pro. dima darwish, md. - learning.hccs.edu

Anatomy and Physiology 1 Final Exam Review

Pro. Dima Darwish, MD.

1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?

a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm

b) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles

c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus

d) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles

2) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and

binding to hormones and neurotransmitters?

a) transporters

b) receptors

c) enzymes

d) linkers

3) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move

easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.

a) selectively permeable

b) concentration graded

c) electrically graded

d) selectively soluble

4) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive

substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.

a) active transport

b) facilitated diffusion

c) passive diffusion

d) osmosis

5) Which of the following transport process uses secretory vesicles formed in

Golgi complex to release their contents out of the cell membrane into the

extracellular space ?

.

a) endocytosis

b) exocytosis

c) facilitated diffusion

d) osmosis

6) Spermatozoa is the only type of human cell that contains a ________, which is a

whip-like structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte.

a) cilium

b) flagellum

c) mitochondria

d) centrosome

7) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and

packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell?

a) endoplasmic reticulum

b) Golgi complex

c) peroxisomes

d) nucleus

8) The major function of mitochondria is to

a) move the cell.

b) generate ATP.

c) produce proteins.

d) oxidize organelles

9) This structure binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it

is incorporated into a polypeptide chain during translation.

a) mRNA

b) rRNA

c) tRNA

d) DNA

10) During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation

and subsequent migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles

of the cells. The cleavage furrow also begins to develop during this phase.

a) interphase

b) prophase

c) metaphase

d) anaphase

11) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical

across a plasma membrane?

a) concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane

b) mass of the diffusing chemical

c) distance that the chemical has to diffuse

d) amount of ATP available

e) temperature

12) A patient would be infused with a _______ solution in order to ultimately

relieve excess interstitial fluid in the brain.

a) tonicity

b) isotonic

c) hypertonic

d) hemolytic

13) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?

a) Golgi complex

b) lysosome

c) ribosomes

d) mitochondrion

14) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several

oxidases that are involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during

normal metabolism and in detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver?

a) peroxisomes

b) mitochondria

c) proteasome

d) ribosomes

15) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome

replication begins.

a) interphase

b) prophase

c) metaphase

d) anaphase

e) telophase

16)Mitosis is:

a) somatic cell division

b) produces two identical cells

c) with the same number (diploid) and kinds of chromosomes as the original cell.

d) reproductive cell (gametes) division that produces cells in which the number of

chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced in half (haploid)

17)Phagocytosis is the mechanism of action of this cell of the immune system to

protect from microbes:

a)Natural killers

b)B lymphocytes

c) T lymphocytes

d) Macrophages

18) The three types of subatomic particles that are important for understanding

chemical reactions in the human body are

a) neutrons, quarks, and muons.

b) protons, neutrons, and electrons.

c) muons, positons, and neutrons.

d) electrons, quarks, and protons.

19) This is the name given to a positively charged atom.

a) superoxide

b) isotope

c) anion

d) cation

20) This type of chemical reaction will release more energy than it absorbes.

a) exergonic

b) endergonic

c) potential

d) kinetic

21) An enzyme acts to

a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.

b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.

c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.

d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy

22) The human blood is

a) neutral.

b) acidic.

c) alkaline.

23) Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of

energy in muscle and liver cells?

a) glucose

b) sucrose

c) lactose

d) glycogen

24) Which of the following is the major function of DNA?

a) catalyzes metabolic reactions

b) storage of energy

c) transfer information for protein synthesis

d) long-term storage of information for protein synthesis

25) Loss of protein structure as in fried eggs is called:

a) emulsification.

b) denaturation.

c) hydrogenation.

d) hydrolysis.

26) Na + Cl → Nacl is a general example of a(n) _____ reaction.

a) decomposition

b) synthesis

c) exchange

d) reversible

27)The basic units of nucleic acids are nucleotides, composed of

a) nitrogenous base

b)deoxyribose is the pentose sugar in RNA

c) phosphate.

d) pentose sugar

28) This is the study of the body structures.

a) anatomy

b) physiology

c) endocrinology

d) histology

29) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.

a) metabolism

b) anabolism

c) catabolism

d) auscultation

30) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the

a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems.

b) nervous and endocrine systems.

c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems.

d) respiratory and muscular systems.

31) The composition of this body fluid, which fills the narrow spaces between cells

and tissues.

a) lymph

b) blood plasma

c) interstitial fluid

d) intracellular fluid

32) This is the structure of a feedback system that sends input to the control center.

a) receptor

b) stimulus

c) response

d) effector

33) Objective changes in a patient’s normal body function that can be directly

observed or measured by a clinician are referred to as

a) symptoms.

b) disorders.

c) disturbance.

d) signs.

34) This plane divides the body into equal right and left portions.

a) frontal

b) sagittal

c) transverse

d) oblique

35) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?

a) pelvic

b) umbilical

c) iguinal

d) otic

36) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the

reflection of high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus

during pregnancy?

a) computed tomography

b) magnetic resonance imaging

c) ultrasound scanning

d) radionuclide scanning

37) Which of these regions contains the gall bladder?

a) Right lumbar

b) Right hypochondriac

c) Left inguinal

d) Epigastric

38) Epithelial tissue

a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.

b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.

c) is used to form glands.

d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.

e) All of these Answer choices are correct.

39) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.

a) Simple squamous epithelium

b) Simple cuboidal epithelium

c) Stratified squamous epithelium

d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

e) Simple columnar epithelium

40) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?

a) Bone

b) Blood

c) Cartilage

d) Tendons

e) Muscle

41) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of this type of

connective tissue.

a) Adipose tissue

b) Elastic cartilage

c) Fibrocartilage

d) Dense irregular connective tissue

42) Which following types of cells are able to produce electrical signals?

a) myofibers and neurons

b) myofibers and connective tissue cells

c) neuroglial cells and neurons

d) neurons and epithelial cells

43) Which of the following is a term used to describe a decrease in the size of a

tissue that is the result of an decrease in the size, not number, of cells in that tissue?

a) atrophy

b) hyperplasia

c) hypertrophy

d) anaplasia

44) These cells found distributed among different types of connective tissue that

produce collagen fibers are called

a) fibroblasts.

b) macrophages.

c) goblet cells.

d) mast cells.

45) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues?

a) Cells are tightly packed together.

b) Large amount of extracellular matrix.

c) Contains no blood vessels within tissue.

d) Found on the exposed surfaces of the body.

46) The thin extracellular layer, consisting of the basal and reticular lamina, that

anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue is called the

a) basement membrane.

b) tunica adventitia.

c) tight junction.

d) adherens junctions.

47) These type of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and keeps material

from leaking out of the stomach:

a) tight junctions

b) gap junctions

c) adherens junctions

d) desmosomes

48) In which of the following locations would you most likely find transitional

epithelial cells?

a) Lining of the esophagus

b) Outer layer of skin

c) Lining of the urinary bladder

d) On the surface of the heart

49) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part

attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.

a) Simple coiled tubular gland

b) Compound tubular gland

c) Compound tuboloacinar gland

d) Simple branched acinar gland

50) This type of exocrine gland bud their secretion off the plasma membrane such

as mammelary glands.

a) Apocrine

b) Exocrine

c) Holocrine

d) All of these Answer choices are correct.

51) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?

a) Blood

b) trabecular bone

c) Areolar connective tissue

d) Elastic connective tissue

52) Which of the following types of tissues is striated and moves under voluntary

control?

a) skeletal muscle

b) smooth muscle

c) cardiac muscle

d) transitional epithelium

53) Mucus-secreting cells found distributed among the simple columnar epithelial

linings of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system are called

a) fibroblasts.

b) macrophages.

c) goblet cells.

d) mast cells.

54) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of

a) enzymes and membranous organelles.

b) plasma membranes and ground substance.

c) keratinized cells and protein fibers.

d) protein fibers and ground substance.

55) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular

matrix of connective tissue?

a) Elastic

b) Reticular

c) Collagen

d) All of these Answer choices are correct.

56) A neuron’s function is:

a) pumping of blood

b) propulsion of food

c) contraction of bladder

d) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers

57)This muscle is an example of nonstriated involuntary muscle :

a) biceps

b) stomache

c) heart

d) all of the above

58) Electrical signals called ________ travel along the plasma membrane of a

neuron and stimulate the release of chemicals called ___________ that are then

used to communicate with other cells.

a) action potentials; neurotransmitters

b) action potentials; hormones

c) action potentials; cytokines

d) threshold potentials; cytokines

59)Langerhans cell

a) is a protein.

b) is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.

c) is made by melanocytes only.

d) participate in immune response against microbes

e) All of these choices are correct.

60) This pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing

ultraviolet light.

a) Keratin

b) Melanin

c) Melatonin

d) Carotene

e) Collagen

61) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,

which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.

a) stratum basale

b) stratum spinosum

c) stratum granulosum

d) stratum lucidum

e) stratum corneum

62) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and

inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

a) Arrector pili

b) Lunula

c) Sweat glands

d) Hair follicles

e) Oil glands

63) Which of the following substances is responsible for the yellowing of the skin

a) hirsutism

b) pallor

c) jaundice

d) bilirubin

e) erythema

64) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential layers (or strata) of the epidermis

that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis.

a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum

b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale

c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale

d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale

e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale

65) the skin contributes to:

a)Regulation of body temperature

b)Sensory perceptions

c)Synthesis of vitamin C

d) It also serves as an important reservoir of blood.

66) The process of keratinization involves

a) synthesizing new pigment in the skin.

b) cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.

c) changes occurring in thin skin only.

d) both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough

fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.

67) Characteristics of thick skin include:

a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.

b) Does not contain hair follicles.

c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.

d) Contain epidermal ridges.

e) All of these choices are correct

68) This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.

a) Alopecia

b) Vellus

c) Lanugo

d) Papilla

69) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a

hair follicle.

a) Sebaceous gland

b) Sudoriferous gland

c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland

d) None of these answers are correct

70) Which of the following terms refers to redness of the skin such as seen in

patients with inflammation, infection or heat exposure?

a) hirsutism

b) pallor

c) jaundice

d) erythema

71) Which of the following skin disorders involves inflammation of sebaceous

glands caused by bacteria which thrive in the lipid-rich sebum?

a) alopecia

b) acne

c) vitiligo

d) pressure ulcer

72) “Goose bumps” are caused by

a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.

b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.

c) contraction of dermal papillae.

d) stimulation of hair root plexus.

73) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?

a) Hairless.

b) Contains a stratum lucidum.

c) High density of sensory receptors.

d) Presence of sebaceous glands.

e) Contains epidermal ridges.

74) Which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin

develop from?

a) Endoderm

b) Ectoderm

c) Mesoderm

d) All of these choices are correct.

75) Which of the following about the deep wound healing is NOT true ?

a) Blood clot is forming.

b). New collagen fibers are forming

c) Epithelium is migrating across wound.

d) This process is limited by the epithelium

76) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?

A) body support

B) calcium homeostasis

C) protection of internal organs

D) blood cell production

E) All of the answers are correct.

77) ________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.

A) A synovial membrane

B) Elastic cartilage

C) A serous membrane

D) Articular cartilage

E) Serous fluid

78) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are

called

A) central canals.

B) lacunae.

C) canaliculi.

D) medullary cavities.

E) foramina.

79) The structural units of mature compact bone are called

A) trabeculae.

B) osteocytes.

C) osteons.

D) canaliculi.

E) lamellae.

80) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the

A) endosteum.

B) ectosteum.

C) cortical membrane.

D) periosteum.

E) osteoid collar

81) This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis to grow in length.

a) periosteum

b) distal epiphysis

c) nutrient foramen

d) articular cartilage

e) epiphyseal plate

82) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized

stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?

a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes

b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes

c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts

d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes

83) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called

A) osteolytic cells.

B) osteoclasts.

C) osteoblasts.

D) osteocytes.

E) osteogenic cells.

84) This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in

children.

a) open

b) comminuted

c) impacted

d) greenstick

85) An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?

a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone

b) calcitonin and calcitriol

c) human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone

d) parathyroid hormone and insulin

86) The general process by which bones form is called

a) ossification.

b) osteomalacia.

c) calcification.

d) apposition.

87) These are considered bone-breaking cells.

a) fibroblasts

b) osteoclasts

c) osteocytes

d) osteoblasts

e) all of these choices

88) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that

occur during intramembranous ossification?

a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae >

Development of new periosteum.

b) Calcification > Cartilage model > Formation of trabeculae > Development of

new periosteum.

c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification >

Development of new cartilage.

d) Cartilage model > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of

trabeculae.

89) The process of new bone tissue formation.

A) phosphorylation

B) resorption

C) ossification

D) osteopropagation

E) remodeling

90) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called

A) restoration.

B) osteolysis.

C) resorption.

D) ossification.

E) remodeling.

91) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair?

1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone.

2. A hematoma occurs.

3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury.

4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 2, 1, 3, 4

C) 3, 1, 4, 2

D) 4, 2, 3, 1

E) 2, 3, 1, 4

92) A lack of exercise could

A) cause bones to become thicker.

B) cause bones to store more calcium.

C) result in porous and weak bones.

D) cause bones to become longer.

E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity

93) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-

related disease be prevented?

A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat.

B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair.

C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C.

D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair.

E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.

94) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton

B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk

C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration

D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord


95) The external auditory meatus is located in which bone?

A) occipital

B) maxillary

C) sphenoid

D) temporal

E) parietal

96) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two

bones?

A) temporal and maxilla

B) frontal and temporal

C) sphenoid and temporal

D) zygomatic and maxilla

E) temporal and zygomatic

97) Which of these is not one of the facial bones?

A) frontal

B) maxilla

C) vomer

D) mandible

E) zygomatic

98) The keystone of the skull bone is the

A) maxilla.

B) crista galli.

C) sphenoid.

D) ethmoid.

E) cribriform

99) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in

A) a long and narrow head.

B) a very broad head.

C) an unusually small head.

D) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.

E) death.

100) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks

misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not

surprised to learn that he has a broken

A) temporal bone.

B) zygomatic bone.

C) mandible.

D) external auditory meatus.

E) clavicle.

101) The large foramen that is surrounded by the occipital bone and serves as a

passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the

A) foramen lacerum.

B) foramen rotundum.

C) carotid canal.

D) jugular foramen.

E) foramen magnum.

102) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the

A) frontal.

B) ethmoid.

C) sphenoid.

D) maxillae.

E) zygomatic.

103) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)

A) making the skull lighter.

B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.

C) increasing surface area for gas exchange.

D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange.

E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the

air.

104) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between

A) the mandible and the cranium.

B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.

C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.

D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.

E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone.

105) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your

neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had

complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea

lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she

A) checks the anterior fontanel for depression.

B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper.

C) checks the infant's reflexes.

D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits.

E) weighs the infant.

106) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termed

A) kyphosis.

B) lordosis.

C) scoliosis.

D) gomphosis.

E) mentosis.

107) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult?

