Radiology Physics Board Recalls 2005

1. Which of the following converts a complex signal into discrete frequency components?

a. Fourier transformb. Filter backprojectionc. Time gain compensationd. Radiation necrosis

2. Two brass bars 36 cm above the film are separated by 5 cm, their image is separated by 9 cm, how far is the source to object distance?

a. 45 cmb. 80 cmc. 36 cmd. 12 cm

3. Which of the following has the most amount of geometric unsharpness related to the object within the body?

4. What is this artifact from?

a. Decoupling of the PMT’sb. PHA window to narrowc. Crystal is too thickd. ?

5. What is this artifact from?

a. Cracked filterb. Cracked compression paddlec. Staticd. Grid

6. Noise is decreased by a factor of 100, for a 5 Mhz probe and an attenuation coefficient of 0.05 dB/cm Mhz how much deeper could be imaged?

a. 2 cmb. 4 cmc. 8 cmd. 16 cm

7. After complete elution how many long does is take for the Tc (t ½ = 6 hours) and Mo (t1/2 = 67 hours) to reach equilibrium?

a. 2 daysb. 24 hoursc. 1 week

8. An adult is given 20 mCi. 20 % is taken up by a 40 gram thyroid leading to a dose of 0.3 Gy. How much would the dose be if 10 mCi were given to a child with a 20 gram thyroid with an uptake fraction of 10%?

a. 1.2 Gyb. 0.3 Gyc. 1.2 mGyd. 1.2 Sv

9. How do you convert 1 micro Curie to KiloBequerel?a. Multiply by 3.7 x 1010

b. Multiply by 37c. Divide by 3.7d. Multiple by 1.44

10. 2 mCi are needed of a 2 mCi/ml solution at 5 pm. How many ml of this solution need to be set aside at 8 am?

a. 2.6 mlb. 5.2 mlc. 2.8 mld. 3.3 ml

11. What is this set up used for every week?a. Check image qualityb. Check average glandular dosec. Screen film contactd. Processor function

12. Which of the following are true regarding shielding for a mammography suite?a. 3 cm of dry wall is sufficientb. 0.5 mm of lead is required by the MSQAc. the area of biggest concern is the floor belowd. 5 mm of lead is required by the MSQAe. Leakage radiation is the most important factor

13. Which of the following absorbs all - with the least amount of bremsstrahlung production?

a. Leadb. Titaniumc. Plasticd. Tungsten

e. Steel14. Which of the following is the phase encoding gradient?

QuickTime™ and aTIFF (Uncompressed) decompressor

are needed to see this picture.

15. Which of the following would be used in a dual echo sequence to provide both T2 and PD weighting?

a. TR1 = 2000 ms TR2 = 3000 ms TE = 30 msb. TR = 2000 ms TE1 = 30 ms TE2 = 80 msc. TR = 500 ms TE1 = 30 ms TE2 = 80 msd. TR1 = 500 ms TR2 = 2000 ms TE = 80 ms

16. Why does calibration of a SPECT camera include imaging a point source from multiple angles?

a. Account for attenuationb. Check axis of rotationc. Check linearityd. Check uniformity

17. 500 mSv is the limit for which of the following?a. Occupational exposure of the eye?b. Occupational exposure of the thyroid?c. Non-occupational exposure of the gonads?d. Non-occupational exposure of the hands?e. Occupational exposure of the gonads?

18. A thyroid detector is a ________?a. NaI scintillationb. Ion chamberc. Geiger-Muellerd. LSO

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

19. A dose calibrator is a ________?a. NaI scintillationb. Ion chamberc. Geiger-Muellerd. LSO

20. Determine the reading from Geiger-Mueller counter21. To better identify a low contrast 4 cm hepatoma which of the following would

help?a. Increase matrix sizeb. Increase slice thicknessc. Decrease field of viewd. Increase mAe. Increase pitch

22. The factors MI and TI on an ultrasound image identify what?a. Doppler settingsb. Potential for cavitation and heatingc. Aliasingd. Time mode and motion mode

23. The difference in concentration of a radiopharmaceutical between a tissue and blood at equilibrium is called what?

a. Equilibrium constantb. Partition coefficientc. Active uptaked. Sequestration

24. What is the following point on a ROC curve?25. Axial resolution in ultrasound is affected by which of the following?

a. probe typeb. tissue compressibilityc. pulse train lengthd. number of scan lines

26. The definition of specificity is?a. TN+FP/TNb. TN/TN+FPc. TP/TP+FNd. TP/TP+FPe. TN/TN+FN

27. A tungsten anode with an erbium filter (k edge 57.5 kev) would result in which of the following?

X-ray

A

BC

28. Which of the following people get the highest dose?

29. What is the range of hounsfeld units?a. 0-500 with air as 0b. -1000 to greater than 1000 with water as 0c. -500 to greater than 500 with water as 0d. -1000 to 1000 with water as 0

