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Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior 1

Name : ..................................................................................., Roll No. : ............................................

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior

PH.D. ENTRANCE TEST - AUGUST 2016

Time : 90 mins. Marks : 100

Note : Tick the correct answer. (i) Main Part Q.1 to Q.75, Page No. 1 to 8. (ii) Health Education Q.76 to Q.100, Page No. 9 to 12. (iii) Sports Psychology Q. 101 to Q.125, Page No. 12 to 14. (iv) Exercise Physiology Q. 126 to Q.150, Page No. 15 to 18. (v) Sports Biomechanics Q. 151 to Q.175, Page No. 18 to 21. (vi) Sports Management Q.176 to 200, Page No. 21 to 23.

Q.1 The research which involves an in-depth study and evaluation of available information to explain

the nature of complex phenomenon is:

(a) Experimental research (b) Analytical research

(c) Descriptive research (d) Qualitative research

Q.2 A procedure that involves selecting a sample on the basis of particular characteristics or an

identified variable :

(a) Purposive sampling (b) Probability sampling

(c) Convenience sampling (d) Snowball sampling

Q.3 A gerontologist develops a research study that compares the frequency of social contacts among

the same sample of women over a thirty–year period. Measures are taken after the women reach

20, 30, 40, and 50 years of age. This type of research design is called

(a) Developmental study (b) Longitudinal study

(c) Cross–sectional study (d) Experimental study

Q.4 Research design in which the experimenter tries to fit the design to real world settings controlling

the threats to internal validity is:

(a) Pre-experimental design (b) True experimental design

(c) Quasi- experimental design (d) Can’t say

Q.5 Workability, Critical Mass, Interest, Theoretical value and Practical value are some of the:

(a) Sources of validity in research problem (b) Criteria for selecting the research problem

(c) Steps in location of a research problem (d) Steps of literature search

Q.6 A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called …

(a) a constant (b) a variable

(c) a cause-and-effect relationship (d) a descriptive relationship


Q.7 Workability, Critical Mass, Interest, Theoretical value and Practical value are some of the:

(a) Sources of validity in research problem (b) Criteria for selecting the research problem

(c) Steps in location of a research problem (d) Steps of literature search

Q.8 A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called …

(a) a constant (b) a variable

(c) a cause-and-effect relationship (d) a descriptive relationship

Q.9 Which of the following is the factor that researchers manipulate so that it is the only factor

allowed to vary systematically in an experiment?

(a) Independent variable (b) internal validity

(c) External validity (d) dependent variable

Q.10 People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method

called ______.

(a) Simple random sampling (b) Cluster sampling

(c) Systematic sampling (d) Convenience sampling

Q.11 Which of the following is the factor that researchers manipulate so that it is the only factor

allowed to vary systematically in an experiment?

(a) Independent variable (b) internal validity

(c) External validity (d) dependent variable

Q.12 A limitation imposed by the researcher in the scope of the study and making a workable research

problem is known as:

(a) Limitation (b) Delimitation

(c) Assumption (d) Significance

Q.13 The eyewitness account of an event reported by an actual observer or participant is:

(a) Primary source (b) Basic source

(c) Secondary source (d) Descriptive source

Q.14 Which of the following designs controls most of the threats to the internal validity of an

experiment?

(a) Reversal group design (b) Time series design

(c) Pre-test post-test Randomized group design (d) Solomon four group Design

Q.15 Experimental research differs from other types of research because in experimental research

(a) the dependent variable must be measured (b) the independent variable must be

precisely manipulated.

(c) groups are compared. (d) there are no extraneous variables

Q.16 The most commonly used instruments for data collection in survey research are the:

(a) Questionnaire and standardized test (b) Questionnaire and individual interview

(c) Individual interview and situational testing (d) standardized testing and interviewing


Q.17 Which of the following is not related to validity?

(a) Cronbach’s alpha (b) Factor analysis

(c) Construct (d) Concurrent

Q.18 The Range of Standard Score is

(a) -3 to +3 (b) -2 to +2

(c) -1 to +1 (d) Zero

Q.19 A relationship between two variables whereby one increases and the other decreases

(a) Positive Relationship (b) Negative Relationship

(c) Neutral Relationship (d) Curvilinear Relationship

Q.20 A statistical technique for investigating the difference between groups on some dependent

variable after controlling for one or more covariates.

(a) Chi square (b) ANCOVA

(c) ANOVA (d) Regression analysis

Q.21 The concept of standard deviation was introduced by-

(a) Karl Pearson (b) Fisher

(c) Gauses (d) Spearman

Q.22 Which of the following is not a name for dispersion?

(a) Scatter (b) Spread

(c) Regression (d) Variation

Q.23 The frequency polygon drawn by connecting of the frequency histograms

(a) Top-Central point’s (b) Top-Right corners

(c) Top-Left corners (d) Mid-Height points

Q.24 One type of sampling that is inherently biased but is still called random is

(a) Biased Sampling (b) Pseudo Random Sampling

(c) Purposive Random Sampling (d) Stratified Sampling

Q.25 In a pie diagram five percent share of a component will be represented by an angle of

(a) 5 degree(s) (b) 12.5 degree(s)

(c) 36 degree(s) (d) 18 degree(s)

Q.26 The Quartile Deviation is influenced by the upper and lower 25 percent of the scores

(a) True (b) False

(c) Partially true (d) Partially false

Q.27 The statistical measure which is generally applied for the determination of sampling error is

(a) Mean (b) Correlation

(c) Chi-Square (d) Standard Deviation


Q.28 Which would be the next term in the series 1, 4, 7, 30, 77, 248,?

(a) 1024 (b) 576

(c) 723 (d) 529

Q.29 At what level the weight of students is measured?

(a) Nominal level (b) Ordinal level

(c) Interval level (d) Ratio level

Q.30 The value of which of the following will not change if a constant number is added to all the

scores of a series?