A) lumbar region

B) sacral region

C) coccygeal region

D) thoracic

E) sacral and coccygeal regions

108) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence

of

A) transverse processes.

B) transverse foramina.

C) facets for the articulation of ribs.

D) notched spinous processes.

E) costal cartilages.

109) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it

A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.

B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.

C) articulates with the pelvic bones.

D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.

E) articulates with the coccyx.

110) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical

vertebrae?

A) atlas

B) axis

C) vertebra prominens

D) both the atlas and the axis

E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens

111) Sinus inflammation is called

A) sinusitis.

B) asthma.

C) congestion.

D) postnasal drip.

E) All of the above.

112) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton

is where the

A) clavicle articulates with the humerus.

B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

C) coxal bones articulate with the femur.

D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.

E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.

113) The clavicle articulates with the scapula

A) laterally with the coracoid process.

B) laterally with the glenoid cavity.

C) laterally with the acromion.

D) laterally with the manubrium.

E) medially with the coracoid cavity.

114) Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle?

A) clavicles only

B) clavicles and scapulae

C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus

D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna

E) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones

115) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which

two bones?

A) humerus and ulna

B) scapula and humerus

C) clavicle and scapula

D) clavicle and humerus

E) clavicle and sternum

116) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.

A) distal

B) proximal

C) medial

D) superior

E) lateral

117) The condyle of the humerus consists of the

A) medial and lateral epicondyles.

B) trochlea and olecranon fossa.

C) capitulum and trochlea.

D) head and neck.

E) capitulum and coronoid process

118) Which of the following surface features occur on the ulna?

A) olecranon

B) styloid process

C) trochlear notch

D) radial notch


119) The head of the radius articulates with the

A) trochlea.

B) capitulum.

C) carpals.

D) olecranon process.

E) styloid process.

120)The distal end of the ulna articulates with:

A) lunate

B) hamate

C) humerus

D) metatarsals

E) phalanges

121) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?

A) sacrum

B) coccyx

C) coxal bone

D) lumbar vertebrae

E) pubic symphysis

122) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?

A) sacrum

B) femur

C) humerus

D) tibia

E) fibula

123) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the

A) ischial tuberosities.

B) posterior inferior iliac spines.

C) iliac crests.

D) obturator foramina.

E) inferior rami of the pubis.

124) The largest component of the coxal bone is the

A) pubis.

B) ischium.

C) ilium.

D) femur.

E) tibia.

125) Each coxal bone consists of which of the following three fused bones?

A) ulna, radius, and humerus

B) ilium, ischium, and pubis

C) femur, tibia, and fibula

D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium

E) femur, patella, and tibia

126) The sacrum articulates with the

A) ilium.

B) ischium.

C) pubis.

D) ilium and ischium.

E) ischium and pubis.

127) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the

A) talus.

B) fibula.

C) patella.

D) calcaneus.

E) coxal bone.

128) The lateral malleolus is found on the

A) femur.

B) tibia.

C) fibula.

D) patella.

E) calcaneus.

129) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by

the

A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus.

B) talus and proximal metatarsals.

C) calcaneus and talus.

D) talus and cuneiforms.

E) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals.

130) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal

arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely

contribute to this condition?

A) a loose calcaneal tendon

B) weak tarsometatarsal joints

C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the

metatarsals

D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia

E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals

131) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the

acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle

inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms

and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably

from

A) a young male.

B) a young female.

C) an elderly male.

D) an elderly female.

E) It is impossible to determine based on this information.

132) A suture is an example of a(n)

A) synarthrosis.

B) syndesmosis.

C) symphysis.

D) diarthrosis.

E) amphiarthrosis.

133) Degenerative changes in a joint can be the result of all of the following

except A) bursitis.

B) bacterial infection.

C) mechanical stress.

D) immobilization of the joint.

E) inflammation.

134) Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following

most likely occurs with this type of accident?

A) A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid.

B) A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged

C) Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn.

D) Dislocation of the ankle occurs.

E) The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast.

135) Protraction is defined as

A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.

B) a twisting of the ulna medially.

C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.

D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.

E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip.

136) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called

A) rotation.

B) opposition.

C) circumduction.

D) eversion.

E) retraction.

137) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known

as

A) inversion.

B) plantar flexion.

C) eversion.

D) dorsiflexion.

E) pronation.

138) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is

A) protraction and retraction.

B) abduction and adduction.

C) flexion and extension.

D) lateral rotation and medial rotation.

E) supination and pronation.

139) The elbow joint is extremely stable because

A) the ulna and humerus interlock.

B) the articular capsule is thin.

C) the capsule lacks ligaments.

D) several muscles support the joint capsule.

E) the joint lacks bursae.

140) Which of the following is false?

A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.

B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement

in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.

C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint.

D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.

E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the

joint.

141) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and

maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________

ligaments.

A) cruciate

B) fibular collateral

C) patellar

D) popliteal

E) tibial collateral

142) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci

A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.

B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.

C) take the place of bursae.

D) are found between the patella and femur.

E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.

143) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific

cause can vary.

A) articular

B) intervertebral

C) costal

D) elastic

E) fibrous

144) The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint.

