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MOCK TESTS

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Section_07_for CD 3-5.indb 1 10/30/2009 12:59:18 PM

Mock Test 3Directions for questions 1 to 3: Complete the following series.

1. 2, 3, 10, 39, 172, ______(1) 845 (2) 865(3) 885 (4) 895

2. BDG, CFJ, EIN, HMS, ______(1) KSZ (2) LRY(3) LWZ (4) KRY

3. B9D, F49H, J121L, N225P, ______(1) Q324S (2) S400U(3) R361T (4) T441V

Directions for questions 4 to 8: Select the correct alterna-tive from the given choices.

4. Statements: All candies are creams. All cakes are can-dies. No chocolate is cake. No cream is cheese.

Conclusions: I. No candie is chocolate. II. Only cakes are creams. III. Only creams are cakes. IV. Some chocolates are not candies.(1) All follow (2) Only I follows(3) Only III follows (4) None follows

5. Statements: All grounds are stretches. No lands are grounds. All fields are grounds. All fields are plains.

Conclusions: I. All plains are stretches. II. Some stretches are not plains III. Some lands are plains. IV. All fields are stretches.(1) Only either II or IV follows(2) Only IV follows(3) Only I follows(4) Only I, II and IV follow

6. Statements: All liquids are extracts. Some liquids are juices. No extracts are nectars. No fluids are liquids.

Conclusions: I. Some juices are not nectars. II. Some liquids are not nectars. III. Some extracts are not fluids. IV. No nectars are liquids.(1) Only I, II and III follow.(2) Only I, III and IV follow.(3) Only II, III and IV follow.(4) All follow.

7. Statements: All gricks are kricks. All pricks are tricks. Some tricks are gricks. No krick is a brick.

Conclusions: I. Some kricks are not bricks. II. No prick is a krick. III. Some bricks are kricks. IV. Some pricks are gricks.(1) None follows.(2) Only I and II follow.(3) Only I follows.(4) Either I or III and II follow.

8. Statements: All walls are ceilings. Some ceilings are doors. No door is window. Some windows are walls.

Conclusions: I. Some walls are not doors. II. No ceiling is window. III. Some doors are walls. IV. Some ceilings are not windows.(1) Only I (2) Only II and III(3) Either I or IV (4) Only I and IV

Directions for questions 9 to 11: In each question below a statement is given followed by two courses of action marked I and II. A course of action is a step or adminis-trative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc., on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then de-


7.4 n Mock Tests

Reasons:RI: The company made huge profits this year.RII: The company has shut down its loss making

branch.

14. Assertion: The next general elections are going to be the most closely contested.

Reasons:RI: All the contestants are equally popular.RII: All the contestants are equally unpopular.

15. Assertion: The country’s army has acquired a new so-phisticated missile.

Reasons:RI: The neighbouring country’s army has acquired

similar missiles.RII: The existing missiles have become obsolete.

16. Assertion: It is very difficult to put out forest fire.

Reasons:RI: The forest fire cannot be detected when it is small.RII: The forest fire spreads very quickly in all direc-

tions.

Directions for questions 17 to 20: In each of these ques-tions, a statement is given followed by two assumptions I and II. An assumption is something supported or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the as-sumptions, and then decide which of the assumptions (S) is/are implicit in the statement.Mark your answer as:

I. If only assumption I is implicit II. If only assumption II is implicit III. If neither I nor II is implicit IV. If both I and II are implicit

17. Statement: More Indian students are going to China to study medicine.

Assumptions: I. In China, such courses are cheaper.II. It is because there is a craze for a medical degree

among Indian students.

18. Statement: Dhoni’s problem is that history is against him. Rarely has a wicket keeper been a successful cap-tain.

Assumptions: I. Dhoni is not a successful captain.II. A wicket keeper can never become a successful

captain.

19. Statement: An advertisement: A vehicle for those who love luxury and elegance.

cide which of the two suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing. Mark your answer as

(1) If only I follows(2) If only II follows(3) If neither I nor II follows(4) If both I and II follow

9. Statement: The forest cover on earth has depleted to dangerous levels.

Courses of action: I. The government should recruite more IAS offi-

cers in the forest department.II. The forest department should encourage tourists

who like to see forests.

10. Statement: Unnecessary honking of horns causes lot of noise pollution.

Courses of action: I. Those who honk horn unnecessarily should be

sent to jail.II. A campaign should be made to make people aware

of problems caused by noise pollution.

11. Statement: Global warming has reached dangerous levels.

Courses of action: I. People should stop using stoves which release

heat into the atmosphere.II. Afforestation and measures to reduce release of

green house gases should be taken up on war foot-ing.

Directions for questions 12 to 16: In each of the follow-ing questions an assertion is followed by two reasons RI and RII. Read the assertion carefully and decide which among RI and RII is/are possible reason(s) for the asser-tion. Mark your answer as

(1) if only RI is the reason(2) if only RII is the reason(3) if neither RI nor RII is a reason(4) if both RI and RII are possible reasons

12. Assertion: People of village X will soon have to leave their village.

Reasons:RI: A huge dam is being constructed in the vicinity of

village x.RII: A multinational company is constructing its man-

ufacturing unit in the vicinity of village x.

13. Assertion: The employees of the company would get bonus this year.


Mock Test 3 n 7.5

23. The total number of bike-owners, in all the six cities put together is(1) 15,37,500 (2) 10,25,000(3) 13,37,500 (4) None of these

24. The number of bike-owners in Chennai forms what percentage of the number of scooter-owners in Hydera-bad and Bangalore put together?(1) 662/3 % (2) 75 %(3) 331/3 % (4) 25 %

25. For the six cities, the total number of car owners is what percent more than the total number of scooter-owners?(1) 15 % (2) 331/3 %(3) 50 % (4) None of these

Directions for questions 26 to 29: These questions are based on the table and the pie chart given below.

The results of survey on percentage of B-schools offering the following courses in managementThe total number of B-schools is 2000, and the percent-age wise distribution among the different zones is shown below.

Sl. No.Courses in management North East West South

1. Finance 86 80 74 682. Marketing 74 92 88 64

3.Human Resource (HR)

74 68 62 58

4. Operations 28 54 55 635. Systems 32 54 55 636. Risk management 59 32 34 687. Insurance 56 26 18 28

8.Telecom management

46 48 56 38

9. Foreign Trade 37 42 45 48

10.Rural management

25 52 37 51

11.Supply chain management

18 27 33 44

703

East15%

West20% North

30%

South35%

(1) 15 per cent (2) 331/3 per cent (3) 50 per cent (4) None of these

Directions for questions 26 to 29: These questions are based on the table and the pie chart given below.

The results of survey on percentage of B-schools offering the following courses in management The total number of B-schools is 2000, and the percentage wise distribution among the different zones is shown below.

Sl. No. Courses in management North East West South1. Finance 86 80 74 68 2. Marketing 74 92 88 64 3. Human Resource (HR) 74 68 62 58 4. Operations 28 54 55 63 5. Systems 32 54 55 63 6. Risk management 59 32 34 68 7. Insurance 56 26 18 28 8. Telecom management 46 48 56 38 9. Foreign Trade 37 42 45 48

10. Rural management 25 52 37 51 11. Supply chain management 18 27 33 44

26. The number of B-schools offering rural management course according to the survey is the minimum in the ______ zone. (1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South

27. What percentage of B-schools surveyed do not offer risk management or telecom management?(1) 33 (2) 21.5 (3) 45.5 (4) Cannot be determined

28. What is the number of B-schools offering course in finance in the four zones put together? (1) 1528 (2) 868 (3) 932 (4) 1520

29. If all the B-schools which offer insurance, also offer finance, then what percentage of B-schools offering finance offer insurance in east? (1) 56 (2) 32.5 (3) 30 (4) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 30 to 34: These questions are based on the table given below which represents the percentage growth in the volume of sales of five brands of motorbikes across the years mentioned and the projected increase for the period 2000-2005.

Name of the Bike 1985-1990 1990-1995 1995-2000 2000-2005 (projected) Suzuki Hayabusa 15 20 25 50 Kawasaki TF-910 10 10 20 40 Honda Mag-EV 5 10 20 30 Ducati DXTRA 20 10 30 40 Aprilla AS-X100 20 10 10 50

30. The sales of which motor bike have increased by the highest percentage from 1990 to 2000? (1) Ducati DXTRA (2) Kawasaki TF-910 (3) Suzuki Hayabusa (4) Aprilla AS-X100

31. If Ducati DXTRA has registered a sales of 42,900 in 2000, then what is the difference in its projected sales for 2005 and its sales in 1990? (1) 21,400 (2) 30,060 (3) 16,170 (4) 25,440

32. The sales of Kawasaki TF-910 in 2000 were 2,64,000 and the projected sales of Aprilla AS-X100 for 2005 are 5,44,500. What is the ratio of the sales of Kawasaki TF-910 to that of Aprilla AS-X100 in 1990? (1) 2 : 3 (2) 18 : 31 (3) 15 : 27 (4) 2 : 5

33. If in 2000, the sales of each of the brands of motor bikes were 2,35,950, then how many of the given brands had sales of more than 1,65,000 in 1990? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5

Assumptions: I. This vehicle is not for those who do not want lux-

ury and elegance.II. This vehicle itself is luxurious and elegant.

20. Statement: The impact of water shortage is being felt all over the world, in the industrialized as well as developing countries.

Assumptions: I. Countries, which are neither industrialized nor de-

veloping are not facing water shortage problem.II. Every country is facing the water shortage prob-

lem.

Directions for questions 21 to 25: These questions are based on the following data.

The triangular chart given below represents the percentage of vehicle owners who own a Car, a Bike and a Scooter for six cities —Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore. (Assume that no vehicle has more than one owner and that there are no other types of vehicles).The number of vehicle owners (only these three) in various cities are as follows (in thousands):D (Delhi) – 900 ; M (Mumbai) – 800K (Kolkata) – 700 ; C (Chennai) – 600H (Hyderabad) – 500 ; B (Bangalore) – 400

702

Bike

Scooter

100%

Car

75%

50%

25%

25% 50% 75% 100%

25%

50%

75%

100%

H

B

C

K M D

17. Statement: More Indian students are going to China to study medicine. Assumptions: . In China, such courses are cheaper. . It is because there is a craze for a medical degree among Indian students.

18. Statement: Dhoni’s problem is that history is against him. Rarely has a wicket keeper been a successful captain. Assumptions:

. Dhoni is not a successful captain. . A wicket keeper can never become a successful captain.

19. Statement: An advertisement: A vehicle for those who love luxury and elegance. Assumptions: . This vehicle is not for those who do not want luxury and elegance. . This vehicle itself is luxurious and elegant.

20. Statement: The impact of water shortage is being felt all over the world, in the industrialized as well as developing countries. Assumptions: . Countries, which are neither industrialized nor developing are not facing water shortage problem. . Every country is facing the water shortage problem.


The triangular chart given below represents the percentage of vehicle owners who own a Car, a Bike and a Scooter for six cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta, Chennai, Hyderabad and Bangalore. (Assume that no vehicle has more than one owner and that there are no other types of vehicles). The number of vehicle owners (only these three) in various cities are as follows (in thousands): D (Delhi) – 900 ; M (Mumbai) – 800 K (Kolkata) – 700 ; C (Chennai) – 600 H (Hyderabad) – 500 ; B (Bangalore) – 400

21. What is the total number of vehicle owners who own a bike in the city which has the highest number of bikes and the city which has the lowest number of bikes, put together? (Assume that no person has more than one vehicle of the same kind).

(1) 3,37,500 (2) 75,000 (3) 4,12,500 (4) 5,12,500

22. The number of car-owners in Chennai exceeds the number of scooter-owners in Hyderabad by (1) 1,75,000 (2) 1,25,000 (3) 50,000 (4) None of these

23. The total number of bike-owners, in all the six cities put together is (1) 15,37,500 (2) 10,25,000 (3) 13,37,500 (4) None of these

24. The number of bike-owners in Chennai forms what percentage of the number of scooter-owners in Hyderabad and Bangalore put together?

(1) 662/3 per cent (2) 75 per cent (3) 331/3 per cent (4) 25 per cent

25. For the six cities, the total number of car owners is what percent more than the total number of scooter-owners?

21. What is the total number of vehicle owners who own a bike in the city which has the highest number of bikes and the city which has the lowest number of bikes, put together? (Assume that no person has more than one vehicle of the same kind).(1) 3,37,500 (2) 75,000(3) 4,12,500 (4) 5,12,500

22. The number of car-owners in Chennai exceeds the number of scooter-owners in Hyderabad by(1) 1,75,000 (2) 1,25,000(3) 50,000 (4) None of these


7.6 n Mock Tests

33. If in 2000, the sales of each of the brands of motor bikes were 2,35,950, then how many of the given brands had sales of more than 1,65,000 in 1990? (1) 2 (2) 4(3) 3 (4) 5

34. By what percentage are the projected sales for 2005 more than the sales in 1995 for Honda Mag-EV?(1) 52 % (2) 56 %(3) 71.6 % (4) 80.2 %

Directions for questions 35 and 36: These questions are based on the table given alongside which gives the num-ber of students in each class and the number of students passed in each class from I to V

Class Number of students Number of students passed

I 130 110II 122 104III 98 76IV 112 104V 88 64

35. Which of the following classes has the highest per-centage of students who failed (as compared to the strength of the class)?(1) I (2) II(3) III (4) V

36. The total number of students who passed, as a percent-age of the total strength of the given classes is(1) 833/11 % (2) 85 %(3) 866/11 % (4) 899/11 %

Directions for questions 37 to 40: From the data given in the table below, solve the questions that follow.

The table gives the total percentage of literates, percent-age of female literates and percentage of male literates in a country ‘xyz’.

Literacy rate (per cent) from 1921 to 2001 in a country ‘xyz’.

YearTotal literacyRate (per cent)

Female literacyRate (per cent)

Male literacyRate (per cent)

1921 54 % 24 % 66 %1931 52 % 32 % 64 %1941 50 % 30 % 72 %1951 54 % 28 % 78 %1961 66 % 38 % 74 %1971 62 % 44 % 82 %1981 78 % 42 % 80 %1991 76 % 56 % 86 %2001 80 % 68 % 88 %

26. The number of B-schools offering rural management course according to the survey is the minimum in the ______ zone.(1) North (2) East(3) West (4) South

27. What percentage of B-schools surveyed do not offer risk management or telecom management?(1) 33 (2) 21.5(3) 45.5 (4) Cannot be determined

28. What is the number of B-schools offering course in finance in the four zones put together?(1) 1528 (2) 868(3) 932 (4) 1520

29. If all the B-schools which offer insurance, also offer finance, then what percentage of B-schools offering finance offer insurance in east?(1) 56 (2) 32.5(3) 30 (4) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 30 to 34: These questions are based on the table given below which represents the per-centage growth in the volume of sales of five brands of motorbikes across the years mentioned and the projected increase for the period 2000-2005.

Name of the Bike1985-1990

1990-1995

1995-2000

2000-2005 (projected)

Suzuki Hayabusa 15 20 25 50

Kawasaki TF-910 10 10 20 40

Honda Mag-EV 5 10 20 30

Ducati DXTRA 20 10 30 40

Aprilla AS-X100 20 10 10 50

30. The sales of which motor bike have increased by the highest percentage from 1990 to 2000?(1) Ducati DXTRA (2) Kawasaki TF-910(3) Suzuki Hayabusa (4) Aprilla AS-X100

31. If Ducati DXTRA has registered a sales of 42,900 in 2000, then what is the difference in its projected sales for 2005 and its sales in 1990?(1) 21,400 (2) 30,060(3) 16,170 (4) 25,440

32. The sales of Kawasaki TF-910 in 2000 were 2,64,000 and the projected sales of Aprilla AS-X100 for 2005 are 5,44,500. What is the ratio of the sales of Kawasaki TF-910 to that of Aprilla AS-X100 in 1990?(1) 2 : 3 (2) 18 : 31(3) 15 : 27 (4) 2 : 5


Mock Test 3 n 7.7

45. A pipe can fill a tank in 45 minutes and another one in 30 minutes. A third pipe can empty the tank in 15 minutes. The first two pipes are kept open for 12 minutes in the beginning and then the third pipe is also opened. In what time will the tank be emptied?(1) 1/2 hour (2) 1 hour(3) 11/2 hour (4) Cannot be determined

46. A part of the charges of a phone bill remains constant and the remaining part varies as the number of calls. If 100 calls are made, the average cost per call (that is, total bill/number of calls) comes to Rs 11. If 200 calls are made the average cost per call comes to Rs 6. How many calls are made by Ashok, if his average cost per call is Rs 9?(1) 200 (2) 125(3) 250 (4) 150

47. At what price should a shopkeeper mark an article of cost Rs 95 so that he gains 20 per cent after allowing a discount of 20 per cent?(1) Rs 142.5 (2) Rs 91.5(3) Rs 101.5 (4) Rs 100

48. A and B can do a work in 18 days and 24 days respec-tively. A and B work on alternate days. What is the difference in the time taken if A starts the work and if B starts the work?(1) 1/3 day (2) 1/2 day(3) 1/9 day (4) 1/6 day

49. A train of length 300 metres overtakes a person mov-ing in the same direction at a speed of 18 kmph in 15 seconds. How many seconds will the train take to cross a platform of length 450 metres?(1) 25 (2) 36 (3) 30 (4) 40

50. There are 560 students in a school. If the ratio of the number of girls to that of boys in the school is 3 : 4, then the number of girls is (1) 80 (2) 160(3) 240 (4) 320

51. A shopkeeper sells an article at a profit of 40 per cent. If he had bought it at 20 per cent less and sold it for Rs 20 less, he would have gained 50 per cent. Determine the cost price (in Rs ) of the article.(1) 400 (2) 300(3) 100 (4) 200

52. A dishonest trader professes to sell his goods at a loss of 4 per cent, but he actually packs 900 grams when he claims to have packed a kilogram. Find his actual profit per cent. (1) 62/3 % (2) 10 % (3) 31/4 % (4) 4 %

37. On how many of the given occasions, did the total literacy rate increase over the previous decade?(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

38. In the given data, the total literacy rate was the maxi-mum in(1) 1961 (2) 1981(3) 1991 (4) 2001

39. The maximum increase (in percentage points) in the total literacy rate during any decade over the previous one is (1) 8 (2) 12(3) 16 (4) 14

40. Which of the following is true?(1) The highest increase (in percentage points) in the

literacy rate of any decade over the previous one during the pre-independence period is lower than that during the post-independence period. (Inde-pendence was achieved in 1963)

(2) The total literacy rate increased continuously.(3) Male literates were less than one-fourth of the fe-

male population for the entire period (4) None of the above

Directions for questions 41 to 60: Select the correct alter-native from the given choices.

41. A and B started a business. A invested Rs 10,000 and B invested Rs 5,000. B adds Rs 2,000 after every two months. If the profit earned at the end of the year was Rs 600, then what is the share of A in the profit?(1) Rs 240 (2) Rs 300(3) Rs 360 (4) Rs 480

42. A man buys some apples at the rate of 4 apples for Re 1 and sells all the apples at the rate of 6 apples for Rs 2. Find his profit per cent. (1) 162/3 % (2) 25 %(3) 331/3 % (4) 20 %

43. An article is listed at a price of Rs 200. A customer purchased it at Rs 162 after receiving two successive discounts. If the first discount is 10 per cent then what is the second discount allowed by the shopkeeper?(1) 5 % (2) 7.5 %(3) 10 % (4) 12.5 %

44. A and B can finish a job in 20 days and 10 days respec-tively. A starts the job and two days later B joins him. After working for two days along with B, A leaves and B alone completes the remaining job. How long does B work alone?(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 5


7.8 n Mock Tests

Directions for questions 61 to 64: Each question has a sentence with two blanks followed by four pairs of words as choices. From the choices, select the pair of words that can best complete the given sentence.

61. In the months and years ahead, we intend to build both kinds of strengths; during times of _______ as well as tension, during periods of cooperation as well as con-flict, until the world we pass on to our children is truly _______ and fosters diversity and freedom to flour-ish.(1) peace . . . insidious (2) détente . . . safe(3) perdition . . . conducive (4) tranquillity . . . perfidious

62. The Malays in South-east Asia have _______ the Eng-lish language with priceless words such as “amok” – a word which has been in the language so long that it is hardly _______ to be of Asian origin.(1) impoverished . . . apparent(2) endowed . . . inconspicuous(3) supplied . . . observed(4) enriched . . . suspected

63. For ten years, candidates have been going through the big food bazaars grinning _______ and shaking hands with astounded females in the _______ belief that somehow this would assure the women’s vote.(1) infectiously . . . scurrilous (2) fatuously . . . dubious(3) ceremoniously . . . wanton (4) seductively . . . calculated

64. If you wish to be a rapid, efficient reader, you must give up your _______ attention to detail, your com-pulsive reference to minor points and you must be willing to develop a mindset that _______ on the cen-tral themes.(1) excessive . . . concentrates (2) undue . . . dwells(3) aphoristic . . . centres(4) elaborate . . . reflect

Directions for questions 65 to 68: Which of the words given below each sentence can replace the underlined phrase?

65. The death of his father at an unsuitable and unfortu-nate time cost him his first job.(1) inappropriate (2) inopportune(3) inconvenient (4) inclement

66. The fast and intense mail in support of the axed crick-eter surprised the selectors.(1) abusive (2) inundating(3) invasive (4) intruding

53. In a kilometre race, A gives a headstart of 50 m to B. If A is 1/4 times faster than B, at what distance from the starting point of the race will they meet?(1) 200 m (2) 250 m(3) 400 m (4) 500 m

54. Starting at 8 a.m., snow began to fall at a rate of 21/2 inches every three hours until 2 p.m. If there was already 5 inches of snow on the ground at 8 a.m., how many inches of snow was on the ground at 2 p.m. that day?(1) 10 (2) 12(3) 15 (4) 16

55. If a road roller travelled 40 km in 1 hour and 40 min-utes, what was its speed (in km per hour)? (1) 32 (2) 24(3) 30 (4) 40

56. Of all the visitors to a market, 90 per cent buy vegeta-bles, of these, 20 per cent buy cabbages. What percent of the visitors to the market buy cabbage?(1) 36 % (2) 18 %(3) 48 % (4) 54 %

57. Amit bought two articles with 20 per cent discount on each. Had he got 25 per cent discount on the first and 30 per cent discount on the second he would have saved Rs 1000 on each article. What are the marked prices of the two articles?(1) Rs 20000 and Rs 15000 (2) Rs 10000 and Rs 5000(3) Rs 20000 and Rs 10000 (4) Rs 25000 and Rs 15000

58. The average speed of a car in travelling from A to B and returning back equals the average of its forward and return speeds. If AB = 400 km and total travel time = 10 hours, the speed for its forward journey is (in kmph)(1) 60 (2) 75(3) 80 (4) 90

59. The average of 15 observations is 36. The average of the first 8 observations is 32 and the average of the last 8 observations is 38. Find the value of the eighth observation.(1) 20 (2) 30(3) 40 (4) 32

60. The weight of an empty bottle is 30 per cent of the weight of the bottle when filled with some liquid. Some of the liquid was removed. Then, the bottle along with the remaining liquid, weighed 40 per cent of the original weight. What fractional part of the liq-uid has been removed?(1) 6/7 (2) 3/4(3) 4/5 (4) 2/3


Mock Test 3 n 7.9

(2) enabling people to convey and preserve their thoughts that incorporate a series of dots

(3) enabling people to convey and preserve their thoughts by incorporating a series of dots

(4) enabling people to convey and preserve their thoughts by incorporating series of dots

Directions for questions 73 to 76: In each question, four different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage:

73. A. Throughout history, there hasn’t been any other age where humans would sit and stare at some-thing for such prolonged periods of time as we do now but nobody is going to give up their computers or Blackberry over a stiff neck or red eyes.

B. Throughout history there hasn’t been any other age where humans could sit and stare at some-thing for such prolonged periods of time as we do now but nobody is going to give up their computer or Blackberry over a stiff neck or red eyes.

C. Throughout history there hasn’t been any other age when humans would sit and stare at some-thing for such prolonged periods of time as we do now but nobody is going to give up their computer or Blackberry over a stiff neck or red eyes.

D. Throughout history there hasn’t been any other age when humans would sit and stare at some-thing for such prolonged periods of time as we do now but nobody is going to give up their computer or Blackberry for a stiff neck or red eyes.

(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

74. A. The revolutionaries are generally united in believ-ing that something dramatically, something rec-ognizably novel must be occurring, or will soon occur and they suggest that every conceivable as-pect of life would change.

B. The revolutionaries are generally united in believ-ing that something dramatically, recognizably nov-el must be occurring, or will soon occur and they suggest that every conceivable aspect of life will be changed.

C. The revolutionaries are generally united in believ-ing that something dramatically, recognizably nov-el must be occurring or would soon occur and they suggest that every conceivable aspect of life would change.

D. The revolutionaries are generally united in believ-ing that something dramatic, recognizably novel

67. My teacher, who is very particular about accuracy and even the finest detail, is very hard to please(1) diligent (2) fastidious(3) squeamish (4) industrious

68. Over 40 surveyors have tendered their resignation during the last week, protesting “complete misman-agement” and a decisions not based on any principle plan or system.(1) unfair (2) illegal (3) mediatory (4) arbitrary

Directions for questions 69 to 72: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the under-lined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative and mark its number as your answer.

69. It is a sort of paradox, but it is true; we are never much in danger than when we think ourselves most secure.(1) we are never much in danger than when we think

ourselves most secure.(2) we are never more in danger than when we think

ourselves most secure.(3) we are never more in danger than if we think our-

selves most secure.(4) we are never much in danger than if we think our-

selves most secure.

70. A good director of an organization must know money management, selling and being able to satisfy stock-holders.(1) money management, selling, and being able to

satisfy stockholders. (2) how to manage money, sell his product, and be

able to satisfy stockholders.(3) how to manage money, sell his product, and sat-

isfy the stockholders.(4) money management, selling, the idea of being

able to satisfy the stockholders.

71. The defendent refused to answer the prosecutor’s ques-tions because he was afraid it would incriminate him.(1) because he was afraid it would incriminate him.(2) because he was afraid that they would incriminate

him.(3) for fear that his answers would incriminate him.(4) fearing that he will be incriminated by it.

72. Louis Braille designed a form of communication en-abling people to convey and preserve their thoughts to incorporate a series of dots which were read by the finger tips.(1) enabling people to convey and preserve their

thoughts to incorporate a series of dots


7.10 n Mock Tests

77. A. Deep vein thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms within the large deep veins of the body, usu-ally in the leg and if untreated it can cause pulmo-nary embolism—a potentially fatal condition.

B. But—while it is often referred to as “economy—class syndrome” because of the cramped seating there, DVT also occurs among those who fly in business class and first class, the researchers found.

C. Immobility is considered a major factor behind the condition called deep vein thrombosis.

D. Life—threatening blood clots and flying have been linked for more than 50 years, but a new study of business travelers confirms the risk, particularly for those who take long flights or fly frequently.

(1) ACBD (2) ADBC(3) DCBA (4) ADCB

78. A. Friendly fire is the euphemism our military and press use to sugar-coat the presumably acciden-tal killing of soldiers in battle by their own com-rades.

B. In Sen’s words: “Sometimes the very institutions that were created to over-come disparities and bar-riers have tended to act as reactionary influences in reinforcing inequity.

C. There is a critical issue in the energy debate which has not received the attention it deserves; the problem of “friendly fire’.

D. The first time I saw the term ‘friendly fire’ used in a non-military context was in the book. ‘The Argumentative Indian,’ by the brilliant Nobel Laureate economist, philosopher and historian Amartya Sen.

(1) ACDB (2) BDAC(3) ACDB (4) CADB

79. A. This varied habitat mosaic is home to over 4000 plant species and an extraordinary variety of crea-tures great and small.

B. Having evolved over millions of years, the west-ern ghats are a treasure trove of biodiversity and have been recognized as an ecological “hot spot” of global significance.

C. The ghats are home to many indigenous adivasi communities, who lived in traditional equilibrium with the land until the influx of hundreds of thou-sands of people from the plains during the last few decades.

D. The altitudinal gradient of the mountains, com-bined with their orientation to the monsoons, has led to the evolution of a wide variety of intercon-nected ecosystems that range from scrub jungle in

must be occurring or would soon occur and they suggest that every conceivable aspect of life will change.

