north Indian Ocean are given below. Draw the vertical distribution of temperature and salinity. Use one graph sheet each to draw the Data SET-1 and Data SET-2 and answer the following questions.

Data SET-1

Depth (m)

Temperature (C)

Salinity (PSU)

(also parts per mil)

Density-1000 (kg m-3)

0 29.03 31.04 19.09

-10 28.99 31.05 19.10

-20 28.98 31.06 19.11

-30 28.96 32.56 20.35

-40 28.97 33.41 21.80

-50 28.96 34.38 22.98

-75 23.54 34.69 23.94

-90 23.21 34.73 24.56

-100 19.79 34.79 24.98

-125 17.85 34.86 25.57

-150 15.87 34.91 25.71

-200 13.43 34.99 26.30



Data SET-2

Depth (m)

Temperature (C)

Salinity (PSU)

(also parts per mil)

Density-1000 (kg m-3)

0 26.00 36.54 24.20

-10 25.98 36.53 24.20

-20 25.95 36.53 24.21

-30 25.92 36.53 24.22

-40 25.90 36.51 24.21

-50 25.89 36.52 24.22

-75 25.87 36.5 24.21

-90 23.91 36.3 24.65

-100 21.78 36.14 25.15

-125 20.33 36.03 25.46

-150 18.97 35.94 25.75

-200 17.17 35.93 26.19

Questions:

a) Plot the vertical profiles of temperature and salinity for SET-1 & SET-2 in the two graph sheets provided. 5 marks



b) Determine the Mixed layer depth (in m) in SET-1& SET-2? 2 marks

SET-1

SET-2

c) Using the plots you made and the (density-1000) values from the tables, if needed, determine the thickness of the barrier layer (in m) in SET-1& SET-2? (barrier layer refers to the depth zone within the isothermal layer where the salinity increases rapidly). Circle the correct option. 2 marks

A. 30 m for SET-1 and 0 m for SET-2 B. 20 m for SET-1 and 75 m for SET-2 C. 50 m for SET-1 and 75 m for SET-2 D. 10 m for SET-1 and 0 m for SET-2

d) What are the temperature and salinity gradients in the barrier layer for SET-1 & SET-2 data? 4 marks

A. 0 per m in salinity for SET-1 and 0 per m in temperature for SET-2 B. 0.09 per m in salinity for SET-1 and 0 per m in temperature for

SET-2 C. 0.09 per m in salinity for SET-2 and 0 per m in temperature for

SET-1 D. 0.09 per m in temperature for SET-1 and 0.09 per m in salinity for

SET-2

e) Identify which SET pertains to the Arabian Sea (less river discharge), and which SET the Bay of Bengal (more river discharge): Write AS for Arabian Sea and BB for Bay of Bengal, in the appropriate row. 2 marks

SET-1

SET-2

1

ISEO 2013 Hydrosphere Practical, Mysuru, India,


Question number

Subquestion number

Correct answer Marks

1 (a) Each parameter for each set plotted correctly 1 x 4 Neatness and legibility 1

5

1 (b) 20m SET-1 75m SET-2

2

1 (c) A 2

1 (d) B 4

1 (e) SET-1 BB

SET-2 AS

2

Total marks 15

2

SET-1 SET-2


Student Code:

Mysore, India, September 11-19, 2013 1/18 (Theory Test Geosphere)

Instructions: 1. Please write your name and nationality in English (ALL CAPITAL LETTERS) on the cover page.

2. The time allocated for this examination is TWO hours.

3. Please write your answers legibly with a pen. Illegible answers will be counted as incorrect.

4. Please write your answers only on the test booklet provided.

5. You may respond to questions either in English or your native language, or a combination of both.

6. Please choose the most appropriate answer by encircling the letter that corresponds to the answer.

Choosing more than one answer would result in forfeit of point.

7. Read the entire question group carefully before starting to answer. Each question has a point value

assigned and indicated on the right hand side of the question for example, (1 or 3).

8. For some questions, you will be asked to provide your answers corresponding to a figure. Please do

so carefully.