A) vertebrocoxal

B) coxosacral

C) iliocoxal

D) vertebroilial

E) sacroiliac

145) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

A) produce movement

B) maintain posture

C) maintain body temperature

D) guard body entrances and exits


146) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are

responsible for

A) muscle fatigue.

B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.

C) muscle contraction.

D) muscle relaxation.

E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.

147) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability

to

A) contract much more forcefully.

B) produce more ATP with little oxygen.

C) store extra DNA for metabolism.

D) produce large amounts of muscle proteins.

E) produce nutrients for muscle contraction.

148) Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?

A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle

B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils

C) storage site for calcium ions

D) thin filaments are anchored here

E) largely made of myosin molecules

149) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

A) myosin molecules.

B) troponin molecules.

C) tropomyosin molecules.

D) calcium ions.

E) ATP molecules.

150) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the

sarcoplasmic reticulum releases

A) acetylcholine.

B) sodium ions.

C) potassium ions.

D) calcium ions.

E) hydrogen ions.

151) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after

A) actin binds to troponin.

B) troponin binds to tropomyosin.

C) calcium binds to troponin.

D) calcium binds to tropomyosin.

E) myosin binds to troponin.

152) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by

A) motor end plates.

B) neuromuscular junctions.

C) transverse tubules.

D) triads.

E) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

153) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after

A) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate.

B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft.

C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate.

D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.

E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.

154) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the

sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as

A) tetany.

B) treppe.

C) depolarization.

D) rigor mortis.

E) oxygen debt.

155) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction.

What is the correct sequence of these events?

1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.

2. The free myosin head splits ATP.

3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.

5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.

6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.

A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2

B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3

C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6

D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5

156) The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from

A) insufficient acetylcholine release from presynaptic vesicles.

B) loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane.

C) the motor neuron action potential being too small to stimulate the muscle fibers.

D) excessive acetylcholinesterase that destroys the neurotransmitter.

E) inability of the muscle fiber to produce ATP.

157) A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the

person's arms holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n)

________ contraction.

A) isometric

B) tetanus

C) isotonic

D) treppe

E) concentric

158) Creatine phosphate

A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.

B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction.

C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.

D) is only formed during strenuous exercise.

E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.

159) Fast fibers

A) have low resistance to fatigue.

B) rely on aerobic metabolism.

C) have many mitochondria.

D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase.

E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches.

160) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers.

A) fast

B) slow

C) intermediate

D) circular


161) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?

A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin.

B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.

C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate.

D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.

E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.

162) Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head.

A) ATP

B) calcium

C) magnesium

D) acetylcholine

E) acetylcholinesterase

163) An infection by the bacterium Clostridium tetani can cause the disease called

A) cholera.

B) polio.

C) botulism.

D) tetanus.

E) muscular dystrophy.

164) The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the

______; the attachment of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called

the ______.

a) origin, action

b) insertion, action

c) origin, insertion

d) insertion, origin

e) insertion, action

165) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it

can act more efficiently.

a) synergist

b) agonist

c) antagonist

d) fixator

e) secondary mover

166) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except

A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.

B) the action of the muscle.

C) the location of the muscle.

D) structural characteristics of the muscle.

E) the collagen content of the muscle.

167) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles,

in order from superior to deep, will the knife go through?

a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique

b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis

c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique

d) external oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis

e) internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external oblique

168) Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred

to as a

a) hernia.

b) goiter.

c) strain.

d) sprain.

e) hydrocele.

169) A muscle that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways is a

a) rotator.

b) tensor.

c) pronator.

d) sphincter.

e) depressor.

170) The antagonist of the triceps brachii is the

A) trapezius.

B) levator scapulae.

C) biceps brachii.

D) pectoralis minor.

E) latissimus dorsi.

171) What is the insertion of the triceps brachii muscle?

a) ulnar tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna

b) radial tuberosity of radius and bicipital aponeurosis

c) olecranon of ulna

d) lateral border of distal end of humerus

172)What is the origin of the rectus abdominis muscle?

a) iliac crest and linea alba

b) xiphoid process

c) ribs 5-12

d) central tendon

e) pubic bone

173) During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba.

The muscle that would be cut is the

A) digastric.

B) external abdominal oblique.

C) rectus abdominis.

D) scalenus.

E) splenius.

174) The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the

A) supraspinatus.

B) subscapularis.

C) deltoid.

D) coracobrachialis.

E) teres major.

175) Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the

ability to breathe?

A) diaphragm

B) rectus abdominis

C) pterygoid

D) platysma

E) digastric

176) Which of the following is a function of the nervous system?

A) sense the internal and external environments

B) integrate sensory information

C) coordinate voluntary and involuntary activities

D) control peripheral effectors

E) all of the above

177) The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

A) autonomic

B) peripheral

C) central

D) efferent

E) afferent

178) The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.

A) sympathetic

B) parasympathetic

C) afferent

D) somatic

E) autonomic

179) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________

cells.

A) skeletal muscle

B) smooth muscle

C) heart muscle

D) glandular


180) The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the

A) neuron.

B) axon.