(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

75. A. The UN is saddled with ill defined selection procedure that leaves the choice of a Secretary General subjected to 11th-hour compromises, power manoeuvres and regional rivalries.

B. The UN is saddled with ill defined selection procedure that leaves the choice of a Secretary General subject to 11th-hour compromises, power manoeuvres and regional rivalries.

C. The UN is saddled with an ill defined selection procedure that leaves the choice of a Secretary General subject to 11th-hour compromises, power manoeuvres and regional rivalries.

D. The UN is saddled with an ill defined selection procedure that leaves the choice of a Secretary General subjected with 11th-hour compromises, power manoeuores and regional rivalries.

(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

76. A. Modern democracies—unlike those that of an-tiquity—confer great power upon certain chosen individuals, Presidents or Prime Ministers, and expects of them kinds of merit not expected of ordinary citizen.

B. A modern democracy—unlike those of antiquity—confers great power upon certain chosen individuals, Presidents or Prime Ministers, and expects of them kinds of merit not expected of the ordinary citizen.

C. A modern democracy—unlike that of antiquity—confers great power upon certain chosen indi-viduals, Presidents or Prime Ministers, and will expect of them kinds of merit not expected of the ordinary citizen.

D. Modern democracies—unlike those of antiquity—confer great power upon certain chosen individu-als, Presidents or Prime Ministers, and will expect of them kinds of merit not expected of ordinary citizen.

(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

Directions for questions 77 to 79: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. From among the four choices given below each question, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent paragraph.


Mock Test 3 n 7.11

lution levels in eight critically polluted cities in India, was set up by the(1) Ministry of Environment(2) Ministry of Science and Technology (3) Greenpeace International(4) Supreme Court of India

86. Micorsoft is in the news for threatening a hostile take-over of Yahoo. The CEO of Microsoft is (1) Steve Ballmer (2) Bill Gates(3) Jerry Yang (4) Steve Jobs

87. What cannot be a cause for an underdeveloped Indian economy?(1) Demographic dividend(2) Co-existence of underutilized man power and

natural resources(3) Lack of capital(4) High density of population

88. The Geological Survey of India, found huge deposits of gold ore at Bhukia in Banswara district, located in(1) Gujarat (2) Maharashtra(3) Rajasthan (4) Jharkhand

89. Hollywood actor Charlton Heston passed away in April 2008. In which of his films he played the role of Michealangelo?(1) The Ten Commandments (2) Benhur(3) The Agony and Ecstasy(4) The Greatest Story Ever Told

90. Motorola is based in(1) Germany (2) USA(3) South Korea (4) United Kingdom

91. The landmark Supreme Court judgement in the S R Bommai Case, laid down that the correct procedure to test the majority of a government, was the floor of the legislature. In which year was the judgement deliv-ered? (1) 1968 (2) 1975(3) 1993 (4) 1995

92. India’s first Finance minister who presented the bud-get in November 1947 was(1) K C Neogi (2) Jawaharlal Nehru(3) John Mathai (4) Shanmukham Chetty

93. Dow Jones is the stock exchange index of(1) Tokyo (2) Hong Kong(3) New York (4) London

94. AXIS Bank is the new name of(1) Yes Bank (2) IDBI(3) UTI Bank (4) Deutsche Bank

the rain shadow regions to most evergreen forests on the rain drenched slopes and, at the very top, montane shola forests nestled in the folds of undu-lating grasslands.

(1) BDCA (2) CDBA(3) DBAC (4) BDAC

Directions for question 80: In each of the following ques-tions, statements 1 to 6 are respectively the first and last sentences of a paragraph. Statements A, B, C and D come in between them. Rearrange A, B, C and D in such a man-ner that they make a coherent paragraph together with statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices and mark its number as your answer.

80. 1. The hospital is a mega project which was in the pipeline for over four years now.

A. It is a beacon of light for the patients in central Kerala.

B. It is a mammoth facility occupying over six hun-dred thousand square feet.

C. It has state-of-the-art rooms and facilities.D. The infrastructural facilities have been so

planned as not to affect the smooth running of the hospital.

6. A major public sector undertaking has already as-sured full protected water supply to the hospital.

(1) ABCD (2) BCDA(3) BCAD (4) ACBD


81. The 900 mw Purulia pumped storage project launched in April 2008 is the biggest of its type in the country, generating clean hydro—power. It is located in (1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Arunachal Pradesh(3) West Bengal (4) Assam

82. The Chairperson of the National Commission for the Protection of the Rights of Children is(1) Shanta Sinha. (2) Girija Vyas.(3) Mohini Giri. (4) Swami Agnivesh.

83. 9 April 2009 was the 115th Foundation Day of(1) Bank of Baroda (2) Punjab National Bank(3) Allahabad Bank (4) Canara Bank

84. Simarouba Glauca or paradise plant is an eco-friendly tree, the seed of which contains 75 per cent of low fat edible oil. Simarouba is native to(1) Brazil (2) Malaysia(3) Congo (4) El Salvador

85. The Environment Pollution Controlling (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which monitors pol-


7.12 n Mock Tests

102. What is the step I if the step IV for an input is “15 19 23 37 33 41” ?(1) 2 4 6 8 12 14(2) 2 6 7 3 4 3(3) 5 7 8 11 6 4(4) Cannot be determined

103. What is the output for the input –12 15 19 11 34 22(1) –1 0 3 6 9 14(2) –1 0 3 8 9 14(3) –1 0 –3 6 8 14(4) –3 4 5 6 9 12

104. What is the step IV if the step I for an input is “8 4 9 3 2 1”?(1) –2 3 4 5 11 12 (2) –3 –2 1 2 11 12(3) 2 3 4 5 11 12(4) -3 –2 2 4 11 42

Directions for question 105: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

105. A compass was damaged and its pointers turned in such a manner that the pointer which shows West is now showing North. If a person is going towards South as shown by the compass, in which direction is he actually going?(1) North (2) South(3) West (4) East

Directions for questions 106 and 107: In a certain code language, ‘+’ is represented by ‘×', '–' is represented by '÷', '×' is represented by ‘+’, ‘÷’ is represented by '–'. The expression given in each of the following question is written in that code. Find the resultant of each of the expressions.

106. 25 × 15 ÷ 10 + 30 – 10(1) 4 (2) 10(3) 30 (4) 2

107. 81 – 9 × 42 – 7 × 2 + 10(1) 50 (2) 30(3) 35 (4) 7

Directions for questions 108 to 111: These questions are based on the information given below.

In a group of ten persons—M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W—some are to be selected into team A and the remaining into team B. It is also known that,

(i) P and W cannot be selected into the same team and W and S cannot be selected into the same team.

(ii) S cannot be selected into the team, in which either Q or R is selected.

95. The first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was con-ferred on(1) Geeth Sethi (2) Vishwanathan Anand(3) K. Malleshwari (4) Leander Peas

96. The Manama Dialogue, an international security con-ference was held in December 2008 Manama is lo-cated in(1) UAE (2) Bahrain(3) Oman (4) Somalia

97. Which country has proposed providing gas to India through a $7.6 billion pipeline from its Doulatabad fields?(1) Turkmenistan (2) Tajikistan(3) Iran (4) Russia

98. Who among the following is the author of the book, ‘Sea of Poppies’?(1) Salman Rushdie (2) Amitav Ghosh(3) Anita Desai (4) Kiran Desai

99. Who is the chairman of the scientific advisory council to the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh? (1) R. A. Mashlekar (2) C. N. R. Rao (3) M. S. Swaminathan (4) Madhavan Nair

100. Which of the following countries has planned a manned moon mission and an exploratory robot on the moon by 2010?(1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Italy

Directions for questions 101 to 104: These questions are based on the following information.

A number processing machine when given an input line of numbers process them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.

Input: 25 38 98 87 68 91Step I: 7 11 17 15 14 10Step II: 14 22 34 30 28 20Step III: 14 20 22 28 30 34Step IV: 5 11 13 19 21 25Step V: 9 14 17 22 25 28Here, step V, is the output

101. What is the step III for the input19 22 48 37 28 15?(1) 8 12 18 18 18 24(2) 10 12 20 20 20 24(3) 8 12 20 20 20 24(4) 8 12 20 20 20 26


Mock Test 3 n 7.13

(iii) each team must have at least four persons. (iv) M cannot be selected into the team, in which either N

or V is selected. (v) T and U cannot be selected into the same team.

108. If V and Q are selected into the same team, then who among the following must be selected into the same team as that of P?(1) U (2) T(3) N (4) M

109. Which of the following statements is true?(1) Q and R are not selected into the same team.(2) P and R are selected into the same team.(3) P and S are selected into the same team.(4) Q and W are not selected into the same team.

110. If team A has 6 members, which of the following can be team B?(1) W, Q, R and U (2) M, P, S and T(3) M, P, T and V (4) M, Q, R and W

111. If both the teams have the same number of persons, then who must be selected into the same team as W?(1) U (2) V(3) T (4) M

Directions for questions 112 and 113: These questions are based on the following information.

Out of the 100 students of a class, for every one student who failed in both the subjects—Physics and Chemistry, there is one student who passed in both the subjects. For every one student who passed in only Chemistry, there are two students who passed only in Physics. 50 per cent of the stu-dents who passed in Chemistry, passed in Physics as well.

112. How many students passed in Chemistry?(1) 40 (2) 50(3) 60 (4) 25

113. How many students failed in Physics?(1) 30 (2) 40(3) 50 (4) 25

Directions for question 114 and 115: Select the correct al-ternative from the given choices.

114. A clock gains 15 minutes in 24 hours. At 6:00 a.m. on Monday, the clock is 8 minutes slow, what time will the clock be 2 minutes faster?(1) 8:00 p.m. on Monday(2) 10:00 p.m. on Monday(3) 6:00 a.m. on Tuesday(4) 8:00 a.m. on Tuesday

115. If 1st of February of a leap year is a Sunday, then 1st of which of the following month will also be a Sunday?

(1) June (2) August(3) November (4) December


In the Mr India competition, the contestants are tested in two categories—strength and intelligence. In an year, five contestants—A, B, C, D and E, who reached into the finals were given points from 1 to 5 in each category. The follow-ing information is also known.

(1) No person got some points in both the categories.(2) No two people got the same points in a particular cat-

egory.(3) No two people got the same total points.(4) D got 4 points in intelligence and E got a total of

5 points.(5) C got the least total points.(6) A got 1 point in strength.

116. Who got the highest points in intelligence?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) E

117. Who got the overall third position?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

118. If the person who got the overall highest points is declared as Mr India, then who is Mr India?(1) A (2) B(3) D (4) E

119. The difference in the total points obtained by B and E is ____.(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

120. How many persons got not less than the average points in each category?(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3

Directions for questions 121 to 140: Select the correct al-ternative from the given choices.

121. A boat took 24 hours to cover a round trip journey between two points 40 km apart. If the speed of its boat in still water is doubled, which of the following cannot be the time taken by it to cover the downstream journey? (in hours)(1) 4 (2) 5(3) 3 (4) 7

122. A retailer mixed two varieties of sugar, A and B, whose cost prices are Rs 16 per kg and Rs 20 per kg. He sold the mixture at Rs 18.20 per kg at 5 per cent


7.14 n Mock Tests

an hour later at a speed of 50 kmph. When will the leopard catch the rabbit?(1) 3 hours after the rabbit started.(2) 21/2 hours after the leopard started.(3) 2 hours after the leopard started.(4) 3 hours after the rabbit started.

131. The product of the lengths of the sides of a triangle is 144 and its circumradius is 2 3 cm. The area of the triangle is

(1) 248 3 cm (2) 236 3 cm

(3) 212 3 cm (4) 26 3 cm

132. In a 200 m race, Ramesh gives Suresh a start of 10 m and beats him by 10 m or 2 seconds. Find the speed (in m/sec) of Ramesh.(1) 6 (2) 61/2(3) 55/9 (4) 5

133. A group of men could complete a job in 10 days. On the first day a man started the job and from the second day onwards a new man joined the job each day. The job was completed at the end of the day the last man joined the job. How many men were there in the group?(1) 18 (2) 19(3) 20 (4) 21

134. A wheel makes 200 revolutions in covering a distance of 550 m. Find the diameter of the wheel. (1) 875 mm (2) 425 mm(3) 1275 mm (4) 1500 mm

135. The height and the radius of a cylinder are 21 cm and 14 cm respectively. The height and the radius of a cone are 14 cm and 21 cm respectively. Find the ratio of their volumes.(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

136. The letters A, E, H, R and T are permuted at random to form a five-letter word, without repetition. Find the probability of the word formed being HEART.(1) 1/48 (2) 1/24(3) 1/54 (4) 1/120

137. What is the number of five letter secret codes that can be formed using the letters A, E, I, O and U without repetition such that neither A nor U are at the extreme ends of the code?(1) 36 (2) 48(3) 72 (4) 90

138. A ladder 20 m long reaches a window 12 m above the ground on one side of a street. Keeping its foot at the same point, the ladder is turned to the other side of

profit. How many kilograms of cheaper variety sugar is mixed with 5 kilograms of costlier variety?(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 10

123. Ajay can do a piece of work in 6 days and Bharath can do the same work in 9 days. In how many days can Ajay and Bharath together complete the work?(1) 4.5 (2) 5(3) 4 (4) 3.6

124. If 10 l of 70 per cent alcohol is mixed with 20 l of 40 per cent alcohol, find the concentration of resulting solution(1) 40 % (2) 30 %(3) 50 % (4) 60 %

125. From the top of a building of height 80 m, the angle of depression of the top and the foot of a tower are ob-served to be 30° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower.(1) 60 m (2) 531/3 m(3) 80 m (4) 701/3 m

126. The average runs scored by the first six players of a team in a cricket match is 45 runs and that of the last six players in the same match is 15 runs. If the average of all the eleven players in the same team and in the same match is 30 runs, the number of runs scored by the sixth player of the team is(1) 30 (2) 20(3) 10 (4) 15

127. A tractor, whose fore wheel is of diameter 70 cm and the rear wheel is of diameter 140 cm, is running at a speed of 50 kmph. Find the ratio of the number of revolutions made by the rear wheel to the number of revolutions made by the fore wheel in 11/2 h.(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 4(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 3

128. A can contains 80 litres of pure milk. x litres of this is taken out and replaced with water. If this process is repeated once, then the quantity of pure milk pres-ent in the diluted milk is 61.25 litres. Find the value of x.(1) 6 litres (2) 8 litres(3) 12 litres (4) 10 litres

129. If eight spherical solid iron balls of radius 7 cm are moulded into a bigger solid sphere, then what is the sur-face area of the bigger sphere? (Take π =22/7)(1) 2464 cm2 (2) 2800 cm2(3) 2884 cm2 (4) 3246 cm2

130. A rabbit races away at the rate of 40 kmph on seeing a leopard. The leopard starts pursuing the rabbit half


Mock Test 3 n 7.15

142. If the number of employees in division B of consum-ables section is 270, then what is the number of em-ployees in division C of durables section?(1) 140 (2) 150(3) 200 (4) Cannot be determined

143. If the total number of employees in consumables and durables sections are in the ratio 2 : 3, then the num-ber of employees in division D of consumables sec-tion forms what percentage of that in division B of durables section?(1) 37 1/7 % (2) 66 2/3 %(3) 33 1/3 % (4) 48 1/3 %

144. If the total number of employees in consumables and durables sections are in the ratio 4 : 3 and the number of employees in division B of consumables section is 600, then what is the number of employees in division D of durables section(1) 270 (2) 150(3) 200 (4) 350

Directions for questions 145 to 147: These questions are based on the following pie chart, which shows the split-up of revenue of the company ‘xyz’ from six different cities in 2005.

713

Lucknow 15%

Indore 10%

Khozikode 8%

Bangalore20%

Kolkata22%

Ahmedabad25%

143. If the total number of employees in consumables and durables sections are in the ratio 2 : 3, then the number of employees in division D of consumables section forms what percentage of that in division B of durables section?

(1) 37 1/7 per cent (2) 66 2/3 per cent (3) 33 1/3 per cent (4) 48 1/3 per cent

144. If the total number of employees in consumables and durables sections are in the ratio 4 : 3 and the number of employees in division B of consumables section is 600, then what is the number of employees in division D of durables section

(1) 270 (2) 150 (3) 200 (4) 350

Directions for questions 145 to 147: These questions are based on the following pie chart, which shows the split-up of revenue of the company ‘xyz’ from six different cities in 2005.

Total revenue of the company ‘xyz’ in the year 2005 in Rs 100 crore.

145. If the revenue for the company ‘xyz’ from Bangalore grew by 30 per cent from 2005 to 2006 whereas the growth in total revenue for the company is 25 per cent, what is the percentage of revenue from Bangalore in 2006?

(1) 20.8 per cent (2) 21.2 per cent (3) 21.6 per cent (4) None of these

146. Using the information in the Q. No. 131, find which city has undergone a maximum percentage change in revenue from 2005 to 2006.

(1) Bangalore (2) Ahmedabad (3) Cannot be determined (4) None of these

147. The revenue for the company ‘xyz’ from the city of Kolkata grew by 5 percentage points from 2005 to 2006. What percentage of the revenue from the city of Kolkata is the total revenue in the year 2006?

(1) 470 per cent (2) 270 per cent (3) 370 per cent (4) None of these

Directions for questions 148 to 151: These questions are based on the following table, which gives the percentage marks obtained by five students in five subjects and the maximum mark of each subject.

Subject (max. marks)

Student name

A(50)

B(100)

C(200)

D(250)

E(150)

Karan 96 86 78 66 92 Johar 78 80 90 84 64 Yash 84 92 68 78 88

Chopra 66 70 68 77 89 Urmila 72 68 65 83 92

148. What is the approximate overall percentage of marks obtained by Yash in all the given subjects together? (1) 80 per cent (2) 70 per cent (3) 90 per cent (4) 60

149. What is the average of marks obtained by all the given students in subject D? (1) 206 (2) 194 (3) 214 (4) None of these

Total revenue of the company ‘xyz’ in the year 2005 in Rs 100 crore.

145. If the revenue for the company ‘xyz’ from Bangalore grew by 30 per cent from 2005 to 2006 whereas the growth in total revenue for the company is 25 per cent, what is the percentage of revenue from Bangalore in 2006?(1) 20.8 % (2) 21.2 %(3) 21.6 % (4) None of these

146. Using the information in the Q. No. 131, find which city has undergone a maximum percentage change in revenue from 2005 to 2006.(1) Bangalore(2) Ahmedabad(3) Cannot be determined(4) None of these

the street to reach a window 16 m high. Find the width of the street. (1) 28 m (2) 36 m(3) 32 m (4) 40 m

139. A sum invested under compound interest compound-ed annually amounts to Rs 7200 in three years and Rs 8640 in four years. What is the rate of interest?(1) 10 % (2) 15 %(3) 20 % (4) 25 %

140. A rabbit is standing between two towers of height 90 m and 180 m. From the top of the first tower, the rabbit is observed at a angle of depression of 30° and from the top of the second tower, it is observed at an angle of depression of 60°. What is the distance be-tween the bases of two towers?

(1) 50 3 m (2) 150 3 m(3) 100 3 m (4) 240 3 m

Directions for questions 141 to 144: These questions are based on the following pie charts, which give the distribu-tion of employees of a company into divisions A, B, C and D. The company has two sections that is, consumables and durables.

Consumables

712

DURABLES

B 80°

C 50°

D 70°

A 160°

CONSUMABLES

B 90°

C 80°

D 40°

A 150°

132. In a 200 m race, Ramesh gives Suresh a start of 10 m and beats him by 10 m or 2 seconds. Find the speed (in m / sec) of Ramesh.

(1) 6 (2) 61/2 (3) 55/9 (4) 5

133. A group of men could complete a job in 10 days. On the first day a man started the job and from the second day onwards a new man joined the job each day. The job was completed at the end of the day the last man joined the job. How many men were there in the group?

(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 21

134. A wheel makes 200 revolutions in covering a distance of 550 m. Find the diameter of the wheel. (1) 875 mm (2) 425 mm (3) 1275 mm (4) 1500 mm

135. The height and the radius of a cylinder are 21 cm and 14 cm respectively. The height and the radius of a cone are 14 cm and 21 cm respectively. Find the ratio of their volumes.

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

136. The letters A, E, H, R and T are permuted at random to form a five-letter word, without repetition. Find the probability of the word formed being HEART.

(1) 1/48 (2) 1/24 (3) 1/54 (4) 1/120

137. What is the number of five letter secret codes that can be formed using the letters A, E, I, O and U without repetition such that neither A nor U are at the extreme ends of the code?

(1) 36 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 90

138. A ladder 20 m long reaches a window 12 m above the ground on one side of a street. Keeping its foot at the same point, the ladder is turned to the other side of the street to reach a window 16 m high. Find the width of the street.

(1) 28 m (2) 36 m (3) 32 m (4) 40 m

139. A sum invested under compound interest compounded annually amounts to Rs 7200 in three years and Rs 8640 in four years. What is the rate of interest?

(1) 10 per cent (2) 15 per cent (3) 20 per cent (4) 25 per cent

140. A rabbit is standing between two towers of height 90 m and 180 m. From the top of the first tower, the rabbit is observed at a angle of depression of 30° and from the top of the second tower, it is observed at an angle of depression of 60°. What is the distance between the bases of two towers?

(1) 50 3 m (2) 150 3 m (3) 100 3 m (4) 240 3 m

Directions for questions 141 to 144: These questions are based on the following pie charts, which give the distribution of employees of a company into divisions A, B, C and D. The company has two sections that is, consumables and durables.

141. If each of the sections have 1080 employees then what is the difference between the number of employees in division A of consumables and durables sections?

(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 25

142. If the number of employees in division B of consumables section is 270, then what is the number of employees in division C of durables section?

(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 200 (4) Cannot be determined

Durables

712

DURABLES

B 80°

C 50°

D 70°

A 160°

CONSUMABLES

B 90°

C 80°

D 40°

A 150°

132. In a 200 m race, Ramesh gives Suresh a start of 10 m and beats him by 10 m or 2 seconds. Find the speed (in m / sec) of Ramesh.

(1) 6 (2) 61/2 (3) 55/9 (4) 5

133. A group of men could complete a job in 10 days. On the first day a man started the job and from the second day onwards a new man joined the job each day. The job was completed at the end of the day the last man joined the job. How many men were there in the group?

(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 21

134. A wheel makes 200 revolutions in covering a distance of 550 m. Find the diameter of the wheel. (1) 875 mm (2) 425 mm (3) 1275 mm (4) 1500 mm

135. The height and the radius of a cylinder are 21 cm and 14 cm respectively. The height and the radius of a cone are 14 cm and 21 cm respectively. Find the ratio of their volumes.

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2

136. The letters A, E, H, R and T are permuted at random to form a five-letter word, without repetition. Find the probability of the word formed being HEART.

(1) 1/48 (2) 1/24 (3) 1/54 (4) 1/120

137. What is the number of five letter secret codes that can be formed using the letters A, E, I, O and U without repetition such that neither A nor U are at the extreme ends of the code?

(1) 36 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 90

138. A ladder 20 m long reaches a window 12 m above the ground on one side of a street. Keeping its foot at the same point, the ladder is turned to the other side of the street to reach a window 16 m high. Find the width of the street.

(1) 28 m (2) 36 m (3) 32 m (4) 40 m

139. A sum invested under compound interest compounded annually amounts to Rs 7200 in three years and Rs 8640 in four years. What is the rate of interest?


140. A rabbit is standing between two towers of height 90 m and 180 m. From the top of the first tower, the rabbit is observed at a angle of depression of 30° and from the top of the second tower, it is observed at an angle of depression of 60°. What is the distance between the bases of two towers?

(1) 50 3 m (2) 150 3 m (3) 100 3 m (4) 240 3 m

Directions for questions 141 to 144: These questions are based on the following pie charts, which give the distribution of employees of a company into divisions A, B, C and D. The company has two sections that is, consumables and durables.

141. If each of the sections have 1080 employees then what is the difference between the number of employees in division A of consumables and durables sections?

(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 25

142. If the number of employees in division B of consumables section is 270, then what is the number of employees in division C of durables section?

(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 200 (4) Cannot be determined

141. If each of the sections have 1080 employees then what is the difference between the number of employees in division A of consumables and durables sections?(1) 40 (2) 30(3) 50 (4) 25


7.16 n Mock Tests

147. The revenue for the company ‘xyz’ from the city of Kolkata grew by 5 percentage points from 2005 to 2006. What percentage of the revenue from the city of Kolkata is the total revenue in the year 2006?(1) 470 % (2) 270 %(3) 370 % (4) None of these

Directions for questions 148 to 151: These questions are based on the following table, which gives the percentage marks obtained by five students in five subjects and the maximum mark of each subject.

Subject (max. marks) →

A

(50)

B

(100)

C

(200)

D

(250)

E

(150)Student name ↓

Karan 96 86 78 66 92

Johar 78 80 90 84 64

Yash 84 92 68 78 88

Chopra 66 70 68 77 89

Urmila 72 68 65 83 92

148. What is the approximate overall percentage of marks obtained by Yash in all the given subjects together?(1) 80 % (2) 70 %(3) 90 % (4) 60

149. What is the average of marks obtained by all the given students in subject D?(1) 206 (2) 194(3) 214 (4) None of these

150. What is the approximate percentage of marks obtained by Johar in subjects B, C and D together?(1) 80 % (2) 85 %(3) 75 % (4) 70 %

151. What is the total of marks obtained by Urmila in all the given subjects together?(1) 565.5 (2) 579.5(3) 543.5 (4) None of these

Directions for questions 152 to 156: These questions are based on the following graph.

152. In which of the following country/countries, did the production of rice increase every year?(1) China (2) India(3) Sri Lanka (4) India and Sri Lanka

153. What is the approximate percentage rise in rice production in Sri Lanka in 1993 over the previous year?(1) 30 % (2) 50 %(3) 40 % (4) 60 %

154. What is the difference between the average production of rice in the countries of India and Pakistan over the entire period?(1) 256 million tonnes (2) 164 million tonnes(3) 478 million tonnes (4) 348 million tonnes

155. The production of rice in China in 1992 is approxi-mately what per cent more than the average produc-tion of rice in China for the entire period?(1) 4 % (2) 5 %(3) 3 % (4) 2 %

156. In which of the following years, is the total production of rice of all the given countries closest to the average production of rice of all the given countries over the given period?(1) 1991 (2) 1992(3) 1993 (4) 1994

Directions for questions 157 to 160: Each of the following questions has two statements labelled A and B. Mark your answer as

Production of Rice (in millinon tonnes)

714

PRODUCTION OF RICE (in million tonnes)

600

500450

400

480 480500

440400

350

180 190170150

200

100 11580

172172

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

1990 1991 1992 1993 1994

China India Pakistan Srilanka

150. What is the approximate percentage of marks obtained by Johar in subjects B, C and D together? (1) 80 per cent (2) 85 per cent (3) 75 per cent (4) 70 per cent

151. What is the total of marks obtained by Urmila in all the given subjects together? (1) 565.5 (2) 579.5 (3) 543.5 (4) None of these

Directions for questions 152 to 156: These questions are based on the following graph.

152. In which of the following country/countries, did the production of rice increase every year? (1) China (2) India (3) Sri Lanka (4) India and Sri Lanka

153. What is the approximate percentage rise in rice production in Sri Lanka in 1993 over the previous year? (1) 30 per cent (2) 50 per cent (3) 40 per cent (4) 60 per cent

154. What is the difference between the average production of rice in the countries of India and Pakistan over the entire period?

(1) 256 million tonnes (2) 164 million tonnes (3) 478 million tonnes (4) 348 million tonnes

155. The production of rice in China in 1992 is approximately what per cent more than the average production of rice in China for the entire period?


156. In which of the following years, is the total production of rice of all the given countries closest to the average production of rice of all the given countries over the given period?

(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1994


(1) if statement A by itself is sufficient to answer the question. (2) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question. (3) if both the statements A and B taken together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement by

itself is sufficient. (4) if statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question and more data is required to

solve the problem.

157. If a, b and c are odd integers and 5 a b c, then what is the value of a? A. c 13 B. a 11

158. In a rectangular aquarium 64 cubic centimetres of water is required per fish. How many fish are there in the aquarium?

A The edges of the aquarium have dimensions 48 cm, 36 cm and 24 cm.


