prepking 920-245 exam questions

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Exam : Nortel 920-245

Title : Ethernet Switching

Version : R6.1



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1. Which three switches support auto Media Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI/MDIX)? (Choose three.)

A. Ethernet Switch 425

B. Ethernet Switch 450

C. Ethernet Switch 460

D. Ethernet Switch 470

E. Ethernet Routing Switch 5510

Answer: ADE

2. Which Ethernet Routing Switch QoS feature ensures that the lower six egress queues are serviced in a

fair, yet weighted manner?

A. WRR

B. WFQ

C. DSCP

D. TCP/UDP

Answer: A

3. Which route type in the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 routing table provides additional routes for faster

convergence in case of network/link failures?

A. best

B. direct

C. MPLS

D. ECMP

Answer: D

4. Which actions should be performed during a configuration of a QoS policy for a trusted interface?

A. drop traffic to a port

B. change of DSCP value

C. modification of 802.1p value

D. alteration of the drop precedence

Answer: A

5. Given the conditions:

Left LED - greenRight LED - flashing green

On an Ethernet Routing Switch 8648TXE/M 10/100 Ethernet I/O module, what is the status of a port that is

displaying the LED conditions described above?

A. Link speed is 10 Mbps and the port is disabled.

B. Link speed is 100 Mbps and the port is disabled.

C. Link speed is 10 Mbps and the port is passing traffic.



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D. Link speed is 100 Mbps and the port is passing traffic.

Answer: D

6. A customer with an Ethernet Switch 470-24T wants to configure MAC address-based security. Given that

they can create up to 10 MAC Destination Addresses (DA) to filter, how are all packets with specified DAs

treated?

A. All packets with specified DAs are dropped.

B. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on ingress port.

C. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on VLAN membership.

D. All packets with specified DAs are dropped based on source address intrusion.

Answer: A

7. If one Multi Link Trunk is being used, how many fewer VLANs would be available on the Ethernet Routing

Switch 8600?

A. 1

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: C

8. You have installed a new Ethernet Switch 460-24T into a customer's network and are using the QoS

Wizard to configure the QoS settings for various IP traffic flows. Which two IP applications can you directly

choose in the QoS Wizard to prioritize inbound frames based on traffic type? (Choose two.)

A. E-mail (SMTP)

B. File Transfer (FTP)

C. Multicasting (IGMP)

D. Trivial File Transfer (TFTP)

E. Network Management (SNMP)

Answer: AB

9. In the event of a network failure, a customer requires that an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) interface

detect the failure within 30 seconds. Which Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 Command Line Interface (CLI)

command must be used to ensure a network failure is detected in the required amount of time?A. config vlan <vid> ip ospf metric 30

B. config vlan <vid> ip ospf priority 30

C. config vlan <vid> ip ospf hello-interval 30

D. config vlan <vid> ip ospf dead-interval 30

Answer: D

10. An Ethernet Switch 450-24T will be added to an existing stack of two Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts. The



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software Release running on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T is compatible with the software Release running

on the Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts. To complete the stack creation successfully, which two configuration

changes are necessary? (Choose two.)

A. Set the Unit Select switch on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T to the "Off" position.

B. Set the Unit Select switch on the Ethernet Switch 450-24T to "Base" ("On" position).

C. Set the Stack Mode for all Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts to Hybrid and then reset the stack.

D. Cable the Ethernet Switch 450-24T into the stack, power off all units, and then power up the stack.

E. Set the Stack Mode for the Base Ethernet Switch 470-24T to Hybrid and leave the other Ethernet Switch

470-24T as Pure.

Answer: AC

11. Click the exhibit button.

Given the following Ethernet Switch 325-24T configuration:

VLAN 10 is a port-based VLAN.

Port 1 is an untagged member of VLAN 10.

Port 5 is a tagged member of VLAN 10.

The device on Port 1 transmits an untagged frame to the device on Port 5.

How will an untagged frame be treated when it reaches Port 5 on this switch?



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A. It will be discarded when it is received.

B. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted

out Port 5 with Priority 2.

C. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 6. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted


D. It will be placed in a hardware-based queue based on Priority 2. Then it will be tagged, and transmitted


Answer: C

12. Which two statements are true regarding Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) Backup?

(Choose two.)

A. It must advertise its presence to the network.

B. It must not accept packets addressed to the IP address(s) associated with the virtual router.

C. It must discard packets with a destination Media Access Control (MAC) equal to the virtual router MAC.

D. It must respond to Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for address(s) associated with the virtual

router.

Answer: BC

13. What is an advantage of using Independent VLAN Learning (IVL) mode over Shared VLAN Learning

(SVL) mode on an Ethernet Switch 460-24T-PWR?

A. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can be disabled.

B. More MAC addresses can be stored with unique forwarding databases.

C. Duplicate MAC addresses can be handled if they are in different VLANs.

D. The port forwarding rate will be greater with unique forwarding databases.

Answer: C

14. You need to add a new port on an Ethernet Routing Switch 5510 that will support a new server to an

existing VLAN that is a member of an existing Spanning Tree Group (STG). Which action(s) should you

perform to accomplish this task?

A. Add the port to the VLAN.

B. Add the port to the VLAN and then manually add the port to the STG.

C. Disable the STG, add the port to the VLAN, and then enable the STG.D. Remove the VLAN from the STG, add the port to the VLAN, and then add the VLAN to the STG.

Answer: B

15. When can you obtain and load an image from an external TFTP server through one of the I/O ports?

A. When you invoke the boot (ip address)/<file> command from the Device Manager.

B. When you configure the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 to boot from the network, then reset.

C. When you invoke the boot (ip address):<file> command from the Command Line Interface (CLI).



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D. When you configure the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 to boot from the network, then recycle power.