9. Any inappropriate examination behavior will result in your withdrawal from the IESO.


Student Code:


1000 km

WRITTEN TEST IN GEOSPHERE

Q.No. Questions Points

Questions 1 to 10 correspond to Figure 1.

Figure 1

1 What is the correct order (older to younger) of the formation of the rocks? (3)

a) C,D,B,A,E+(H,G,F)

b) C,B,E,H,A,F,E,D

c) C,F,B,A,E +(H,G,D)

d) H,G,F,E,C,D,B,A

2 Which types of faults are presented in the Figure 1? (1)

a) Reverse faults

b) Extension faults

c) Transform faults

d) Strike slip faults


Student Code:


3 Which type of tectonic setting is presented in the Figure 1? (1)

a) Subduction

b) Collision

c) Rifting

d) Transform

4 Which type of fossil should NOT be expected in unit A? (1)

a) Stromatolite

b) Fossil wood

c) Ammonite

d) Echinoderms

5 Which mineral is expected to be found in layer G? (1)

a) Halite

b) Calcite

c) Quartz

d) Clay

6 The red sandstone in layer B is cemented by: (1)

a) Copper

b) Quartz

c) Calcite

d) Iron

7 Cross bedding is most likely to be expected in layers: (1)

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

8 Which of the following rocks is a result of interaction between the Hydrosphere

and the Biosphere:

(2)

a) Sandstone

b) Salt

c) Limestone

d) Granite


Student Code:


9 The hydrosphere processes that affect various rocks in the section is seen in : (2)

a) All the rocks

b) All the rocks except granite and rhyolite

c) Limestone, marl and salt

d) Sandstone, conglomerate and limestone

10 Which of the earth systems (spheres) is active in producing salt deposits? (2)

a) Hydrosphere and biosphere

b) Geosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

c) Geosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere

d) Atmosphere, biosphere and geosphere

Questions 11 to 13 corresponds to Figure 2.

This is a schematic diagram of a typical cross-section of an ocean

Figure 2

11 How many plates are present in the Figure above? (2)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

12 Which type of rock could be formed in Region A? (1)

a) Basalt, obsidian and chert

b) Sandstone and basalt

c) Clay and chert

d) Mostly basalt


Student Code:


13 Beneath which regions of the section can one expect volcanism? (1)

a) C and E

b) A and C

c) B and D

d) B and A

Questions 14 to 19 corresponds to Figure 3.

Shown in the Figure 3 are sedimentary rock sections from two different

continents X and Y. The names of the rock strata are provided at the left.

Different symbols represent fossils as shown in the legend at the right. The

fossils are given hypothetical names. Each type of fossil represents a specific

geologic time.

Figure 3

14 Which of the following pair represents similar age: (2)

a) G and R

b) A and L

c) D and P

d) B and P


Student Code:


15 Which of the following statement is true? (2)

a) O is younger than D

b) A is older than L

c) N and C are of same age

d) O is older than D

16 Which of the following animal group appeared earliest in the history of these

continents?

(1)

a) Ac

b) Tr

c) Mc

d) An

17 Vt represents a terrestrial animal that cannot swim. How would you explain the

occurrence of Vt fossil in both the continents, if there is a vast ocean between

continent X and Y today?

(2)

a) Vt appeared independently in both the continents

b) The continents were connected when Vt was alive

c) Vt developed an ability of swimming and later lost it.

d) b and c

18 E represents an ash layer containing a radioactive isotope with half life of 100

Ma (million years). The ratio of parent to daughter isotope is found to be 1/8 in

E. What is the age of the strata E?

(3)

a) 200 Ma

b) 300 Ma

c) 400 Ma

d) 800 Ma

19 If the absolute age of each strata is denoted by tstrata. Please find out which of the

following statement is true? (> means greater than)

(3)

a) tC >tD> tF

b) tD >tN>tL

c) tP >tQ> tR

d) tO >tD> tQ


Student Code:


Continent X Continent Y

Questions 20-21 correspond to figure 4.

