radio nav exam 1

Radio Navigation

Exam1, 65 Questions - time allowed 90 minutes 1. A wavelength of 8.5 mm corresponds to a frequency of:

(a) 3529.4 MHz (b) 35294 MHz (c) 2833.3 MHz (d) 28333 MHz

2. With regards to radio waves, which statement is true:

(a) They travel at 186,000nm a second in a vacuum. (b) The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation (c) They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the

wavelength. (d) High frequencies need large aerials.

3. An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that refracts from the E layer

in the Ionosphere. The maximum distance of the first returning skywave is:

(a) 599 nm (b) 599 km (c) 1500 nm (d) 1500 km

4. Which statement is true ?

(a) The lower the frequency the greater the atmospheric attenuation. (b) The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 Ghz. (c) The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over the land than

over ice. (d) None of the above.

5. The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are :

(a) A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone. (b) A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone. (c) An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz

modulated tone. (d) A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.

6. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3

degree glidepath at a groundspeed of 115 kts.

(a) 325 (b) 172 (c) 641 (d) 522

Bristol Groundschool Radio Navigation Exam 1

7. For a 2.7 degree glidepath on a Category 1 ILS the vertical coverage is:

(a) 1.35º- 5.25º (b) 1.85º- 4.75º (c) 2.05º- 5.55º (d) 1.22º- 4.73º

8. An aircraft heading 315°M shows an NDB bearing 180° on the RMI. Any

quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be

(a) at a minimum (b) at a maximum (c) zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI (d) zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR

9. With reference to the VOR:

(a) The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the beacon.

(b) A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 Mhz. (c) Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident. (d) Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons.

10. The coverage of the ILS localizer at 17 nm for a Cat. 1 ILS is guaranteed

up to an angle either side of the extended centreline of.................. Using the signal outside the coverage limits on the approach side of the localiser aerial.................result in reverse sense indications.

(a) 35º can (b) 25º can not (c) 35º can not (d) 25º can

11. An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the

VOR/ILS deviation indicator needle centralise with the 'TO' flag showing, the following bearing should be selected on the 'OBS' :

(a) 280 degrees (b) 290 degrees (c) 110 degrees (d) 100 degrees

12. The maximum range of primary radar is affected by:

(a) PRF (b) Pulse Width (c) Transmission Frequency (d) All of the above


13. The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 nm use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft.

(a) 4000' above (b) 6000' above (c) 4000' below (d) 6000' below

14. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in kms is:

(a) 150 (b) 300 (c) 200 (d) 250

15 AWR in the __________ mode progressively ___________ __________as distances ___________ to equalise screen brightness.

(a) weather increases power decrease (b) mapping decreases power decrease (c) weather decreases gain increase (d) mapping increases gain decrease

16. What is the maximum theoretical range, in nm, of a radar whose PRF is

750 pps?

(a) 218 (b) 132 (c) 200 (d) 108

17. The accuracy of a DME :

(a) Increases with increase of altitude. (b) Decreases with increase of range. (c) Is approximately ± 0.5 nm. (d) Is approximately ± 2 nm

18. If an aircraft is hijacked the CAA recommend that the pilot set

transponder code

(a) 7300 (b) 7600 (c) 7500 (d) 7700


19. A saw tooth voltage is used to generate the timebase of a simple non rotating radar because

(a) this achieves the maximum range (b) bearing resolution is optimised (c) range resolution is optimised (d) a linear timebase is required to correctly represent range and the

flyback period is short 20. The RMI indicates aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI

bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct positions to read magnetic variation are:

VOR NDB

(a) beacon position aircraft position (b) beacon position beacon position (c) aircraft position beacon position (d) aircraft position aircraft position

21. Refer to the diagram below of a VOR/ILS deviation indicator. Assume

that the indicator is set to define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90nm from the VOR and inbound to the facility.

........ .. ...... TO

248

At the time of observation the aircraft was located on radial

(a) 243° (b) 245° (c) 253° (d) 063°

22. In a hyperbolic navigation system accuracy is greatest :

(a) Along the base line extension. (b) Along the base line. (c) Along the right bisector of the baseline. (d) Within a 30 nm radius of either station.