Mock Test 3 n 7.17

165. India’s smallest state by population is(1) Mizoram (2) Sikkim(3) Nagaland (4) Manipur

166. What is the maximum stake that a foreign bank with branches in India can have in a local private bank? (1) 15 % (2) 26 %(3) 49 % (4) 5 %

167. The annual rate of Inflation during July, 2008 has hit a new high of 2.2 million per cent in(1) Zimbabwe. (2) Zambia.(3) Nigeria. (4) Sudan.

168. Which country does SAP, the world’s largest producer of business software, belong to?(1) Canada (2) Ireland(3) Germany (4) Sweden

169. Which committees recommendations deal with amendments to the Company Act?(1) Malhotra Committee(2) Narsimham Committee(3) Irani Committee(4) Kelkar Committee

170. Which is the odd man out?(1) BSE (2) NSE(3) NCDEX (4) OTCEI

171. The world’s largest retailer Wal-Mart stores has tied up with ________ to make a foray into retail business in India.(1) Tata Group(2) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group(3) Bharti Enterprises(4) Future Group

172. The Kizuna satellite was launched in February 2008 by(1) Japan (2) China(3) North Korea (4) Italy

173. Allianz AG which has a 26 per cent stake in Bajaj Al-lianz Life Insurance (BALI) is based in(1) France (2) Germany(3) Belgium (4) Netherlands

174. Which of the following countries is the global leader in unmanned aerial vehicles technology?(1) India (2) China(3) USA (4) Israel

175. The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has set a target of ______ per cent average economic growth in the 11th five year plan (2007-2012).(1) 10 % (2) 9 %(3) 9.5 % (4) 8.5 %

(1) if statement A by itself is sufficient to answer the ques-tion.

(2) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the ques-tion.

(3) if both the statements A and B taken together are suf-ficient to answer the question but neither statement by itself is sufficient.

(4) if statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question and more data is required to solve the problem.

157. If a, b and c are odd integers and 5 < a < b < c, then what is the value of a? A. c < 13 B. a < 11

158. In a rectangular aquarium 64 cubic centimetres of wa-ter is required per fish. How many fish are there in the aquarium?A The edges of the aquarium have dimensions 48

cm, 36 cm and 24 cm.B. The aquarium is filled to a depth of 30 cm.

159. At xyz corporation, for a resolution to become a policy, of the 80 members the resolution must be passed by at least a three fourth majority. Was the policy made?A. 55 members voted for the resolution.B. 12 members voted against the resolution.

160. What is the ratio of the number of boys to that of girls admitted into an engineering college?A. The number of boys admitted is 100 more than

double the number of girls admitted.B. The number of girls admitted is 4/9 of the number

of boys admitted.


161. ‘Getting India Ready’ is the ad-line of(1) GMR (2) Suzlon(3) GCMMF (4) Jaiprakash Associates

162. The West-East corridor of the National Highway Development Programme (NHDP) links Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in(1) Arunachal Pradesh (2) Assam(3) Manipur (4) Sikkim

163. Which company won the 2008 Technology Innovation Award?(1) DLF (2) Bharti Airtel(3) Reliance Power (4) TCS

164. Which country played host to the 15th SAARC Sum-mit?(1) Bangladesh (2) Maldives(3) Sri Lanka (4) Bhutan


7.18 n Mock Tests

by passenger miles. As a result, the statistics are about as mathematically convincing as Levi Eshkol’s famous dic-tum: ‘Put three Zionists in a room and they will form four parties.’ They flatter aviation, with its enormous journeys, and give a bad name to shanks’s pony.

But society’s attitude to risk often seems illogical. More than 350,000 people have been killed by traffic since 1945—a greater number than British service personnel killed in the Second World War—yet only the most horren-dous accidents attract much media attention.

The Hatfield railway crash in 2000 took four lives but it destroyed public confidence in the railways, led to many unnecessary speed restrictions and stimulated thousands of column inches. The most minor incident in the air is closely scrutinized and catastrophes are exhaustively analysed in the public prints. It is necessary, for the public good, to prove that catastrophic accidents result from a clear and de-monstrable cause.

If we regard the railway and the skies as carrying risk, we obviously bring a different attitude to the roads. In the days of capital punishment, murder had a real fascination, now much dissipated. One reason was that in the drama of the scaffold, we could easily imagine ourselves in the shoes of the condemned man. Similarly, we are extremely interested in rail and air accidents because they could, we perceive, happen to us if remedial systematic action were not taken. Road accidents, by contrast, are caused by other people, by folly or by aberration.

Risk, in short, is not the same as danger. The first can be managed but the second comes out of a clear blue sky. Now it is true that better roads can be built, traffic can be ‘calmed’, and drunk-drivers can be punished. Cameras can track offenders and bring them to book. But no government has so far shown much appetite for radical measures, such as road-pricing.

Part of the reason is our adoration of the motorcar. In-deed, some writers have suggested that this is a cult as pow-erful as the old Aztec religion which sacrificed its children to the gods. If pantheism is the belief in God in nature, then autotheism is the worship of the divine motor car. The other day, passing through Knutsford, I pressed my nose against the window of the Bentley showroom, and gawked at the continental tourer with white upholstery and its staggering price, which would have easily paid for a comfortable family house in the same town.

I have to confess that I’m not free of the disease myself. My old car is ‘getting on a bit’, as the man at the body shop said the other day, but I am quite ludicrously attached to what is, after all, an assemblage of metal, rubber and plas-tic. But the old girl, as I like to think of her, has been with me through thick and thin and has let me down only when I’ve done something silly, like leaving the lights on.

176. Which of the following awards/prize is also known as the Alternative Nobel Prize?(1) Magsaysa (2) Right Livelihood(3) Kalinga (4) Templeton

177. Communication Satellite W2M launched in January 2009 was built by ISRO in partnership with(1) NASA (2) ESA(3) Japan (4) Russia

178. In February 2009, which cricket player achieved the rare distinction along with Shahid Afridi of a 100 plus strike rate in ODI’s?(1) Sanath Jayasuriya (2) M.S. Dhoni(3) Virender Sehwag (4) Yuvraj Singh

179. Which of the following statements about the fertiliser sector in the country is not true?(1) India is the third largest producer and consumer of

fertilisers in the world(2) Pottasic fertilisers are imported as there are no in-

digenous sources.(3) Fertiliser prices are determined by market forces.(4) The National Bio-fertiliser Development Centre

is located at Ghaziabad.

180. The Prime Minister of Nepal is (1) G.P.Koirala(2) Ram Baran Yadavs (3) Madhav Kumar Nepal(4) Paramanand Jha

Directions for questions 181 to 196: Each passage in this part is followed by questions based on its contents. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer for each question.

PASSAGE I

Over the years, I’ve done my fair share of flying, but have never grown entirely comfortable with the airborne state. Everyone has their least favourite point in a flight: for me, it is take-off, when my belief in man’s capacity to defy grav-ity always wavers a little.

I have had one or two hairy moments. The worst was landing in a howling gale in a small plane in Galway, at the third attempt. But my head tells me that flying remains the safest form of travel, despite the recent appalling midair col-lision over Switzerland. So do my eyes, for, from the back of our flat in Richmond, we can watch the planes approach-ing Heathrow at intervals of little more than a minute.

The statistics tell the same story, though it is true that they have to be read with caution: they say that being a pedestrian is the most dangerous form of travel, but this odd result is explained by the method which divides deaths


Mock Test 3 n 7.19

PASSAGE II

Car manufacturers are opting for new material compounds that could help build light vehicles with more magnesium and which consume less petrol. In Hanover Germany, sci-entists are experimenting with magnesium-lithium alloys, which weigh just 1.3 grams per cubic centimetre, compared to a cubic centimetre of aluminium which weighs 2.7 grams, more than twice as much.

Magnesium is four times lighter than iron, and it results in a significant weight reduction, even in comparison to aluminium whose density is still around one third higher. A weight reduction of 100 kilograms in a vehicle lowers energy consumption by around five percent. Therefore, the magnesium share of a car, which is currently one percent, is to be raised to ten percent in future.

Research results with magnesium alloys at Hanover University demonstrate that the material is ready for use. Magnesium is not new to car-making. Well into the fifties, this metal was still ignited in flashlights. Volkswagen used components made out of magnesium for gearbox casing. But the substance is hazardous. Silvers of metal created in the milling process would catch fire. Entire factory build-ings were burnt down owing to the highly inflammable metal. Phasing out of magnesium seemed inevitable.

New processing methods, such as working in a rare gas atmosphere of argon, prevent unpleasant surprises. The pro-tective gas keeps the material from igniting. For some years, car manufacturers have been using magnesium in combina-tion with aluminium, for example in AZ91 for gearbox cas-ings. In this alloy, five percent aluminium and one percent zinc has been added. The remaining 90 per cent consists of the light metal magnesium.

Lithium is even more dangerous than magnesium. With water, this metal, which is soft as candle-wax, forms an ex-plosive gas comparable to oxyhydrogen that immediately ignites. Nevertheless, lithium is very interesting as an al-loy component. With a density of just 0.53 grams per cubic centimetre, lithium is extremely light. Alloys consisting of magnesium-lithium therefore weigh just 1.3 grams per cu-bic centimetre, In comparison, a cubic centimetre of alu-minium weights 2.7 grams more than twice as much.

It is not only the car manufacturing industry that is in-terested in these materials. In space travel, too, where each gram counts, super-lightweight magnesium-lithium alloys are a lucrative alternative. The plastic properties of the new substance are a considerable advantage. Pure magnesium is brittle and will break under strain, so it is practically impos-sible to shape it. However, not only is it lighter in combina-tion with lithium, but it can easily be shaped, offering ideal prerequisites for industrial processing.

Ultra-light rims made out of the material allow for a sig-nificant improvement in running dynamic in Formula One

Like everyone else in the country, I warmly approve of the principle of anti-congestion measures - except when they apply to me. The public at large is notoriously am-bivalent. A few years ago, in Wyoming, the people voted on two propositions. The first was overwhelmingly approved. The second, for the extra taxes to pay for the first, was over-whelmingly rejected. Something of the same illogicality emerged the other week when, in a poll, the BBC discov-ered that most people heartily disapproved of the way polit-ical parties raised money but disapproved, just as strongly, of doing anything about it.

The ‘risk society’ was a term coined by sociologists to describe a situation in which danger was absent and risks could be managed, in response to the claims of rival interest groups. That approach looks increasingly inadequate. Al-Qaeda presents both risks, which can be managed as far as possible by intelligence gathering, and dangers, which can-not. But the carnage on the roads, both here and in the US has killed and will kill far more than bin Laden’s mob will ever do. It is time we gave up our false gods and got serious about the polished killer in our midst.

181. The author says that he is not free of the disease himself. “The disease” in the context of the passage implies(1) the excessive admiration of the motorcar.(2) the desire to buy modern and expensive models of

vehicles.(3) one’s emotional attachment to one’s vehicle.(4) the strong will to condemn autotheism.

182. The author does not enjoy(1) flying the planes.(2) travelling.(3) any act that defies gravity(4) the take-off stage.

183. The conclusion that being a pedestrian is the most dangerous form of travel is arrived at by (1) the mathematical evidence offered by the statisti-

cians.(2) the inverse relationships found between the num-

bers of miles covered by travelling and the num-ber of deaths occurred.

(3) observing the high number of road accidents.(4) observing the number of deaths on road.

184. “The different attitude” is(1) to regard roads as safe.(2) our attitude towards the inherent dangers of fly-

ing.(3) to consider flying as the most dangerous form of

travel.(4) our waning interest in rail and air accidents.


7.20 n Mock Tests

Japan, where consumption had to be promoted by govern-ment), resulting in a slow decline of the distinctiveness of capital. However, natural resources are becoming less and less a means of rent, because the reinforcing loops of glo-balization and liberalization are opening up these markets, allowing full competition. Because the traditional factors of production—natural resources, labour and capital—will be more easily obtainable as long as the know how is available, they will no longer be the prime protection of competitive advantage; they will become secondary. This will be especially so in Western countries, where natural resources and labour are more expensive than in other parts of the world. If traditional factors of production will not be the prime basis of competitive advantage, and therefore rent, what will? That must be, not the amount and quality of traditional production factors themselves, but the way in which and purposes for which they are used. In order to do this better than competitors, innovation is needed, and be-cause of the relationship between learning and innovation, learning is also needed.

In a commercial environment, learning has to be cost-efficient, ergo there must be a benefit from the effort put into learning. The only way that there will be a benefit is by change of behaviour. Because many people assume that individuals and organizations always behave and observe in accordance with their knowledge, they believe that there is no fundamental difference between learning (cognitive) and change in behaviour. However, as is stated in psychological literature, there can be a big difference between individual knowledge and individual behaviour. The reason for this is that individual behaviour is dependent also on emotions, conation (attitude) and social setting. Wlodkowski dedicates a whole book to these aspects, emphasising that the attitude towards learning is the driving factor behind the transfer of knowledge in behaviour. Nonaka tries to include skills and attitude in the term knowledge, by defining cognitive knowledge (a pleonasm in psychology) as explicit knowl-edge, and skills and attitudes as tacit knowledge. At an in-dividual level, organizational learning and organizational innovation are connected and strongly interwoven. Again, although learning and innovation are interwoven, there can be a difference between organizational knowledge and organizational behaviour. Reasons for this difference are, for instance: power politics, internal negotiations, and lack of personal mastery and shared vision. Through learning, knowledge increases, enhancing the possibility of change in behaviour. I prefer to call this change in behaviour ‘in-novation’, because it is based on increased knowledge and is therefore presumably an improvement. Although some authors like to distinguish innovation from continuous im-provement, or Kaizen as it is called in Japanese, I would not make this distinction. According to Richards, innova-tion can be defined as: ‘the process whereby new ideas are

racing. Scientists believe it is just a matter of time before the conventional aluminum rims of normal cars can be re-placed with magnesium rims. Cylinder heads could also be made out of magnesium. Even the steel bars of the crumple zone underneath the bonnet could consist of magnesium components. The total of a ten-percent proportion of the car made out of magnesium could be achieved without any problems, thanks to the versatility of the material, the sci-entists believe.

However, the alloys are vulnerable to corrosion, neces-sitating protective covers made out of plastic or some other metal. Additives consisting of aluminium or manganese also have a positive effect. Just one per cent of aluminium even makes the material resistant to salty water. Even if manganese is employed on a mass scale, there would not be any supply problems in the near future as manganese is one of the most common elements in the world.

185. What was one of the uses of magnesium in the 1950s?(1) It was used in making engines for cars.(2) It was used to extract iron from its alloy.(3) It was used to manufacturing candle wax.(4) It was used for the ignition in flashlights.

186. What does the vulnerability of magnesium alloys to corrosion require, according to the passage?(1) using the metal only for ultra-light products.(2) protective covering made of plastic or some other

metal.(3) keeping it away from lithium.(4) using it only for the manufacturing of light vehicles.

187. In which area, apart from the car industry are magne-sium-lithium alloys used as an alternative?(1) chemical industry(2) space travel(3) gas cylinder factories(4) liquid oxygen industry

188. Which of the following is true about magnesium, ac-cording to this passage?(1) Its density is four times that of aluminium.(2) It is usually mixed with lithium in cars.(3) It is not yet ready to be used in manufacturing cars.(4) It is four times lighter than iron.

PASSAGE III

The ‘raison d’etre’ of market-based organisations is the cre-ation of value for the stakeholders. The only way to survive in the long run in a free market is to have a set of distinct competitive advantages. Although capital is still scarce, and natural resources are still a way of protected income and therefore rent, this is slowly changing. Because of the rise in productivity, more and more people have a higher income than they can spend on consumption (example, in


Mock Test 3 n 7.21

which are distinct capabilities. These distinct capabilities can be found on the three axes of Abell’s box; your compe-tences can lie in your knowledge about customer needs, that is, your function; your customer base; your applied technol-ogy; or preferably a set of all three.

Restructuring takes place because the sets of core com-petences represent the coagulated knowledge which forms the basis for a learning speed advantage, making it possible to exploit an ever-improving spiral. In a conversation, Kees van der Heijden called this the importance of corporate his-tory: knowledge gained over time is something to be cher-ished, to build on, and one of the only things that makes a company distinct from others. A company therefore has to use this knowledge base to exploit, build on and use in many ways, because, in contrast to all other economic goods, knowledge is not reduced by use—it is increased. It is the use of this knowledge in many ways that creates the ever-improving spiral. Companies that do not realise their knowledge base and do not exploit it to the fullest will eventually lose to companies that do. Companies that retreat to their core businesses (as opposed to using and develop-ing their core competences), covering a range of necessary competences, without using those competences in other businesses requiring them, may well find themselves in a changed industry structure, competing against competence-oriented companies, and losing.189. If companies do not want to deteriorate due to chang-

ing environment, they should(1) develop the ability to apply production factors in

a slow and steady manner.(2) retreat around their core businesses.(3) build on their core competences.(4) make sure that they develop a learning speed ad-

vantage.

190. What is the meaning of Kaizen?(1) Innovation.(2) Continuous improvement.(3) The difference between innovation and continu-

ous improvement. (4) The combination of innovation and continuous

improvement.

191. What is the meaning of the term “conation” that is used in the passage?(1) Desire to perform an action.(2) Expertise required to perform an action.(3) Knowledge required to convert desire to action.(4) Process by which knowledge gets converted into

behaviour.192. What does the author mean by ‘organizational learn-

ing’?(1) Knowledge obtained by observing other organiza-

tions.

put into practice’, where the new idea does not necessarily have to be technological or an invention. Using this defini-tion, innovation can also mean improvement, or as a Shell planner called it: ‘one man’s minor improvement can be another’s major innovation’, making the distinction mean-ingless. Thus, I want to make a fundamental distinction be-tween learning and innovation.

Since people are in constant interaction with each other and their environment, learning happens constantly and, as its members learn, so will the organization; so where is the problem? The problem is not the learning itself, but the speed of learning. Spurred by globalization, the maturation of markets, the greater number of products and marketing messages in every market, the accelerating advance of tech-nology, and shortening product lifecycles, today’s business is increasingly complex. In Ansoff’s words, the business environment has become increasingly turbulent. In order to survive in such an environment, it is necessary consistent-ly to create new knowledge (learn), disseminate it widely throughout the organization (learn as an organisation), and quickly embody it in new technologies and products (inno-vate). In other words, the necessary speed of learning and innovation, just to be in harmony with the environment, is increasing. To be competitive, learning and innovation must be cost-efficient, limiting the initial effort that can be put into them. However, many managers consistently un-derinvest in accelerating learning, choosing in effect to do most of their learning later, when it is most expensive (as in early days when quality management was output—instead of process—oriented). But only in linear causal thinking does the matter end here. Once learning has taken place and the improvement has been implemented, the increased ef-ficiency creates more learning opportunities on fewer prob-lems, resulting in an ever-improving spiral (as with Kai-zen), leaving the poor learner/innovator further and further behind. Unless, on the other hand, the innovation is easily transferable, when it helps competitors who can learn more efficiently (faster). De Geus and Nonaka go so far as to state that the ability to learn faster than the competition is the only competitive advantage of the company of the future.

The shift in orientation from the mere ownership of pro-duction factors (capitalistic society) to the ability of apply-ing these production factors (the knowledge society) is very slow. And because it is slow, it is very dangerous. Like the frog that allows itself to be boiled to death, as long as the water is heated slowly, organisations will let themselves de-teriorate if they do not adapt to the changing environment. Since the source of rent will become the ability to innovate faster than the competition, organizations will need to re-structure themselves around their core competences in order to survive. However, many companies mistake this trend by retreating around core businesses, which are merely portfo-lio choices, instead of building on their core competences,


7.22 n Mock Tests

It has been argued by some observers that, even had the benefits of modern technology been made available to Indi-ans from the start, their caste-ridden system of values, their superstitions, and their fatalistic and philosophical attitude to life, would have in any case prevented them from taking advantage of the opportunities created by industrialization.

The evidence of the last twenty years of industrial growth in India, the remarkable skills shown by all sections of society in the establishment and management of modern industries, including quite sophisticated industries, refutes this argument. There can now be no doubt that had India and other similarly placed countries been allowed or en-couraged to develop their economy as in the countries of the West, by the application of modern science and technol-ogy, they would today be in a situation comparable to, or not far behind, that of Japan.

During this colonial era, and until the First World War, Europe and America enjoyed a remarkably stable period free of any serious political or economic crisis. Busy with their industrial growth and the exploitation of their colonial empires, they basked in the sun of their mounting wealth, power and glory. Forgetful of the lessons of the French Rev-olution, ignorant of, or impervious to, the new forces and the inevitable changes in human values created by their un-precedented economic progress and the spread of education to the masses, they drove headlong and unseeing into a cata-strophic era of change for which they were not prepared.

Is it surprising that, after two decimating world wars, the violent revolutions of Russia and China, the collapse of empires, the population explosion, the discovery of nuclear power and weapons of total destruction, the exponential ad-vance of science and technology, the people of the world today find themselves in a state of deep crisis the complex causes of which they do not fully understand but which, they sense, threaten not only the survival of age-old and cherished values of a civilization built on the labours, suf-ferings and blood of centuries, but even their physical sur-vival?

193. The author attributes the poor living standards of In-dian people to(A) caste-ridden system of values.(B) fatalistic, philosophical attitude to life.(C) lack of industrialization.(D) rapid increase in the population growth.(1) A and B only (2) C and D(3) A, B, C and D only (4) A, B, C, D

194. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?(1) Japan is an economically advanced country.(2) Colonialism was the aftermath of industrializa-

tion.

(2) Knowledge obtained about organizations.(3) Dissemination of all newly created knowledge

throughout the organization.(4) Conversion of new knowledge into products

PASSAGE IV

Throughout recorded history, crises have been the lot of the human race. With the relatively rare exception of natural catastrophes—earthquakes, floods, famines, drought, pestilence—these crises were usually caused by man himself, by wars of conquest or religion, by periodic revolts against tyranny and oppression, and other forms of human conflict. The impact of these man-made crises was usually confined to the parts of the world where they oc-curred, for instance, where a war was waged. Rarely did it spread beyond adjacent countries or groups of countries.

The conditions of living, in terms of means of livelihood and economic standards, were relatively uniform through-out the world. When man changed from the nomadic life of a hunter and settled on land to grow his food, there was little to differentiate a farmer or a fisherman in China from one in Europe. The values which governed his life and attitudes were also basically similar.

The industrial revolution, following the discovery of steam and electrical power and the means for making steel on a large scale, brought about a dramatic and global change. Had the industrial revolution spread from the start to all parts of the world, a fairly even balance in the living standards of the people of the world would have remained unaffected.

Because, however, the immensely increased economic and military power of the new industrial nations gave them the opportunity to conquer and exploit others with impuni-ty, a new colonial era coincided with the industrialisation of Europe and America; and because the value system of those days saw nothing wrong in such colonial conquests and ex-ploitation, the fruits of advancing science and technology were deliberately denied to the colonies. As a result, by the time European colonializm melted in the fires of the Second World War, an enormous gap had developed between the wealth, productivity and living standards of the West and those of most of Asia and Africa.

On the Indian sub-continent, the rapid increase in the population growth resulting from a sharp fall in mortality combined with economic stagnation through lack of indus-trialization, aggravated the relative as well as absolute de-terioration in the living standards of its people. Denied the benefits of modern technology which would have enabled them to modernize their age-old industries and agriculture and to create the wealth with which to pay for the education and other essentials of a modern, creative life, the people of the sub-continent gradually sank into poverty, lethargy and despair.


Mock Test 3 n 7.23

acidity in mountain lakes than is the acid rain that falls on these lakes. Therefore, they contend, reducing acid rain will not significantly reduce the acidity levels of mountain lakes. Which of the following statements, if true, most se-riously weakens the argument above?(1) The harmful effects of increased acidity levels in

lakes have been greatly underestimated.(2) Acid rain is found in urban and heavily industrial-

ized regions of the country.(3) There is much disagreement among soil scientists

about the causes of acid rain.(4) While plant life remains, acid rain significantly

increases the amount of decaying organic matter in natural environments.

199. Statistics obtained from Dr Singh’s laboratory reveal that men are more likely to dread a dental job being done on them than are women. Of all the patients who howled at Dr Singh’s laboratory, 75 per cent of them were men while only 25 per cent were women. Which of the following could be a justification for men dreading a dental job?(1) Men usually neglect oral hygiene till it becomes

critical and hence their problems are of a serious nature.

(2) There are other doctors too who offer consultancy to both men ands women at Dr Singh’s Labora-tory. No statistics are available for these patients.

(3) Dr Singh’s laboratory did not distinguish between baby boys and girls when they provided the said statistics.

(4) The number of men who come to Dr Singh’s labo-ratory is one-third that of the number of women who visit him.

200. The real history of the people in Moghul India, of their social life and economic condition, is of greater inter-est and importance to us today than mere catalogues of political events or military campaigns. Which of the following can be inferred as an as-sumption made by the author?(1) Details of political events and military campaigns

should not be included in real history. (2) The existing history of Moghul India does not

throw light on socio-economic conditions of that time.

(3) Catalogues of political events and military cam-paign may not adequately detail the real history of people in Moghul India.

(4) There are no sources from which real history of people in Moghul India can be reconstructed.

(3) The industrial revolution led to economic dispar-ity among nations around the globe.

(4) Indians have exceptional skills in management of modern industries.

195. Through the last paragraph, the author wants to drive home the point that(1) the changes brought about by advances of science

and technology are unwelcome.(2) the industrially backward nations bear the brunt of

any violent upheaval.(3) poor nations cannot survive in a world of growing

economic disparities.(4) progress and development, the way they are now

viewed, do have darker sides.

196. In what way was the Industrial revolution different from wars of conquest or religion in the context of the effects caused?(1) The effects were global and not restricted to

places of occurrence.(2) The effects were economic and not military.(3) The latter were man-made crises.(4) The former had positive effects while the latter

had negative ones.

Directions for questions 197 to 200: Select the correct al-ternative from the given choices.Each of the following questions contains small paragraph. Read the paragraph carefully and complete the sentence given below.

197. Given India’s stage of economic development and demographics, the scale driven strategy of ‘breakout growth’ is uniquely positioned to succeed. Which of the following weakens the above conclusion?(1) Reliance wireless telephones started by planning

for a national roll out, when competitions were cherry-picking profitable circles.

(2) ICICI Bank offered key products like home loans and auto loans at very low rates to customers, even driving almost every competitor, save a few, out of the business.

(3) Dhirubhais, now famous, assessment of opportu-nity in telecom—how many people will make a phone call if making a call was cheap as a post-card—embodies the essence of this approach.

(4) While cost leadership based on scale is an estab-lished strategy, it is typically adopted by players in mature markets, starved for growth, not in high growth, emerging markets like India.

198. Some soil scientists have asserted that decaying mat-ter on the forest floor is a far greater source of the


7.24 n Mock Tests

Answer keys

1. 3 2. 2 3. 3 4. 3 5. 2 6. 4 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 2 11. 2 12. 1 13. 1 14. 3 15. 2 16. 4 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 3 21. 3 22. 1 23. 3 24. 3 25. 3 26. 3 27. 4 28. 1 29. 2 30. 3 31. 2 32. 1 33. 3 34. 2 35. 4 36. 1 37. 4 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1 41. 2 42. 3 43. 3 44. 2 45. 2 46. 2 47. 1 48. 4 49. 3 50. 3 51. 3 52. 1 53. 2 54. 1 55. 2 56. 2 57. 3 58. 3 59. 1 60. 1 61. 2 62. 4 63. 2 64. 1 65. 2 66. 2 67. 2 68. 4 69. 2 70. 3 71. 3 72. 3 73. 3 74. 2 75. 3 76. 2 77. 3 78. 4 79. 4 80. 1 81. 3 82. 1 83. 2 84. 4 85. 4 86. 1 87. 1 88. 3 89. 3 90. 2 91. 3 92. 4 93. 3 94. 3 95. 2 96. 2 97. 1 98. 2 99. 2 100. 2 101. 3 102. 4 103. 1 104. 2 105. 3 106. 2 107. 3 108. 4 109. 3 110. 2 111. 4 112. 1 113. 2 114. 2 115. 2 116. 1 117. 1 118. 3 119. 2 120. 3 121. 4 122. 4 123. 4 124. 3 125. 2 126. 1 127. 3 128. 4 129. 1 130. 3 131. 4 132. 3 133. 2 134. 1 135. 3 136. 4 137. 1 138. 1 139. 3 140. 2 141. 2 142. 4 143. 3 144. 4 145. 1 146. 3 147. 3 148. 1 149. 2 150. 2 151. 2 152. 2 153. 2 154. 1 155. 3 156. 2 157. 1 158. 4 159. 1 160. 2 161. 1 162. 2 163. 4 164. 3 165. 2 166. 4 167. 1 168. 3 169. 3 170. 3 171. 3 172. 1 173. 2 174. 4 175. 2 176. 2 177. 2 178. 3 179. 3 180. 3 181. 1 182. 4 183. 2 184. 1 185. 4 186. 2 187. 2 188. 4 189. 3 190. 2 191. 1 192. 3 193. 2 194. 2 195. 4 196. 1 197. 4 198. 4 199. 1 200. 3


Mock Test 4Directions for questions 1 to 20: Select the correct alter-native from the given choices.