(a) Mean (b) Median

(c) Mode (d) Standard deviation

Q.31 Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The value of mean deviation is based on all the observations.

(b) The value of standard deviation is based on all the observations.

(c) The value of inter-quartile range is based on all the observations.

(d) The value of mean is based on all the observations.

Q.32 From a bag containing 3 white and 2 black balls, what will be the probability of drawing a white

ball?

(a) 5

3 (b) 5

1

(c) 5

2 (d) 2

1

Q.33 In a mesokurtic curve, the Kurtosis ( 2γ ) is

(a) 0 (b) 3

(c) Less than 0 (d) More than 0

Q.34 If all the scores of the variables are multiplied by 5, the value of coefficient correlation will

(a) Increase by 5 (b) Increase by the multiplication of 5

(c) Remain unchanged (d) Decrease by 5

Q.35 The term (1 – α) represents

(a) The probability of a Type I error (b) The power of a test

(c) The probability of a Type II error (d) The probability of not rejecting the null

hypothesis when it is true

Q.36 To test whether the average age of the children in a school is 12 years or not, given that the

population is normal, what would be the appropriate null and alternative hypotheses?

(a) H0: µ >12 H1: µ ≤ 12. (b) H0: µ =12 H1: µ < 12.

(c) H0: µ =12 H1: µ ≠ 12. (d) H0: µ =12 H1: µ > 12.


Q.37 Who is known as a Father of Anthropometry?

(a) Baron Quetelet (b) Martens

(c) Spielberger (d) Carron

Q.38 If the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance, then

(a) It will be accepted at the 0.05 level of significance.

(b) It may be accepted at the 0.05 level of significance.

(c) It will also be rejected at the 0.05 level of significance.

(d) It may be rejected at the 0.05 level of significance.

Q.39 In one-way ANOVA, four sample means are compared with 12 scores in each sample. The

numerator and denominator degree of freedom for the statistic F would be

(a) 4, 44 (b) 3, 44

(c) 3, 48 (d) 4, 48

Q.40 In one-way ANOVA with three unequal sample sizes, what should be the minimum number

scores you must have in the experiment?

(a) 0 (b) 2

(c) 4 (d) 6

Q.41 In comparing the three independent samples, what happens if instead of using one-way ANOVA

three t-tests are applied?

(a) Nothing will happen (b) The level of significance will increase

(c) The level of significance will decrease (d) The computation becomes easier

Q.42 Knox test is a skill test for

(a) Hockey (b) Basketball

(c) Volleyball (d) Tennis

Q.43 Queens College Step test is used to measure

(a) Cardiovascular (b) Endurance

(c) Flexibility (d) Heart Rate

Q.44 Which of the following tests is not a part of J. Johnson motor educability test?

(a) Back roll (b) Front roll

(c) Vertical jump (d) Stagger jump

Q.45 Which factor determine the actual trajectory of shoot?

(a) Velocity (b) Angle of release

(c) Direction (d) Spin


Q.46 The amount of force a muscle, or muscle group, is able to exert for one maximal effort

(contraction) is :

(a) Muscular endurance (b) Muscular Strength

(c) Agility (d) Cardiovascular endurance

Q.47 French shot service test is used in

(a) Table Tennis (b) Badminton

(c) Volleyball (d) Tennis

Q.48 The foundation of Physical Education is made strong with

(a) Scientific facts (b) Philosophical Concepts

(c) Cultural heritage (d) Physical Culture

Q.49 Pyramid training was invented by

(a) Russians (b) Germans

(c) Swedish (d) Americans

Q.50 Who invented Circuit Training?

(a) Morgan and Adamson (b) Van Aaken

(c) Reindall (d) Marlow

Q.51 The first person to give a theoretical base to Periodization was

(a) Hardayal Singh (b) L.P. Matweyew

(c) Minow (d) Bastion

Q.52 Low slow distance training and can provided an athlete some relief from high intensity training

(a) Interval training (b) Fartlek training

(c) Speed training (d) Weight training

Q.53 Find the odd number/letters from the given alternatives.

(a) Swimming (b) Sailing

(c) Diving (d) Driving

Q.54 Look at the series : 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ..... What number should come next?

(a) 7 (b) 10

(c) 12 (d) 13

Q.55 SCD, TEF, UGH, _____, WKL

(a) CMN (b) UJI

(c) VIJ (d) IJT

Q.56 Nitin ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is rank from the last?

(a) 31 (b) 18

(c) 32 (d) 19


Q.57 Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) Parsley (b) Basil

(c) Dill (d) Mayonnaise

Q.58 You are playing football in a park. When you kick the ball, it strikes and breaks the window pane

of a nearby house. You would :

(a) Demand your ball back from the house (b) Say that it was no fault of yours

owner

(c) Stealthily get your ball back (d) Apologies to the house owner and

contribute to replace the glass

Q.59 Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) Inch (b) Ounce

(c) Centimeter (d) Yard

Q.60 Look at this series: 58, 52, 46, 40, 34, … What number should come next?

(a) 30 (b) 28

(c) 26 (d) 32

Q.61 Introducing a girl Vipin said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law." How is

vipin related to that girl ?

(a) Uncle (b) Father

(c) Brother (d) Husband

Q.62 Coffee : cup :: soup : ?

(a) chicken (b) appetizer

(c) bowl (d) plate

Q.63 A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A related to D?

(a) Grandfather (b) Grandmother

(c) Daughter (d) Granddaughter

Q.64 If Tuesday falls on 4th of month, then which day will fall three days after the 24th ?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday

(c) Friday (d) Thursday

Q.65 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West become?

(a) North-East (b) North-West

(c) South-East (d) South-West

Q.66 JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

(a) OEP (b) NEO

(c) MEN (d) PFQ


Q.67 Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?

(a) 12 (b) 14

(c) 27 (d) 53

Q.68 If in a certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and FATE is written as GATE, then how will

BLUE be written in that code ?