23. A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm.. The facility could be a ____________ operating on a frequency of _________. The missing items are:

(a) Radio Altimeter 13,500 Mhz (b) Doppler 13,500 Mhz (c) DME 1350 Mhz (d) VDF 135 Mhz

24. Using a hyperbolic navigation system aposition is plotted that is 20 nm

further from X than Y. X and Y are 100 nm apart. The hyperbola crosses the baseline:

(a) 40 nm from X (b) 40 nm from Y (c) 30 nm from Y (d) 50 nm from Y

25. An SRA may be flown to:

(a) 0.5 nm using QNH only (b) 2.0 nm using QFE only (c) 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the

approach is to be flown on QNH. (d) 0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the

approach is to be flown on QFE. 26. The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is _____ allowing a maximum error of _________ on 95% of occasions during ___________.

(a) 5 : 1 ±3 degrees Daylight hours only (b) 5 : 1 ±3 degrees 24 hours (c) 3 : 1 ±5 degrees 24 hours (d) 3 : 1 ±5 degrees Daylight hours only

27. An aircraft DME receiver will not lock on to signals reflected from the

ground because:

(a) DME uses the UHF band. (b) DME transmits twin pulses. (c) The pulse recurrence rates are varied. (d) The reflections are not at the receiver frequency.

28. A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range

and the PRP?

(a) 187.5 km 1250 micro seconds (b) 187.5 km 0.0125 micro seconds (c) 325 nm 1250 micro seconds (d) 325 nm 0.0125 micro seconds


29. The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:

(a) 186,000 (b) 163,842 (c) 161,842 (d) 300,000

30. An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the

.............band with a scan rate of ...............revolutions per minute

(a) SHF 60 (b) UHF 200 (c) EHF 20 (d) EHF 1000

31. For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3° ILS

glideslope is

(a) 1½° to 5° from the horizontal and 8° either side of the localiser (b) 0.45° from the horizontal to 1.75° above the glidepath and 8° either

side of the localiser centreline (c) 0.7° above and below the glidepath and 8° either side of the

localiser centreline (d) 3° above and below the glidepath and 10° either side of the localiser

centreline 32. Which statement is most correct?

(a) Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on an atomic time standard. (b) Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on a low sweep rate

frequency modulated continuous wave. (c) Loran C creates hyperbolic position lines based on differential range

by pulse technique. (d) Loran C creates elliptical lines based on differential range by

Doppler. 33. The accuracy of Loran is given as:

(a) ± ½ nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea.

(b) ±1 km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea.

(c) ±1 nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea.

(d) ± ½ km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea.


34. A satellite navigation system requires information from ____ satellites to give a three dimensional fix without considering RAIM

. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2

35. The Navstar satellite system has _____ orbital planes crossing the

equator at ______ at an altitude of ________

(a) 6 60 degrees 10,900 nm (b) 3 65 degrees 10,250 km (c) 6 55 degrees 10 900 nm (d) 5 60 degrees 10,250 nm

36. What is RAIM and what is its function?

(a) Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy

(b) Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy (c) GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure

correct alignment (d) Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate

navigation

37. Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying

(a) Towards the station at short range (b) Past the station at long range (c) From the station at long range (d) Past the station at short range

38. The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings

(a) by night only (b) by day only (c) by day and night (d) never

39. An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will.................speed and bend...............the normal

(a) Increase away from (b) Decrease away from (c) Increase towards (d) Decrease towards


40. Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from

(a) Skywaves (b) Other aircraft (c) Other beacons (d) Groundwaves

41. Which answer correctly completes the following statement? "The characteristics of an MLS installation are that it uses

(a) one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency"

(b) an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the upwind end of the runway and a single frequency"

(c) one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies"

(d) an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the upwind end of the runway and two frequencies"

42. Typical Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is gyro stabilised within limits in

(a) pitch and roll (b) yaw and turn (c) pitch and yaw (d) pitch roll and yaw

43. When an LF radio wave passes over the earth's surface it

(a) speeds up and is attenuated (b) slows down and is attenuated (c) speeds up, picks up electrons and becomes stronger (d) slows down, picks up electrons and becomes stronger

44. An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90Hz modulation than

150Hz modulation in both localiser and glidepath. The correct action to regain the centreline and glidepath would be to:

(a) reduce rate of descent and fly left (b) increase rate of descent and fly right (c) reduce rate of descent and fly right (d) increase rate of descent and fly left

45. An aircraft on a 3° ILS approach at 150kt groundspeed is required to

reduce its speed to 120kts at the outer marker, 4½nm from the threshold. The rate of descent should reduce by approximately:

(a) 120 ft/min (b) 150 ft/min (c) 170 ft/min (d) 190 ft/min


46. An AWR is being used to map the ground between 50nm and 70nm in front of the aircraft which would be the correct beam to use and on what scale?