C) nerve.

D) glial cell.

E) receptor.

181) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the

A) axon terminal.

B) neurilemma.

C) myelin sheath.

D) sarcolemma.

E) axolemma.

182) The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is

A) anaxonic.

B) bipolar.

C) multipolar.

D) pseudopolar.

E) unipolar.

183) The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is

the

A) telodendria.

B) synaptic terminals.

C) collateral.

D) hillock.

E) synapse.

184) The rabies virus travels to the CNS via

A) anterograde axoplasmic transport.

B) retrograde axoplasmic transport.

C) blood vessels.

D) subcutaneous connective tissue.

E) cerebrospinal fluid.

185) ________ neurons are short, with a cell body between dendrite and axon, and

occur in special sense organs.

A) Multipolar

B) Anaxonic

C) Unipolar

D) Bipolar

E) Motor

186) Most CNS neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains

A) why CNS neurons grow such long axons.

B) why CNS neurons cannot divide to repair damaged nervous tissue

C) the ability of neurons to generate an action potential.

D) the ability of neurons to communicate with each other.

E) the ability of neurons to produce a resting potential.

187) Neuron cell bodies in the PNS are clustered together in masses called

A) fibers.

B) tracts.

C) nerves.

D) nuclei.

E) ganglia.

188) All the followings are function of the neuroglia except?

A) support

B) memory

C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier

E) phagocytosis

189) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by

A) astrocytes.

B) satellite cells.

C) oligodendrocytes.

D) microglia.

E) ependymal cells.

190) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of

damaged nerves by

A) producing new axons.

B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons.

C) forming a cellular tube that directs axonal regeneration.

D) clearing away cellular debris.

E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons.

191) Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes

A) depolarization.

B) repolarization.

C) hyperpolarization.

D) increased negative charge inside the membrane.

E) inhibition.

192) During repolarization of a neuron

A) sodium ions move out of the cell.

B) potassium ions move out of the cell.

C) potassium ions move into the cell.

D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell.

E) sodium ions move into the cell.

193) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.

1. Sodium channels are inactivated.

2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell,

initiating repolarization.

3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties.

4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold.

5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.

6. Sodium channel activation occurs.

7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs.

What is the proper sequence of these events?

A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1

B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5

C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5

E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1

194) Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called

A) spatial propagation.

B) saltatory propagation.

C) divergent propagation.

D) synaptic transmission.

E) continuous propagation.

195) Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of

impulse propagation?

A) type A

B) type B

C) type C

D) type D

E) type E

196) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called

A) the presynaptic neuron.

B) the motor neuron.

C) an oligodendrocyte.

D) a satellite cell.

E) the postsynaptic neuron.

197) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is

A) sodium.

B) potassium.

C) calcium.

D) chloride.

E) magnesium.

198) The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the

________ nervous system.

A) somatic

B) peripheral

C) autonomic

D) afferent

E) parasympathetic

199) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth

muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.

A) somatic

B) peripheral

C) autonomic

D) afferent

E) motor

200) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord.

A) Spinal

B) Cranial

C) Afferent

D) Multipolar

E) Autonomic

201) ________ carry sensory information to the CNS.

A) Motor neurons

B) Efferent neurons

C) Multipolar neurons

D) Afferent neurons

E) Interneurons

202) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the

________ matter.

A) gray

B) white

C) neural

D) brain

E) ganglion

203) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the

A) threshold.

B) all-or-none response.

C) potential.

D) incentive.

E) summation.

204) The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an

action potential moves along an axon.

A) a capsule

B) plasma protein

C) neurilemma

D) glial cells

E) myelin

205) The sensory loss and muscle weakness associated with multiple sclerosis are

a consequence of

A) excessive myelin layers around the axonal fibers.

B) demyelination.

C) a neuron not having a myelin sheath.

D) a neuron without a neurilemma.

E) too few nodes of Ranvier.

206) The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.

A) peripheral

B) somatic

C) central

D) autonomic

E) afferent

207) Spinal nerves are

A) purely sensory.

B) purely motor.

C) both sensory and motor.

D) interneuronal.

E) involuntary.

208) Which of the following associations is incorrect?

A) 8 cervical spinal nerves

B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves

C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves

D) 5 sacral spinal nerves

E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve

209) The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains

A) axons of motor neurons.

B) axons of sensory neurons.

C) cell bodies of motor neurons.

D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.

E) interneurons.

210) The anterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly

A) sensory nuclei.

B) somatic motor nuclei.

C) autonomic motor nuclei.

D) nerve tracts.

E) sympathetic nuclei.

211) The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the

A) cranial meninges.

B) cranial mater.

C) spinal meninges.

D) spinal mater.

E) epidural membranes.

212) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the

A) dura mater.

B) subarachnoid space.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

E) choroid plexus.

213) The ________ separates the dura mater from the walls of the vertebral canal.

A) subdural space

B) subarachnoid space

C) epidural space

D) venous dural sinus

E) central canal

214) The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms

and legs due to spinal cord injury is termed

A) paraplegia.

B) hemiplegia.

C) spinal shock.

D) quadriplegia.