Answer: C

16. Assume that Nortel devices are at both ends of a gigabit Ethernet fiber link. What is the condition under

which the Single Fiber Fault Detection (SFFD) feature should be enabled for Ethernet Switch 470?

A. When both ports making up the link are implemented using the Ethernet Switch 450 MDA.

B. When both of the ports making up the link are implemented using the Ethernet Switch 470 Gigabit ports.

C. When at least one of the ports making up the link is implemented using the Ethernet Switch 470 Gigabit

port.

D. When at least one of the ports making up the link is implemented using the Ethernet Switch 450 Gigabit

MDA.

Answer: C

17. A company has a stack of four Ethernet Switch 450-24Ts with a 1000 Mbps uplink configured in a

Distributed MultiLink Trunk (DMLT) to an Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 at the network core. By adding a

Business Policy Switch (BPS) to the stack and connecting the uplink to the BPS, what additional capability

will this stack have?

A. The ability to manage the entire stack through a web interface.

B. The ability to group the MLT in a Distributed MLT for improved redundancy.

C. The ability to provide failsafe stacking for the entire stack for improved resiliency.

D. The ability to manage the entire stack with Ethernet Switching Element Manager.

E. The ability to mark the Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) in packets going back to the core.

Answer: A

18. Click the exhibit button.

The exhibit shows VLANs spanning two Ethernet Routing Switch 5510/5520s. Both port 14 on S1 and port

13 on S2, identified by the red arrow, are tagged members of VLAN 1 and VLAN 2.

How is this configured?

A. By enabling 802.1Q tagging on both port 14 of S1 and port 13 of S2.

B. This VLAN configuration is incorrect and must be configured differently to work.

C. Tagging is automatically configured because port 13 of S2 is already in VLAN 1.

D. By ensuring that the tagging checkbox is checked on the configuration screens for VLAN 1 and VLAN 2.Answer: A

19. How do you change an IP address on the Ethernet Routing Switch 8600?

A. use the VLAN Manager

B. delete and recreate the IP address

C. reset the switch, then configure the address again

D. run the ipchange command from the Command Line Interface (CLI)



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Answer: B

20. A new network of Ethernet Switch 470-24Ts is being deployed. When defining an IEEE 802.1Q VLAN

group of ports (workgroup) using one of the switch interfaces, why would you define a port as tagged?

A. To allow the port to be added to a MultiLink Trunk (MLT) group.

B. To allow multiple VLANs without the need to use multiple physical links.

C. To allow servers to connect to a switch that is a member of multiple VLANs.

D. To allow the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to be disabled if multiple links are defined.

Answer: B

21. Given the following information:

A customer has an Ethernet Switch 470-48T stack that is connected to a file server via two 100 Mbps

connections that are arranged in a MultiLink Trunk (MLT).

They want to increase the throughput and redundancy provided in this connection from the file server to

the Ethernet Switch 470-48T stack.

Given that the customer has additional slots in their server, which configuration change should you make to

this connection to meet their needs?

A. six 100 Mbps connections defined in a SMLT

B. six 100 Mbps connections defined in a DMLT

C. four 100 Mbps connections defined in an MLT

D. four 100 Mbps connections defined in a SMLT

E. four 100 Mbps connections defined in a DMLT

Answer: E

22. Which statement is true when RADIUS is implemented?

A. Authentication (console/telnet) is completed first on the switch.

B. If no server answers, the switch itself must reject authentication attempts.

C. If a server rejects authentication, no local authentication is made on the switch.

D. If a server rejects authentication, local authentication by the switch itself can authenticate a user.

Answer: C

23. A customer would like to configure an IP address for an existing VLAN on an Ethernet Routing Switch

5510. Which Command Line Interface (CLI) commands correctly describe the process?A. From the initial CLI prompt, enter privilege mode, enter config mode, enter the command, "ip address"

with the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.

B. From the initial CLI prompt, enter config mode, enter config-if mode for the VLAN interface. Enter the

command, "ip address" with the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.

C. From the initial CLI prompt, enter privilege mode, enter config-if mode for the VLAN interface. Enter the

command, "ip address" with the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.



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Answer: B

28. You have specified a trap receiver to be used for Web-based management under Configuration | SNMP

Trap Receiver. Which type of SNMP traps can be sent to the trap destination?

A. SNMP v1

B. SNMP v3

C. SNMP v1 and v3

D. SNMP v1, v2 and v3

Answer: A

29. Your customer is configuring the host-specific parameters of an Ethernet Routing Switch 8600 system,

and wants to set the parameters for the information to be logged into the log file. Which command will allow

parameters to be set for host 1?

A. config syslog host 1

B. config/syslog/host/1

C. config/sys/syslog/host/1

D. config sys syslog host 1

Answer: D

30. To monitor the performance of an Ethernet switched network, why would you use Enterprise Network

Management System OmniView instead of Java Device Manager (JDM)?

A. OmniView supports RMON while JDM does not.

B. JDM is incapable of supporting the Business Policy Switch while OmniView supports it.

C. JDM works with individual network components while OmniView works with subnets and LAN segments.

D. OmniView can present statistics in both graphical and tabular formats while JDM only supports tabular

formats.

Answer: C

31. Given the following information:

An Ethernet Switch 460-24T-PWR is being installed.

The switch will be fully populated with all devices requiring Power over Ethernet (PoE).

The switch has been connected to both internal and external power sources.

The switch will be configured through web-based management.Once you access the Ethernet Switch 460 via the BS460_24T_PWR(config)#poe poe-dc-source command,

which configuration will provide the most power to supply PoE to the connected devices?

A. nes - Set DC power source from NES

B. rpsu - Set DC power source from the rpsu

C. unit - Set power pairs of another unit in a stack

D. Ethernet 10 - Set DC power source from Ethernet 10



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