(a) CLUE (b) GLUE

(c) FLUE (d) SLUE

Q.69 CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU

(a) GRR (b) GSS

(c) ISS (d) ITT

Q.70 A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son.

The age of the son is :

(a) 12 (b) 15

(c) 18 (d) 20

Q.71 Fact 1: All chicken are birds. Fact 2: Some chickens are hens. Fact 3: Female birds lay eggs. If

the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?

I. All birds lay eggs. II. Hens are birds. III. Some chickens are not hens.

(a) II only (b) II and III only

(c) I, II, and III (d) None of the statements is a known fact.

Q.72 Rajan is sixth from the left end and vinay is tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are

eight boys between Rajan and Vinay, how many boys are there in the row?

(a) 24 (b) 26

(c) 23 (d) 25

Q.73 If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?

(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQK

(c) ESJFME (d) DEQJQM

Q.74 If air is called green , green is called blue, blue is called sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called

water and water is called pink, then what is the color of clear sky ?

(a) Blue (b) Sky

(c) Yellow (d) Water

Q.75 PEDAL : BICYCLE

(a) inch : yardstick (b) walk : skip

(c) tire : automobile (d) oar : canoe


Note : Attempt next 25 questions from your area of Subject Specialization.

HEALTH EDUCATION

Q.76 Which health care comprises essentially curative services and is provided by the district hospital

and community health centers

(a) Primary Health Care (b) Secondary Health Care

(c) Tertiary Health Care (d) None of the above

Q.77 What vitamin has been implicated as a possible treatment for Alzheimer disease?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B9

(c) Vitamin B12 (d) Vitamin E

Q.78 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

List-I List-II

I Iron 1. Proper thyroid function

II Sodium 2. Development of strong bones

III Phosphorus 3. Functioning of nervous system

IV Iodine 4. Formation of hemoglobin

Codes :

I II III IV

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

Q.79 Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?

(a) Cannabis (b) MDMA

(c) LSD (d) Antibiotics

Q.80 What does NPP stand for?

(a) National Population Programme (b) National Population Project

(c) National Population Policy (d) National Population Production

Q.81 Epidemiology is :

(a) Concerned primarily with the empowerment of individuals in the of care their own health.

(b) The study of disease prevention

(c) The study of the distribution and determinants of diseases.

(d) A method of applying primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention in a community setting.


Q.82 Match the following:

a Cholera 1. Mycobacterium

b Chickenpox 2. Vibrio cholera

c Tuberculosis 3. Mycobacterium leprae

d Leprosy 4. Varicella virus

Codes :

(a) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 (b) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

(c) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4 (d) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Q.83 Essential amino acids are best described as those amino acid that are :

(a) Required for protein synthesis but cannot be made by the body

(b) Naturally occurring substances that function in fighting infection.

(c) Important components of Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

(d) High- energy nutrients that promote growth and development

Q.84 A reduced body weight, a morbid fear of fat, an obsession with food and an abnormal body image

are the symptoms of

(a) Dieting (b) Annorexia Nervosa

(c) Obesity (d) Bulimia Nervosa

Q.85 Which one general statement below best characterizes women’s health status?

(a) Women live longer than men but experience more illness

(b) Women live longer than men and experience less illness

(c) Women live longer than men and report less illness

(d) Men live longer than women but women report less illness

Q.86 Diuretics are generally used by the athletes of power sport in order to :

(a) Bring stability in circulation of blood (b) Lose body weight

(c) Increase muscle strength (d) Bring the tension level down

Q.87 “Little League Elbow” is the term related to :

(a) Development of muscles of the arm of (b) Overuse injuries of young

young athletes athletes

(c) Acute injuries of young athletes (d) None of the above

Q.88 Tetany occurs as a result of :

(a) Hyper activity of the parathyroid gland (b) Vitamin D deficiency

(c) Alkalosis (d) Hypocalcemia


Q.89 Which of the following diseases has genetic orientation and is inherited by a person’s offspring :

(a) Tuberculosis (b) HIV infection

(c) Haemophelia (d) Beriberi

Q.90 Which one of the following is known as “Good Chlestrerol?

(a) Glucolipids (b) Phospholipids

(c) HDL- Cholesterol (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.91 Which of the vitamin protect the cell membranes and helps to the formation of Red Blood Cells

(RBC)

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin K

(c) Vitamin B1 (d) Vitamin E

Q.92 Which drug is used in the treatment of fatigue?

(a) Amphetamines (b) Cocaine

(c) Aspertic Acid Salts (d) Anabolic Steroids

Q.93 Chemical name of the vitamin B2 is :

(a) Tocopherol (b) Riboflavin

(c) Thiamine (d) Niacin

Q.94 Megaloblastic Anaemia associated with the deficiency of :

(a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin B2

(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin B12

Q.95 Inhalation of sugar-cane dust causes

(a) Silicosis (b) Bagassosis

(c) Anthracosis (d) Byssionosis

Q.96 Vitamin E is also known as :

(a) Thiamine (b) Niacin

(c) Tocopherol (d) Riboflovin

Q.97 Metabolic disorder characterized by high blood glucose associated with increased risk of heart

disease and other health problems is called :

(a) Osteoporosis (b) Cardiovascular disease

(c) Diabetes (d) Osteopenia

Q.98 How is ‘disability’ characterized in the social model of disability?

(a) Disadvantage for people, caused by a range of physical impairments

(b) Disadvantage for people with impairments caused by society’s organization

(c) Disadvantage for individuals caused by malfunction of a bodily mechanism

(d) Disadvantage for individuals caused by a range of bodily malfunctions


Q.99 HIV reduces natural immunity of body by destroying :

(a) b-lymphocytes (b) t-lymphocytes

(c) Antibodies (d) Erythrocytes

Q.100 Anaplasia is :

(a) Transfer of cancer cells (b) Formation of tumour

(c) Loss of cells adherence and cell (d) Action of lysosomes over cells

differentiation

Or

SPORTS PSYCHOLOGY

Q.101 The field of study that focuses on the neural, physical, and behaviour aspects that underlie human

movement is:

(a) Motor learning (b) Motor control

(c) Learning (d) Performance

Q.102 Which type of learner uses a problem-solving approach while learning a new movement?