Figure 4

20 A, B, M and Q are fossils occurring in rock strata of Continent X and Continent

Y. If you want to correlate these two rock successions which fossil would you

choose as the best index fossil?

(2)

a) A

b) B

c) M

d) Q

21 What makes it the best index fossil? (2)

a) It is present in one rock unit only

b) It is present in more than one rock unit

c) It is present in rocks of both continents,

d) a and c

22 What part of the timescale does a rock represent if it contains fish fossil,

trilobites and brachiopod?

(1)

a) Paleozoic

b) Mesozoic,

c) Proterozoic,

d) Cenozoic


Student Code:


23 Rivers carry salt and deposit them to the ocean at a specific rate RSalt per year.

The concentration of salt in one unit of ocean water is CSalt. The evaporation rate

is REvap, the total volume of ocean water is VOcean, the total volume of river water

is VRiver. If you want to calculate the age of the ocean, which of the following

data are necessary?

(3)

a) RSalt, CSalt, VOcean

b) REvap, VRiver, CSalt

c) REvap, VRiver, RSalt,

d) RSalt, CSalt, REvap,

24 Global warming causes sea level increase because it facilitates the following

factor.

(1)

a) Melting of floating ice berg

b) Melting of continental ice sheet

c) Increasing the oceanic circulation

d) a and b

25 As we move away from mid-oceanic ridge under the sediment, we encounter

progressively

(1)

a) Younger and lighter rocks

b) Older and lighter rocks

c) Older and denser rocks

d) Denser rocks of same age

26 Which of the following DOES NOT qualify as a mineral (1)

a) Halite,

b) Sugar crystal,

c) Natural ice crystal,

d) Pyroxene

27 The volcanic eruptions are commonly situated along subduction zones. The most

common composition of the magma here is

a) Andesitic

b) Basaltic

c) Rhyolitic

d) Peridotitic

(1)


Student Code:


28 The most violent of the volcanic eruptions are commonly related to

the_____________ magma.

e) Andesitic

f) Basaltic

g) Rhyolitic

h) Peridotitic

(1)

29 The Figure 5 below represents a map with volcanoes. Volcano A is active today

and volcano H is the oldest. The volcanoes in between follow the similar age

progression. If the volcanoes are a result of hotspot on a moving plate, what is

the right progression of movement of this particular plate?

(2)

Figure 5

a) N-NE-NW

b) SE-SW-S

c) S-SW-SE

d) NW-NE-N


Student Code:


30 Figures 6 a to c represent different degrees of sorting and rounding of grains in a

sedimentary rock indicative of distance of transport. Which of the answers is

correct?

Figure 6

(1)

a) A is transported over longer distance than B and C respectively.

b) B is transported over longer distance than C and A respectively.

c) C is transported over longer distance than B and A respectively.

31 Why was Wegeners continental drift theory initially rejected? (1)

a) Absence of data on deep sea features

b) Absence of a mechanism for motion of continents

c) Ignorance of distribution of volcanoes

d) Absence of paleomagnetic data

32 It is a well established fact that Earth is constantly cooling. Where is the heat

flow maximum?

(1)

a) Mid-oceanic ridges

b) Subduction zones

c) Fold mountains

d) Precambrian Shield areas

33 Following the above question, which of the processes is responsible for heat

loss?

(1)

a) Under thrusting of plates

b) Formation of mountains

c) Pouring out of lava

d) Metamorphism


Student Code:


34 This crystalline rock contains coarse grains of feldspar, quartz and mica -

i. Name the rock (1)

a) Gabbro

b) Granite

c) Basalt

d) Diorite

35 It is glassy, has conchoidal fracture, it comes in different colours and it is

extrusive in nature. What is it?

(1)

a) Basalt

b) Pumice

c) Obsidian

d) Chert

The upper mantle and the crust make up a major tectonic feature of our earth.

Answer the following questions in relation to this feature.