E) spinal transection.

215) The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called

a

A) rootlet.

B) ramus.

C) meninx.

D) ganglion.

E) dermatome.

216) The nerve crucial for breathing that originates within the cervical plexus is

called the ________ nerve.

A) brachial

B) phrenic

C) intercostal

D) ganglion

E) sciatic

217) In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor

neuron.

A) monosynaptic

B) ipsilateral

C) commensual

D) involuntary

E) polysynaptic

218) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus

are called

A) contralateral.

B) ipsilateral.

C) commensual.

D) involuntary.

E) parasympathetic.

219) In meningitis,

A) inflammation of the meninges occurs.

B) bacteria can be the cause.

C) viruses can be the cause.

D) CSF flow can be disrupted.


220) Which of the following is true regarding an epidural block?

A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery.

B) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection.

C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic

selected.

D) It can provide mainly sensory anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected.


221) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the

A) filum terminale.

B) subarachnoid space.

C) dura mater.

D) pia mater.

E) arachnoid mater.

222) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in

his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect?

A) loss of sensation in his torso

B) inability to breathe

C) problems with moving his arms

D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet

E) problems moving his legs

223) Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?

A) normal in newborns

B) abnormal in adults

C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts

D) why you close your eyes when you sneeze

E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked

224) The flexor reflex

A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.

B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.

C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.

D) usually depends on cranial neurons.

E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

225) Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents

take her to the emergency room, where she is examined. Her knee-jerk reflex is

normal and she exhibits a plantar reflex (negative Babinski reflex). These results

suggest that Tina has

A) injured one of her descending nerve tracts.

B) injured one of her ascending nerve tracts.

C) a spinal injury in the lumbar region.

D) a spinal injury in the cervical region.

E) suffered no damage to her spinal cord.

226) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are

located in the

A) medulla oblongata.

B) pons.

C) mesencephalon.

D) diencephalon.

E) cerebellum.

227) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the

A) medulla oblongata.

B) pons.

C) midbrain.

D) thalamus.

E) cerebellum.

228) A neural cortex is found on the surface of the

A) cerebrum.

B) pons.

C) thalamus.

D) midbrain.

229) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine

systems.

A) cerebellum

B) medulla oblongata

C) cerebrum

D) pons

E) hypothalamus

230) The most obvious feature that one notices about the cerebrum is the

A) smoothness of the surface of the cortex.

B) extensiveness of the gyri and sulci.

C) small size of it compared to other brain areas.

D) transverse fissure running through it.

E) color of the cerebrum compared to the other brain areas.

231) Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid

plexus.

A) epididymal

B) ependymal

C) appended

D) astrocytes

E) blood

232) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the

surface of the brain?

A) pia mater

B) arachnoid

C) dura mater

D) cranial plexus

E) choroid plexus

233) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood

to the brain are the

A) external carotid arteries.

B) facial arteries.

C) jugular veins.

D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries.

E) dural sinuses.

234) Which of the following is a property of the blood-brain barrier?

A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.

B) It is generally permeable to lipid-soluble compounds.

C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.

D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.


235) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral

hemispheres is called the

A) dural sinus.

B) falx cerebri.

C) tentorium cerebelli.

D) falx cerebelli.

E) choroid plexus.

236) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of

the spinal cord and brain?

A) Spinal fluid is secreted only in the brain.

B) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal

cord.

C) The meninges around the brain are the same as those around the spinal cord.

D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges and the cranial

meninges.

E) All of the answers are correct

237) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the

A) jugular veins.

B) dural drain.

C) arachnoid granulations.

D) tentorium cerebelli.

E) frontal sinus.

238) Which of the following help to protect the brain?

A) the blood-brain barrier

B) the bones of the skull

C) the cranial meninges

D) the CSF


239) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues

B) provides buoyant support for the brain

C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients

D) provides ATP for impulse transmission

E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

240) Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from

A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid.

B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.

C) blockage of circulation of CSF.

D) excessive water intake.

E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.

241) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because

A) electrical activity originates within the medulla.

B) the vital centers for blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there.

C) the blood might not be able to circulated properly around the brain.

D) control of body temperature and thermoregulation are its functions.

E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

242) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to

maintain

balance and equilibrium are functions of the

A) cerebrum.

B) mesencephalon.

C) cerebellum.

D) pons.

E) medulla oblongata.

243) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily

affected by drugs or alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known

as

A) ataxia.

B) aphasia.

C) dysphagia.

D) Parkinson's.

E) epilepsy.

244) Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in

A) increased consciousness.

B) sleep.

C) coma.

D) decreased cerebral function.

E) coughing.

245) Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

A) produces ADH

B) controls autonomic centers

C) regulates body temperature

D) secretes oxytocin


246) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as

the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably

damaged?

A) the prefrontal lobe

B) the general interpretive area

C) the limbic system

D) the thalamus

E) the putamen

247) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter

dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the

main symptom of

A) Parkinson's disease.

B) rabies.

C) Alzheimer's disease.

D) myasthenia gravis.

E) tetanus.

248) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the

A) insula.

B) precentral gyrus.

C) postcentral gyrus.