(a) Visual learner (b) Kinesthetic learner

(c) Analytical learner (d) Auditory learner

Q.103 Which of the following is an example of a gross motor skill?

(a) Cutting with scissors (b) Creating an incision with a table knife

(c) Swiping a credit card (d) Performing a pushup

Q.104 Skills where the performer controls the performance situation because the object being acted on

or the context in which the skill is performed does not change are called:

(a) Open skills (b) Closed skills

(c) Variable skills (d) Stable skills

Q.105 Which theory predicts a linear relationship between arousal and performance?

(a) Catastrophe theory (b) Drive Theory

(c) Inverted U theory (d) Zone of Optimal Functioning

Q.106 A moment to moment change in one’s perceived physiological activation before a competition is

referred to as:

(a) Cognitive state anxiety (b) Somatic State anxiety

(c) Activation (d) Trait anxiety


Q.107 In preparing for a major competition, many elite athletes structure training to put themselves

under the same sort of pressure encountered during the actual competition. This is an example of

(a) Simulation training (b) Pre-competitive routines

(c) Pre-competitive Plans (d) Mental Rehearsal

Q.108 The technique that involves the visualization or cognitive rehearsal of a movement in the absence

of any physical execution is called:

(a) Autogenic training (b) Observation

(c) Imagery (d) Visual-motor rehearsal

Q.109 Which Psycho-regulative technique is called as “ Muscle to Mind” Technique?

(a) Imagery (b) Autogenic training

(c) Desensitization (d) Progressive Muscle Relaxation (PMR)

Q.110 Mental development includes

(a) External and internal organs (b) Reasoning and thinking

(c) Ethical and moral (d) Emotional maturity.

Q.111 When catching a ball, your hand knows when to grasp because

(a) participating muscles receive efferent signals from the brain

(b) Your parasympathetic nervous system is active

(c) Alpha waves are being generated by your brain

(d) Afferent signals inform your hand that the ball is about to make contact.

Q.112 What is the correct order of the various stages of motor skill learning?

(a) Associative, Cognitive and Autonomous

(b) Cognitive, Associative and Autonomous

(c) Autonomous, Associative and Cognitive

(d) Cognitive, Autonomous and Associative

Q.113 Teaching an athlete to imagine a model doing a particular performance as a means to help the

athlete acquire that skill or ability is known as:

(a) cue control relaxation (b) mental imaging

(c) covert modeling (d) coping strategies

Q.114 The term "choking" refers to which of the following?

(a) fear that affects performance (b) blocked airway

(c) eating too quickly (d) all the above

Q.115 A player’s strength and potential areas of improvement can best be visually analyzed through :

(a) VMBR (b) Performance Profiling

(c) Bio feed back (d) A paper- pencil test


Q.116 What is the correct order of phases that a group goes through to become a team

(a) Norming, forming, storming, performing (b) Forming, storming, norming, performing

(c) Performing, norming, storming, forming (d) Storming, norming, forming, performing

Q.117 What is the appropriate training phase in Sport Periodization to teach Psychological Skill

Training?

(a) Transition Period (b) Competition period

(c) Conversion phase (d) Preparatory period

Q.118 Mental development includes

(a) External and internal organs (b) Reasoning and thinking

(c) Ethical and moral (d) Emotional maturity

Q.119 The therapy of psychoanalysis was developed by

(a) Skinner (b) Sigmund Freud

(c) Plato (d) Darwin

Q.120 Which need is on top of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

(a) Self-actualization (b) Esteem

(c) Belongingness (d) Safety

Q.121 Achievement motivation relates to

(a) Need of the person (b) Knowledge of the person

(c) Experience of the person (d) Aptitude of the person

Q.122 What is the population that psychologists usually study?

(a) Cats & Dogs (b) Monkeys

(c) People (d) Pigeons and rats

Q.123 Which is the lowest level of learning?

(a) Rote learning (b) Understanding

(c) Application (d) Correlation

Q.124 The cause of frustration among sports person is

(a) Result of own performance (b) Normally due to mismatched level of

aspiration and ability

(c) Result of good performance (d) Natural outcome of competitive sports

Q.125 The focus on specific behaviours that an athlete must engage in throughout a performance

(a) Attentional cues (b) Event occlusion

(c) Process goals (d) Acquisition phase


Or

EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY

Q.126 Metabolism is determined by the:

(a) size of proteins in the cell (b) availability of amino acids

(c) proteins formed as dictated by the genetic (d) protein composition of the DNA

material

Q.127 Make the correct choice from Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) from the codes given below:

Assertion (A) : The Pyruvic Acid formed during aerobic glycolysis in the Kreb’s cycle passes

into mitochondria. It is further oxidised.

Reason (R) : In Kreb’s cycle, oxidation of Pyruvic Acid produces Energy, Carbon dioxide,

Water and Lactic Acid.

