Page 25

AIR REGULATIONS1. Threshold / Displaced threshold light are.a. White / Greenb. Green / Green

c. Green / White2. Aeronautical information of shorter nature is contained in a. AIPb. AIC

c. Operations manual3. An accident is notified to DGCA.a. If a/c All up Weight is more than 5700 kgs.b. If a/c is carrying passengersc. All a/c accident must be reported to DGCA.

d. Only if a /c accident occurs in the air.4. A/C intending to fly in formationa. Can fly only under IFR flight planb. Can fly only after DGCA permissionc. Can fly with prior arrangement with ATC

d. Can fly only in uncontrolled air space5. Two red balls hoisted on a mast near the signal area means.a. Aerodrome is closed due to bad weatherb. Aerodrome closed due to extreme dangerc. All a/c to land and return to aprond. Glider flying is in progress

6. A red flag hoisted on ATC building of uncontrolled aerodrome means.a. Aerodrome under enemy attack, all aircraft are to divertb. All a/c to land immediately due lo bad weather.c. Glider flying in progress over aerodrome7. An aircraft on which Navigation Lights have not been fitteda. Can not fly at night.b. Can not fly at allc. Cannot fly without DGCA permission8. When two a/c are on converging or crossing, tracks and there is a risk of collisiona. A small a c like Chipmunk or Cessna will give wav to bigger a c. like Boeing.b. Powered a c will give wav lo Gliders.c. If both a/c are powered, the .1 c u hit h has other a c on its right gives wax1 to that a/c.d. Both b & c are correct.9. A horizontal while dumbbell displayed in signal area means a. Aerodrome closed permanentlyb. All a/c to land, takeoff of runway and taxi on taxi on taxi - tracks only.c. A/C to land on runway but may taxi on grass.10. A horizontal while dumbbell with black bars market perpendicular to shall on circular portion of dumbbell means thata. Aircraft to land on runway only but may use areas oilier than runway or taxi track for other maneuvers e.g. taxiing etc,b. Aircraft may land on runway or taxi track.c. Runway is closed for repairs.11. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal displayed in signal an-a meansa. Runway is closed for repairsb. All aircraft to land and takeoff from taxi tracks.c. Due to bail stale of manoeuvring area or some other reason. Pilots lo observe special precaution during approach and landing.12. Letter 'C displayed vertically in black against yellow background on a building indicatesa. The place where Pilots can slay for the night haltb. The place where Pilots are to report for ATC services.c. Location of Canteen for tea and snacks.13. Series of White flashes to an ac in flight meana. Do not Land and give way lo another a/c in emergency.b. Cleared lo land.c. Land and return to parking apron14. Supersonic a/c is allowed to fly in Indiaa. At all speeds.b. At speeds below Mach 1.c. Above Mach 215. A steady white light lo an ac in the air or on ground indicatesa. Return to starting point on Apron.b. Nothing as per ICAO approved signalsc. Cleared to land, I he danger is over16. A Pilot who is forced lo fly low over populated area due to bad weather.a. Can be sued in court for trespass by the residents of the colony.b. Cannot be sued in the court.c. DGCA will cancel his Pilots license17. Smoking is permitted in the a/c only if permitted vide its COA.a. The rule is not applicable lo private a c.b. The rule is applicable only lo Public Transport a c.c. The rule is applicable to all a/c.18. A passenger on a private a c.a. Should not have consumed alcoholic drinks 12 hours before flightb. Can be prevented from boarding the a c for flight if he is intoxicatedc. Cannot be served any alcohol in a private a c.19. DI [Daily Inspection] and certificate of safety by a licensed Engineer is requireda. For all flights.b. Only for ac proceeding outstation.c. Only for solo flight by trainee pilots.20. An a/c without registration markings can be flowna. For purpose of lest flight before purchase.b. Only if specially permitted in writing by Central Govt.c. It JI is Government owned a/c.21. On routes not designated by specific reporting points, the position report shall hea. Immediately alter lake all and thereafterb. While crossing a FIR andc. Every 30 minutes in IMC and one hour when in VMC.d. All are correct.22. An a/c in distressa. Transmits PAN PAN [3 times on R/T]b. Transmits MAY DAY [3 times on R/T]23. Petroleum in Bulk means storage capacity of receipted isa. More than 900 gallons.b. More than 900 liters.c. More than 1900 liters.d. More than 900 Lbs.24. Route on which flight Navigation is to be carried is specified in.a. COAb. Maintenance