D) arcuate gyrus.

E) corpus callosum.

249) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.

A) primary sensory

B) primary motor

C) visual

D) olfactory

E) auditory

250) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow

probably caused damage to the

A) prefrontal cortex.

B) postcentral gyrus.

C) cerebral nuclei.

D) limbic system.

E) occipital lobe.

251) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities?

A) Broca's area

B) Brodmann area

C) prefrontal cortex

D) Wernicke's area

E) general interpretive area

252) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a

period of time.

A) electrocardiogram

B) electroencephalogram

C) x-ray

D) MRI

E) CT scan

253) The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are

A) I, II, and III.

B) III, IV, and VI.

C) II, III, and IV.

D) II and VI.

E) III and V.

254)Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local

anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve

does the dentist numb?

A) trochlear

B) trigeminal

C) facial

D) glossopharyngeal

E) hypoglossal

255) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I (olfactory) when he is

unable to

A) smell his food.

B) smile.

C) blink his eyes.

D) nod his head.

E) hear your voice.

256) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function

during "rest and digest."

A) sympathetic

B) parasympathetic

C) thoracolumbar

D) visceral

E) somatomotor

257) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on

A) postganglionic fibers.

B) visceral reflex responses.

C) motor neurons.

D) ganglionic neurons.

E) afferent neurons.

258) Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in

A) the brain.

B) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.

C) the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord.

D) both the brain and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.

E) the cerebrum.

259) Which statement is true regarding the somatic nervous system as compared

to the autonomic nervous system?

A) Both divisions carry outgoing motor information.

B) Both divisions carry information to visceral organs.

C) The somatic NS requires more neurons than the autonomic pathways.

D) There are no reflexes within the somatic nervous system, while there are many

within the autonomic NS.


260) In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons

located?

A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord

B) sacral segments of the spinal cord

C) brain stem

D) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord

E) cerebellum

261) Sympathetic nerves

A) provoke feelings of sympathy.

B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover.

C) contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers.

D) control swallowing.

E) stimulate gastric secretion.

262) In what ways do the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system interact?

A) One division may counterbalance the other division.

B) Occasionally only one division communicates with an organ.

C) Both divisions may work together for the function of an organ or a process.

D) One division may increase function of an organ, while the other division

inhibits it.


263) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the

A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord.

B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.

C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.

D) anterior gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.

E) lateral gray horns of T1 to S2 of the spinal cord.

264) Postganglionic axons usually are

A) myelinated.

B) unmyelinated.

C) larger than preganglionic fibers.

D) located in the brain.

E) located in the spinal cord.

265) Injury to the cervical sympathetic ganglia would affect the function of the

A) heart.

B) pupils.

C) salivary glands.

D) lungs.


266) The celiac ganglia innervate which of the following?

A) liver

B) spleen

C) stomach

D) pancreas


267) The suprarenal medullae secrete

A) medullin.

B) epinephrine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) renin.

E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine.

268) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic

sympathetic fibers except

A) increased sweat secretion.

B) reduced circulation to the skin.

C) decreased heart rate.

D) dilation of the pupils.

E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.

269) Autonomic disorders would not cause

A) excessive perspiration.

B) appetite.

C) sexual arousal.

D) problems in maintenance of blood pressure.

E) problems related to skeletal muscle function.

270) A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat

strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are the result of

A) sympathetic activation.

B) increased levels of epinephrine in the blood.

C) increased activity of autonomic centers in the hypothalamus.

D) the "fight or flight" response.


271) Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following

might help deal with his problem?

A) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle

B) a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue

C) a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue

D) a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue

E) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors

in cardiac muscle tissue

272) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain

a drug that

A) activates β1 adrenergic receptors.

B) activates β2 adrenergic receptors.

C) activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.

D) blocks β2 adrenergic receptors.

E) activates β2 adrenergic receptors or activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.

273) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________

nerve(s).

A) splanchnic

B) facial

C) vagus

D) glossopharyngeal

E) trigeminal

274) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division

of the autonomic nervous system is false?

A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brain stem and sacral region of the

spinal cord.

B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors.

C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively

long.

D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the

sympathetic division.

E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine.

275) The statement "Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the

neurotransmitter" is

A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.

B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.

C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.

E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

276) Muscarinic receptors

A) are normally activated by acetylcholine.

B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia.

C) always produce an excitatory response.

D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane.

E) are blocked by norepinephrine.

277) Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating

A) heart failure.

B) high blood pressure.

C) urinary incontinence.

D) hyperactivity.


278) Mary accidentally ate poison mushrooms that contain muscarine. What

symptoms would you expect to observe?

A) diarrhea

B) salivation

C) very low heart rate

D) sweating


279) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla

oblongata?

A) swallowing reflex

B) vasomotor reflex

C) coughing reflex

D) cardioacceleratory reflex

E) pupillary reflex

280) Which of the following is an example of a visceral reflex?

A) defecation reflex

B) vomiting reflex

C) pupillary reflex

D) ejaculation in response to tactile stimuli


Best!

pro. dima darwish, md. - learning.hccs.edu

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