Codes :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct (b) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(c) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct. (d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Q.128 The important nutrient found in fish is:

(a) Omega-3 (b) Vitamin K

(c) Zinc (d) Copper

Q.129 The state of balance and equilibrium in internal physiological conditions is known as:

(a) Metabolism (b) Hypokinetics

(c) Homeostasis (d) Anabolism

Q.130 During muscular exercise, Venous return is increased by:

(a) the pumping action of the muscles and (b) contractility of the Myocardium

the increase in respiration

(c) increased sympathetic discharge (d) changes in cardiac rate and rhythm

Q.131 The contractile unit of skeletal muscle is:

(a) Sacromere (b) Actin and Myosin

(c) Z-line (d) Myofibril

Q.132 A.T.P. is used for muscle contraction as:

(a) Primary source (b) Secondary source

(c) Immediate source (d) Intermediate source


Q.133 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List –I List-II

A Alcohol (i) It creates mental confusion

B Amphetamine (ii) Lack of Concentration and Judgment

C Anabolic steroids (iii) It gives temporary disappearance of fatigue and hunger

D Cocaine (iv) It develops secondary male characteristics in females

Codes:

A B C D

(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Q.134 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List –I List-II

A Cell Membrane (i) Excretory function

B Mitochondria (ii) Absorbs and excretes the molecules once carried out

C Lysosomes (iii) Contain enzymes

D Vacules (iv) Break down large molecules within the cell

Codes:

A B C D

(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Q.135 Make the correct choice from Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) from the codes given below:

Assertion (A) : Beta blockers are substances which reduce blood pressure.

Reason (R) : Use of beta blockers enhances endurance performance.

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(c) (R) is false but (A) is true. (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Q.136 The principal regulator of body’s internal environment is

(a) Hypothalamus (b) Liver

(c) Kidneys (d) Gonads


Q.137 The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is:

(a) potassium binding to myosin (b) calcium binding to tropomyosin

(c) ATP binding to the myosin cross bridges (d) calcium binding to troponin

Q.138 Which of the following sequence is correct during isovolumetric relaxation?

(a) Ventricles relax (b) Ventricular pressure drops

(c) Atria refills (d) Semilunar Valves close

Codes :

(a) (a), (b), (c), (d) (b) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(c) (c), (d), (a), (b) (d) (d), (a), (b), (c)

Q.139 Which of the following is mainly responsible for clotting of the blood?

(a) Thrombocytes (b) Haemoglobin

(c) Leucocytes (d) Phagocytes

Q.140 In anatomical language, the heart muscle is called

(a) Pericardium (b) Endocardium

(c) Myocardium (d) Epithelium

Q.141 While the birth-place of Red Blood Cells in the body is the bone marrow, their graveyard is

(a) spinal column (b) spleen

(c) small intestine (d) large intestine

Q.142 For very high force contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy source is from:

(a) glycolysis (b) creatine phosphorylation

(c) phosphocreatine stores (d) ATP stores

Q.143 According to Cooper (1968) value of 12mit. Run test is converted to Vo2 Max. by:

a) Vo2Max. = [22.351 x Distance (km) – 11.288]

b) Vo2 Max. = [22.531 x Distance (km) – 11.882]

c) Vo2 Max. = [11.882 x Distance (Meters) – 22.531]

d) Vo2 Max. = [11.228 x Distance (Meters) – 22.135]

Q.144 Which of the following is true?

(a) increasing the protein intake above 3 grams per kg body mass per day will stimulatemuscle

growth and increase strength

(b) creatine supplements can increase muscle strength and power

(c) amino acid supplements can increase muscle strength and power

(d) muscle damage is induced by shortening contractions


Q.145 Which organ performs endocrine as well as exocrine functions in human body?

(a) Liver (b) Kidneys

(c) Pancreas (d) Gall bladder

Q.146 Which of the following properties is not possessed by slow twitch fibres?

(a) Red fibres (b) High myoglobin

(c) Slow action potential (d) High haemoglobin

Q.147 Thin myofilaments do not campose of which one of the following proteins?

(a) Actin (b) Troponin

(c) Tropomyosin (d) Myosin

Q.148 Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is typically associated with which of the following types

of muscle contractions?

(a) Isometric (b) Concentric

(c) Eccentric (d) Co-contraction

Q.149 Sliding filament theory of muscles contraction was given by

(a) Huxley (b) Darwin

(c) Newton (d) A. V. Hill

Q.150 Which of the following best explains why age-predicted maximal heart rate is used to regulate the

intensity of aerobic exercise?

(a) Perceived exertion and exercise duration are inversely correlated.

(b) Exercise intensity and exercise duration are inversely correlated.

(c) Exercise velocity and exercise intensity are directly correlated.

(d) Heart rate and oxygen consumption are closely related.

Or

SPORTS BIOMECHANICS

Q.151 When the velocity of the runner is constant:

(a) Acceleration is positive (b) Acceleration is negative

(c) Acceleration is zero (d) Retardation acceleration

Q.152 Unit of angular acceleration

(a) Meter (b) Radian

Second Second

(c) Meter (d) Radian

Second2 Second

2


Q.153 A skater has a tendency to continue gliding with constant speed and direction because of:

(a) Law of inertia (b) Law of acceleration

(c) Law of action and reaction (d) Law of gravitation

Q.154 With constant Linear velocity, angular velocity of a Gymnast increases:

(a) By increasing radius (b) By decreasing radius

(c) By increasing radius and velocity (d) No change in radius

Q.155 Projectile Trajectory Means:

(a) Range of projectile (b) Height of the projectile

(c) The magnitude of projection (d) The flight path of a projectile

Q.156 A Gymnast performing double summersault successfully by:

(a) Reducing angular velocity (b) Increasing angular velocity

(c) Reducing moment of Inertia (d) Increasing angular momentum

Q.157 In Perfect inelastic collision:

(a) Temporary deformed (b) Permanent deformed

(c) Body do not separated (d) No Change in shape

Q.158 When a hammer is rotated, the thrower exerts:

(a) A centripetal force on the hammer (b) A centrifugal force on the hammer

(c) When forces acting at parallel manner (d) When forces acting at a linear manner

Q.159 Relationship between mechanical work and mechanical energy:

(a) 2

1=SE2

kx (b) )( KEPEC +=

(c) )()( hxwtPE = (d) TEPEKEW ∆+∆+∆=

Q.160 Work is express:

(a) W = Force × Distance (b) W = Work

Change in time

(c) W = Force × Time (d) W = Distance × Time

Distance Force

Q.161 Resultant of forces means:

(a) Magnitude of forces (b) Unbalance forces

(c) Combined effect of forces (d) Magnitude of resistance

Q.162 Torque or moment of force is express:

(a) Rotatory force produces by motion (b) Pair of equal opposite

(c) Rotatory force that produces angular (d) Change in angular acceleration

acceleration


Q.163 Degrees in radian is:

(a) 57.7o (b) 57.3

o

(c) 57.8o (d) 58.3

o

Q.164 Linear Impulse is express:

(a) 1 α (b) M t

(c) F t (d) M v

Q.165 Which lever can be used for both strength as well as speed lever:

(a) Second Class (b) First Class

(c) Third Class (d) No one

Q.166 Centripetal force in terms of angular velocity is express:

(a) F c = r

mv2

(b) F c = r

mv

2

12

(c) F c = t

w

∆∆

(d) F c = 2mrw

Q.167 Strain energy is express:

(a) 2

1=SE2

kx (b) MaghSE =

(c) ( )( )LwtSE = (d) 2

1=SE2

mv

Q.168 Relationship linear and angular velocity is expressed:

(a) rwv = (b) vwr =

(c) r

wv = (d)

v

rw =

Q.169 Angular Momentum is Express:

(a) mvM = (b) IwH =

(c) mvI = (d) IvM =

Q.170 Issac Newton, the creator of the laws of motion, was a/an

(a) American mechanist (b) Norwegian mathematician

(c) British physicist (d) German civil engineer

Q.171 To what property of a body is its stability directly proportional?

(a) Size (b) Weight

(c) Dimension (d) Centre of gravity

Q.172 A single nerve impulse produces

(a) only one single contraction (b) a weak contraction

(c) no contraction (d) repeated contraction


Q.173 A sprinter crouches down in the starting block, keeping his centre of gravity as high as possible

so that he can

(a) move forward with greatest stability (b) accelerate his velocity quickly

(c) start quickly in one direction (d) avoid beating the gun

Q.174 At the time of shooting at the goal in football, the lower and middle level performers initially

look at the ball, the top-level performer looks at

(a) goal-keeper (b) goal

(c) goal post (d) top bar

Q.175 Diving in kho-kho requires tremendous amount of timing and speed along with

(a) balance (b) precision

(c) accuracy (d) muscle sense

Or

SPORTS MANAGEMENT

Q.176 The problem solving process begins with :

(a) clarification of the situation (b) establishment of alternatives

(c) identification of the difficulty (d) isolation of the cause

Q.177 Which of these is not part of the recognized challenges for modern managers?

(a) Micro-managing the workforce (b) Managing communications

(c) Managing change (d) Managing the learning organization

Q.178 Hawthorne studies is related to which stage of the organizational behaviour evolution

(a) Industrial revolution (b) Scientific management

(c) Organizational behaviour (d) Human relations movement

Q.179 Which of the following framework is based on the expectancy, demand and incentive concepts

(a) The cognitive framework (b) The behaviouristic framework

(c) The social learning framework (d) The supportive framework

Q.180 In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions?

(a) Organizing, Planning, Controlling, Leading (b) Organizing, Leading, Planning, Controlling

(c) Planning, organizing, Leading, controlling (d) Planning, Organizing, Controlling, Leading

Q.181 What are the three interpersonal roles of managers?

(a) Figurehead, leader and liaison (b) Spokesperson, leader, coordinator

(c) Director, Coordinator, disseminator (d) Communicator, Organizer, Spokesperson


Q.182 Which following team concept is based on the principle of mutual contribution by employer and

employees

(a) Autocratic model (b) Custodial model

(c) Supportive model (d) Collegial model

Q.183 Which one of the following is not one of Drucker’s five guiding principles of management?

(a) Making people’s strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant.

(b) Enhancing the ability of people to contribute.

(c) To operate the organization’s status system.

(d) Integrating people in a common venture by thinking through, setting and exemplifying the

organizational objectives, values and goals.

Q.184 What is the guiding principle behind New Public Management?

(a) Profit maximization

(b) Introducing private sector business principles into the public sector

(c) Replacing public management with private sector management

(d) Restructuring public organizations

Q.185 What characteristic is not a key feature of the ‘open systems’ model of management?

(a) Morale (b) Innovation

(c) Growth resource (d) Adaptation

Q.186 Which feature does not form one of Fayol’s 14 principles of management?

(a) Esprit de corps (b) Initiative

(c) Order (d) Individualism

Q.187 As what are key factors that reflect the situation of an organization referred to?

(a) Administrations (b) Processes

(c) Activities (d) Contingencies

Q.188 Which one of the following is not a characteristics of a bureaucratic organization?

(a) Authority (b) Regulations

(c) Command structure (d) Change

Q.189 All of the following are key skills necessary to succeed in the marketing department of a

professional sports team except:

(a) oral communication (b) written communication

(c) in-game team strategy (d) sales abilities

Q.190 Which one of these characteristics is most commonly associated with the ‘rational goal’ model of

management?

(a) Worker welfare (b) Health and safety

(c) Interpersonal relationships (d) Productivity


Q.191 The ability to see the enterprise/sports organization as a whole is called

(a) Human skill (b) Conceptual skill

(c) Mechanical skill (d) None of the above.

Q.192 The first step in planning process is

(a) Determination of objectives (b) Resource mobilisation

(c) Constraints identification (d) Evaluation of alternatives

Q.193 The plan in which only the chief executive dictates initiates and monitors is called

(a) Democratic plan (b) Participative plan

(c) Authoritarian plan (d) None of the above.

Q.194 'Getting the right facts to the right people at the right time in the right way' is called

(a) Game management (b) Public relations in sports

(c) Motivation for sports (d) Leadership in sports.