1. “Your partner in growth” is the punch line of(1) UCO Bank (2) ICICI Bank(3) HDFC Bank (4) Citibank

2. Cedia, a premium car brand was launched by(1) Tata Motors(2) Ford Motors (3) Toyota Kirloskar Motor (4) Hindustan Motors

3. Time Magazine profiled Sant Balbir Singh Seechewal as one of the “Global Heroes of the Environment” for(1) his campaign to protect the endangered olive Rid-

ley turtles, which nest annually in Orissa.(2) launching a global campaign for protecting the

highly endangered Jerdon’s Courser found only in Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.

(3) for motivating the Bishnois of North India to be-come the most environment friendly community in the world.

(4) for mobilising people to clean up the highly pol-luted Kali Bein River in Punjab and transforming it into a picnic spot.

4. When was the first meeting of the seven member South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) held? (1) 1988 (2) 1985(3) 1986 (4) 1987

5. Which of the following statements is not true of the Kyoto Protocol?(1) Final Negotiations for the Kyoto Protocol were

held in December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan.(2) The Kyoto Protocol came into effect on February

16, 2005, 90 days after the United States ratifica-tion.

(3) The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding agree-ment rather than a voluntary commitment.

(4) The United States has signed the Kyoto Protocol but it has not been ratified by the US Senate.

6. Which of the following statements is true about the Banking Cash Transaction Tax?(1) It was introduced in April 2009.(2) It is now applicable to savings accounts.(3) Small denomination FD’s are exempt from tax.(4) It is now withdrawn.

7. India’s first research station in the Arctic, ‘Himadri’ was inaugurated in(1) April 2008 (2) May 2008(3) June 2008 (4) July 2008

8. Taka is the currency of(1) Bhutan (2) Myanmar(3) Mauritius (4) Bangladesh

9. The importance of micro-finance is recognised inter-nationally, as a powerful anti-poverty tool. Which of the following countries is regarded as a pioneer in this field?(1) China (2) Japan (3) Bangladesh (4) India

10. Which country is not a member of the WTO?(1) Russia (2) Saudi Arabia(3) USA (4) Georgia

11. With effect from April 1 2008, Deccan Aviaton has merged with(1) Kingfisher Airlines (2) Jet Airways(3) NACIL (4) Paramount Airways

12. Khanna; which is Asias’ largest grain market is located in(1) Haryana (2) Punjab(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh

13. The 2010 Men’s World Cup Hockey Tournament will be played in(1) Pakistan (2) India(3) Australia (4) Germany


7.26 n Mock Tests

Market capitalization (MC) of Banks (in Rs crores)

Name of the Bank 1990 2000

SBI 14400 20400

Canara Bank 2970 4210

IOB 700 1050

BOB 2575 3990

PNB 2610 4240

Oriental Bank 1275 3235

Others 80000 95000

Market capitalization (MC) of Fertilizer companies (in Rs crores)

Name of the Company 1990 2000

RCF 715 2310Nagarjuna 170 330Godavari 110 280Chambal 560 710GNFC 400 555Others 4000 6000

Market capitalization (MC) of Pharma Companies (in Rs crores)

Company 1990 2000

MRPL 670 4200Indian Oil 18200 32800BPCL 6700 8800HPCL 10000 12000Others 68000 78000

Market capitalization (MC) of Refineries (in Rs crores)

Company 1990 2000

Orchids 190 550

Lupin 530 1190

Auropharm 490 1030

Wellcome 210 420

Nicholas 780 1330

Aventis 550 870

Pfizer 900 1200

Sun 2800 5400

Ranbaxy 12000 16000

DRL 7000 8600

Others 41000 50000

14. The author of ‘The White Tiger’, which has been awarded the 2008 Booker Prize, is(1) Margaret Atwood(2) Yann Martel(3) Arvind Adiga(4) Peter Carey

15. The Skoch Challenger Award for 2009 for health ser-vice delivery is conferred on “Arogyasri” a health in-surance scheme of the Government of(1) Gujarat (2) Karnataka(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Kerala

16. The theme of the critically acclaimed film “Tare Zamin Par” is about a gifted child suffering with (1) dyslexia(2) amnesia(3) ADD(4) anorexia

17. Which of the following statements is not true about the Olympics Games?(1) Athens was the venue for the first modern Olym-

pic Games in 1896.(2) The revival of the games was done by Pierre de

Coubertin.(3) The 1980 Olympic Games in Moscow was boy-

cotted by western countries led by the United States.

(4) The first Winter Olympic Games were held in 1924 in Turin (Italy)

18. The Preah Vihar temple which was given a world heri-tage status is located in(1) Indonesia(2) Sri Lanka(3) Cambodia(4) Myanmar

19. The world’s largest single location refinery complex located at Jamnagar belongs to(1) ONGC(2) Reliance Industries(3) ADAG(4) Cairns India

20. Which stock exchange is observing its centenary in 2008?(1) BSE (2) Calcutta(3) NSE (4) Ahmedabad

Directions for questions 21 to 25: These questions are based on the tables given below.


Mock Test 4 n 7.27

(1) Rs 241 (2) Rs 101(3) Rs 1403 (4) None of these

24. What is the ratio of all banks whose MC has increased by more than 20 per cent to the number of fertilizer and pharma companies whose MC has increased by more than 100 per cent (excluding the companies in the others category)(1) 1 : 1(2) 3 : 2(3) 6 : 5(4) 4 : 3

25. In 2000, the total MC of all pharma Companies ex-cluding ‘Others’ is what percentage of the MC of the category ‘Others’ for banks?(1) 63.11 % (2) 34.87 %(3) 89.16 % (4) 38.51 %

Directions for questions 26 to 30: These questions are based on the table given below, which gives the unedited financial results (Provisional).

21. In the year 2000, the MC (market capitalization) of the bank with the highest percentage growth in terms of MC, from 1990 to 2000, is what percentage of the MC of the refinery with the highest percentage growth? (excluding ‘Other’s category in the banks and refiner-ies) (1) 83 % (2) 77 %(3) 63 % (4) 91 %

22. How many of the pharma companies mentioned in the given list have not registered an increase of more than 116.66 per cent in their market capitalization from 1990 to 2000? (Excluding Others)(1) 1 (2) 3(3) 8 (4) 2

23. If the total market capitalization of all the banks, fer-tilizer companies, pharma companies and in refineries 1990 is equal to 20 per cent of the MC of all compa-nies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange, then what is the approximate MC of all companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (in Rs thousand crores)?

Prince Technologies Pvt. Ltd

Sl.No Particulars Quarter ended31-12-2002

Quarter ended31-12-2001

9 months ended31-12-2002

9 months ended31-12-2001

Year ended31-03-2002(audited)

1. Income from software sales 3157.66 2444.86 8936.15 7632.54 10204.41 2. Other Income 79.23 159.37 296.23 420.35 62.84 3. Total Income 3236.89 2604.23 9232.38 8052.89 10807.25

4.

Total Expenditure:a) Expenditure on Personnel

1562.48

1411.29

4531.27

4344.79

5781.02

b) Other expenditure 504.12 384.46 1386.76 1159.01 1557.55 5. Gross profit after interest but

before depreciation and taxation1170.29 808.48 3314.35 2549.09 3468.68

6. Depreciation 259.13 215.06 728.87 566.19 799.53 7. Profit before Taxation

(5 – 6)911.16 593.42 2585.48 1982.90 2669.15

8. Provision for taxation 75.00 40.00 205.00 87.00 129.81 9. Net profit

(7 – 8)836.16 553.42 2380.48 1895.90 2539.34

10. Paid up Equity Capital (Face value of Rs 10/- per equity share)

1979.65 1965 1979.65 1965 1965

11. Reserves (including revaluation reserves)

17172.88 14419.40 17172.88 14417.40 14669.84

12. Average EPS (Earnings Per Share in Rs)

4.23 2.82 12.09 9.65 12.92

*(All values except EPS (12) are in Rs Lakhs)


7.28 n Mock Tests

725

Income of Softcom Ltd. from 2000 to 2005 (Rupees in crores)

84

65

4030

67.5

52

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

Profit percentage of Softcom Ltd. from 2000 to 2005

40

3025

20

3530

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

Directions for questions 31 to 35: These questions are based on the bar graph and line graph given below.

Note: (1) Profit = Income – Expenditure

(2) Profit percentage = Profit

Income 100

31. In which year is the percentage change in the income of Softcom Ltd over the previous year, the highest? (1) 2002 (2) 2005 (3) 2004 (4) 2003

32. During the given period, in which year was the profit of Softcom Ltd, the minimum? (1) 2001 (2) 2005 (3) 2003 (4) 2002

33. When compared to the corresponding previous year, in how many years, from 2001 to 2005, did the income increase but the profit decrease?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

34. If in the year 2006, the profit and income of the company increased by 30 per cent and 20 per cent respectively over their corresponding values in the year 2005, then what is the profit percentage of the company in 2006?


35. What is difference in the profits of Softcom Ltd. for the years 2002 and 2004? (1) Rs 8 crores (2) Rs 12 crores (3) Rs 9 crores (4) None of these

Directions for questions 36 to 40: These questions are based on the following graph given on the next page.

36. The number of female players participating in Volleyball is approximately what percent of the total number of players participating in Hockey?



725

Income of Softcom Ltd. from 2000 to 2005 (Rupees in crores)

84

65

4030

67.5

52

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005


40

3025

20

3530

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005


Note: (1) Profit = Income – Expenditure

(2) Profit percentage = Profit

Income 100

31. In which year is the percentage change in the income of Softcom Ltd over the previous year, the highest? (1) 2002 (2) 2005 (3) 2004 (4) 2003

32. During the given period, in which year was the profit of Softcom Ltd, the minimum? (1) 2001 (2) 2005 (3) 2003 (4) 2002

33. When compared to the corresponding previous year, in how many years, from 2001 to 2005, did the income increase but the profit decrease?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

34. If in the year 2006, the profit and income of the company increased by 30 per cent and 20 per cent respectively over their corresponding values in the year 2005, then what is the profit percentage of the company in 2006?


35. What is difference in the profits of Softcom Ltd. for the years 2002 and 2004? (1) Rs 8 crores (2) Rs 12 crores (3) Rs 9 crores (4) None of these


36. The number of female players participating in Volleyball is approximately what percent of the total number of players participating in Hockey?


Note:

(1) Profit = Income – Expenditure

(2) Profit percentage = ProfitIncome

× 100

31. In which year is the percentage change in the income of Softcom Ltd over the previous year, the highest?(1) 2002 (2) 2005(3) 2004 (4) 2003

32. During the given period, in which year was the profit of Softcom Ltd, the minimum?(1) 2001 (2) 2005(3) 2003 (4) 2002

33. When compared to the corresponding previous year, in how many years, from 2001 to 2005, did the income increase but the profit decrease?(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3

34. If in the year 2006, the profit and income of the com-pany increased by 30 per cent and 20 per cent respec-tively over their corresponding values in the year 2005, then what is the profit percentage of the company in 2006?(1) 28 % (2) 43 %(3) 33 % (4) 25 %

35. What is difference in the profits of Softcom Ltd. for the years 2002 and 2004?

26. Prince’s income from software sales for the quarter ended 31-12-2002 was from 120 projects and the number of projects with it increased by 331/3 per cent from 31-12-2001 to 31-12-2002. What is the average net profit (in Rs lakhs) from each of the projects for the quarter ended 31-12-2001? (Assuming that net profits are from these projects alone and the projects start and end in the respective quarters.)(1) 6.14 (2) 5.24 (3) 3.54 (4) Cannot be determined

27. For which of these periods is ‘other income’ as a pro-portion of the total income the least?(1) Quarter ended 31-12-2001(2) Quarter ended 31-12-2002(3) 9 months ended 31-12-2002(4) 9 months ended 31-12-2001

28. If depreciation for the year ended 31-03-2002 was in-correctly calculated as 20 per cent less than the actual value, then the calculated net profit is approximately what percentage of the actual net profit? (Provision for taxation remaining the same)(1) 75 %(2) 95 %(3) 108 %(4) 112 %

29. If in the quarter ended 31-12-2002, promoters held 25 per cent of the Equity Capital and were paid a bonus of 50 per cent of the net profit, all of which was paid out, then approximately what is the average earning per share (in rupees) of the remaining shares? (1) 1.68(2) 2.01(3) 2.20(4) 2.80

30. Which of the following statements are definitely true? I. The provision for taxation has increased by

87.5 % from the quarter ended 31-12-2001 to the quarter ended 31-12-2002.

II Profit before taxation for the year ended 31-03-2002 as a percentage of the total income is approximately 25 %.

III. The average earning per share has increased by more than 100 % from the quarter ended 31-12-2001 to the quarter ended 31-12-2002.

(1) Only I(2) Only II and III(3) Only I and II(4) I, II and III.



Mock Test 4 n 7.29

(3) 122 %(4) 82 %

37. What is the approximate ratio of the number of male players per trainer in Golf to the number of female players per trainer in Basket ball?(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 7(3) 1 : 3 (4) None of these

(1) Rs 8 crores (2) Rs 12 crores(3) Rs 9 crores (4) None of these


36. The number of female players participating in Volley-ball is approximately what percent of the total number of players participating in Hockey?(1) 100 %(2) 10 %

Percentage of male sports persons, female sports persons and trainers/coaches out of their respective total strengths in india

726

Percentage of male sports persons, female sports persons and trainers/coaches out of their respective total strengths in India

8

34

5

3

13

5

22

10

8

4

7

28

21

7

5

4

6

12

6

8

8

7

13

13

2

3

20

4

4

10

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

Others

Table Tennis

Cricket

Atheletics

Volleyball

Basketball

Golf

Lawn Tennis

Football

Hockey

TRAINERS/COACHES FEMALE PLAYERS MALE PLAYERS

37. What is the approximate ratio of the number of male players per trainer in Golf to the number of female players per trainer in Basket ball?

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 7 (3) 1 : 3 (4) None of these

38. If 40 per cent, 30 per cent and 20 per cent of coaches, female players and male players respectively of Athletics, participate in track events, then how many players are trained by each coach on an average for track events? Assume that no player is trained by more than one coach.

(1) 223 (2) 125 (3) 52 (4) None of these

39. If male players and female players are paid Rs 1,00,000 and Rs 50,000 respectively per match in cricket and the male and female players are paid in Rs 5,00,000 and Rs 2,00,000 respectively per match in Lawn Tennis, then by approximately what percent are the total annual earnings of Lawn tennis players more than the total earning of cricket players, assuming each player plays 50 matches only per year?


40. If, under the category “Others” the number of Chess players is half the number of Wrestlers and the sum of the number of Chess players and Wrestlers is half the total number of players under the category “Others”, then the chess players form approximately what percentage of the female players in basketball?

(1) 50 per cent (2) 100 per cent (3) 200 per cent (4) None of these

Directions for questions 41 to 60: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

38. If 40 per cent, 30 per cent and 20 per cent of coaches, female players and male players respectively of Ath-letics, participate in track events, then how many play-ers are trained by each coach on an average for track events? Assume that no player is trained by more than one coach.

(1) 223 (2) 125(3) 52 (4) None of these

39. If male players and female players are paid Rs 1,00,000 and Rs 50,000 respectively per match in cricket and the male and female players are paid in Rs 5,00,000 and Rs 2,00,000 respectively per match in Lawn


7.30 n Mock Tests

45. A and B working individually can do a job in 10 days and 15 days respectively. They start working together, but after 5 days B leaves. In how many days can A complete the remaining work?(1) 1 day (2) 12/3 days(3) 2 days (4) 3 days

46. An official from the Education Department sought some information from a night college. The college responded by sending the average ages of the men and women studying in the college and the ratio of the number of men and women as 3 : 2. The official mis-read the ratio as 2 : 3 and computed the average age of all the students as 2 years less than the actual average of 26 years. By how many years is the average age of the men more than that of the women?(1) 2 (2) 4(3) 6 (4) 10

47. The length of a rectangle is decreased by x per cent and its breadth is increased by 4x per cent. Find x if the area of the rectangle remains unchanged.(1) 25 (2) 50(3) 75 (4) None of these

48. Kumar travelled 100 km by car and 160 km by bus in a total of 6 hours. Had he travelled 200 km by car and the rest of the distance by bus he would have taken 30 minutes less for the entire journey. Find the speed at which he travelled by car (in kmph).(1) 45 (2) 50(3) 55 (4) 40

49. A sum of Rs 700 is divided among x, y and z in such a way that the shares of x and y are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and the shares of y and z are in the ratio of 4 : 5. Find the share of x in rupees.(1) 200 (2) 140(3) 160 (4) 180

50. The price of an article is first decreased by 10 per cent and then again decreased by 10 per cent. By what per cent should the decreased price be increased to get equal to the original price?(1) 8100/19 % (2) 1900/81 %(3) 19 % (4) 20 %

51. Two persons started at 6 am towards each other at speeds of 27.5 kmph and 22.5 kmph respectively. At what time will they meet if the initial distance between them was 175 km?(1) 9:50 a.m. (2) 9:10 a.m.(3) 9:30 a.m. (4) 9:40 a.m.

52. There are a certain number of students and some benches in a class. If three students are seated per

Tennis, then by approximately what percent are the to-tal annual earnings of Lawn tennis players more than the total earning of cricket players, assuming each player plays 50 matches only per year?(1) 10 % (2) 18 %(3) 25 % (4) 42 %

40. If, under the category “Others” the number of Chess players is half the number of Wrestlers and the sum of the number of Chess players and Wrestlers is half the total number of players under the category “Others”, then the chess players form approximately what per-centage of the female players in basketball? (1) 50 % (2) 100 %(3) 200 % (4) None of these


41. Vinayak sold a ceiling fan and a table fan at the same price. He gets Rs 24,000 by selling them. Their cost prices are in the ratio of 5 : 6 respectively. If the ceil-ing fan is sold at 20 per cent profit, what is the percent-age of profit/loss at which the table fan is sold?(1) 10 % loss (2) 10 % profit (3) No profit, no loss (4) Data inadequate

42. A is directly related to B, inversely related to square of C, directly related to square of the cube root of D. Which of the following defines the above statement?

(1) A α2/3

2

BDC

(2) A α3/2BD

C

(3) A α3/2

2

BDC

(4) A α2/3BD

C 43. The marked price of two bikes are Rs 20000 and Rs

16000. A trader, A gives a discount of 8 per cent on the first and 5 per cent on the second. Another trader B gives a discount of 7 per cent on each of them. The differences in the total selling prices by A and B is(1) Rs 4920 (2) Rs 120(3) Rs 2520 (4) Rs 2400

44. For completing a work, the time taken by A and B is half a day more than that by A, B and C together. If B and C work together the number of days they take is 200 per cent more than what A, B, C would take. All three worked together from start to finish and B earned Rs 400 as his share out of the total earnings of Rs 1800. In how many days did A, B, C together complete the work?(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 18 (4) 24


Mock Test 4 n 7.31

60. Karan has only one rupee and two rupee coins with him. He has a total of 30 coins worth Rs 52. What is the number of one rupee coins he has?(1) 8 (2) 10(3) 12 (4) 22

Directions for questions 61 to 65: In each of the sentences there are two blanks. Four alternatives with a pair of words in each have been given. Choose the one that best fits in the sentence.

61. The memory of birth and _______ of death always _______ within the human being, making him sepa-rate from his fellows.(1) anticipation . . . cower(2) prospect . . . grovel(3) expectation . . . lurk(4) conjecture . . . lie

62. Ill fate pushed him on with an obstinacy nothing could _______; though his reason and _______ told him to go home, he had no power to do it.(1) avoid . . . perceptiveness(2) withstand . . . penetration(3) resist . . . judgement(4) defy . . . discernment

63. Literature may be defined as the _______ and _______ expression of ideas about the various spheres of life, renewed in the author’s mind.(1) despondent . . . systematic (2) serious . . . organised(3) solemn . . . planned(4) sober . . . desultory

64. Till recently, the large size of our population was considered to be a big _______ and responsible for many socio-economic evils in the country, but today many feel that more of this may turn out to be a great _______ in the years to follow.(1) impediment . . . incentive(2) albatross . . . service(3) liability . . . asset(4) milestone . . . advantage

65. The emphasis of modern federations should not be on _______ and separation but on _____ and coopera-tion.(1) diversity . . . discernment(2) division . . . collaboration(3) degeneration . . . homogeneity(4) retrogression . . . propensity

Directions for questions 66 to 70: The sentences giv-en in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a

bench, then three students have to stand. If four stu-dents are seated per bench, then three benches are left vacant. Find the number of students in the class.(1) 48 (2) 24(3) 36 (4) 105

53. The ratio of the weights of x, y and z is 3 : 4 : 5. If their weights are increased by 75 per cent, 60 per cent and 90 per cent respectively, then what will be the ratio of their new weights?(1) 7 : 8 : 15 (2) 31 : 32 : 60(3) 3 : 4 : 5 (4) 105 :128 : 190

54. A, B and C have amounts of Rs 10,000, Rs 32,000 and Rs 36,000 with them respectively. A starts the busi-ness with 80 per cent of the amount with him. After six months, B joins him with 50 per cent of the amount with him. After another two months C joins them in-vesting some portion of his money. They share the an-nual profit in the ratio 1 : 1 : 1. What percent of the amount with him did C invest? (1) 25 % (2) 50 %(3) 33.33 % (4) 66.66 %

55. John covers a certain distance against the wind which is blowing at 5 kmph. Then he turns around and going with the wind, he covers double the distance in the same time. What is his speed if the wind is not blowing?(1) 15 kmph (2) 10 kmph (3) 5 kmph (4) 4 kmph

56. If a b a bb a c c

+= =

−, then what is the ratio of a : b : c?

(1) 4 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 : 3(3) 2 : 4 : 7 (4) 3 : 2 : 1

57. Three men and four women take ten days to complete a work. Eleven men and three women take four days to complete the same work. Find the time taken by 24 men and 2 women to complete that work. (in days)(1) 1 (2) 1.5(3) 2 (4) 2.5

58. A train leaves Hyderabad at 8:00 a.m. and reaches Mum-bai at 10:00 p.m. on the same day. Another train leaves Mumbai at 10:00 a.m. and reaches Hyderabad at mid-night on that day. When will the two trains meet?(1) 1:00 p.m. (2) 2:30 p.m.(3) 1:30 p.m. (4) 4:00 p.m.

59. A boat goes 16 km upstream and 24 km down stream in 6 hours Also, it covers 12 km upstream and 36 km down stream in the same time. Find the speed of the boat in still water.(1) 6 kmph (2) 10 kmph(3) 8 kmph (4) 5 kmph


7.32 n Mock Tests

D. Today, more than a dozen firms in the sector can boast of global quality standards in manufactur-ing.

E. Despite these remarkable achievements, the fact remains that even the biggest Indian component companies are scrabbling at the peripheries of the global auto industry.

(1) BDCEA (2) BCDAE(3) BCDEA (4) BDCAE

70. A. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is expected to come up with a model concession agreement that will mark a significant departure from current deals.

B. Over the last year, NHAI has moved from award-ing contracts under the EPC mode to the BOT mode.

C. It has already been discussed by the Committee on Infrastructure and will go to the Committee of Sec-retaries for more discussion.

D. Till now, 2,197 km of projects in the north- south-east-west corridor have been awarded in the BOT corridor.

(1) ABCD (2) ACBD(3) ABDC (4) ADBC

Directions for questions 71 to 76: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of phrasing the under-lined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four.

71. Mumbai’s eminence that it is the country’s industrial capital owes much to the textile mills that employed 250,000 workers until about 2 decades ago.(1) of being the country’s industrial capital owes

much(2) that it is the country’s industrial capital is owed

much(3) as the country’s industrial capital is owed much(4) as the country’s industrial capital owes much

72. Politicians, who are being the most integral and visi-ble part of public life, must face the music when things take an ugly turn.(1) since they are being the most integral and visible

part of public life(2) being the more integral and visible part of public

life(3) being the most integral and visible part of public

life(4) as they are the more integral and visible part of

public life 73. Having been asked to speak at the convention, some

notes were prepared by Dr Robert.

letter. Choose the most logical order to construct a coherent paragraph.

66. A. Variability in the response time of systems and system crashes may also cause stress in users.

B. On the other hand, very fast response times may increase the pace of the interaction to an uncom-fortable level.

C. The optimum response time will depend on the task.D. Slow response time in computer systems has been

found to increase stress and mental strain.E. A study reported that workers try to complete most

of the work in the morning in case the system fails in the afternoon.

(1) ABCDE (2) DABCE(3) DBCAE (4) DABEC

67. A. The recent announcement of allowing the private sector to make an entry into power generation is a bold step.

B. This will encourage growth of the economy.C. However poor infrastructure is the biggest bottle-

neck for that growth.D. The central budget for the fiscal year has welcome

features like abolition of income tax and liberal-ized industrial policy.

E. The real problem is not the shortage of power but the management of the transmission and distribu-tion system.

(1) ADBCE (2) DABCE(3) ABCDE (4) DBCEA

68. A. Most of what is known about common colds con-cerns how they are spread by personal contact and through inanimate objects.

B. Sleeping with mouths open also causes cold, since this makes the membranes dry and therefore more susceptible.

C. People who complain about catching a lot of colds often have some structural difficulty such as clogged eustachian tubes or sinus problems.

D. Virologists have also noticed that people who travel tend to catch more colds as they come across different strains of the virus.

(1) ACBD (2) ABCD(3) ADCB (4) ADBC

69. A. By and large, Indian companies still supply fairly low-priced products in the global market.

B. The Indian auto components industry has grown and matured remarkably over the past couple of de-cades.

C. Quite a few firms have managed to bag orders to supply some parts to car companies in the U.S. and Europe.


Mock Test 4 n 7.33

79. The Narnia tales,/an apotheosis in children’s literature,/ (1) (2)

are never patronizing,/but always timeless/and (3) (4)

startlingly wise.

80. The number of fatal accidents/in which people are run (1) (2) down and killed/has forced authorities/ to be more (3) (4) stringent in traffic rules.

Directions for questions 81 to 85: These questions are based on the following information. Each of the five students—A to E are from a different school among P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. When they are asked about their positions in the row and their schools, they made the following statements.

A: I am from P. I am sitting to the right of C.B: I am not from T. I am not sitting at the middle of the row.C: I am from S or Q. I am sitting adjacent to E and D.D: I am from R. I am not sitting at any of the extreme ends.E: I am not from Q. I am sitting adjacent to A or C. It is also known that the first statement made by each of

them is true and the second statement is false.

81. To which school does E belong?(1) T (2) S(3) Q (4) Either T or S

82. If D is sitting at the extreme right end, then in the row what is the position of the student from P?(1) second from left (2) extreme left(3) middle (4) fourth from left

83. If the student from S, is sitting at the extreme right end, then who is sitting to the immediate right of the student from Q?(1) C (2) E(3) A (4) D

84. If B is from Q, then what is the position of the student from T?(1) extreme right. (2) second from left.(3) second from right. (4) Cannot be determined.

85. If there is exactly one person sitting between A and E, then who is sitting between the students from S and Q?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) E

(1) preparation of notes was done by Dr Robert (2) the convention members prepared notes for

Dr Robert(3) Dr Robert prepared some notes(4) some notes were prepared for Dr Robert

74. The screaming burnt victims were slowly lowered to the ground for medical attention.(1) The victims who were screaming and who were

burning(2) The screaming burn-victims(3) The screaming burning victims(4) The victims who were burning screamed

75. His new car has many features including a stereo, safety devices, air condition, and good fuel.(1) stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and good

fuel.(2) stereo, safe devices, air conditioning, and low fuel

consumption.(3) stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low

fuel consumption.(4) stereo, safety devices, air condition, and good

fuel.