30. How are CT and SPECT similar?a. Detect radiation necrosisb. Use backprojectionc. Are both emission tomographyd. detect gamma rays

31. Why is the source to image distance less in mammography than other imaging modalities?

a. Magnificationb. Decrease scatterc. Decrease exposure timed. Decrease dose

32. Why is handling FDG more risky for the technician than Tc?a. Higher photon energyb. Lower half lifec. Tc is milked from the Mo(hit) generatord. Decay of FDG leads to positron emission

33. Which has the highest dose per frame?a. Digital angiographyb. Digital subtraction angiographyc. Cardiac cinofluoroscopyd. Fluoroscopy for 3 minutes

34. High level control in fluoro means?a. Ability to control pulse fluorob. Enable exposure greater than 10R/minc. Increased source to image distance to decrease dose

35. How many radioactive atoms are in a sample containing 1 kBq of activity and a half life of 1000 s?

a. 1.44 x 106

b. 63900c. 3.7 x 103

d. 1.21 gigawatts

36. What is the dose to a nurse bagging a patient while a portable chest x-ray is taken if the nurse is 1 m away?

a. 1 mGyb. 0.5 Gyc. 0.05 mGyd. 0.5 mRad

37. What are the units of cumulative activity?a. mCi hr, Bq sb. Milli Curie hour per kilogramc. mCi hr-1, Bq s-1

38. What are the units of dose area?a. Sv/sb. Gy/cmc. Rad Bqd. Gy cm2

39. What is the typical spatial resolution for CT?a. 0.5mmb. 1 cmc. 0.05 mmd. 5 mm

40. Which diagnostic study should not be read on a 1024x768 monitor?a. MRIb. CTc. USNd. Chest x-ray

41. What is DICOM?a. Protocol for transferring diagnostic imagesb. Protocol for medical work flowc. Doshi’s internet community for online mend. Array of processors for performing low level mathematical computations

42. What is CAD?a. Coronary artery diseaseb. Method for assisted interpretationc. Cummulative activity dosed. Method for film recovery

43. What are the number of bits in 4 mammographic images which are 4096x4096 pixels and have 2 bytes/pixel?

a. 1 kbitb. 1 mbitc. 1 gigabitd. 1 terabite. 1 pentabit

44. What is the following mammographic artifact?

a. Dented gridb. Film non-uniformityc. Cracked filterd. Double exposuree. Heel effect

45. The chemical shift artifact is due to what?a. Difference in resonance frequencyb. Difference in T1c. Difference in TId. Difference in T2

46. What is the following artifact from?

a. Susceptibilityb. Chemical shiftc. Motiond. ?

47. What is the formula for calculating the energy of a KMM auger electron?a. Ek-2Em

b. Em-Ek

c. 2Ek-Em

d. Ek

48. What do the following images from digital subtraction imaging represent?a. Use of a different focal spotb. Use of different field of viewc. Use of different kVpd. Use of different mA

49. Where is a 12:1 grid use?a. Fluorob. Mammographyc. Chest x-rayd. Portable x-ray

50. What is the result of subtracting a blurred version of the image from the original (i.e. original – k.blurred image)?

a. Edge enhancementb. Smoothed imagec. Looks similar to an image processed with a low frequency filterd. Increased spatial resolutione. Reduced penumbra

51. What is the effect of increasing the film speed in mammography?a. Decreased quantum mottleb. Increased spatial resolutionc. Decreased dosed. Increased contrast

52. Gadolinium is a ________ substance?a. Paramagneticb. Superparamagneticc. Ferromagnetic

53. Time gain compensation is used for what?a. Corrects for attenuationb. Changes pulse legthc. Increases pulse repetition frequencyd. Decreases aliasing

54. What is a pencil chamber used for?a. Calibrating a Anger Camerab. Checking CT dosec. Personnel dositmeterd. A figment of Aaron’s imagination

55. Which of the following are true regarding in plane PET spatial resolution?a. Independent of angular photon spreadb. Independent of distance traveled by the c. Most of the time independent of the depthd. Dependent on photon energy

56. What happens when a low energy filter is changed for a medium energy filter?a. Improved spatial resolutionb. Decreased sensitivityc. Increased sensitivityd. Decreased quantum mottle

57. Counts are proportional to actual decays over a range. This represents what property?

a. Uniformityb. Linearityc. Precisiond. Accuracye. Full width at half maximum

58. Components of an image intensifier have the following modulation transfer values at a frequency of 2 lp/mm: Glass 0.8, input phosphor 0.5, photocathode 0.7, output phosphor 1.0. What is the overall modulation?