Q.195 The last link of the sports management chain is

(a) Control and evaluation (b) Finance and budget

(c) Public relations (d) None of the above.

Q.196 Effective communication is essential in sports management to keep alive its

(a) Dynamics (b) Characteristics

(c) Principle (d) Foundation.

Q.197 Which of the following is NOT a common element used to define management?

(a) Values, policy, and strategy (b) Achievement of goals/objectives

(c) Limited resources (d) With and through people

Q.198 Which of the following is NOT a step in the classic model of decision making?

(a) Generating alternatives (b) Managing technology

(c) Evaluating alternatives (d) Problem statement/framing the problem

Q.199 The primary responsibility for any administrator when dealing with risk management should be to:

(a) require parents to sign waivers for all negligent as well as intentional actions

(b) use vague and unclear language in the waivers so that the waiver can be applied to all

situations

(c) inform his or her staff of the risks and dangers inherent in their profession

(d) cancel the usage of all waivers as they are unenforceable

Q.200 Sales promotions in sport sponsorships are designed to:

(a) drive sales over the long term (b) stimulate immediate product demand

(c) acquire customer loyalty among young fans (d) be long-term promotional Activities


Or

PHYSICAL EDUCATION PEDAGOGY

Q.201 SSST stands for

(a) Simulated school students training (b) Simulated students school training

(c) Simulated social skill training (d) School students skill training

Q.202 In an overhead projector, the following is used:

(a) Short film strips (b) A chart is projected on a screen

(c) Transparent plates with dark ink are used (d) Recording of a clipping can be used

Q.203 Micro teaching is a

(a) Technique (b) Teaching method

(c) All the above (d) None of the above

Q.204 Arrange the following teaching process in order

(i) relating the present knowledge with the previous knowledge

(ii) evaluation

(iii) reteaching

(iv) formulating objectives

(v) preseritation of materials

Answer the questions below

(a) (i)(ii)(iii)(iv)(v) (b) (ii)(i)(iii)(iv)(v)

(c) (v)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii) (d) (iv)(i)(v)(ii)(iii)

Q.205 Which type of material is projected by:

Column 1 Column 2

A. Epidiascope (i) Two-way broadcast system in which learners can interact

B. Over Head Projector (OHP) (ii) Transparencies, drawing, figure and outlines etc. Can be

shown on the screen.

C. Television (iii) Heightens the reality more than the physical presence.

D. Teleconferencing (iv) Transparent or non-transparent (opaque)

Codes :

(a) (i) (ii)(iv)(iii) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(c) (iv) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iii)


Q.206 To maintain momentum in the classroom, the best thing a teacher can do is:

(a) To provide frequent breaks in the lesson, keeping task engagement high

(b) To have all the lesson materials prepared in advance

(c) To walk around and engage the students in their work.

(d) To avoid interruptions or slowdowns, keeping task engagement high.

Q.207 Methods used to organize classroom activities and instruction, creating a happy and productive

learning environment are known as:

(a) classroom management (b) lesson planning

(c) methods of loci (d) cooperative learning

Q.208 In simulated teacher training, the following process is adopted:

(a) Student-teacher delivers the lesson to a very small group of (5-6) students

(b) Student-teacher delivers the lesson to a small group of his peers.

(c) Teacher educator or supervisor is not present

(d) None of the above

Q.209 The principle of progression, so important in sports training, make us realize the need for

(a) Gradual increase in load (b) Exercise load management

(c) Appropriate methodology (d) Proper rest and recovery

Q.210 The two major components of load are :

(a) Specificity and volume (b) Intensity and volume

(c) Intensity and progression (d) Continuity and recovery

Q.211 The total work done in a training session is termed as

(a) Volume (b) Intensity

(c) Frequency (d) Density

Q.212 What is the central core of circuit training?

(a) Exercise intensity (b) Exercise density

(c) Exercise volume (d) Exercise continuity

Q.213 A classic demonstration of explosive strength can be seen in a/an

(a) Gymnast's arm hand (b) Shot-putter in action

(c) Soccer player chipping the ball (d) Archer drawing the bow

Q.214 A long term training plan may spread over

(a) One year (b) 2-3 years

(c) 3 to 5 years or even more (d) Endless time


Q.215 Build-up competitions are also known by the name of

(a) Simulated competitions (b) Principal competitions

(c) Major competitions (d) Training competitions

Q.216 Which of the following is not among the principles of lesson planning?

(a) Age & Sex (b) Progression

(c) Warming Up (d) Teaching Experience

Q.217 The most effective method of teaching physical education activities is ........

(a) Trial & Error method (b) Demonstration method

(c) Imitation method (d) Mirror method

Q.218 The effectiveness of teaching can be evaluated by :

(a) Liberty to the students (b) Better discipline

(c) Good results (d) Impact on the students

Q.219 Arrange sequentially the steps of good lesson presentation from the following lists :

List-I List-II

i. Greetings, Attendance & Introduction 1. Introductory part

ii. Observation & Supervision 2. Main Part

iii. Summarization 3. Recreation and Lead Up

iv. Demonstration & Explanation 4. Concluding part

Codes :

i ii iii iv

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 2 4 1

Q.220 Select the correct option

The total amount of time dedicated to training by a group of athletes/team during a specific

training lesson or phase of training is referred as :

(a) Absolute volume (b) Absolute intensity

(c) Relative volume (d) Relative intensity

Q.221 Sociogram is a tool to measure :

(a) Cooperation (b) Team satisfaction

(c) Task orientation (d) Affiliation and attraction among group

members


Q.222 Some of the communicational methods are :

I. Interview II. Lecture

III. Conference IV. Manual gesture

Among the above methods, oral communication includes :

(a) II, III, IV (b) I, II, III

(c) III, IV, II (d) IV, I, II

Q.223 Curriculum planning should be based on :

I. Understanding of the learning process

II. Recreational value of programme

III. Influences from society and culture

IV. Leadership ability

Codes :

(a) I, II (b) III, IV

(c) I, III (d) II, IV

Q.224 Cognitive skills to develop cognitive ability are :

I. Knowing difference between feeling and action.

II. Reading and interpreting social cues.

III. A positive attitude to life.

IV. Communicating through facial expressiveness.

Find the correct combination.