76. Does physics simply help us to explain and understand the aspects of the life and the universe, or can we use it to anticipate and thereby to avoid problems, improv-ing our societies, making a better and safer world?(1) to avoiding problems, to improving our societies,

and making a better and safer world(2) avoid problems, improve our societies and make a

better and safer world(3) avoiding problems and improvement of our soci-

eties and making a better and safer world(4) avoid problems and improvement of our societies

and make a better and safer world

Directions for questions 77 to 80: Each sentence is divided into four parts. Mark the number of that part of the sen-tence which has an error as your answer.

77. The relationship between small and large business/ (1)

in many countries/have changed considerably/ (2) (3) due to modern franchising.

(4)

78. Control over intangible assets/and various forms of (1) properties/give companies the edge/to create powerful (2) (3) supplier-user networks. (4)


7.34 n Mock Tests

Conclusions: I. No planets are clouds II. Some satellites are stars III. Some planets are not satellites IV. Some satellites are not planets(1) Only II follows(2) Only I and II follow (3) Only I, II and IV follow(4) None follows

92. Statements: Some tumblers are plates. Some bottles are tumblers. All plates are spoons.Conclusions: I. Some spoons are tumblers II. Some spoons are plates III. Some bottles are plates IV. No bottle is a plate(1) Only I and II follow(2) Only either III or IV follows (3) All follow(4) Both (1) and (2)

93. Statements: All speeches are translations. All Essays are speeches. No Essays are reviews.Conclusions: I. Some reviews are speeches II. No reviews are essays III. No reviews are translations IV. No reviews are speeches(1) All follow(2) Only II and either I or IV follow(3) Either I or II follows(4) Only II, III and IV follow

94. Statements: No Navies are Airforces. All armies are Navies. All Airforces are defences.Conclusions: I. No air forces are navies II. Some defences are airforces III. Some defences are not navies IV. No armies are airforces(1) Only either I or II follows (2) Only II follows(3) Only either I or IV follows(4) All follow

95. Statements: All roots are stems. Some branches are trees. Some stems are branches.Conclusions: I. Some trees are stems II. Some trees are branches III. All trees are stems IV. Some trees are not branches(1) Only I, II and III follow (2) Only I and II follow

Directions for questions 86 to 90: These questions are based on the following information. The password of a computer changes each time a person logs in. The change in the password follows a particular pattern. An illustration of changes in a password as each person logs in is given below.

First Person : get set bet let pet wetSecond Person : wet get let bet set petThird Person : pet wet bet let get set and so on.

86. If the password for the first person is “cat sat fat hat rat mat”, then the password for the fourth person will be(1) rat mat fat hat cat sat(2) cat sat hat fat rat mat(3) mat sat hat fat rat cat(4) sat rat hat fat mat cat

87. If the password for the third person is “hit sit fit bit kit wit”, then the password for the first person is (1) sit kit bit fit wit hit (2) kit wit fit bit hit sit(3) wit hit bit fit sit kit (4) hit sit fit bit kit wit

88. If the password for the second person is “bar car far jar tar war”, then which of the following will be the pass-word of the first person who will have the password “car tar jar far war bar”?(1) Third (2) Fourth(3) Fifth (4) Sixth

89. The password will be repeated after the log in of(1) four persons(2) five persons (3) six persons(4) seven persons

90. If the password for the third person is “tin bin kin sin pin win”, then the password for the sixth person is (1) pin win sin kin tin bin(2) win tin sin kin bin pin(3) bin pin sin kin win tin(4) tin bin kin sin pin win

Directions for questions 91 to 95: Each of the following questions consists of three statements followed by four conclusions. The statements and the conclusions may appear to be in variance with the generally known facts. Find which of the conclusions logically follows the given statements even though they are variance from the gener-ally known facts.

91. Statements: All clouds are stars. No stars are planets. Some clouds are satellites.


Mock Test 4 n 7.35

103. The average weight of the students of two sections of a class are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the total number of students in each section is same and the total weight of students of first section is 150 kg more than the to-tal weight of that of second section, find the average weight of the students of both the sections.(1) 32 kg (2) 36 kg(3) 45 kg(4) Cannot be determined

104. Without stoppages a train covers 45 km in one hour. With stoppages the average speed of the train is 39 kmph. How many minutes does the train stops per hour? (1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 11 (4) 9

105. Mean of 40 items is found to be 32. At the time of calculation, two items were wrongly taken as 7 and 23 instead of 17 and 15. The correct mean is (1) 32.5 (2) 32.05(3) 29.95 (4) 29.5

106. If a cube of edge 5 cm is cut into 5 actuate slices, such that each edge of 1 cm thick, find the surface area of each slice in square centimeters.(1) 70 (2) 50(3) 25 (4) 125

107. The dimensions of a classroom are 18 m × 16 m. Each student sits in an area of one m2. A margin of one me-tre is left along the length as well as the breadth of the room. How many students can be accommodated in the class room?(1) 224 (2) 288(3) 216 (4) 255

108. Sonia, Atal, Pramod, George, Naidu and Sharad are to address a public meeting. If Atal speaks after Sonia, the number of orders in which they can speak in the meeting is(1) 360 (2) 720(3) 180 (4) 120

109. The probability of drawing a card which is either a black or a king from a well shuffled pack of cards is(1) 15/26 (2) 1/2(3) 7/13 (4) None of these

110. In a bag, there are 10 red balls and remaining are green balls. The probability of drawing a green ball is double the probability of drawing a red ball. Find the number of green balls.(1) 15 (2) 10(3) 20 (4) 5

(3) Only I follows(4) Only either I or III and II follow

Directions for questions 96 to 100: These questions are based on the following information. Seven guests—A, B, C, D, E, F and G, who attended a college function are made to sit on the dias (facing the crowd). Also

(1) As C is the chief guest, he was seated at the centre(2) B was seated three places away from D(3) A was seated to the left of B(4) E and F were seated together(5) G was not seated adjacent to C

96. If E was not seated at the extreme end of the row then the number of people who are sitting between A and E was____.(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3

97. If F was seated adjacent to B, then who was the third from the left end of the row?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D

98. Who among the following can be seated adjacent to E?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) G

99. How many people were seated between D and G?(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) Cannot be determined

100. Which of the following statements is definitely true?(1) D and C are adjacent to each other (2) G and D are adjacent to each other(3) B and G are adjacent to each other (4) A and C are adjacent to each other

Directions for questions 101 to 120: Select the correct al-ternative from the given choices

101. How much water in cm3 is to be added to 84 cm3 of solu-tion containing 76 per cent boric acid, so that the resul-tant solution has 56 per cent boric acid concentration?(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 50 (4) 30

102. In a grocery store, 5/6th of the second quality goods are sold and second quality goods are 1/5th of the total goods in the stores. If 1/3rd of the total goods are sold, what fraction of the total number of goods unsold is the number of second quality goods sold? (1) 1/4 (2) 1/5(3) 1/6 (4) 1/3


7.36 n Mock Tests

(3) Half of a single discount of 2(x + y) %

(4) Two successive discounts of x y2+ % each

119. A handicraft is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone. The radius of the cylinder is 7 cm and the height of the cylindrical part is 10 cm. Find the volume (in cm3) of the handicraft, if the vertical angle of the cone is 90°.(1) 2000 (2) 1567 2/3(3) 1567 (4) 1899 1/3

120. The price of an article has an integer value. If it is in-creased by 30 per cent, which of the following cannot be the increased price of the article? (1) Rs 9.10 (2) Rs 7.80(3) Rs 7.00 (4) Rs 6.50


121. The 2019 World Cup Cricket tournament is scheduled to be held in(1) West Indies (2) India(3) South Africa (4) England

122. ‘First in service—Best in Banking’ is the punchline of (1) Andhra Bank (2) Corporation Bank(3) Canara Bank (4) Allahabad Bank

123. ‘Bard of Avon’ is the nickname of (1) William Shakespeare(2) William Wordsworth (3) Thomas Hardy(4) George Bernard Shaw

124. World Ozone Day is observed on (1) March 22 (2) June 5(3) April 22 (4) September 16

125. Which of the following states is considered as the “first organic state” in India?(1) Nagaland (2) Mizoram(3) Sikkim (4) Uttarakhand

126. The Panna mines are located inside the Panna tiger sanctuary in (1) Rajasthan (2) Chhattisgarh(3) Jharkhand (4) Madhya Pradesh

127. Which Indian state has the highest percentage of pop-ulation living below the poverty line?(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar(3) Chhattisgarh (4) Orissa

128. Which of the following is a small car brand of General Motors?

111. It was observed that a tower subtends an angle of 30° at a point A and 60° at a point B, which is 50 metres away from A. Find the height of the tower.(1) 25 3 m (2) 25(1 + 3 ) m (3) 50 3 m (4) 25( 3 – 1) m

112. A sum triples itself to Rs 1,200 in four years at com-pound interest. If the same sum is deposited for four more years, the compound interest for eight years will be(1) Rs 1,600 (2) Rs 2,400(3) Rs 2,000 (4) Rs 3,200

113. Four wires of equal length are bent into a triangle, a quadrilateral, a regular pentagon and a regular hexa-gon respectively. If each wire is bent so as to have the maximum possible area, which of the following has the greatest area?(1) triangle (2) quadrilateral(3) regular pentagon (4) regular hexagon

114. In a 500 m race, A beats B by 15 m and in the same race, B beats C by 20 m and D beats C by 25 m. which of the following holds true?(1) A beats D by approximately15 m(2) A beats D by approximately 10 m(3) A beats D by approximately 20 m(4) D beats A by approximately 5 m

115. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 seconds. How many times will they toll together in one hour, excluding the one at the start?(1) 3 (2) 5(3) 7 (4) 9

116. The side of a square is 20 m and a rectangle whose perimeter is equal to the perimeter of the square has its breadth as 15 m. Find the ratio of the area of the rectangle to that of the square.(1) 15 : 16 (2) 16 : 15(3) 4 : 5 (4) 4 : 3

117. The depth and the radius of a conical vessel is 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. The vessel is completely filled with water to its brim. When a sphere of radius 3 cm is dropped into the vessel, find the ratio of the volume of water over flown to the total volume of the vessel.(1) 3 : 8 (2) 1 : 4(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 7

118. If x and y are distinct, then the two successive dis-counts of x per cent and y per cent is more than(1) Two successive discounts of y % and x %(2) A single discount of (x + y) %


Mock Test 4 n 7.37

(1) Bangalore(2) Hyderabad(3) New Delhi(4) Panchkula

137. The UN is observing 2009 as the(1) Year of Dolphins(2) Year of Deserts and Desertification (3) Year of Languages(4) Year of Astronomy

138. “Vehicle for the Seven Seas”, which fetched a record price of €502,330 in April 2008, is the work of(1) M. F. Husain(2) Subodh Gupta(3) Bhupen Khakkar(4) Tyeb Mehta

139. Which of the statements is not true about the 2008 Beijing Olympics?(1) The games were held for the first time in China(2) The slogan for the 2008 Olympics is “one China

one world”(3) The emblem of the 2008 Olympics was the “Danc-

ing Beijing”.(4) Usain Bolt secured the title of the worlds fastest

man and Michael Phelphs broke the record for most golds in one Olympic.

140. From the coastline the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends upto(1) 12 nautical miles(2) 12 to 24 nautical miles(3) 200 nautical miles(4) 500 nautical miles

Directions for questions 141 to 145: These questions are based on the pie-charts given on the next page.

141. What is the value of 1 litre of Kerosene given that the total Kerosene consumed in India is 150 lakh kilo-litres?(1) Rs 3.2(2) Rs 4.8 (3) Rs 6.8(4) Data Inadequate

142. If 1000 kilowatts {= 1 megawatt (1MW)} of electric-ity costs Rs 25 lakhs, then what is the total amount of electricity consumed in India?(1) 31,200 MW(2) 25,000 MW(3) 21,750 MW(4) Data inadequate

(1) Alto (2) Reva(3) Spark (4) Zen Estilo

129. India’s first rural BPO employing 14 people, who are working on legal data processing, was set up in March 2005 in (1) Tamil Nadu(2) Andhra Pradesh(3) Kerala(4) Karnataka

130. Which of the following is not a traditional method of reducing non-performing assets (NPAs) in banks in India?(1) Write-off(2) One-time settlement (3) Upgradation(4) sale/auction of NPAs

131. The Director General of the International Atomic En-ergy Agency [IAEA] is(1) Rodrigo Rato(2) Pascal Lamy (3) Mohammed El Baradei(4) Haruhiko Kuroda

132. Which of the following is a film directed by Satyajit Ray?(1) Manthan (2) Pather Panchali(3) Bandini (4) Do Bigha Zamin

133. What is the sectoral growth rate target for the farm sector in the 11th five year plan?(1) 8 % (2) 7 %(3) 4 % (4) 5 %

134. Which of the following committees recommendations deal with changes in company law? [One of its recom-mendations was the need for independent directors in a listed company.](1) Narsimhan Committee(2) Irani Committee (3) Kelkar Committee(4) Malhotra Committee

135. Which of the following two countries joined in the Euro Currency Zone in January 2008?(1) Cyprus, Malta(2) Tuvalu, Malta (3) New Zealand, Cyprus(4) Tuvalu, New Zealand

136. The 11th National Conference on e-Governance was held in February 2008 at


7.38 n Mock Tests

145. The current domestic price of crude oil is 25 per cent less than the price of crude oil from all other sources (as shown in the pie chart), then what is the price of crude oil imported from Venezuela?(Assuming that prices of crude oil from all sources other than domes-tic are equal)(1) Rs 617 per barrel (2) Rs 768 per barrel(3) Rs 917 per barrel (4) Data inadequate

Directions for questions 146 to 151: The graph depicts the marks of a college student along with the average marks of male students and the average marks of female students. The average male marks and the average female marks are the normative marks. Examine the graph comparing the marks to answer these questions.

Break-up of various Energy sources consumed by India (by value)

Coal20%

Kerosene12%

Electricity13%

Nuclear15%

Gas10%

Crude Oil30%

Break-up of Crude Oil Supply in India (by volume)

Algeria6%Nigeria

6%Brent Sea

Crude6%

Venezuela10%

Non OPEL Cartel

8% Iraq12%

Oman15%

Domestic25%

Brunei12%

Total value = Rs 60,000 crores Total = 250 million barrels

143. What is the domestic crude oil price per barrel in Oman given that Oman sells crude oil to India at a discount of 20 per cent on its domestic price? (Assume that the price of crude oil to India from all the sources is the same)(1) Rs 900 (2) Rs 750 (3) Rs 720 (4) Data inadequate.

144. If the Total Estimated Reserves (TER) of crude oil in India is 4000 per cent more than the Total Recoverable Reserves (TRR) and the current domestic production of crude oil is 16 per cent of the TRR, then what is the approximate TER of crude oil in India? (in million barrels)(1) 11,500 (2) 13,700(3) 15,000 (4) 16,000

01020304050

607080

90100

Physics Chemistry Mathematics Commerce Botany Zoology

Average male profile Average female profile Personal profile

High

Average

Low


Mock Test 4 n 7.39

152. What is the cost price of each book?I. Had Sagar bought each book for Rs 10 less, he

would have got 20 more books for the same amount.

II. Had Sagar bought each book for Rs 15 more, he would have got 20 books less for the same amount.

153. What should be the monthly instalment for the repay-ment of a loan in buying a fridge? I. The loan taken for buying the fridge is Rs 3,220 at

simple interest.II. The loan is due to be discharged in seven

months.

154. What will be the distance between two persons A and B after four hours? I. A and B travel with speeds of 60 kmph and 40

kmph respectively.II. A and B start simultaneously from the same

point.

155. If n is a natural number, then is n even? I. 8n + 5n is divisible by 13.II. 8n + 5n is not divisible by 4.

156. What is the profit made in selling an article? I. The article is marked 30 per cent above the cost price.II. Two successive discounts of 10 per cent and 20

per cent are given on the list price of the article.

Directions for questions 157 to 160: Each question con-sists of two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. You are to compare the two quantities and mark your answer as

(1) if the quantity in column A is greater(2) if the quantity in column B is greater(3) if the two quantities are equal(4) if the relationship cannot be determined from the

information given Column A Column B

x + y = 12 and x – z = 10

157. y + z 33 xx 12=

158. x 6 (x – 6) men can complete a work in 10 days.

(y + 3) men can complete the same work in 15 days.159. 2x 3y An item is sold at one and half times its cost price with

a profit of $40. 160. Selling price of the item $100

146. In which of the given subjects did the student obtain the highest marks?(1) Commerce (2) Mathematics(3) Physics (4) Zoology

147. Among the marks obtained by the student in differ-ent subjects, in which subject did he achieve the lowest marks?(1) Chemistry (2) Commerce(3) Botany (4) Zoology

148. In which subject does there exist the maximum difference between average marks of any one of the two profiles and marks obtained by the student?(1) Mathematics (2) Commerce(3) Physics (4) Botany

149. In which subject does there exist a convergence be-tween the marks obtained by the student and the aver-age male marks?(1) Mathematics(2) Commerce(3) Chemistry(4) None of these

150. In which subject does there exist no difference be-tween the marks obtained by the student and the aver-age female marks?(1) Mathematics (2) Physics(3) Chemistry (4) None of these

151. To which of the normative marks is the marks obtained by the student closest on the whole?(1) Average female profile(2) Average male profile(3) Both of them(4) None of these

Directions for questions 152 to 156: These questions are based on data sufficiency. Each problem consists of a question and two statements labelled I and II. Decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient or not to answer the question. Mark an appropriate choice from (1) to (4) as follows.Mark (1) if statement I alone is sufficient to answer the

question.Mark (2) if statement II alone is sufficient to answer the

question.Mark (3) if both the statements I and II are sufficient to an-

swer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient.

Mark (4) if statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question and additional data are required to answer the question.


7.40 n Mock Tests

Directions for questions 161 to 164: In each question be-low a statement is given, followed by two courses of actions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the two suggested courses of action logically follows for being pursued.Mark the answer as

(1) if only I follows(2) if only II follows(3) if either I or II follows(4) if neither I nor II follows

161. Statement: It is a sad comment that the common man today considers the police to be more criminal than citizen-friendly.

Courses of Action: I. The department of police should be replaced with

Army.II. Discipline and humanity should be imparted to

the police force.

162. Statement: The government is thinking of operational-ising the first ever legislation aimed at tackling child abuse.Courses of Action: I. The government should come with a pioneering

nationwide survey on child abuse.II. The persons who are responsible for child abuse

should be arrested.

163. Statement: Secularism in India is continually under threat. Courses of action: I. The government should strictly implement that no

religion be favoured in public space, effectively dominating and marginalizing other religions.

II. The state should declare an official religion to be followed by its citizens.

164. Statement: Three years after the government had put a clamp on the parallel marketing system (PMS) of kerosene, it now seems to be actively considering re-vival of PMS.Courses of Action: I. The government should study the past experiences

to have PMS.II. Kerosene is available in the open market.

Directions for questions 165 to 169: These questions are based on the following information.A software program is developed to categorize 7-digit num-bers based on the following criteria.

(A) The number must be an even number(B) The first or the last digit of the number has to be a

perfect square(C) The middle digit must be a prime number

If the 7-digit number entered is satisfying all the above con-ditions, then the number is classified as ‘super number’ But if the number satisfies all the conditions except

(1) condition (A) but the second digit, either from the first or the last, is an even digit then it is classified as special number.

(2) condition (B), but both the first and the last digits are even, the number is classified as subordinate number.

(3) condition (C), but the sum of the digits is a prime num-ber, then the number is classified as unconventional number.

If the number does not fall under any of the above men-tioned classification, then the number is classified as ‘scrap number’.

Mark your answer choice as

(1) if the number is classified as either super number or scrap number.

(2) if the number is classified as special number.(3) if the number is classified as subordinate number.(4) if the number is classified as unconventional number. Find the classification for the following numbers.

165. 2875649

166. 5123876

167. 1647326

168. 6863728

169. 9329312

Directions for questions 170 to 174: An assertion (A) and a reason (R) are given in each of these questions. Mark the answer as (1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

of A. (2) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explana-

tion of A. (3) If A is true but R is false. (4) If A is false but R is true.

170. Assertion (A): Tsunami caused destruction in the city of Chennai.

Reason (R): Chennai is about 50 km away from the sea shore.


Mock Test 4 n 7.41

PASSAGE I

Much of our behaviour involves not simply actions, but mental processes such as perception, memory, problem solving and language. While these processes cannot be observed directly, that does not seem sufficient reason to ignore their existence, or the ways in which they affect be-haviour. Consequently, the cognitive approach is concerned with thinking, and the mental processes related to it. Unlike the behaviourists, the cognitive approach sees events within the person as being at least as important as the environmen-tal stimuli in the understanding of behaviour, these events within the individual are described as mediational process-es or mediators, because they come between the stimulus and the response. Thinking processes like memory, problem solving and language are all based on mediators.

The emphasis on mediating processes, and the way they are defined, is central to the cognitive approach. In contrast to the behaviourists, cognitive psychologists believe that one cannot explain behaviour without reference to some-thing more than stimulus-response connections (the child learning a ‘rule’ for discrimination problems is one ex-ample). However, the nature of these mediators is also important, In essence, mediational processes are defined func-tionally—that is, with reference to how behaviour is altered. These mediators are therefore conceptual; one describes the properties of memory, for example, without concern for its physical embodiment. By contrast, the biological approach also deals with mediational processes, but they are defined physiologically, not conceptually (example, looking at how the visual cortex is involved in perception). Hence, the cogni-tive approach is distinct from the biological approach.

The development of the cognitive approach is closely related to behaviourism, since in part it developed as a reac-tion against the behaviourists’ emphasis on external events (sometimes called radical empiricism). By the time Watson published the first edition of Behaviourism in 1924, he felt that his approach was gaining ground against the ambigui-ties of introspections. Yet at virtually the same point in time, the seeds for a new alternative were being sown. In 1925, a book by a young German researcher named Wolfgang Kolher appeared, called The Mentality of Apes. In this book, he reported observations which suggested that animals could show behaviour which was insightful, and he rejected be-haviourism in favour of an approach called ‘Gestalt’ psy-chology. The other challenge to behaviourism came from someone who actually called himself a behaviourist. In 1932, E.C. Tolman published a book entitled ‘Purposive Behaviour in Animals and Man’. In this book, he described research which was difficult to explain in terms of tradition-al behaviourism, which emphasized associations between stimuli and responses. Instead, Tolman talked about learn-

171. Assertion (A): Ozone layer protects the earth from the Infrared waves of the sun.

Reason (R): The sun radiates light and heat.

172. Assertion (A): AIDS can be fatal.Reason (R): AIDS has no cure.

173. Assertion (A): The President of India is the consti-tutional head of the country.

Reason (R): The President of India has veto power.

174. Assertion (A): Every human being has responsibil-ity towards the society.

Reason (R): Human beings are social animals.

Directions for questions 175 and 176: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

175. Find the next number in the series. 9, 20, 44, 94, 196, 402, ___(1) 718 (2) 816(3) 824 (4) 910

176. Find the odd man out.(1) 98 (2) 47(3) 23 (4) 38


177. ‘C’ goes to the hospital with his mother ‘B’ to console ‘D’, who is the sister of C’s sibling’s father. How is D related to B?(1) daughter (2) sister-in-law(3) sister (4) mother

178. If 5 September 2007 happens to be a Thursday, then which day of the week was 5 September, 2001?(1) Tuesday (2) Thursday(3) Friday (4) Saturday

179. A clock is set to show correct time at 4:00 AM on 10th January 2003. The clock loses 1 minute in every 3 hours. What is the actual time, when the time in the clock is 3:00 PM on 17th January, 2003?(1) 3:00 PM (2) 4:00 PM(3) 6:00 PM (4) 7:00 PM

180. A wall clock is placed in such a way that at 11:30 the minute hand points towards west. Which direction will the hour hand point to at 2’ O clock?(1) North-east (2) South-east(3) North-west (4) South-west

Directions for questions 181 to 196: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow each passage.


7.42 n Mock Tests

183. Kohler’s experiment with the apes showed that(1) apes are capable of learning from trial and error.(2) unsuccessful attempts eventually lead one to suc-

cess.(3) apes can think and learn as much as humans.(4) there was a sudden transformation in organizing

elements that can be called insight.

184. ‘Thinking’ rightly belongs to(1) cognitivism(2) traditional behaviourism(3) biological approach(4) None of these

PASSAGE II

Familiar though the name may be to us, the storyteller in his living immediacy is by no means a present force. He has already become something remote from us and something that is getting even more distant. To present someone as a storyteller does not mean bringing him closer to us but, rather, increasing our distance from him. Viewed from a certain distance, the great, simple outlines which define the storyteller stand out in him, or rather, they become visible in him, just as in a rock a human head or an animal’s body may appear to an observer at the proper distance and angle of vision. This distance and this angle of vision are pre-scribed for us by an experience which we may have almost every day. It teaches us that the art of storytelling is coming to an end. Less and less frequently do we encounter people with the ability to tell a tale properly. More and more often there is embarrassment all around when the wish to hear a story is expressed. It is as if something that seemed inalien-able to us, the securest among our possessions, were taken from us: the ability to exchange experiences.

One reason for this phenomenon is obvious: experience has fallen in value. And it looks as if it is continuing to fall into bottomlessness. Every glance at a newspaper demon-strates that it has reached a new low, that our picture, not only of the external world but of the moral world as well, overnight has undergone changes which were never thought possible. With the [first] World War a process began to be-come apparent which has not halted since then. Was it not noticeable at the end of the war that men returned from the battlefield grown silent—not richer, but poorer in commu-nicable experience? What ten years later was poured out in the flood of war books was anything but experience that goes from mouth to mouth. And there was nothing remark-able about that. For never has experience been contradicted more thoroughly than strategic experience by tactical war-fare, economic experience by inflation, bodily experience by mechanical warfare, and moral experience by those in power. A generation that had gone to school on a horse-

ing as based on relationships among stimuli, referred to as forming cognitive maps. In addition, he argued that learning and responding are not the same, and that it is possible to learn without showing a correct response. Taken together, the work of Kohler and Tolman raised basic questions about the validity of behaviourism, and laid the foundations for what has become the cognitive approach. To see how, let us briefly examine each man’s work more closely.

While the early behaviourists saw learning as basically a matter of trial and error, Kohler argued that we tend to organize experience in particular ways. This is illustrated by the phenomenon Kohler called insight. Insight is a sud-den change in the way one organizes a problem situation; typically this is characterized by a change in behaviour from random responding to rule-based responding. A child solving discrimination problems can show insight, as men-tioned above. In general, insight can be described as form-ing an appropriate schema (or, to use Kohler’s term, mental set) for a particular situation.

One of the most famous examples of Kohler’s work on insight involved an ape named Sultan. Kohler gave Sultan a series of related problems, in which he had to use a stick to reach for a banana which was placed outside his cage, out of arm’s reach. After solving such problems on several occasion, Sultan was then presented with a stick that was not long enough to reach the banana. However, outside the cage was a longer stick. After several unsuccessful tries, Sultan threw down the short stick in evident frustration, and retreated to the corner of his cage. A little later, he suddenly went over to the short stick used it to reach the other, longer stick, and with the new stick reached the banana! As Kohler noted, there was no gradual sequence, as one might expect with shaping, nor did it seem to be the result of trail and er-ror. Instead, there was a sudden transformation in the way Sultan organized the elements—insight. Kohler’s work thus created a shift away from seeing all behaviour as trial and error, towards a concern with the internal organizing pro-cesses which mediate behaviour.

181. Who laid the foundation for the cognitive approach?(1) Gestalt (2) Watson(3) Kohler and Tolman (4) Sultan

182. The cognitive approach differed from the behaviourist approach in all of the following except:(1) Believing that there is a process that comes be-

tween stimulus and response.(2) Deriving their conclusions from practical experi-

ments. (3) Looking at the mediation process as conceptual

rather than physiological.(4) Not relying only on external events.


Mock Test 4 n 7.43

notion of the Oedipus complex. Conflict with parents does play an important role in personality development, as Freud believed, but parent-offspring conflict is not typically sex linked, as Freud also claimed. Freud convinced himself that children harbour murderous wishes against the same-sex parent. For a young child to kill a parent is tantamount to committing evolutionary suicide from the Darwinian point of view. To wish to kill a parent, if one never acts on this wish, is a blatant waste of time. Owing to natural selection, Freudian genes coding for patricidal wishes would soon vanish from any population.