36 i. What is it called? (1)

a) Lithosphere

b) Asthenosphere

c) Mesosphere

37 ii. What is the physical state of this layer of the Earth? (1)

a) Solid

b) Liquid

c) Plastic

d) Brittle


Student Code:


Figure 7

38 Match the numbered features of geologic structures (in normal position) in

Figure 7 to the correct terms on the right.

(3)

1

2

3

4

5

6

List of Answers

A Hinge line of anticline

B Hinge line of syncline

C Anticline

D Youngest rock exposed on surface

G Oldest rock exposed on surface

I Syncline

1

1 A Footwall block

2 B Hinge line of anticline

13 M Anticline

16 P

Youngest rock exposed on surface

20 T

Oldest rock exposed on surface

23 W Syncline

10 B J

Oldest formation of plunging structure

9 E I

Hinge line of plunging anticline

7 M G Dip of fault plane

8 P H Hinge Line

2

1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I


7 M G Dip of fault

3

1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I



8 P H Hinge Line

11 T K Strike of fault plane

6 W F

Hinge line of plunging syncline

4

1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I



8 P H Hinge Line


6 W F


5

1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I



8 P H Hinge Line


6 W F


6

1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I



8 P H Hinge Line


6 W F


1 A Footwall block


13 M Anticline

16 P


20 T


23 W Syncline

10 B J


9 E I


Dip of


Student Code:


Figure 8

39 Match the numbered features of geologic structures in Figure 7 to the correct

terms on the right.

(3)

1

2

3

4

5

6

List of Answers

A Footwall block

B Hanging Wall

C Strike of fault plane

D Hanging Wall block

E

F

Footwall

Dip direction of the fault plane


Student Code:


40 Based on the various processes acting on different rocks that is indicated on the

arrows, mark the type of rocks in the boxes given in Figure 9.

(3)

Figure 9

W Weathering, E Erosion, T Transportation, D Deposition,

L Lithification , T Temperature, P Pressure, F Fluid, M Melting,

C - Crystallization

a) 1=Igneous rock, 2=Metamorphic rock, 3=Sedimentary rock

b) 3=Igneous rock, 2=Metamorphic rock, 1=Sedimentary rock

c) 2=Igneous rock, 3=Metamorphic rock, 1=Sedimentary rock


Student Code:


Figure 10

41 Match the numbers on the Figure 10 above to the appropriate terms or

descriptions below.

1 Region indicated by #1



4 Type of Seismic Waves

5 Another type of Seismic Waves

6 Density of region #6

7 Phenomenon observed in region#7

8 Density of the Outer C ore

9 Density of the Inner C ore

10 Region #10

List of Answers

A S-Waves

B P-Waves

C Low-Velocity Zone

D 5.5 gram per cubic centimeter

E 10 - 12 gram per cubic centimeter

F 12 - 13 gram per cubic centimeter

G Solid Inner C ore

H Upper Mantle

I Lithosphere

J S-waves cannot penetrate liquid outer core

(10)


Student Code:


42 Which one of the following statements is true? (2)

a) Both gravity and magnetic field decreases with increase in the latitude.

b) Both gravity and magnetic field increases with increase in the latitude.

c) Gravity field increases with the latitude whereas the magnetic field

decreases with latitude

d) Gravity field decreases with the latitude whereas the magnetic field

increases with latitude

43 Which one of the following statements is true? (>means greater than and <

means less than respectively.)

a. Conductivity of ocean water < Conductivity of ground water <

conductivity of rain water

b. Conductivity of ocean water < Conductivity of ground water

>conductivity of rain water

c. Conductivity of ocean water > Conductivity of ground water <


d. Conductivity of ocean water > Conductivity of ground water >


44 With respect to the Figure 11 which of the following options is correct? (> means

greater than and < means less than)

Figure 11

(1)

a) Elevation at A > Elevation at B > Elevation at C

b) Elevation at A > Elevation at B < Elevation at C

c) Elevation at A < Elevation at B > Elevation at C

d) Elevation at A < Elevation at B < Elevation at C


Student Code:


45 An earthquake was recorded at stations X, and Y which are at 50 km, and 200

km respectively from the epicenter. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1)

a. Magnitude is less at station X whereas intensity is more at station X

b. Magnitude and intensity are more at station X than at station Y

c. Magnitude is same at both the stations whereas intensity is more at

station X

d. Magnitude is same at both the stations whereas intensity is more at

station Y

46 If the depth is reduced from 10 km to 1 km the hydrostatic pressure will (1)

a. Increase by 10 times

b. Increases by 100 times

c. Decrease by 10 times

d. Decreases by 100 times

47 Statement I: Earth is not a perfect sphere

Statement II: Gravitational acceleration would not be constant over the earths

surface

(1)

a. Statements I and II are correct , Statement II follows Statement I

b. Statements I and II are correct , Statement I follows Statement II

c. Statements I and II are incorrect

d. Only statement I is correct

48 If the moon had never existed, one of the following statements is INCORRECT. (1)

a) The length of the day would have been shorter

b) The tilt of the Earths axis would vary more

c) There would be no tides on Earth

d) It would be much darker at night all the year round


Student Code:


49 The summer in the northern hemisphere is warmer than the southern hemisphere,

in spite of the fact that the Earth is farthest from the sun. This is because:

(1)

A. During northern summer the North Pole is tilted toward the sun.

B. There is more land in the northern hemisphere.

C. Earth moves slowly at aphelion than at perihelion.

D. During northern summer the days are shorter than in winter.

Choose the correct answer from the following options.

a) A and B are correct

b) C and D are correct

c) B and C are correct

d) A and D are correct

50 If a topographic profile is drawn along line X-Y, the profile will be similar in

shape to

Figure 12

(1)

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

GEOSPHERE WRITTEN TEST ANSWER KEY

Q. No. Answer Marks

1 A 3

2 B 1

3 C 1

4 B 1

5 A 1

6 D 1

7 B 1

8 C 2

9 A 2

10 B 2

11 C 2

12 D 1

13 D 1

14 C 2

15 A 2

16 B 1

17 B 2

18 B 3

19 B 3

20 D 2

21 D 2

22 A 1

23 A 3

24 B 1

25 C 1

26 B 1

27 A 1

28 C 1

29 D 2

30 B 1

31 B 1

32 A 1

33 C 1

34 B 1

35 C 1

36 A 1

37 A 1

38 1 I 3

2 C

3 D

4 B

5 A

6 G

39 1 C 3

2 F

3 A

4 D

5 B

6 E

40 A 3

41 1 I 10

2 C

3 H

4 A

5 B

6 D

7 J

8 E

9 F

10 G

42 B 2

43 D 1

44 A 1

45 C 1

46 C 1

47 A 1

48 C 1

49 C 1

50 A 1

TOTAL 84

7th International Earth Science Olympiad Student Code

Mysore, India, September 11-19, 2013 (Practical Test Geosphere)


GEOSPHERE PRACTICAL TEST

PART 1 INFOSYS CAMP

EXERCISE #1

Study the set of samples in locations 1 4 and answer the following five questions. Time: 40

MINUTES (20 POINTS)

Instructions: Complete the following 5 questions based on the rock sample provided.

Location 1:

1. Which of the following features can you observe in the sample? (You may choose more than 1

answer).

1. Fossil

2. Cross bedding

3. Horizontal bedding

4. Crystalline structure

5. A multi-minerallic rock (more than one mineral)

6. A mono-minerallic rock (one mineral)

7. Lineation (Elongated minerals are arranged in a parallel manner)

8. Foliation (Marked with bands of different minerals)

9. Vesicular structure

10. Minerals cannot be seen with the naked eye

11. Glassy texture

2. What conclusion(s) can you draw about the formation of this rock sample? (You may choose more

than 1 answer).

a) This rock formed in a shallow marine environment.

b) This rock formed in an open sea environment.

c) This rock formed in a deep sea environment.

d) Sedimentation in an oversaturated environment.

e) Sedimentation in a cave environment.

f) This rock formed in a lake environment.

g) This rock formed in a river environment.

h) This rock formed in a dune environment.

i) This rock formed in an (igneous) plutonic environment.

j) This rock formed in an (igneous) volcanic environment.



k) This rock underwent regional metamorphism.

l) This rock underwent contact metamorphism.