Codes :

(a) I & II (b) III & IV

(c) I & IV (d) II & III

Q.225 Leadership is a behavioural process which focuses on :

(a) Developing and maintaining good relationship.

(b) Influencing individuals and group towards set goals

(c) Situational characteristics of the group

(d) Setting goals & getting the job done.

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education. Gwalior

PH.D. ENTRANCE TEST . AUGUST 2016

ANSWER KEY

Q.1 (b)

Q.2 (a)

Q.3 (b)

Q.4 (c)

Q.5 (b)

Q.6 (b)

Q.7 (b)

Q.8 (b)

Q.e (a)

Q.10 (d)

Q.11 (a)

Q.12 (b)

Q.13 (a)

Q.14 (d)

Q.1s (b)

Q.16 (b)

Q.17 (a)

Q.18 (a)

Q.1e (b)

Q.20 (b)

Q.2l (a)

Q.22 (c)

Q.23 (a)

Q.24 (c)

Q.2s (d)

Q.26 (b)

Q.27 (d)

Q.28 (c)

Q.2e (d)

Q.30 (d)

Q.31 (c)

Q.32 (a)

Q.33 (a)

Q.34 (c)

Q.3s (d)

Q.36 (c)

Q.37 (a)

Q.38 (c)

Q.3e (b)

Q.40 (c)

Q.41 (b)

Q.42 (b)

Q.43 (a)

Q.44 (c)

Q.45 (c)

Q.46 (b)

Q.47 (b)

Q.48 (b)

Q.4e (a)

Q.s0 (a)

Q.51 (b)

Q.s2 (b)

Q.53 (d)

Q.s4 (b)

Q.ss (c)

Q.s6 (c)

Q.57 (d)

Q.s8 (d)

Q.se (b)

Q.60 (b)

Q.61 (b)

Q.62 (c)

Q.63 (d)

Q.64 (d)

Q.6s (c)

Q.66 (b)

Q.67 (b)

Q.68 (a)

Q.6e (c)

Q,70 (b)

Q.71 (b)

Q.72 (a)

Q.73 (a)

Q.74 (b)

Q.7s (d)

Q.76 (b)

Q.77 (d)

Q.78 (d)

Q.7e (d)

Q.80 (d)

Q.81 (c)

Q.82 (b)

Q.83 (a)

Q.84 (b)

Q.85 (a)

Q.86 (b)

Q.87 (b)

Q.88 (b)

Q.8e (c)

Q.e0 (c)

Q.e1 (d)

Q.e2 (c)

Q.e3 (b)

Q.e4 (d)

Q.es (b)

Q.e6 (c)

Q.e7 (c)

Q.e8 (b)

Q.ee (b)

Q.100 (c)

Lakshmibai National Institute of Phvsical Education" Gwalior

o.101 ft)o.102 (c)

o.103 (d)U.IUZ+ (Dl

o.l0s (b)o.106 (b)

o.107 (a)

o.108 (c)

o.109 (d)

o.110 (b)

Q.ll1 (a)

Q.112 (b)

Q.1i3 (c)

o.114 (a)

o.1ts (b)

Q.116 (b)

Q.117 (d)Q.118 (b)Q.119 (b)Q.i20 (a)

o.121 (a)

o.122 (d)

Q.123 (a)

o.r24 (b)

Q.12s (c)

F xercise PhvsiolosvQ.126 (c)

o.127 (a)

Q.128 (a)

Q.r29 (c)

Q.130 (a)

Q.131 (a)

Q.132 (a)

Q.133 (d)

o.r34 (b)o.135 (a)

Q.136 (c)

Q.137 (d)o.138 (a)

o.139 (a)

Q.140 (c)

o.141 (b)

Q.142 (d)

Q.143 (a)

o.r44 ft)

o 45 (c)

o 46 (d)

o 47 (d)

o 48 (c)

t, +Y (a)

o 50 (d)

o.1s1 (c)

o.t52 (d)

o.153 (a)

o.154 (b)

Q.1ss (d)

o.1s6 (c)

o.157 (c)

o.158 (a)

o.159 (d)

Q.160 (a)

o.161 (c)

Q.162 (d)

o.163 (b)

Q.164 (c)

o.l6s (b)

o.166 (d)

Q.167 (a)

o.168 (a)

o.169 (b)

o.170 (c)

o.171 (b)

Q.r72 (a)

o.173 (c)

Q.174 ft)o.17s (c)

Sports M t,:ta

Q.r76 (c)

Q.177 (a)

o.178 (d)

Q.179 (a)

o.180 (c)

o.181 (a)

o.182 (d)

o.183 (c)

o.184 (b)

o.185 (a)

o.186 (d)

o.187 (d)

o.l 88 (d)

o.189 (c)

o.190 (d)o.191 ft)o.192 (a)

U.I YJ (c)

o.r94 ft)o.19s (a)

o.196 (a)

o.r97 (a)

o.198 (b)

o.199 (c)

o.200 ft)

o.201 (c)

o.202 (c)

o.203 (a)

Q.204 (a)

o.205 ft)Q.206 (d)

v.zv I (a)

Q.208 (b)o.209 (d)

o.2r0 ft)o.2r1 (a)

Q.2r2 (d)o.213 (b)

Q.214 (c)

o.21s rd)Q.216 (d)o.2r7 (b)

o.218 (d)

o.2t9 (b)Q.220 (c)

Q.221 (d)

Q.222 (b)o.223 (c)

Q.224 (d)o.225 (b)

aoa

Lakshmibai National Institute of Phvsical Education. Gwalior

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