As a test of Freud’s claims, I have analyzed the life of a few scientists for their levels of conflict with each of their parent. Contrary to the psychoanalytic expectation, off-spring experienced just as much conflict with their mothers as they did with their fathers. In addition, both sources of conflict contribute equally to scientific radicalism.

Parent-offspring conflict and openness to experience have a reciprocal relationship. Just as conflict with a parent tends to induce greater openness the degree of independence and regulates parent-offspring conflict. It is noteworthy that parent-offspring conflict is minimized when firstborns adopt a “closed” or conforming intellectual style and laterborns adopt a moderately “open” or independent style. When both siblings adopt the same style, parent-offspring conflict in-creases. It is also noteworthy that the price of independence is different for firstborns and laterborns. Parents tolerate independent thinking among their laterborn offspring. The same level of independence in a firstborn is associated with significantly greater parental conflict. In short, individuals who occupy a favoured niche seem to pay a higher price for asserting their independence.

Based on these findings about parental conflict, a bio-graphical rule of thumb itself, whenever one encounters a firstborn radical (and family life does occasionally pro-duce them), such individuals are likely to have experienced substantial conflict with a parent. Parent-offspring conflict makes honorary laterborns out of some firstborns.

The tendency for firstborns to adopt laterborn strategies is most common in lower-class families. Children are more likely to accept parental authority in the upper and middle classes. When parents are impoverished, they provide less reason for emulation. Under such circumstances, firstborns are sometimes pressured to invest in their younger siblings at the expense of their own reproductive potential. Such pressures deny them the usual advantages that stem from their firstborn niche. The value of family niches is always relative to the investment capabilities of the parents.

189. According to the passage, parental conflict(1) has a more profound impact on firstborns.(2) is as important as birth order in determining per-

sonality.

drawn streetcar now stood under the open sky in a country-side in which nothing remained unchanged but the clouds, and beneath these clouds, in a field of force of destructive torrents and explosions, was the tiny, fragile human body.

185. What quality does the author associate with his phrase “in his living immediacy “?(1) A sense of familiarity(2) An evident force(3) Remoteness(4) Knowledge of story telling

186. What according to the author was our inherent property?(1) The faculty to trade experiences(2) Experiences that are inborn(3) The desire for storytelling (4) The wish to hear a story expressed.

187. Based on the passage, which of the following about ‘Experience’ is not true?(1) The newspaper demonstrates the abyss that our

experiences have fallen into.(2) The first world war stultified the men’s ability to

narrate their experience.(3) The war books were flooded with experience that

were shared.(4) Experience has suffered changes that were never

thought possible before.

188. The ‘contradictions’ reveal contrast (1) between the past and the present insignificance of

man. (2) between the abilities to convey experiences.(3) between economic experience and inflation.(4) in the remark ability of war books.

PASSAGE III

In science, high levels of parental conflict predict openness to innovation. As part of the firstborn niche, eldest children tend to identify with parents, who generally favour them in return. Conflict disrupts the usual repertoire of firstborn strategies, causing some firstborns to behave like later-borns. High levels of parent-offspring conflict make later-borns somewhat more radical than they would otherwise have been, but the effect is significantly smaller than it is for first borns. Who needs to have Attila the Hun for a father or the Wicked Witch of the West for a mother, if you already have a domineering older sibling?

Birth order contributes substantially more to revolution-ary personality than does parent-offspring conflict. Compar-ing the two variables directly, birth order is more than twice as important. This finding is surprising from a psychoana-lytic point of view. Psychohistory is largely based on Freud’s


7.44 n Mock Tests

The Brihanmubai Municipal Corporation (BMC) closed down the shops following a High Court (HC) directive to check pollution and revive the river. The court was respond-ing to a PIL filed in August by former MP and activist Kirit Somaiya. According to the Maharashtra Pollution Control Board (MPCB), pollution in the Mithi has reached “alarm-ing” levels. The river was filled with “raw sewage, industri-al waste and garbage”, was treated “like an open drain”. For years, the BMC had failed to treat the sewage water which flows into the Mithi from illegal housing, public toilets and, most damningly, its own sewage drains.

“The BMC uses the river as a gutter to carry waste,” says activist Girish Raut. It is widely believed that one of the reasons for the flooding of the city in July was due to the reduction in the river’s water-carrying capacity. The Mithi river is 100-ft wide at its point of origin in Vihar Lake in far north Mumbai but by the time it reaches the Bandra-Kurla complex—a distance of approximately 10 km—its width gets reduced to only 40 ft.

Mumbai’s virtually invisible river, 14.5-km-long, is lined with slums, commercial units, public toilets, residen-tial complexes and polluting industries all of whom release their waste into the waters. “No one has spared the Mithi—not the BMC, the slums, the industries, or the airport,” says Virendra Dube, a member of the Mithi River Monitoring Committee.

A trip down the river from the upscale Bandra-Kurla complex to the grey interiors of Kurla reveal the degrees of degradation. To the rich and the poor alike, the Mithi is not a river but a dumping ground for plastic, animal waste, debris and garbage. Toxic chemicals from the illegal com-mercial units in spurious oil mixing, plastic dealing, car-pentry, radiator and barrel cleaning in the north-eastern suburbs find their way into the water. The waters of Mithi contain toxins such as cyanide, lead, sulphates and zinc. MPCB Member Secretary D. Boralkar says that the board will need at least another three months to study the effect of industrial waste on the river and suggest remedies. Somaiya’s PIL had advocated the installation of effluent treat-ment plants for all industries to reduce toxic effluents released in the river.

Environmentalist and member of the Conservation and Action Trust, Debi Goenka says that indiscriminate rec-lamation of land along the river has narrowed the Mithi. “Unless these are removed, the river cannot be widened,” he says. The BMC and the MPCB have ordered the clo-sure of identified polluting units. Additional Munici-pal Commissioner Vijay Patankar says, “The BMC has ordered the closure of 771 units that lie 15 m from the Mithi’s banks.”

(3) is not experienced by firstborns.(4) strengthens the already conversional nature of

firstborns.

190. The Freudian and Darwinian views(1) both bolster the view that parental conflict deter-

mines openness to innovation.(2) are fundamentally clashing.(3) were studied to establish a link between birth or-

der and parent offspring conflict.(4) differ on one important concept, which was the

foundation of the psychoanalytic theory.

191. The line “Individuals who occupy a favoured niche seem to pay a higher price for asserting their indepen-dence” means(1) parental conflict is directly proportional to the

style adopted by the offspring.(2) offsprings who identify themselves with their par-

ents have no independence.(3) firstborns are heavily penalized for putting their

foot down.(4) conformists are at a disadvantage.

192. Children accept parental authority in the upper and middle classes. The reason for this could be that(1) parents are more domineering in those house-

holds(2) parents and offspring ensure that there is minimal

conflict(3) parents are suitable role models.(4) responsibilities deny them independence.

193. According to the passage, parent-offspring conflict is minimized when(1) the first and the laterborns adopt the same life-

style.(2) the laterborns adopt a conforming lifestyle.(3) the parents refuse to tolerate the independent

thinking of their laterborns.(4) the firstborns adopt a more ‘closed’ or conforming

lifestyle.

PASSAGE IVThe closure of more than 700 scrap shops along Mumbai’s Mithi river last month caused both alarm and confusion. Alarm amongst the thousands who depended on the shops for their livelihood. And confusion for those who thought the black patch of water they commuted past every day was a drain, and not a river that began its life as a clear, gush-ing stream a short distance away from the slums. The Mithi river is in every way, Mumbai’s worst-kept secret.


Mock Test 4 n 7.45

(3) the commercial complexes along its length.(4) All of the above.

Directions for questions 197 to 200: Each of the follow-ing questions contains a small paragraph. Read the para-graph carefully and complete the sentence given below.

197. Texas is used to dealing with rustlers: it has nearly 14 million cattle, more than any other state. Specially commissioned Texas Rangers help track down these bad guys. Even so, rustling has recently been on the rise. The boom in rustling owes much to the beef prices. An animal that weighs more than half a ton at slaughter can fetch up to 1,000 dollars nowadays.This passage best supports the statement that (1) Texas Rangers are successful in bringing down

the rustling of cattle in Texas.(2) beef lovers have increased in number across the

globe.(3) rustling is on the increase as beef fetches more

money.(4) rustling of cattle happens only in Texas.

198. It is very difficult to make a million dollars legally. It is comparatively easier to make it illegally. But to remain affluent and prosperous needs prudence and good management skills. A person who is able to achieve this is really a successful man.The passage best supports the idea that (1) money can be made easily through illegal means.(2) a successful man is always wealthy.(3) only a judicious and wiseman can retain the mon-

ey he makes.(4) rich men make money both legally and illegally.

199. Variations are bound to occur while evaluating the per-formance of students in a traditional essay-type exam-ination. Unlike the objective-type questions, it is not just the dry facts and figures that are being tested here. It is the cogency, clarity and the convincing manner in which a candidate presents his/her views that would determine to a great extent the mark that is awarded.The passage best supports the idea that variations in the assessment of essay-type answer papers occur be-cause (1) students are not trained to write with clarity and

precision. (2) there is no objective standard for measurement.(3) the evaluators prefer evaluating only objective-

type answer papers.(4) the evaluators have preconceived notions about

certain topics which influence them while judging a paper.

According to Coastal Regulatory Zone rules, no struc-tures can be built within 15 m of the river bank. In the development plan of 1991, the river had, however, been declared a “drain” by the government to facilitate construc-tion of housing societies. “There is connivance between the state bodies and builders, “ says environmentalist Rishi Agarwaal. Every time room was made for “development”, the Mithi was dealt another blow. The reclamation of land to build apartment blocks destroyed wetlands and reduced the water absorption capacity of the land along the river. A bridge will soon be built across the river to accommodate a new runway at Sahar airport. The Mithi will be made to flow through a tunnel. “To believe that they can make the river flow through a tunnel shows the authorities’ total dis-regard for the river…They are treating it as a mere gutter and not a river,” says Raut. Criticism of the project has led to a rethink. The Bandra-Worli Sea Link, a high profile con-struction project billed as having the potential to change the face of Mumbai, could cause further damage. According to Raut, the reclamation of land for the sea link is obstructing the course of the river and reducing its capacity.

While the HC intervention has initiated action on the Mithi river, the pace has been slow. The Mithi River Devel-opment and Conservation Authority has met only once since its inception in August this year. “Not a single paisa has been provided for the river. It seems there is no political will to re-vive the Mithi,” says Somaiya. However, environmentalists believe the next step in reviving the Mithi is to create aware-ness among people, which will facilitate the state machinery to stop the deterioration of an important natural resource which has been left to rot.

194. The reduction in the width of the river, according to environmentalists and members of the Conservation and Action Trust, is due to (1) the municipality using it as a drain.(2) the dumping of industrial waste into it.(3) the flow of raw sewage from illegal housing and

public toilets.(4) the encroachment and reclamation of land along

the river.

195. The Mithi is called an ‘invisible river’ probably be-cause(1) few in Bombay seem to be aware of it or treat it so.(2) it is only 14.5 kilometers long.(3) it is lined by slums and barely visible.(4) it flows through the heart of the city.

196. The factor/s guilty of turning the Mithi into a drain is/are(1) the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation.(2) the slums on its bank.


7.46 n Mock Tests

(1) has not taken the spirit of democracy into consid-eration while framing its functional code.

(2) is correct in making its own rules and regula-tions.

(3) is not strong enough to flight terrorism or to pro-tect human rights.

(4) is one that reflects the mindset of the freedom fighters who fought for democratic rule in India.

200. The Indian security structure has developed its own functional dynamics, largely unmindful of the consti-tutional imperatives and human rights considerations. Being largely a product of mid-19th century mindsets and legislation, and thus in clear dissonance with the ethos of a representative democracy, it could not have been otherwise. The passage best supports the opinion that the In-dian security structure

Answer keys

1. 2 2. 4 3. 4 4. 2 5. 2 6. 4 7. 3 8. 4 9. 3 10. 1 11. 1 12. 2 13. 2 14. 3 15. 3 16. 1 17. 4 18. 3 19. 2 20. 2 21. 2 22. 3 23. 3 24. 3 25. 4 26. 1 27. 2 28. 3 29. 4 30. 3 31. 1 32. 4 33. 1 34. 2 35. 4 36. 4 37. 1 38. 3 39. 2 40. 2 41. 3 42. 1 43. 2 44. 2 45. 2 46. 4 47. 3 48. 2 49. 3 50. 2 51. 3 52. 1 53. 4 54. 4 55. 1 56. 1 57. 3 58. 4 59. 3 60. 1 61. 3 62. 3 63. 2 64. 3 65. 2 66. 2 67. 4 68. 3 69. 1 70. 2 71. 4 72. 3 73. 3 74. 2 75. 3 76. 2 77. 3 78. 3 79. 2 80. 4 81. 1 82. 2 83. 3 84. 4 85. 1 86. 4 87. 2 88. 3 89. 1 90. 3 91. 3 92. 4 93. 2 94. 4 95. 4 96. 3 97. 1 98. 2 99. 4 100. 4 101. 4 102. 1 103. 4 104. 2 105. 2 106. 1 107. 1 108. 1 109. 3 110. 3 111. 1 112. 4 113. 4 114. 2 115. 3 116. 1 117. 1 118. 4 119. 4 120. 3 121. 4 122. 1 123. 1 124. 4 125. 2 126. 4 127. 4 128. 3 129. 1 130. 4 131. 3 132. 2 133. 3 134. 2 135. 1 136. 4 137. 4 138. 2 139. 2 140. 3 141. 2 142. 4 143. 1 144. 4 145. 2 146. 2 147. 3 148. 1 149. 2 150. 4 151. 4 152. 3 153. 4 154. 4 155. 1 156. 4 157. 2 158. 4 159. 1 160. 1 161. 2 162. 2 163. 1 164. 1 165. 2 166. 1 167. 1 168. 3 169. 4 170. 3 171. 4 172. 1 173. 3 174. 1 175. 2 176. 4 177. 2 178. 2 179. 2 180. 2 181. 3 182. 2 183. 4 184. 1 185. 3 186. 1 187. 3 188. 2 189. 1 190. 2 191. 4 192. 3 193. 4 194. 4 195. 1 196. 4 197. 3 198. 3 199. 2 200. 1


Mock Test 5Directions for questions 1 to 4: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given below, choose the pair that fills the blanks most ap-propriately.

1. His suggestion was met with _____, if not outright hostility, by the other members who _____ disagreed with him.(1) disapprobation...vehemently(2) disapproval...allegedly(3) dissent...reluctantly(4) disdain...tacitly

2. Though he always spoke in a/an ____ manner, beneath that ____ lay a very serious and profound character.(1) frivolous...force (2) carefree...travesty (3) flippant...façade (4) facetious...masquerade

3. The odd combination of John, a very ____ person, the life and soul of all parties, and his ____ wife, surprised many.(1) congenial...truculent (2) garrulous...shy (3) loquacious...diffident (4) gregarious...taciturn

4. Previously, the universe, which was thought to be well-ordered and ____, is today considered to be very ____.(1) peaceful...baffling (2) harmonious...chaotic(3) balanced...intriguing (4) congruous...farcical

Directions for questions 5 to 8: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given which are denoted as A, B, C and D. By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. Choose the correct order of the sentences from the four alternatives given.

5. A. Galileo went beyond the ‘common sense’ view of Aristotle while presenting his law of inertia.

B. The fundamental laws describing how objects move in space are called Newton’s laws, since it

was Sir Isaac Newton who first formulated them clearly.

C. Galileo taught the world about falling bodies, and now they descend.

D. But the tallest giant from whose shoulders New-ton saw afar was Galileo, who laid the founda-tions of modern mechanics.

(1) ACBD (2) ADBC (3) BADC (4) BDCA

6. A. History can never be solely about the impact of great men and women.

B. Whenever two cultures come together, there will be exchange of values, of arts, of science and technology, of customs and beliefs, of languages.

C. Within these processes lies the history of the hu-man world, from the siege of Troy to the eastward expansion of the European union.

D. It must also examine the interactions between vast groups of people.

(1) BCAD (2) ADCB(3) BDAC (4) ABCD

7. A. There have been some attempts to find out.B. Can corporate prediction markets become a power-

ful tool by really spotting broader industry trends?C. Ken kittlitz, one of its co-founders, says it has an

accuracy rate of about 70 % on technology ques-tions but was too bullish on demand for video-phones.

D. The oldest technology oriented prediction market is the Foresight Exchange, ww.ideospher.com, launched in 1994.

(1) CDBA (2) BADC(3) CDAB (4) BCDA

8. A. Scientists are worried about the changes in the cir-culation of ocean currents

B. If the currents thus shift, it would mean that tem-peratures in some parts of the world would change drastically.


7.48 n Mock Tests

Directions for questions 13 to 16: Each of these questions has a sentence with four alternatives. Choose the alterna-tive that best conveys the content of the given sentence correctly.

13. There was no programme the two candidates could offer that would not have split their voting base onto feuding splinters.(1) There were no programmes that either candidate

could have offered that would not have split his vot-ing base into feuding splinters.

(2) There was no programme the two candidates could offer that would not have split their voting base onto feuding splinters.

(3) There were no programmes that either candidates could have offered that would not have split their vot-ing base onto feuding splinter.

(4) There was no programme either candidate could have offered that would not have split their voting base into feuding splinters.

14. General phenomena could never be explained by, nor at-tributed to, local causes or specific personalities.(1) A general phenomenon can never explain nor attri-

bute to local cause or specific personalities.(2) General phenomena could never be explained by,

nor attributed to, local causes or specific person-alities.

(3) General phenomena can never be explained by, or attributed to, local causes or specific personali-ties.

(4) General phenomena could never explain nor attri-bute local causes or specific personalities.

15. Many researchers tried estimating how much oxygen should have been present prior to the origin of photo-synthesis.(1) Many researchers have tried and estimated how

much oxygen should have been present prior to the origin of photosynthesis.

(2) Many researchers tried estimating how much oxy-gen should have been present prior to the origin of photosynthesis.

(3) Many researchers have estimated tentatively the amount of oxygen present prior to the origin of photosynthesis

(4) Many researchers have made tentative estimation of how much oxygen would have been present prior to the origin of photosynthesis.

16. If one retain to offer men an opportunity to choose one out of all the customs in the world, such as seemed to them the best, they would examine all of them and end by preferring his own.

C. That is because these currents are the main way that heat can be redistributed from the tropics to the colder polar regions.

D. The rise in temperature would be much more than that caused by local atmosphere warming due to the trapping and accumulation of greenhouse gasses.

(1) DBCA (2) DCBA(3) ABCD (4) ACBD

Directions for questions 9 to 12: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the under-lined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative and mark its number as your answer.

9. Many individuals as well some groups have partici-pated in this special meeting.(1) Many individuals as well some groups has partici-

pated(2) Many individuals and some groups has partici-

pated (3) Many individuals as well as some groups have

participated(4) Many individuals have participated and some

groups

10. I shall spend my remaining life in the service of the poor and downtrodden.(1) the remainder of my life in the service(2) the remaining part of my life for the service(3) the rest of my life in the service(4) what remains of my life at the service

11. Last but not least, we should discuss thoroughly the problem of the side effects of the most popular drugs.(1) At last but not at least, we should discuss thor-

oughly the problem(2) Last but not the least, we should discuss the prob-

lem thoroughly(3) Last but not the least, we should discuss thor-

oughly the problem(4) Last but not the least, we should thoroughly dis-

cuss the problem

12. In major road accidents, many passengers are killed and the injured are admitted to the hospital and given attention.(1) the injured are admitted to the hospital and receive

attention.(2) the injured are admitted at the hospital to give at-

tention.(3) the injured are admitted at the hospital and get at-

tention.(4) No change needed.


Mock Test 5 n 7.49

(1) If one was to offer man to choose out of all the customs in the world, such as seemed to him the best, he would examine all of them and end by preferring his own.

(2) If one retain to offer men an opportunity to choose one out of all the customs in the world, such as seemed to them the best, they would examine all of them and end by preferring his own.

(3) If one were to offer men an opportunity to choose out of all the customs of the world, such as seemed to them the best, they would examine all of them and end by preferring of their own.

(4) If one were to offer men an opportunity to choose out of all the customs in the world, such as seemed to them the best, they would examine all of them and end by preferring their own.

Directions for questions 17 to 20: Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.

17. A. Cloning is the most dramatic and recent advanc-ing in orchid cultivation.

B. Over a half century ago, scientists have started ex-perimenting with tissue culture on orchids.

C. In 1960, George Morel got cells from orchid shoot.

D. Each one multiplied and became an identical plant.(1) A and B (2) A, B and C(3) B and C (4) C and D

18. A. Skin lightners are big business in Africa.B. Many people through the world have long used

them to look attractive.C. They cause skin damages and lead to skin cancer.D. The government has prohibited sale of these in

some of the countries.(1) A, C and D (2) B, C and D(3) A and C (4) C and D

19. A. The elderly and young are vulnerable to heat stress.

B. So are the folks who are overweight.C. Do not ever ignore the signs of heat stress.D. When the thermometer is rising you are on a risk.(1) A and B (2) B and C(3) A, B and D (4) A and D

20. A. Doctors tapped the power of adult stem cells to heal the human heart.

B. A cholesterol drug blossomed into powerful pana-cea.

C. Cancer was foiled with a simple injection.D. It opened the possibility to curing some of the

most devastating illnesses of our age.

(1) A and B (2) B and C(3) A and D (4) B and D

Directions for questions 21 to 23: Given below are pairs of events A and B. You have to read both the events A and B and decide their nature of relationship. You have to as-sume that the information given in A and B is true and you should not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer. Mark your answer as

(1) if A is the effect and B is its immediate and princi-pal cause.

(2) if B is the effect and A is its immediate and princi-pal cause.

(3) if A is the effect but B is not its immediate and principal cause.

(4) if B is the effect but A is not its immediate and principal cause.

21. Event (A): Prices of essential commodities are in-creasing day by day.

Even (B): The opposition political parties have called for one-day nationwide strike against the government’s inaction to control the pric-es of the essential commodities.

22. Event (A): he people who live in slums of metro cit-ies quite often fall prey to water borne dis-eases.

Event (B): The slums in metro cities do not have pro-tected water supply.

23. Event (A): There are loopholes in every system. Event (B): There are a few people who try to take ad-

vantage of the loopholes.


24. Aravind is the husband of the mother of the sister of the husband of Govind’s mother. How is Govind’s brother related to Aravind?(1) Nephew (2) Grandson(3) Grandfather (4) Son

25. Rajesh was facing East and from that point he travelled 10 km and then turned right and walked for 18 km and again turned right and walked for 15 km and then turned left and walked for 8 km. Which direction is he facing now?(1) West (2) East(3) South (4) North

26. What is the angle between the hands of a clock at 11 hours 20 minutes?(1) 160° (2) 150°(3) 145° (4) 140°


7.50 n Mock Tests

number of girls who watch football is same as the number of girls who watch cricket. Only 50 per cent of the boys watch football but 70 per cent of the boys watch cricket.

31. How many boys watch both the games?(1) 10 (2) 15(3) 20 (4) 25

32. What is ratio of the total number of boys to that of girls?(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2(3) 2 : 3 (4) 5 : 3

33. What percentage of the girls did not watch any of the two games?(1) 16.66 % (2) 33.33 %(3) 50 % (4) 66.66 %


Twelve teams took part in a football tournament, which is conducted in three stages. In the first stage the teams are divided into two groups of six teams each. The teams within a group play with each other once and the top three teams of each group go to the next stage, where they play each other once again and the top two teams from each group then go to the third stage. In the third stage, the two teams in each group play with each other and the winners play each other. All games produce results. In case of a draw, penalty shoot out is used to decide the winner. In case of a tie, at the end of the first two stages, the winner is decided by a set of com-plex tie breaking rules to ensure that only one team goes into the next round.

34. What is the minimum number of games a team should win to ensure that it goes into the second stage?(1) 5 (2) 4(3) 3 (4) 2

35. Of all the teams that are eliminated in the first stage, what is the maximum number of games a team could have won?(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3

36. If a team gets Rs 50,000 for each win in the first stage, Rs 1,00,000 in the second stage, and Rs 1,50,000 in the third stage, find the maximum amount that any team can win.(1) Rs 5,00,000 (2) Rs 6,00,000(3) Rs 6,75,000 (4) Rs 7,50,000

Directions for question 37: In the following series, two wrong numbers are given out of which one differs by a margin of 1 (that is, +1 or –1) and the other by a greater margin. From the choices choose the number that differs by the greater margin. The first number and the last num-ber in the series are always correct.


A leading software company had organized seminars on six different topics—Emerging Technologies, Produce De-velopment Human Resources, Infrastructure Management, Telecom Billing and Enterprise Solutions on six different days of the week from Monday to Saturday.

Further, (i) ‘Emerging Technologies’ was organized after ‘Prod-

uct Development’, which was organized immediately before ‘Enterprise Solutions’.

(ii) ‘Human Resources’ and ‘Infrastructure Management’ were not organized on two consecutive days.

(iii) ‘Telecom Billing’ was not organized on the first day or the last day.

(iv) ‘Human Resources’ and ‘Emerging Technologies’ were organized on two consecutive days in any or-der and Infrastructure Management was organized on Thursday.

27. Which seminar was organized on Tuesday?(1) Infrastructure Management (2) Enterprise Solutions(3) Telecom Billing (4) Emerging Technologies

28. Which seminar was organized on the last day?(1) Product Development (2) Telecom Billing(3) Emerging Technologies (4) Human Resources.

29. How many seminars were organized before Emerging Technologies and after Enterprise Solutions?(1) 0 (2) 1(3) 2 (4) 3


30. Pointing to a photograph Anita says, “The man in the photograph is the husband of the mother of my only sibling’s wife”. How is the man in the photograph re-lated to the Anita’s brother’s son?(1) Granduncle (2) Uncle(3) Father (4) Grandfather


In a class of 80 students, the number of boys who watch only football, is same as the number of students who watch neither football nor cricket; which in turn is twice the num-ber of girls who watch both the games. 50 per cent of the students who watch only football are girls and 50 per cent of the students who watch football also watch cricket. The


Mock Test 5 n 7.51

37. 5, 12, 38, 160, 805, 4834, 33859.(1) 12 (2) 4834(3) 805 (4) 160


38. If ‘CENTURY’ is coded as ‘AGLVSTW’, then what is the code for ‘SACHIN’?(1) QCAFKL (2) UCEFGL(3) QCAJGP (4) UCAJGP

39. How is Ravi’s father’s paternal uncle’s only nephew’s sister’s mother related to Ravi?(1) Mother (2) Aunt(3) Grand mother (4) Sister

40. Which of the following is the odd one?(1) 24824 (2) 46764(3) 36563 (4) 79897


41. The highly toxic defoliant herbicide “Agent Orange” was used by the US army in the(1) Vietnam War (2) Korean war(3) second world war (4) first Iraq war

42. Indra Nooyi is the CEO of(1) Sony Corporation (2) Coca-Cola(3) Philips (4) Pepsico

43. Mother Teresa was an ethnic Albanian born in(1) Poland (2) Romania(3) Lithunia (4) Macedonia

44. ‘GI’ stands for(1) General Indication (2) Geographical Indication(3) Geographical Information(4) General Information

45. The cultivation of genetically modified crops in India has to be approved by(1) GIC (2) GEAC(3) ICAR (4) CSIR

46. Aadhar is the rural initiative of (1) Pepsico (2) Tata Group(3) Godrej Group (4) HUL

47. Which of the following is India’s highest civilian award?(1) Bharat Ratna (2) Padma Vibhushan(3) Padma Bhushan (4) Padma Shri

48. The only Indian President to have served for two succes-sive terms is

(1) Dr Rajendra Prasad (2) Dr S. Radhakrishnan(3) Dr Zakir Hussain (4) V. Venkatagiri

49. A person consuming less than how many calories per day is considered to be below poverty line in rural ar-eas?(1) 2100 (2) 2200(3) 2300 (4) 2400

50. Which one of the following programmes is not aimed at reducing poverty in rural areas?(1) NRY (2) SFDP(3) FFW (4) MNP

51. Which fruit is the richest natural source of vitamin C(1) Orange (2) Grape(3) Amla (4) Apple

52. Which of the following medicinal plants is also known as ‘Miracle Plant’ or ‘Healing Plant’?(1) Aloe vera (2) Rauwolfia Serpentira(3) Asparagus (4) Tribulus terrestris

53. In which Indian state is Sariska wildlife sanctuary, a tiger reserve, located?(1) Uttarakhand (2) West Bengal(3) Rajasthan (4) Madhya Pradesh

54. Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is located at(1) Nainital (2) Chennai(3) Dehradun (4) Coimbatore

55. Golden Rice, which is a genetically modified rice, is rich in which vitamin?(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D

56. Which of these is an exclusive meteorological satel-lite?(1) INSAT-3A (2) INSAT-3B(3) KALPANA-1 (4) GSAT-2

57. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) was established at:(1) Mumbai (2) Pune(3) Jamshedpur (4) Ahmedabad

58. Which disease occurs in children due to the deficiency of proteins?(1) Anaemia (2) Beri-Beri(3) Pellagra (4) Kwashiorkar


7.52 n Mock Tests

59. Which two programmes were merged in 1989 into a single Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) scheme?(1) NREP and IAY (2) TRYSEM and MWS(3) TRYSEM and SITRA (4) NREP and RLEGP

60. A situation where high rates of inflation coexist with high rate of unemployment is called (1) demand pull inflation. (2) cost push inflation.(3) stagflation. (4) hyper inflation.