c. Route Guided. Operations Manual25. Routes to be followed by international Flights over India are deckled bya. CAOb. DGCAc. Pilot in Command26. Decision height for an Instrument Approach Procedure is determined bya. DGCAb. PICc. The operatord. The manufactures27. An a/c flying over high seas shall follow rules of the air laid down bya. Rules of the slate from where a c has departedb. Rules of the state of its destination aerodromec. ICAOd. DGCA28. A Rescue Co-ordination Centre is placed under the change ofa. State IG police.b. Controller of Aerodromes.c. Local IAF commander.29. The Met conditions for an aerodrome are considered below minimum when cloud amount isa. More than 6/8 in any layer below specified height.b. More than 2/8 in any layer below specified height.c. More than 4/8 in any layer below specified height.30. When Met minima has not been filed with DCCA the following minima will applya. For takeoff ceiling 90 meters Visibility 2.7 Kms.b. For takeoff ceiling 1 10 meters Visibility 2.7 Kmsc. For takeoff ceiling 90 meters Visibility 4.7 Kms31. If Met Minima for a particular aerodrome is QBH 400 feet vis 2 Kms. The conditions will be considered below minima if a. Cloud base is 3/8 at 300 feet vis 2 Kms.b. Cloud base is 3/8 at 300 feet vis 5 Kms.c. Cloud base is 3/8 at 500 feet vis 2.5 Kms.d. Cloud base is 3/8 at 400 feet vis 2 Kms.32. A VFR flight shall not take-off or land al an aerodrome unlessa. Ground visibility is loss than 5 Kms and ceiling less than '00 Motors [1,000] footb. Ground Visibility is more than 5 Kms [3Nms] and ceiling more than 1500 feet.c. Ground Vis is more (than 8 Kms and ceiling more than 1500 foot.33. VFR flights outside controlled airspace air space 3,000 fool amsl can be conducted provided flight visibility is more thana. 5 Kmsb. 5 nmsc. 8 nms34. With regard to an a o engaged in aerobatics its heighta. Should not be below 6000 feet when flying over an aerodrome.b. May be below 6000 feet but not below 2000 feet when flying at a place which is more than 2 Nms from centre of the aerodrome.c. May be below 2000 feet when flying over unpopulated area.d. Not below 2000 feet when flying at a place more than 2 Nms from the nearest point of perimeter of an aerodrome.

e. Both a and d are correct.35. The minimum safe distance for personal behind jet engine exhaust is.a. 2 Nmsb. 200 metersc. 200 feet36. A/C departing India on international route must.a. Depart from only Mumbai, Calcutta, Chennai or New Delhi.b. Depart from a Custom Notified Airport.c. Depart from Calcutta for Eastbound flights and Mumbai for westbound flights.37. UTC means.a. Universal Time Co ordinate and is theoretically same as GMTb. Universal Co ordinate Time and is practically same as GMT.c. Co ordinate universal Time and is practically same as GMT.38. A foreign a/c intending to enter into or transit through Indian airspace on a non scheduled flight is required to give a notice ofa. On week to seek DGCA clearanceb. 70 hours to seek DGCA clearancec. No prior notice is required.39. An ac on FL 125 on track [M] 290 entries adjoining FIR in which Semi - circular crusing system is in force will.a. Climp 500 feetb. Continue on FL 125 c. Descend by 500 feet40. An a/c before entering controlled airspace shall seek permission from ATS unit a. 30 min in advance b. 10 min in advance if in direct with ATS unit and 20 min. if seeking permission through another station.c. Does not require any advance permission if in direct contact with ATS unit.41. The procedure for transiting through Transition layer isa. Ascending a c changes altimeter setting to QNE [1013.2 Mbs] after crossing Transition Altitude k Descending a c Changes over to local QNH after crossing Transition Level.b. Ascending a c changes over to 1013.2 Mbs after crossing Transition Ievel.c. Descending a c changes over to QNH after crossing Transition altitude.d. Both climbing and Descending a c maintain QN11 in Transition layer42. If QNH falls below 996 hpa minimum FL allowed isa. 30b. 55c. 6043. Minimum Vertical separation between two IFR flights on reciprocal tracks isa. Below FL 290 . [ 500 feet / 1,000 feet / 2,000 feet ]b. Above F290 in non RVSM airspace . (500 feet/lOOOfeet/2000 feet]c. Between f290 and F410 in RVSM airspace .[ 2000feet/500 feet/1000 feet]A-1000/1000/1000 feet B-1000/2000/lOOOfeet c) 1000/2000/500 feet44. Which of the following Flight Levels are available to an a/r on Track [M| 18O IFR plan