a. 0.5b. 2.0c. 0.28d. 1.0

59. What decreases the pincushion effect?a. Changing from 9 inch mode to a 4.5 inch modeb. Collimationc. Decrease mAd. Increase Aperture

60. In fluoroscopy collimation results in which of the following?a. Increase spatial resolutionb. Increase contrastc. Increase scatterd. Increased dose

61. Radiation induced changes in lymphocytes can be detected at what dose?a. 0.25 Gyb. 3 Gyc. 2 Gyd. 2.5 Gy

62. Apoptosis plays a role in which of the following?a. Cell killing in radiation treatment of lymphoma

63. Which of the following enhances cell killing?a. Death rays coming from Aaron’s eyesb. Tobacco smokec. Tetracyclined. Actinomycin D

64. What is wrong with the following tomographic set up?

a. Arc of movement is to largeb. The film and grid need to be perpendicular to the tubec. The anode-cathode axis needs to be parallel to the patientd. A grid should not be usede. The cassette needs to move with the tube

65. Whole body exposure of 3 gy leads to which of the following effects?a. Blisteringb. Temporary epilationc. Skin necrosisd. Ulceratione. Permanent sterility in males

66. Compression in mammography is used to?a. Decrease scatterb. Improve spatial resolutionc. Decrease quantum mottled. Improves contrast

67. What defines the relationship of a patients bone density to age and sex matched patients?

a. T scoreb. Z scorec. Meand. Standard deviatione. Variance

68. What is the advantage of LSO over BSO in PET imaging?a. Faster decayb. LSO is less hygroscopicc. Its all about the BSOd. Sensitivity

GridFilm

69. A woman is breast feeding. She is scheduled for treatment with I-131. Which of the following should she be told to decrease breast dose?

a. Stop breast feeding permanently, beginning 6 hours priorb. Stop breast feeding permanently, beginning 2 weeks priorc. Stop breast feeding temporarily, beginning 6 hours priord. Stop breast feeding temporarily, beginning 2 weeks prior

70. I-131 decays by - to Xe which of the following gives the biggest dose to the thyroid?

a. -. c. Characteristic x-rays from Xed.

71. Which of the following diagrams are correct?

72. A radiologist finds out she is pregnant. A badge worn on her collar registers 4 mSv. What is the correct course of action?

a. Have an abortionb. Put another badge under her lead apronc. Stop fluoroscopyd. Report the dose to the NRCP

73. Isomeric nuclear transition cannot lead to which of the following?a. -b. Characteristic X-rayc. Auger electrond. Internal conversion electron

74. If two films with an optical density of 1 are placed on top of one another what percentage of incident light will be transmitted?

Protons

Neutrons

-

+

Protons

Neutrons

-

+

Protons

Neutrons

-

+

-

+

Protons

Neutrons

a. 1%b. 10%c. 2%d. 50%

75. 98% of an x-ray beam is attenuated in a patient’s body, 50% of the beam is attenuated by the cassette. Ignoring inverse square effects, what percentage of the original beam exits the cassette?

a. 5%b. 50%c. 1%d. 7%

76. Phase contrast imaging utilizes which of the following?a. Slice saturationb. Bipolar gradientsc. Gadoliniumd. Echo planar imaging

77. Echo planar imaging is used toa. Image vessel flowb. Obtain images in less than 100 ms

78. If the source to image distance decreased with everything else held constant what would happen to dose?

a. Increaseb. Decreasec. Stay the same

79. A radioactive substance decays with 400 cpm for 4 minutes. The 95% confidence interval is plus or minus what?

a. 10b. 20c. 40d. 160

80. Radiation is most likely to effect which part of the heart?a. Epicardiumb. Myocardiumc. Pericardiumd. Coronary vessels

81. Which of the following is correct regarding KI?a. It is a measure of cavitation in Ultrasoundb. It only protects the thyroidc. It will protect 50% of people if given within 24 hours of exposured. Determines the image weighting in MRI

82. Which of the following chemical groups has been shown to reduce the effects of radiation?

a. Sulfhydrylb. Methylc. Hydroxyld. Phosphate

83. Exposure is measured in what units?a. m/Cb. C/kgc. g/cm3

d. C/J84. The extrinsic resolution in an anger camera _________?

a. Improves with the patient close to the collimatorb. Does not depend on the collimatorc. Is a function of the photo-multiplier tubed. Depends on the distance traveled by the particle

85. The pulse height analyzer __________?a. Decreases the contribution of scatterb. Determines the extrinsic resolutionc. Calculates the position of the decay using coincident detectiond. Performs backprojection

86. Which of the following has regulatory powers in the United States?a. IRCPb. NRCPc. NRCd. UNSCEAR

87. Iodine on neuroangiography is best seen bya. Increasing kvp from 80 to 120b. Increasing mAc. Imaging larger vesselsd. Decrease field of view