3. What observation/ principle helped you draw the conclusion? (You may choose more than 1

answer).

a) The principle of original horizontality.

b) The principle of the present is the key to the past.

c) The principle of superposition.

d) The size of a mineral crystal in an igneous rock is dependent on the rate of cooling.

e) Slow cooling of magma occurs when the surrounding temperature is relatively high.

f) Fast cooling of magma occurs when the surrounding temperature is relatively low.

g) The temperature is relatively high at deeper levels of the crust.

h) The temperature is relatively low towards the surface of the crust.

i) The pressure is relatively high deep in the crust.

j) Linear minerals grow with a parallel orientation under conditions of high pressure.

k) Rocks can behave elastically under conditions of high pressure and high temperature.

l) The roundness of a grain is a result of both the distance of transport and hardness of the

mineral.

m) Cross bedding structure is a result of sedimentation by moving air (wind) or water.

n) Sedimentation in a river environment leads to all the layers inclined in the same direction

and the thickness of the layers is on the order of a few tens of centimeters.

o) Sedimentation in a wind environment leads to inclination of the layers in different directions

and the thickness of the layers is on the order of meters.

4. Which processes are directly relevant to the formation of the sample? (You may choose more

than 1 answer).

a) Sedimentation

b) Uplift

c) Erosion

d) Weathering



e) Burial

f) Lithification

g) Melting

h) Slow crystallization

i) Fast crystallization

j) Regional metamorphism

k) Contact metamorphism

5. Which of the following Earth Systems are involved in the formation and exposure of the rock?.

(Note: Choose only ONE response, which represents all the systems that DIRECTLY influenced the

formation AND exposure of the sample).

a) Geosphere and Atmosphere.

b) Geosphere and Hydrosphere.

c) Geosphere and Biosphere.

d) Hydrosphere and Atmosphere.

e) Hydrosphere and Biosphere.

f) Atmosphere and Biosphere.

g) Geosphere and Atmosphere and Hydrosphere.

h) Geosphere and Atmosphere and Biosphere.

i) Geosphere and Hydrosphere and Biosphere.

j) Hydrosphere and Atmosphere and Biosphere.

k) Geosphere and Atmosphere and Hydrosphere and Biosphere.

Location 2:


answer).

1. Fossil

2. Cross bedding











11. Glassy texture


than 1 answer).














answer).















mineral.







than 1 answer).

a) Sedimentation

b) Uplift

c) Erosion

d) Weathering

e) Burial

f) Lithification

g) Melting





















Location 3:


answer).

1. Fossil

2. Cross bedding









11. Glassy texture


than 1 answer).
















answer).













mineral.







than 1 answer).

a) Sedimentation

b) Uplift

c) Erosion



d) Weathering

e) Burial

f) Lithification

g) Melting



















Location 4:


answer).

1. Fossil

2. Cross bedding











11. Glassy texture


than 1 answer).














answer).















mineral.







than 1 answer).

a) Sedimentation

b) Uplift

c) Erosion

d) Weathering

e) Burial

f) Lithification

g) Melting





















EXERCISE #2

Measure and record the strike and dip of the inclined plane at location 5 & 6. Time: 10 minutes (10

POINTS)

EXERCISE #3

Measure the porosity of sand using the apparatus provided at location 7. Time: 15 minutes (10

POINTS).




GEOSPHERE PRACTICAL TEST

PART 2 LOCATION: KARIGHATTA

Instructions: Study the rocks at locations 1 to 4 and answer the following questions.

Please surrender your papers with the answers marked to the mentor on site before you get

into the bus. (Time 30 minutes; 20 points). 1. Which of the following features can you observe in the sample? (You may choose more than 1

answer).

12. Fossil

13. Cross bedding





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