61. Find the value of a for the equations x + 8y = 12 and 8x + 16y = a to have infinite solutions.(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 18 (4) 26

62. The inflow of tourists to a hill station in the winter of 2000 AD is 4000. The inflow is expected to increase by 65 per cent from 2000 AD to 2003 AD. If the increase in inflow of tourists is 20 per cent and 25 per cent in 2001 and 2002 respectively, then what is the expected percent-age increase in the number of tourists visiting the hill sta-tion from 2002 to 2003?(1) 15 (2) 20(3) 10 (4) 5

63. If the five digit number 44x8y is divisible by 72, then find the least possible value of x + y.(1) 4 (2) 3(3) 2 (4) 1

64. Three taps P, Q and R can fill a tank in 6, 12 and 16 hours respectively. All the three taps are opened si-multaneously. Just one hour before the tank would have filled, tap R was closed. In what time would the rest of the tank be filled?(1) 11/4 hour (2) 11/8 hour(3) 11/2 hour (4) 13/8 hour

65. If x + 3z = 25, 2y + z = 10 and x – y = 5, then the value of 2x + y – z = (1) 12 (2) 10(3) 13 (4) 15

66. 8 boys and 16 girls can finish a work in 6 days. 4 boys and 16 girls can finish it in 8 days. How many days will 17 boys and 20 girls take to finish the same work? (1) 39/13 (2) 35/9 (3) 3½ (4) None of these

67. A person travelled from P to Q at a speed of 20 kmph and from Q to R at a speed of 35 kmph. If his average

speed in travelling from P to R is 27.5 kmph, find the ratio of the distances PQ and QR.(1) 3 : 8 (2) 5 : 11(3) 4 : 7 (4) 6 : 13

68. 36 dozens of apples are divided among three persons X, Y and Z in such a way that 3 times the number of apples with X, 4 times that of Y and 6 times of that of Z are all equal. How many dozens of apples has Z got?(1) 6 (2) 10(3) 8 (4) 12

69. A car travelled at 20 kmph for the first 3 hours of its journey, 15 kmph for the next 4 hours of its journey and then at 30 kmph for the last 3 hours for the total journey. Find its average speed for the total journey (in kmph).(1) 21 (2) 23(3) 25 (4) 27

70. Ravi completed 47th of his homework on Friday and 1/ th of the remaining work on Saturday. Then, what part of the entire work he has to complete after Satur-day?(1) 9/28 (2) 3/7(3) 5/28 (4) 1/7

71. 24 men and 12 women, working 6 hours a day, can complete a piece of work in 6 days. 18 men and 24 women working together, 6 hours a day, can com-plete the same work in 4½ days. In how many days can the work be completed by 24 men working 9 hours a day? (1) 18 (2) 19(3) 8½ (4) 7½

72. There are 34 lamp posts on each side of a road and the distance between any two consecutive posts is x m. A person took 306 seconds to travel from the first post to the eighteenth post on one side of a road. How many seconds would it take for him to travel from the eigh-teenth post to the thirty-fourth post on the same side of the road?(1) 278 (2) 282(3) 288 (4) 272

73. The average mark of a class is 60. The average mark of the top 10 students is 80 and that of the remaining students is 50. What is the strength of the class?(1) 25 (2) 30(3) 35 (4) 40

74. ABC is a triangle, right-angled at B. Median BD is equal to side AB. E is the point of intersection of the lines drawn through C and A such that CE is perpen-dicular to CB, and AC becomes the bisector of the angle BAE. What is the ratio of BC to AE?


Mock Test 5 n 7.53

mangoes, so that the vendor makes a profit of 20 per cent on the whole transaction?(1) Rs 41 (2) Rs 40(3) Rs 42 (4) Rs 45


(1) if statement A by itself is sufficient to answer the question.

(2) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.

(3) if both the statements A and B taken together are sufficient to answer the question but neither state-ment by itself is sufficient.

(4) if statements A and B taken together are not suf-ficient to answer the question and more data is re-quired to solve the problem.

81. Are the integers a, b and c consecutive?A. c – b = b – a B. The average of a, b and c is b.

82. How many employees of company ‘PQR’ own exactly two vehicles?A. 30 employees own at least three vehicles.B. 50 employees own at least one vehicle.

83. Mahendar and Shilpa are standing together on a sunny day. Mahendar’s shadow is 20 ft long. Shilpa’s shad-ow is 16 ft long. How tall is Shilpa?A. Mahendar is 6 ft fall. B. Mahendar is standing 8 ft away from Shilpa.

84. How far is it from town A to town C if Town B is 40 km from town A?A. Town B is 15 km from Town C. B. There is a railway line between Town A and Town

C.

85. What percentage of employees of a company have a car and own a house?A. 32 % of all employees of the company have cars.B. 60 % of all the employees having a car own a

house.

86. How much does Mahendar weigh?A. Mahendar and Neeru together weigh 150 kg.B. Mahendar weighs 2/2rd as much as Neeru does.

Directions for questions 87 to 91: These questions are based on the following pie charts which give the details of the revenue and profit of ABC Ltd from various divisions

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

75. A and B started a business with investments. Rs 5000 and Rs 8000 respectively and C joins them after 3 months with an investment of Rs 14000. Three months after C’s joining the business B left the busi-ness. At the end of the year if A’s share of profit is Rs 1400, what is B’s share in rupees?(1) 1085 (2) 1975(3) 1365 (4) 1120

76. When the price of an article is decreased by 30 per cent, the number of articles sold is increased by 20 per cent. What is the percentage decrease in the sales revenue?(1) 16 % (2) 15 %(3) 20 % (4) 25 %

77. In a test fire, the probability of missiles A, B, C and D hitting the target is 0.4, 0.3, 0.2 and 0.1 respectively. Find the probability of the target being hit.(1) 0.9 (2) 0.81(3) 0.7204 (4) 0.6976

78. P can do a piece of work in 24 hours. Q can do the same work in 36 hours. They worked together for 12 hours and the remaining work is done by R in 4 hours. If they earn Rs 1350, what are the respective shares of P, Q and R?(1) Rs 675, Rs 225, Rs 450 (2) Rs 450, Rs 225, Rs 675(3) Rs 675, Rs 450, Rs 225 (4) Rs 225, Rs 450, Rs 675

79. The speed of a stream is 8 kmph. A boat’s speed in still water is 50 per cent more than the speed of the stream. Find its average speed in completing a round trip journey between two points 24 km apart. (in kmph)

(1) 6 13

(2) 6 16

(3) 6 23

(4) 6 19

80. A fruit vendor purchased 40 kg of mangoes at Rs 30 per kg, and spent Rs 200 on transportation. Dur-ing transportation 121/2 per cent of the mangoes were spoiled. He sold the spoiled mangoes at Rs 21 per kg. What must be the selling price per kg of the remaining


7.54 n Mock Tests

– Pharma, Steel, Cement, FMCG, and Software.Revenue Distribution

Pharma6%

FMCG24%

Cement22%

Steel18%

Software 30%

Profit Distribution

FMCG20%

Cement14%

Steel21%

Pharma9%

Software 36%

The company operates only in these five divisions. Total revenue of the company is Rs 35 crore.

Profit = Revenue – ExpenditureThe profit per cent is calculated on the revenue. Total

profit is 20 per cent of the total revenue.

87. What is the profit obtained by ABC Ltd from steel di-vision?(1) Rs 1.4 crores (2) Rs 1.37 crores(3) Rs 1.43 crores (4) Rs 1.47 crores

88. The profit per cent of which division is the highest?(1) Steel (2) Software(3) Cement (4) Pharma

89. What is the ratio of the revenue from FMCG to the profit from Software?(1) 10 : 3 (2) 8 : 3(3) 7 : 2 (4) 12 : 5

90. What is the expenditure (in crores) on cement divi-sion?(1) Rs 6.84 (2) Rs 6.72(3) Rs 6.76 (4) Rs 6.66

91. The profit per cent from steel division is by how many percentage points more than that from FMCG?(1) 71/2 (2) 82/3(3) 91/3 (4) 62/3

Directions for questions 92 to 95: Answer the questions based on the following information.

The graph below represents the number of ODI runs conceded and the number of ODI wickets taken in each year by a bowler Sam for the five years from 2001 through 2005.

11001300

1200

15001400

10

20

30

5045

0

200

400

600

800

1000

1200

1400

1600

1800

2001 2002 2003 2004 200551015202530354045505560

Number of runs conceded Number of wickets taken

92. The percentage increase in the number of runs con-ceded in a certain year over the previous year is the highest in(1) 2004 (2) 2002(3) 2003 (4) 2005

93. The percentage increase in the number of wickets tak-en over the previous year is the highest in(1) 2005 (2) 2004(3) 2003 (4) 2002


Mock Test 5 n 7.55

Break-up of the share of Indian Promoters in Zee Telefilms for June 2003 and March 2003

05

101520253035

Birla

Sun

life

Met

life

SBI M

F

Pru

ICIC

I

Baja

j

US-

98

Kata

k

LIC

(in p

erce

ntag

e)Break-up of the share of FII's in Zee

Telefilms for June 2003 and March 2003

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

Chr

ysal

is

Lloy

d's

Mor

gan

Sta

nley

Cha

se

Tem

plet

on

UB

-78

Oth

ers

(in p

erce

ntag

e)

Note: Total shareholding is Rs 1000 crores. The total share-holding remained constant from March 2003 to June 2003

96. What are the total number of shares held by Pru ICICI in Zee Telefilms in June 2003, given that the value of each share is Rs 100?(1) 5.875 Crores (2) 58.75 Lakhs(3) 5.875 Lakhs (4) 2.35 Crores

97. What is the difference in the value of the share-holdings of Birla Sunlife and Morgan Stanley in Zee Telefilms in June 2003?(1) Rs 7.65 Crores (2) Rs 6.24 Crores(3) Rs 5.85 Crores (4) None of these

94. If efficiency is recorded as the ratio of the number of wickets taken to the number of runs conceded, Sam recorded the highest efficiency in (1) 2004 (2) 2003(3) 2005 (4) 2002

95. With the efficiency as defined in the previous ques-tion, it can be concluded that (1) The efficiency did not increase during the five

years from 2001 through 2005.(2) The efficiency remained constant during the five

years from 2001 through 2005.(3) The efficiency did not decrease during the five

years from 2001 through 2005.(4) None of the above

Directions for questions 96 to 100: These questions are based on the pie charts and the bar graphs given in the next page below.

SHAREHOLDING PATTERN IN ZEE TELEFILMS

June 2003

Public9.4%

FI's5.3%

FII's29.4%

Others5.4%

Delgrada27%

Indian Promoters

23.5%

March 2003

Indian Promoters

23.5%

Delgrada28.3%

Others4.9%

Public9.8%

FI's6.9%

FII's26.6%


7.56 n Mock Tests

98. The value of the shareholding of Metlife in Zee Telefilms in June’03 is what percentage of that of FI’s in March’03?(1) 32.95 % (2) 33.05 %(3) 33.33 % (4) 34.05 %

99. Which of the following groups witnessed the maxi-mum percentage change in the value of their share-holding in Zee Telefilms from March’03 to June ’03?(1) Others (2) Public(3) FI’s (4) FII’s

100. If among the FII shareholders, Sunshine Investments, an FII has a 10 per cent share of the shareholding of ‘Others’ in ZEE Telefilms during March’03, then what is its percentage shareholding of ZEE Telefilms of the total Share holding?(1) 1.33 % (2) 0.133 %(3) 13.3 % (4) 0.5 %

Directions for questions 101 to 120: Select the correct al-ternative from the given choices.101. A car travels a certain distance at 40 kmph and returns

at 60 kmph. Find the average speed of the car.(1) 36 kmph (2) 64 kmph(3) 48 kmph (4) 60 kmph

102. The present average age of a family of four members is 24 years. Five times the father’s age is four times the sum of the ages of mother and son. What is present age of the father if the age of their only daughter is 6 years?(1) 40 years (2) 50 years(3) 41 years (4) 35 years

103. A and B start running from the same point on a cir-cular track, in the same direction, with speeds of 3 kmph and 6 kmph respectively. If length of the track is 18 km, after how many hours will they meet for the first time at their starting point?(1) 2 (2) 4(3) 6 (4) 8

104. f t1 = 1, t2 = 2, tn = tn−2 + 2tn−1 + 5, find t5.(1) 27 (2) 69(3) 41 (4) None of these

105. A train running at a speed of 72 kmph crossed an elec-tric pole in 22.5 seconds. In how many seconds will it cross a 350 m long tunnel?(1) 32 (2) 40(3) 36 (4) 44

106. The positive square root of 8 + 2 10 − 2 5 − 2 2 is

(1) 5 1 2+ − (2) 5 2 1+ −

(3) 5 2 1+ + (4) 5 2 1− −

107. In a km race, A beats B by 100 m and beats C by 150 m. In a 2250 m race, B beats C by (1) 150 m (2) 125 m(3) 100 m (4) 175 m

108. The angles of a triangle are (x + 2k)°, x° and (x + 3k)°. If x and k are positive integers, what is the larg-est angle of the triangle?(1) 104° (2) 159°(3) 81° (4) 128°

109. In a race, A gives B a headstart of 120 m. If A is 11/3 times as fast as B, then what should be the length of the race so that both finish simultaneously?(1) 450 m (2) 480 m(3) 380 m (4) 350 m

110. The radius of a garden roller is 70 cm and it is 4 m long. How much area will it cover in 10 revolutions? (Assume π = 22/7)(1) 88 m2 (2) 176 m2

(3) 352 m2 (4) 264 m2

111. Arjun and Rampal toss a coin alternately until one of them gets a tail. The person who first gets a tail will be declared the winner. What is the probability that Arjun wins the game, if he starts the game?(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3(3) 2/3 (4) 1/4

112. A circular grassy plot of 28 m diameter has a path 7 m wide running all round outside of it. Find the cost (in rupees) of gravelling the path at Rs 5 per square metre.(1) 3600 (2) 3650(3) 3750 (4) 3850

113. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of obtaining heads on all of them is(1) 1/8 (2) 7/8(3) 1/3 (4) 1/2

114. Find the number of coins with 4 cm diameter and 0.3 cm thickness to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 20 cm and diameter 12 cm.(1) 400 (2) 600(3) 700 (4) 800

115. If an unbiased die is rolled 3 times, what is the probabil-ity that the die shows 1 on every occasion?


Mock Test 5 n 7.57

121. Statement: There ought to be a law preventing chil-dren below 12 years from taking part in athletic events of marathon proportions. Conclusions: Ι. Children below 12 years should not be allowed to

take part in weightlifting. ΙΙ. There is no law, at present, to prevent children be-

low 12 years from taking part in athletic events of marathon proportions.

122. Statement: It is tough playing on Saturday and Sunday—Brian Lara. Conclusions: Ι. Brian Lara plays on Saturdays and Sundays. ΙΙ. Brian Lara knows the difficulties of playing on

Saturdays and Sundays.

123. Statement: With the onslaught of tourism, the ethnic culture of Goa, has gone out of public life. Conclusions: Ι. The ethnic culture of the places, where no tourist

visits, remains unaffected. ΙΙ. Tourism is the only thing that leads to erosion of

ethnic culture.

124. Statement: The armed cadre which is spread in 12 states of the country, controls a little less than a quarter of the country’s 602 districts. Conclusions: Ι. The country has more than 12 states. ΙΙ. The armed cadre is made up of foreigners.

125. Statement: Sabita’s parents had hoped she would be-come a teacher. But fate decided otherwise. Conclusions:Ι. Sabita did not become a teacher. ΙΙ. Sabita disagreed with her parents.


Six persons Amar, Balu, Chandu, Dinesh, Eswar and Farhat are seated in a row, an facing in the same direction, from left to right, in the same order. Each is wearing a dif-ferent coloured shirt and different coloured trousers among Black, White, Blue, Indigo, Green, and Red. Further, (i) No person is wearing both the garments of same

colour and no two persons are wearing a shirt of the same colour or a trousers of the same colour.

(ii) No two adjacent persons have any colour in common.(iii) Eswar and Chandu have no colour in common and Es-

war did not wear blue.(iv) Chandu is wearing a green shirt and Farhat is wearing

black trousers. (v) The person wearing a blue shirt is to the immediate

right of the person wearing a white shirt and the per-

(1) 215/216 (2) 1/72(3) 1/216 (4) 1/6

116. A cylinder of the greatest possible volume is cut out from a wooden cuboid of length 20 cm and having a cross section of a square of side 14 cm. Find the vol-ume of the wood remaining in the cuboid.(1) 3920 cm3 (2) 3080 cm3

(3) 1840 cm3 (4) None of these

117. A room is in the shape of a cuboid. The length of the room is thrice the width of the room. The height of the room is 4 m and the area of the four walls is 96 m2 Find the volume of the room. (1) 96 m3 (2) 192 m3

(3) 108 m3 (4) 144 m3

118. A ladder is placed against a wall. If the ratio of height of the wall from the ground to where the ladder touch-es the wall and the length of the ladder is 1 : 2, then find the angle between wall and ladder.(1) 30° (2) 45°(3) 60° (4) 90°

119. Sanjay borrowed Rs 25,000 from a bank which charg-es 12 per cent p.a., interest being compounded annu-ally. Sanjay pays Rs 8,000 at the end of every year for the first two years and at the end of the third year he wanted to clear the loan. How much should Mr Sanjay pay to clear the loan?(1) Rs 14,576 (2) Rs 15,300(3) Rs 18,725 (4) Rs 16,128

120. An aeroplane which is flying at an height of 300 me-tres passes vertically above another aeroplane at an instance. At that time, the angles of elevations of these two planes are observed as 60° and 45° respectively from a point on the ground. At what height is the sec-ond plane flying?(1) 145.25 m (2) 165.75 m(3) 169.72 m (4) 173.2 m

Directions for questions 121 to 125: In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered Ι and ΙΙ. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, and then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give your answer as

(1) if only conclusion Ι follows.(2) if only conclusion ΙΙ follows.(3) if neither Ι nor ΙΙ follows.(4) if both Ι and ΙΙ follow.


7.58 n Mock Tests

son wearing blue trousers is to the immediate right of the person wearing indigo trousers.

(vi) The person wearing a red shirt is wearing white trou-sers but the person wearing a white shirt is not wear-ing red trousers.

126. Who is wearing red shirt?(1) Dinesh (2) Amar(3) Eswar (4) Farhat

127. Who is wearing green trousers?(1) Amar (2) Balu(3) Chandu (4) Eswar

128. Who is wearing black shirt?(1) Amar (2) Dinesh(3) Farhat (4) Eswar

129. What is the colour of trousers of the person wearing white shirt?(1) Black (2) Blue(3) Indigo (4) Green

Directions for questions 130 to 134: In each of the follow-ing questions, a statement is followed by several assump-tions. Find out which of the given assumptions logically follow the statement assuming that everything given in the statement is true.130. Statement: Kalam had also been briefed on the ejec-

tion procedure in the event of a mid-air emergency and a helicopter was on high alert.Assumptions: Ι. Mid air emergencies occur. ΙΙ. The President was briefed on other issues also.ΙΙΙ. Helicopters are helpful in case of mid-air emer-

gencies.(1) only Ι and ΙΙ (2) only ΙΙΙ(3) only Ι and ΙΙΙ (4) only ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ

131. Statement: IBM took the Indian IT sector by storm by announcing an investment of a whooping $6 billion (Rs 27,000 crore) over the next three years.Assumptions: Ι. No IT company ever made such huge investment

over three years in any part of the world. ΙΙ. No IT company ever made such huge investment

over three years in India.ΙΙΙ. IBM is a multinational IT company.(1) only ΙΙ (2) only ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ(3) only Ι (4) None of these

132. Statement: Being pioneers in aviation, we understand flying better. We offer international standard flight training.-An advertisement

Assumptions: Ι. Pioneers in aviation alone can offer international

standard flight training. ΙΙ. People do not prefer training which is not of inter-

national standard.ΙΙΙ. Pioneers in aviation can understand flying better

than others.(1) only Ι and ΙΙ (2) only ΙΙ(3) only Ι (4) only ΙΙΙ

133. Statement: Shing also tied up with Subash Chandra to form Zee and foolishly gave away the rights of Zee which turned out to be money-spinners to a Hindi channel.Assumptions: Ι. Shing sometimes takes foolish decisions. ΙΙ. Giving away the rights of Zee was a foolish deci-

sion.ΙΙΙ. Shing is not interested in making money through

Zee.(1) only Ι and ΙΙΙ (2) either ΙΙ or ΙΙΙ only(3) either Ι or ΙΙΙ only (4) either Ι or ΙΙΙ and ΙΙ

134. Statement: Until 1980, radio was the only source of music for the common man. Listening to songs of one’s choice was strictly the preserve of the elite.Assumptions: Ι. Until 1980, the elite were not able to listen to mu-

sic on radio. ΙΙ. Until 1980, radio was having programmes of airing

songs of listeners choice only for the elite.ΙΙΙ. Until 1980, radio was airing music only.(1) only ΙΙ (2) only ΙΙΙ(3) only Ι (4) None of these


Four faculty members—Ramu, Govind, Prasad and Arvind and four students—Bimal, Chandu, Mayur and Surya applied for two project works. Among the faculty members, two are seniors and two are juniors. Same is the case with the students. Out of these eight persons, four per-sons are selected that is one each from senior faculty, junior faculty, senior student and junior student. From these, two persons are assigned to each project. Also, no project must have two faculty members or two students or two seniors or two juniors. The following information is also known.

(1) Ramu and Govind are both junior faculty.(2) Exactly one among Bimal and Mayur is a senior stu-

dent and only he is selected.(3) Prasad is selected only if Surya is selected.(4) Exactly one among Chandu and Ramu is selected.(5) If Arvind is selected, then Bimal is selected and vice

versa.(6) Atmost one among Surya and Ramu is selected.


Mock Test 5 n 7.59

tons of fuel in 2001 and now Tarapur is running out of fuel and Rajasthan 1 and 2 reactors also need imported ura-nium and so do the two Russian built light water reactors at Kudankulam—all four are subject to IAEA safeguards. The Russians had refused to supply fuel citing NSG. The 11 functioning unsafeguarded generating reactors also need uranium and local supplies are running out and the develop-ment of new mines has been held up.

The current nuclear generation capacity (3,310 MW) built at a cost of Rs 25,000 crores and also the capacity un-der construction (3,460 MW) for another Rs 30,000 crores are likely to be wasted if we do not get uranium. The capital costs of nuclear power are roughly Rs 8 crores per MW, whereas an NTPC coal power station of 500 MW will cost Rs 4 crores per MW. If we had spent that Rs 55,000 crores on coal plants we could have had 14,000 MW. Right now we seem to need to get our hands on imported uranium. For this we need to make a deal with the US, IAEA and NSG. If we need fuel also for the unsafeguarded plants and the ones under construction, we have to place them under IAEA safeguards preventing military use. So much about the current crisis.

What about the future? The nuclear establishment has proposed a three-stage process for energy self-sufficiency. The first stage reactors (boiling water, heavy water and light water types) currently in use and under construction use ura-nium and produce plutonium which can be used to produce bomb material. This plutonium can also be used in the sec-ond stage fast breeder reactors. To reach the second stage, we have a fast breeder test reactor (FBTR) that attained critical-ity in 1985 at Kalpakkam—this produces a small output of 40 MW. On the basis of its experience, we have now started the construction of a 500 MW Prototype Fast Breeder Reac-tor (PFBR) again at Kalpakkam. This prototype is at an ad-vanced stage and construction work is expected to start soon and will be completed by 2010. From the time we tested the reactor, we have taken 25 years to achieve commercial production for the prototype second stage.

We are, therefore, now only at the first stage of com-mercial energy production where uranium is needed and plutonium produced. When the second stage commercial Fast Breeder Reactors start producing energy they will use plutonium and also generate much larger quantities of plu-tonium than are used up. This is one reason that the IAEA would like safeguards, to prevent diversion to terrorists and other illegal buyers of this material. The agreement allows us to use 35 per cent of the reactors producing plutonium for military uses.

When our fast breeder reactors come up, around 2020/30, they will generate a highly radioactive U 233, which will fuel the third stage. This stage involves the Ad-vanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) being developed at

135. Who among the following is selected?(1) Chandu (2) Prasad(3) Mayur (4) Surya

136. Which among the following groups is assigned a proj-ect?(1) Arvind and Surya (2) Prasad and Mayur(3) Bimal and Govind (4) Ramu and Mayur

137. Who among the following is a junior?(1) Govind (2) Bimal(3) Surya (4) Prasad

138. Who among the following belongs to the same catego-ry? Both are either senior students or faculty or junior students or faculty.(1) Mayur and Surya (2) Bimal and Chandu(3) Bimal and Surya (4) Bimal and Mayur

139. Which among the following statements is true?(1) Prasad is selected (2) Chandu is not selected(3) Surya is a junior student (4) Mayur is junior student


140. In a certain code, if SUMMER is coded as TVNNFS, then how is WINTER coded?(1) VHMSDQ (2) XJOTFS(3) XJOUFS (4) XJMUFQ

Directions for questions 141 to 156: Study the passages given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE ΙThe US and Canada helped India set up the first two com-mercial reactors (of the boiling water type) at Tarapur in 1964 which started generating power in 1969. These reac-tors were supplied fuel (low enriched uranium) by the US The fuel supply ended after we used the plutonium from these reactors to make the bomb in 1974. This also affect-ed the two Canadian designed and safeguarded Rajasthan atomic power plants (pressurized heavy water reactors), which came into operation in 1972 and 1980. The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was set up specifically after our 1974 test “which demonstrated that nuclear technology transferred for peaceful purposes could be misused.” The NSG of 45 countries including Russia and China were sup-posed to regulate the transfer of technology and fuel.

Since 1974, the US has been unable to supply fuel but it worked out an agreement by which the French supplied our needs. Once the French supply stopped in 1992, we got enriched uranium from China. The Russians supplied 50


7.60 n Mock Tests

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre. This third stage type will use U 233 and thorium and generate U 233 to feed back into the full cycle. When this stage is reached, energy indepen-dence will be achieved; but when?

A detailed project report for AHWF is being made and it is proposed to launch its construction during the 10th Plan ending in 2007. Once this gets commercialized (in 2050?) our energy cycle will be established.

The only problem with this grandiose scheme is that we will not be able to generate any electricity from the existing plants or those under construction unless we accede to the safeguards in order to get uranium. If we do, then with im-ported, cheap, safe, technically established, high capacity uranium fuelled plants, we may not need this scheme with all its unknown time schedules, technical uncertainty, high costs, difficult safety regimes etc.

So we have asked for, and the US has assured, secure fuel for our uranium fuelled reactors. We have also opened doors for foreign investment in new nuclear power plants. Nearly eight plants of 1000-1300 MW capacities each are to be imported by 2012. Some will be US, other French and at least two Russian—all will get uranium and be safe-guarded by IAEA. The US has helped itself and us by mak-ing us less dependent on Iranian gas and on Pakistan for its passage. Soon after President Bush left the PM spoke to President Putin and the Russians have notified the NSG that they wish to supply us 60 tons of uranium. The Russians were waiting for our agreement with the US and offered emergency supplies of uranium. This will ease the current crisis temporarily.