(a) conical beam 50nm (b) conical beam 150nm (c) cosec2 beam 50nm (d) cosec2 beam 150nm

47. The colours used on a conventional AWR to indicate increasing intensity

of returns are:

(a) green amber red (b) blue green red (c) green yellow orange (d) blue amber red

48. The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors:

(a) Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propogation (b) Ephemeris, clock bias, propogation (c) Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag (d) Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites

49. The GPS satellite navigation system operates by

(a) phase comparison (b) measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver (c) measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back (d) measuring the phase of the incoming signal

50. A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase. Which of

the following statements is correct?

(a) The prf increases, the range counters count down from maximum, the output power is increased

(b) The prf increases and the range counters count up from 300 to maximum.

(c) The prf increases and the range counters count down from the maximum

(d) The prf increases and the power is increased 51. The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are

(a) there is no minimum range (b) the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex (c) they are more reliable (d) they offer better long range performance


52. In the diagram below what is the phase difference of the higher amplitude signal from the reference signal?

(a) 135° (b) 225° (c) 315° (d) 045°

53. Which of the following applies to a Doppler VOR when compared to a

standard VOR received signal?

(a) The reference and variphase signals are reversed but the phase difference remains the same

(b) The reference and variphase signals are the same but the phase relationship is reversed

(c) The reference and variphase signals are reversed and the phase relationship is reversed

(d) The reference and variphase signals and the phase relationship remains the same

54. SSR does not suffer from weather clutter because

(a) the wavelength used is too short to be reflected (b) it uses different frequencies for transmission and reception (c) the equipment is fitted with clutter filters (d) the frequency is too high

55. The principle of operation of MLS is:

(a) lobe comparison of scanning beams (b) phase comparison directional beams (c) time referenced scanning beams (d) frequency comparison of reference beams

56. Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D


57. Refer to diagram F of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to PURDY is:

(a) 205° (T) (b) 245° (M) (c) 064° (T) (d) 044° (M)

58. Refer to diagram C of Appendix A. The aircraft is:

(a) right of the centreline and above the glidepath (b) left of the centreline and below the glidepath (c) right of the centreline and below the glidepath (d) left of the centreline and above the glidepath

59. Refer to Appendix A. Diagram E represents:

(a) NAV (b) VOR (c) EXP VOR (d) ILS

60. Which radio system or frequency band uses tropospheric scatter? (a) over the horizon radar (b) HF (c) VHF (d) VLF 61. The colour recommended in JAR OPS for armed AFCS modes is:

(a) green (b) yellow (c) white (d) magenta

62. The FMS database can be:

(a) Altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates (b) Read and altered by the pilots (c) only read by the pilots (d) changed by the pilots every 28 days

63. The JAR OPS colour for selected heading is:

(a) green (b) magenta (c) red (d) cyan


64. In a primary radar system

(a) The aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar

(b) All radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site

(c) The radar is primarily used for range-finding (d) The radar is the primary aid for ATC

65. If the DME ground transmitter fails,

(a) the last measured range is frozen for 20 secs (b) all range information is immediately lost (c) the last recorded range is retained until the ground transmitter is

restored (d) The counters continue to rotate for 8 to 10 seconds


Appendix A


Intentionally Blank


Radio Navigation

Exam 1, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min. A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44

45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55

61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

21 22

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

56 57 58 59 60


1 b 21 d 41 b 61 c 2 c 22 b 42 a 62 c 3 c 23 b 43 b 63 b 4 d 24 b 44 b 64 b 5 a 25 c 45 b 65 d 6 c 26 d 46 d 7 d 27 d 47 a 8 b 28 a 48 b 9 c 29 c 49 b 10 a 30 a 50 c 11 a 31 a 51 a 12 d 32 c 52 b 13 b 33 a 53 a 14 b 34 b 54 b 15 b 35 c 55 c 16 d 36 d 56 d 17 b 37 c 57 c 18 c 38 d 58 a 19 d 39 a 59 b 20 a 40 c 60 a


radio nav exam 1

Documents

range counters

maximum theoretical

differential

variphase

primary radar

maximum range

bristol groundschool

clock bias