Our nuclear scientists have been cut off from all inter-national developments in this field. If we are to help our scientists shorten their learning curve, save costs, achieve safe and stable technologies, we need to connect with in-ternational efforts. We have asked and have been allowed to join the Generation IV (a 10-country programme reactor design, safety, etc.) and International Thermonuclear Ex-perimental Reactor (ITER) (a six-country programme for nuclear fusion power for the future).What more could any reasonable national interest require from the US?

141. What made the US stop its supply of uranium to India after 1974?(1) India used the plutonium generated in reactors for

making a bomb.(2) The US reactors fell short of uranium. (3) India started purchasing uranium from Russia and

China as well, which was not liked by the US. (4) India had become self-sufficient in the produc-

tion of nuclear power and hence did not need to purchase it any more.

142. Which of the following statement is not true, accord-ing to the passage?(1) Once the fast breeder reactors start producing en-

ergy they can generate more plutonium than what they consume.

(2) The IAEA approves the use of part of the excess plutonium for military purposes.

(3) The author estimates that energy independence in In-dia will be achieved by 2020/2030.

(4) A three-stage nuclear process will lead to com-plete energy self-sufficiency.

143. From the tone of the passage, it is clear that the au-thor (1) is not in favour of any future support from the

US. (2) feels the Russians were averse to helping India’s

nuclear project. (3) feels obliged to the US in one way or the other.(4) feels that the various international powers are try-

ing to take advantage of our power crisis. 144. Though we have grand schemes, generating electricity

from the nuclear power plants will be possible only(1) when the construction of all the new power plants

is completed. (2) when we produce enough uranium to meet our re-

quirements.(3) when we accede to rules of security and safe-

guards imposed by the IAEA and the NSG. (4) by the year 2010, as it has taken 25 years to achieve

commercial production of power from the nuclear re-actors.

PASSAGE ΙΙ

Even as the world prepares for critical Doha Round trade negotiations in Hong Kong, the World Trade Organization (WTO), which oversees world trade laws, is struggling to stay upright under two sets of perilous onslaught. The WTO has two main functions. The first is to provide a forum for nego-tiations to create new binding trade agreements that it helps to implement. This is under siege because of widening, rather than narrowing gaps, among members over key issues to be brought before the ministers in Hong Kong. In particular, they concern the creation of a level playing field for develop-ing countries in a world trade system dominated by Western powers. India is a leader of those asking for greater fairness, alongside a clutch of countries called the Group of 20.

The second WTO function, which is more important for corporations, is to settle disputes among members us-ing complex settlement mechanisms. These mechanisms amount to a world trade count because the decisions place binding obligations on the litigants. However, reaching


Mock Test 5 n 7.61

tance by India and the Group of 20 in the Doha Round, which will define the world’s trading system for at least 10 years. Broadly speaking, the developing countries want a fairer trading system while the West wants more access to Chinese, Indian and Southeast Asian markets. India’s ag-riculture, pharmaceutical, financial and textile sectors are particularly vulnerable.

Both the EU and the US heavily subsidise their agri-cultural sectors and neither is likely to cutback because of domestic politics. But such is the trade acrimony between them, that even on agriculture they are throwing punches at each other.

145. The world trade system dominated by the western countries has (1) narrowed the gap between the Asian and the west-

ern countries. (2) created a level playing field for the developed and

the developing countries. (3) been working as a binding factor between various

Asian countries with serious trade disputes. (4) been exercising control over the trading system of

the developing countries.

146. According to the passage, the main difference between the WTO and the European Commission is that(1) the European Commission can impose its own

fines whereas the WTO cannot.(2) the WTO can impose its own fines whereas the

European Commission cannot. (3) the WTO includes countries from all over the

world whereas the European Commission does not.

(4) the activities of the WTO is supervised by the US whereas that of European Commission is super-vised by a Group of 20 European Countries.

147. What was the surprising thing that the WTO dispute panel did, that is mentioned in the passage? (1) It had settled a dispute between two nations in a

very short period of time. (2) It had punished a nation for violation of the world

trade laws. (3) It had reconfirmed the ruling that the EU can im-

pose penalties on US exports to Europe.(4) It had imposed fines on nations that did not treat

the Group nations with fairness in trade.

148. Though a weakling for decades, Airbus could out sell its competitors(1) with the help of the French, German and British

Airbus makers. (2) probably because of the hidden government sub-

sides.

decisions and enforcing their implementation is no easy matter because of lengthy appeal processes and the fact that, unlike the European Commission, the WTO has no power of its own to impose fines.

In the final analysis, the only way that a punishment agreed by a WTO dispute settlement panel can be enforced is when one of the litigants is powerful enough to oblige the other to obey. In practice, a litigant asks a dispute settlement panel for permission to retaliate for a perceived violation of world trade laws. The violation is notoriously difficult to decide and it is even more difficult to sustain through the appeals process.

But, surprisingly, a WTO dispute panel did just that a few weeks ago. Despite repeated appeals by the US, the dispute settlement panel has reconfirmed a historic 1999 ruling giving the EU a right to penalize $4 billion worth of US exports to Europe. In response to that ruling, the US al-tered its domestic laws but was hauled back before a panel in early 2005 on the grounds that the changes did not go far enough.

On 30th September, the panel agreed with the EU and again opened the door to penalties. That means the EU can impose penalties on several billion dollars of US exports without breaking WTO laws. But it remains to be seen whether it will dare to do so. In any case, it might have to wait for Washington’s appeal against the ruling, since this is a new case although it originates from the 1999 grievance.

The original case concerned special tax concessions given under the Foreign Sales Corporation status enjoyed by US companies on their exports. That status, created un-der a 1984 US law, encouraged all major US corporations to set up mostly paper companies offshore. The EU argues that the tax breaks amounted to about $2 billion in subsi-dies for corporations like Boeing aircraft, which it claims pocketed nearly $800 billion. In 2000, the US replaced that status with another accounting system that allows corpora-tions to claim tax breaks for a part of their export earnings. The panel has now ruled that the new system also violates WTO rules.

This ruling comes at an awkward time because the US and EU are gearing up for their biggest-ever trade battle over hidden government subsidies to aircraft makers. The US says the EU is illegally subsiding Airbus industries, which has out sold Boeing since 2003, after decades of being a weakling. The makers of Airbus, which is mostly French but includes German and British units, are outraged. So the EU has brought a complaint of its own about US tax breaks for Boe-ing. The sums at issue are controversial on both sides, but are alleged to run into several tens of billion dollars.

This clash of titans is to protect the interests of corpo-rations that employ tens of thousands and invest hundreds of billions. It comes against the backdrop of tough resis-


7.62 n Mock Tests

(3) because of the support it got from the US based companies.

(4) because of the impartial and unbiased trade rules of the WTO.

PASSAGE ΙΙΙ

Damage to the once pristine habitats of the deep oceans by pollution, litter and overfishing is running out of control, the United Nations has warned. In a report that indicates that time is running out to save them, the UN said human-kind’s exploitation of the deep seas and oceans was “rapidly passing the point of no return”.

Last year some 85 million tonnes of wild fish were pulled from the global oceans, 100 million sharks and re-lated species were butchered for their fins, some 250,000 turtles became tangled in fishing gear, and 300,000 sea birds, including 100,000 albatrosses, were killed by illegal longline fishing.

Into the water in their place went three billion indi-vidual pieces of litter - about eight million a day - joining the 46,000 pieces of discarded plastic that currently float on every square mile of ocean and kill another million sea-birds each year. The water temperature rose and its alkalin-ity fell - both the result of climate change. Coral barriers off Australia and Belize are dying and newly discovered reefs in the Atlantic have already been destroyed by bottom trawling.

Achim Steiner, executive director of the UN’s environ-ment programme, said: “Humankind’s ability to exploit the deep oceans and high seas has accelerated rapidly over re-cent years. It is a pace of change that has outstripped our institutions and conservation efforts.”

Mining, for example, could soon spread to the sea floor for the first time. The Canadian company Nautilus Minerals plans to dig for deposits of gold and copper off Papua New Guinea.

More than 90 per cent of the world’s living organisms are found in the oceans, but a new UN report says that re-searchers are only now beginning to understand the nature of their ecosystems. “Today, these environments are consid-ered to have been the very cradle of life on Earth.”

Yesterday’s warning from the UN came as officials and experts met in New York to discuss ways the international community could better police activities in international waters.

Mr Steiner said: “Well over 60 per cent of the marine world and its rich biodiversity is found beyond the limits of national jurisdiction and is vulnerable and at increasing risk. Governments must urgently develop guidelines, rules and actions needed to bridge this gulf.”

The UN says countries need to manage oceans along ecological boundaries rather than political borders. It says

more research is needed to investigate the 90 per cent of the oceans that remain unexplored. It also calls for greater protection for vulnerable species such as cod, marlin and swordfish, which have lost 90 per cent of their global stocks over the last century.

Kristina Gjerde, high seas policy adviser with the Inter-national Conservation Union’s global marine programme, who wrote the new report, said: “Once limited largely to shipping and open ocean fishing, commercial activities at sea are expanding rapidly and plunging ever deeper”. She said the effects of climate change made conservation efforts more important.

149. The phrase ‘the very cradle of life on Earth’ refers to (1) the oceans from where life originated.(2) the earth which is the only planet to nurture life.(3) factors that favour the proliferation of life.(4) microorganisms that were the earliest stages of

life.

150. It is necessary to police activities in international wa-ters (1) to prevent dumping of wastes into this region.(2) because more than half the biodiversity is found

here and is at risk.(3) they are beyond the limits of national jurisdic-

tion.(4) as species such as cod, marlin and swordfish are in

danger of becoming extinct.

151. According to Achim Steiner,(1) our activities in the ocean are destroying coral

reefs.(2) mining for gold and copper on ocean beds will be

disastrous.(3) climate change, more than human activity, has de-

stroyed the ocean. (4) the rate at which we exploit nature is in excess of

restoration efforts.

152. ‘The point of no return’ mentioned in the passage is the point beyond which (1) mankind has not ventured. (2) the ocean is not charted.(3) the damage to environment is irredeemable. (4) utilization of natural resources becomes impos-

sible.

PASSAGE ΙV

Are you a member of the power elite? You will find out very soon Medis Technologies, a small firm based in New York, plans to distribute hundreds of its new Power Pack portable fuel cells to a select group of business people, politicians


Mock Test 5 n 7.63

years away for so long, says Ms Bradford. But, she says, “I think it really could be two years away this time”. Laptops powered by direct-methanol fuel cells are getting close to market, she says; every year the prototypes get smaller and more efficient. Demand is clear, and today’s lithium-ion battery technology is reaching its theoretical limits.

Mr Balcom’s firm has licensed its fuel-cell membrane technology to several large electronics firms, including NEC and Sanyo, the world’s biggest maker of rechargeable batteries. PolyFuel’s shipments of membranes are ramping up steadily, and the company’s customers are preparing for commercial launch of fuel-cell-based portable devices in 2007-08, he says. They anticipate that 30 per cent of lap-tops will incorporate fuel cells, “though we would be happy with 10 per cent” says Mr Balcom. (Around 65 m laptops were sold in 2005.)

Business travellers are expected to be the keenest adopt-ers of the new technology. But will they be allowed to use fuel cells on planes? Earlier this year the International Civil Aviation Organisation, which regulates such matters, voted to allow the use of direct-methanol fuel cells that meet certain criteria from January 2007—a “giant step”, says Ms Brad-ford. But so far the rules do not allow the use of borohydride fuel cells, such as the Medis design. Mr Lifton insists that there is no regulation that prevents the use of his company’s device on aircraft, however, since “it is no more flammable or toxic than a T-shirt or a newspaper. “If regulators disagree,” he says, “I’ll sue them.”

In short, portable fuel cells must still overcome both technical and regulatory hurdles, but progress is being made on both fronts. Ms Bradford expects sales of 3 m devices next year, and 80 m in 2012. Most people will use a fuel cell in a portable device long before they encounter one in a car, Mr Balcom predicts. And for the recipients of Medis’s fuel cell, which provides a glimpse of this future, that could be as soon as this month.

153. Fuel cells, at present,(1) can be used as a replacement for existing batter-

ies. (2) are for increasing the life of batteries.(3) can be used in all portable devices.(4) are being incorporated into motor cars and other

vehicles.

154. The phrase, the ‘industry’s holy grail’ refers to (1) mobile phones (2) fuel cells(3) lap tops (4) rechargers

155. The absence of standards for fuel-refill cartridges (1) have been sidestepped by Medis Technology by

making their recharger disposable.

and opinion formers. Each fuel cell is about the size of a cigarette packet, weighs 150 grams, and generates electric-ity by combining oxygen from the air with an internal fuel. It can be plugged into a hand-held device (such as a mobile phone, music player or portable games console) to power or recharge it, and has sufficient capacity to provide around 30 hours of talk-time on a mobile phone, or 60-80 hours of playback time for an iPod music-player. Once it has been exhausted, the Power Pack can be thrown away. “We will have them on sale by the end of next year, “says Robert Lif-ton, the boss of Medis. At last, it seems, fuel cells capable of powering portable devices are coming to market.

Fuel-cell based rechargers are “a good transition to full commercialisation for fuel cells, “ says Sara Bradford, an analyst at Frost & Sullivan. Integrating fuel cells directly into electronic devices such as mobile phones is complicat-ed, but stand-alone rechargers can simply plug into existing devices. Another challenge for fuel-cell-powered devices is that standards for fuel-refill cartridges have yet to be agreed. Medis’s recharger, being disposable, neatly sidesteps this problem. This is a consequence of its low cost, which is in turn the result of its unusual design. Most fuel cells be-ing developed for portable use are based on direct-methanol technology, which requires an expensive platinum catalyst. Medis’s fuel cell, however, is based on sodium borohydride, which is simpler and cheaper. Each Power Pack can be made for around $5, says Mr Lifton, which is comparable to the cost of the platinum alone in a direct-methanol fuel cell. (Medis plans to sell its Power Packs to wholesalers for $8, and the retail price will be $12-15.)

Clever though this is, it is just a stepping stone towards the direct incorporation of fuel cells into portable devices and, in particular, laptops—the application that remains the industry’s holy grail. It is not simply the case of slotting in a fuel cell in place of the battery. Instead, it involves switch-ing from a battery to a hybrid power source that combines a battery with a fuel cell, argues Jim Balcom of PolyFuel, a leading maker of components for direct-methanol fuel cells based in Mountain View, California. “People think it’s bat-teries against fuel cells—it’s not, “ he says. “It’s about bat-tery augmentation. “ In a laptop, the fuel cell will provide a constant amount of power, topped up by the battery dur-ing periods of peak demand. This hybrid power source will provide at least double the running time of today’s battery-powered systems—with the option of using extra fuel car-tridges.

The complexity of such systems, along with their high cost, relatively low efficiency (most prototypes still produce more heat than electrical power) and the unresolved ques-tion of standards for refill cartridges, collectively explain why fuel-cell-powered laptops have been perpetually two


7.64 n Mock Tests

(2) have been the reason for the inability of fuel cells to plug into electronic devices.

(3) have deterred manufacturers from trying to pro-duce them.

(4) is the chief hindrance in their progress.

156. The obstacles in the progress of fuel cells are(1) technical (2) regulatory(3) imaginary (4) Both 1 and 2

Directions for the questions 157 to 160: Select the correct alternative form the given choices.

157. Figures released by the UN last month showed that the totality of emissions of green house gases by the 40 industrialized nations that agreed to cut pollution lev-els was actually down by five per cent from the 1990 level. This suggests that these nations are on track to meet their promise of reducing emissions of pollut-ing gases by formulating suitable climate policies as agreed. Which of the following, if true, would jeopardise the conclusion drawn above?(1) The number of factories emitting polluting gases

in these nations have gone up by nearly ten % over that in 1990.

(2) Non-industrialised nations have together con-tributed so much more towards pollution levels during the period after 1990 that, overall, the pollution levels have actually gone up.

(3) The bulk of the decline is due to the collapse of the Soviet Union, an important industrialised na-tion, and the subsequent economic decline of the splinter nations.

(4) Though the industrialised nations formulated the climate policies their implementation was tardy.

158. Although the Indian economy is very large its growth over the last 20 years was confined to only a small fraction of the population catering to roughly 23 per cent of the people. It has bypassed the other 77 per cent constituting the poor, who have realised very lit-tle increase in income and consumption.

Which of the following can be best concluded from the above statements?(1) The economic policies of the Indian government

are intended to mainly help the rich.(2) The vastness of the India nullifies the beneficial

effects of the economic growth.(3) India continues to be an underdeveloped nation

despite economic growth in the last 20 years.

(4) Economic growth has led to greater disparities in income.

159. Investigating authorities go into the minutest details of the terrorist attack, immediately after every major one in the country, and get all the details of how the attack was carried out. This is done for the purpose of preventing such attacks in future. However, it has not been very effective in pre-empting any terrorist attack so far.

Which of the following, if true, would offer the most valid explanation for the above failure?(1) The number of persons punished for indulging in

acts of terrorism has been negligible in India. (2) Terrorist strikes have always been innovative in

strategy.(3) Terrorists receive training and monetary support

from neighbouring countries.(4) Terrorist use sophisticated weapons and gadgets

while perpetrating the crimes.

160. The government has introduced a slew of measures in the past five years to help reduce poverty in the coun-try and bring the people above the poverty line, that is, above a certain income level. The number of poor people out of the total population has come down by over nine per cent in the past five years. The govern-ment claims that the reduction in the percentage of the number of people is solely due to its anti-poverty mea-sures.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?(1) The monetary definition of the poverty line has

remained unchanged despite rising inflation and erosion of money value.

(2) The population of the country has increased by above one % in five years despite government’s efforts to control it.

(3) Most of the rural poor have migrated to the urban areas seeking employment in the past five years.

(4) The popularity of the government as per a recent survey has come down by more than twenty %.


161. According to NREGS reports the participation of women was high in which of the following states?(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Kerala(3) Jharkhand (4) Chhattisgarh

162. As per the assessment of the State Forest Report


Mock Test 5 n 7.65

(3) 179 (4) 108

172. Amas Bank (Switzerland) belongs to which Indian group?(1) Hinduja (2) Mittal(3) Ambani (4) Tata

173. According to the US magazine Forbes, the richest Indian is(1) Laxmi Mittal (2) Mukesh Ambani(3) Anil Ambani (4) Sunil Mittal

174. Nobel peace prize for 2008 was awarded to Martti Ahtisaari, who is a former president of:(1) Denmark (2) Finland(3) Sweden (4) Holland

175. Who was declared the FIFA world player of the year for 2008?(1) Kaka (2) Ronaldinho(3) Cristiano Ronaldo (4) Wayne Rooney

176. Who won the 2009 Femina Miss India Universe title?(1) Pooja Chopra (2) Shriya Kishore(3) Shriya Saran (4) Ekta Chowdary

177. Who was declared the person of the year for 2008 by the TIME magazine?(1) Gordon Brown (2) Vladimir Putin(3) Barack Obama (4) Angela Markel

178. Who was the director of the film ‘Slumdog Million-aire’?(1) Christian Kholson (2) Chris Dickens(3) Megan Mylan (4) Danny Boyle

179. Who holds the record for the highest number of catch-es by a fielder in tests?(1) Mark Waugh (2) Rahul Dravid(3) Sachin Tendulkar (4) Sunil Gavaskar

180. In which country will the 2010 World Cup football be held?(1) England (2) Germany(3) Brazil (4) South Africa

Directions for questions 181 to 185: These questions are based on the line graph given below which shows the pric-es of the stocks of three companies a, b and c (in rupees) for a period of 8 weeks.

(2003) of the Forest Survey of India, the forest cover constitutes what percentage of the geographic area of the country?(1) 18.64 (2) 20.64(3) 23.64 (4) 33

163. Which of the following statements is not true regard-ing the National Rural Employment Gurantee Scheme (NREGS)?(1) 1/3rd of persons have to be women(2) Contractors and use of labour displacing machin-

ery is prohibited(3) Social audit will be done by the Grama Sabha.(4) Disbursement of wages on a daily basis.

164. Which of the following countries is not a member of G-8?(1) USA (2) Canada(3) Italy (4) India

165. PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) is a brain child of which one of the following leaders?(1) Dr Manmohan Singh (2) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam(3) A.B. Vajpayee (4) Sonia Gandhi

166. The Narsimham committee recommendations deal with(1) subsidy to fertilizer sector (2) sugar industry(3) banking reforms (4) farm credit

167. Which country offered NR. Narayana Murthy, the Chief Mentor of Infosys, the post of IT adviser?(1) Sri Lanka (2) Nepal(3) Bhutan (4) Bangladesh

168. ‘There’s no better way to fly’ is the punchline of which of the following airlines?(1) British Airways (2) Air Canada(3) Luftansa (4) Malaysian Airlines

169. Which of the following is not a retail chain?(1) Wal-Mart (2) Olympus(3) Westside (4) Stanza

170. ‘Horlicks’ is an energy drink from(1) Glaxosmitkline (2) Enkay(3) Heinz India (4) Cadbury

171. What is India’s rank according to the Human Develop-ment Index (HDI) 2008?(1) 157 (2) 132


7.66 n Mock Tests

450

300

400

500

350400400

250

450400

350400

450500

450

300

720800

750700700

600

700 740

0

100

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400

500

600

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0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

A B C

Return on a stock =

Change in priceduring thegiven period 100initialprice

×

A stock is said to outperform another stock, if the return

on the stock is higher when compared to that on the other stock. A stock is said to under perform when compared to another stock, if the return on the stock is lower when com-pared to that on the other stock.

181. Highest return on any stock, during any period is(1) 60 % (2) 50 %(3) 45 % (4) 25 %

182. In how many weeks did the stock of company A out-perform that of company C?(1) 8 (2) 3(3) 5 (4) 4

183. In how many weeks did the stock of company B out perform that of company A?

(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 3 (4) 4

184. If a person invests Rs 9900 each in the beginning in the shares of companies A and B, then at the end of 8 weeks what will be the total worth of these shares with the person?(1) Rs 29,300 (2) Rs 28,350(3) Rs 26,500 (4) Cannot be determined

185. If the value of the market index, which is based on the value of the stock of 500 different companies, exhib-ited the same pattern of movement as that of the stock of company C, then what is the minimum number of companies out of the 500 companies making up the in-dex, whose stock had a positive return over the given period?(1) 500 (2) 1(3) 251 (4) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 186 to 190: These questions are based on the bar graph given below. Study the graph care-fully and answer the questions.

The number of vehicles sold by two companies A and B across four years

320380 370

500

290 300

500

420

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

1990 1991 1992 1993

A B


Mock Test 5 n 7.67

(3) 66.66 % (4) 75 %

189. What is the percentage decrease in the sales of company A from 1991 to 1992?(1) 1.83 % (2) 2.63 %(3) 2.87 % (4) 3 %

190. If the sales of A increase by 20 per cent from 1993 to 1994, while the sales of B decrease by 33.33 per cent for the same period, then in 1994 what percentage of A’s sales is B’s sales?(1) 40 % (2) 42 %(3) 46 % (4) 30 %

Directions for questions 191 to 195: These questions are based on the line graph given below.

186. What is the approximate percentage increase in the to-tal number of vehicles sold by the companies A and B together from 1990 to 1993?(1) 35 % (2) 40 %(3) 50 % (4) 75 %

187. By what approximate percentage is the average sales of company A more/less than the average sales of company B during the given period?(1) 4 % (2) 3 %(3) 5 % (4) 6 %

188. What is the maximum percentage increase in the sales of any company between any two successive years during the given period?(1) 50 % (2) 45 %

Cost

(in

Rs L

akhs

)

4.8

2

5.6

3

5

1.5

5

3 33

1.92

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

Zen City Xing Lancer Versa Optra

MANUFACTURING COST ADVERTISING COST

Total Cost = Manufacturing Cost + Advertising Cost

191. For which of the following cars is the manufacturing cost as a percentage of advertising cost the least? (1) Xing (2) City(3) Lancer (4) Zen

192. In a certain year, 30,000 “City” cars, are produced, and are sold at Rs 9.3 lacs/car. If 2 per cent of the total profit is given as a bonus to the 2,040 engineers, the amount received by each engineer as bonus is (in Rs) (1) 5,000 (2) 50,000(3) 5 lacs (4) None of these

193. Which of the following statements is true?(1) The difference in the manufacturing and the ad-

vertising costs of Optra is the same as that of Ver-sa.

(2) The ratio of the manufacturing to the advertising cost of Zen is the same as that of Xing.

(3) The total cost of Zen and Xing put together is less than the total cost of Lancer.

(4) None of these

194. The company that manufactures Zen produces 500 Zen cars per day while the company that manufactures City produces 600 City cars per day. They sell them at Rs 6 lacs/car and Rs 8.4 lacs/car respectively. The profit made by the former is approximately what per cent of that of the latter?(1) 100 %(2) 156 %(3) 250 %(4) None of these

195. The ratio of the manufacturing cost to the total cost is the least for(1) Optra (2) Zen(3) City (4) Lancer


7.68 n Mock Tests

Directions for questions 196 to 200: Each question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. You are to compare the two quantities and choose,

(1) if the quantity in column A is greater.(2) if the quantity in column B is greater.(3) if the two quantities are equal. (4) if the relationship cannot be determined from the

information given.

9 < 2x 10 10− <

196.x 6

197. x per cent of z per cent of p p per cent of x per cent of z

x 0y=198. x y

199. x = 40 per cent of two-seventh of 1330 y = 821/3 per cent of five-fourth of x

200. There has been an increase of 20 per cent in the population of Wisconsin from 1992 to 1997. There has been an increase of 40 per cent in the population of Wisconsin from 1992 to 2002.

Percentage increase in the population of Wisconsin from 1992 to 1997.

Percentage increase in the population of Wisconsin from 1997 to 2002.

Answer keys

1. 1 2. 3 3. 4 4. 2 5. 4 6. 1 7. 2 8. 4 9. 3 10. 3 11. 4 12. 4 13. 1 14. 3 15. 4 16. 4 17. 2 18. 2 19. 4 20. 4 21. 4 22. 1 23. 4 24. 2 25. 3 26. 4 27. 2 28. 4 29. 3 30. 4 31. 2 32. 4 33. 1 34. 2 35. 4 36. 4 37. 2 38. 3 39. 3 40. 1 41. 1 42. 4 43. 4 44. 2 45. 2 46. 3 47. 1 48. 1 49. 4 50. 1 51. 3 52. 1 53. 3 54. 3 55. 1 56. 3 57. 1 58. 4 59. 4 60. 3 61. 1 62. 3 63. 3 64. 1 65. 2 66. 2 67. 3 68. 3 69. 1 70. 1 71. 4 72. 3 73. 2 74. 3 75. 4 76. 1 77. 4 78. 3 79. 3 80. 4 81. 4 82. 4 83 1 84. 4 85. 3 86. 3 87. 4 88. 4 89. 1 90. 2 91. 4 92. 2 93. 4 94. 3 95. 3 96. 2 97. 3 98. 4 99. 3 100. 2 101. 3 102. 1


Mock Test 5 n 7.69

103. 3 104. 2 105. 2 106. 2 107. 2 108. 1 109. 2 110. 2 111. 3 112. 4 113 1 114. 2 115. 3 116. 4 117. 3 118. 3 119. 4 120. 4 121. 2 122. 2 123. 3 124. 3 125. 1 126. 3 127. 1 128. 2 129. 4 130. 3 131. 4 132. 4 133. 4 134. 4 135. 1 136. 3 137. 1 138. 3 139. 4 140. 3 141. 1 142. 3 143. 3 144. 3 145. 4 146. 1 147. 3 148. 2 149. 1 150. 2 151. 4 152. 3 153. 2 154. 3 155. 1 156. 4 157. 3 158. 4 159. 2 160. 1 161. 1 162. 2 163. 4 164. 4 165. 2 166. 3 167. 1 168. 3 169. 2 170. 1 171. 2 172. 1 173. 2 174. 2 175. 3 176. 4 177. 3 178. 4 179. 2 180. 4 181. 1 182. 3 183 3 184. 2 185. 2 186. 3 187. 1 188. 3 189. 2 190. 3 191. 4 192. 2 193. 3 194. 2 195. 2 196. 4 197. 3 198. 4 199. 1 200. 1


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