FL 100,

FL 190

FL 200a. 100/190.b. 190/200.c. 100/200.45. This of the following will matter in selection of minimum Flight Level available to an a/c, when following high features appear en route.a. A tower 400 feet 6 Nms from runway.b. A hill 5970 feet within 6 Kms of track.c. A hill 8800 feel 12 Kms off track.46. Prevention of collision between two IFR ac is responsibility ofa. Flight Information Service.

b. Pilot in Command only.c. Air Traffic Control service.3d. 'Traffic Police' for a/c on the ground and for a/c in the air' Control Tower.47. While passing through Transition layer a c vertical position is reported asa. Height on QNH setting while climbing and as Level on 1013.2 Mbs while descending.b. As Level on 1013.2 Mbs while climbing and as altitude on QNH during descent,c. Level on 1013.2 Mbs during both climb and descent stages.48. A Pilot who has flown 65 hrs as Co-Pilot can fly hrs as PIC in remaining period of30 consecutive daysa. 60 hrsb. 73 hrsc. 35 hrs49. A typical holding pattern is calleda. Circular Pattern b. Race-Horse Pattern c. Race-Course Pattern50. A crew member can operate R/T if he hasa. 100 hrs dual flight experienceb. FR TO license

c. Cleared CPL Navigation paper51. A Private a c can land at a Private aerodrome for the purpose of joy ridesa. Without restrictionb. With Central Govt. permission

c. With DCCA permission52. Any suitable plan1 can be useda. For unrestricted landings by a private a/c.b. For giving joy rides to publicc. For one landing and take off for a specific purpose.53. An a c will be regarded as infected with yellow fevera. If ac has flown over a place with Yellow Fever epidemicb. If it has landed tit a place situated in Yellow Fever affected area before its arrival in India54. If a person on board an a/c falls sit. k the Pilot will send health report on R/T to its destination aerodromea. 2 hours before ETA.b. 24 hours before ETA.c. Half an hours before ETA.55. Except at designated points if an ATS route has lo be crossed it should be done ata. 45 degb. 90 degc. Parallel to track56. As per ICAO a "standard practice" means all contracting state willa. Endeavour to conform with the specificationb. Conform with the specificationc. Change the specification as per local requirements57. As per ICAO "Recommended practice' means that contracting, fine, slate willa. Definitely conform lo laid down specificationb. Endeavour to conform to laid down specificationc. Recommend to ICAO lo change the specification.58. Time separation of take-off of light a c behind heavy a/c isa. 1 minb. 3 minc. 30 min59. Difference of TAS allowed between flight plan and actual TAS is plus or minusa. 20%b. 10%c. 5%60. Flight of a c over Mathura refinery isa. Allowed b. Restricted c. Prohibited61. Flight of a c near Malabar Hills is prohibited within a radius ofa. 1 NMb. 50 Nmsc. Nms62. Carrying of a sick passenger on Kurd is permitteda. If accompanied by an attendantb. Without any permissionc. If permitted by DGCA63. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilota. Requests an amended clearance.b. Is operating VFR on topc. Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency64. Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?a. Gyroplane b. Airshipc. A/C towing other aircraft65. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching lo land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shalla. Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing.b. Maintain a 3o glide to the runway.c. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.66. Automatic Terminal Information service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning;a. Nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.b. Pilots of radar identified a/c whose a/c is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.c. Non control information in selected high activity terminal areas.67. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on a. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.b. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.c. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.68. A Pilot can act as PIC of a Public Transport Aircraft on an particular route provided he has flown at least.a. 10 Route flight on that as co pilot or as PIC without passengers on that route.lb. 200 hours solo on that aircraft.

c. Both 'a' and 'b' are correct.69. Validity of PPL for a person below 30 years of age isa. 2 yearsb. 36 monthsc. 12 month.d. 10 years70. Maximum age limit for flying by a PPL holder isa. 58 yearsb. No age limit if medically fit c. 60 years71. Which aircraft has the right of way lover all oilier air traffic?a. An a/c in distressb. A balloonc. An a/c on final approach to land72. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter.a. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.b. Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature c. The elevation of the departure area.73. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibiteda. Class C.b. Class B.c. Class A.d. 1500 feet.74. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator isa. Two white lights and two red lightsb. Four white lightsc. Three white lights and one red lights75. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximatelya. 009o and 27o true.b. 090o and 270o magnetic.c. 090o and 270o true.76. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly' through a restricted area? a. A. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance

b. Regulations do not allow this.c. With the controlling agencys authorization.77. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplanes position which aircraft has the right of waya. The airplaneb. Each pilot should alter course to the right.c. The airship.78. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?a. Both pilots should give way to the right,b. The glider pilot should give way to the right. c. The airplane pilot should give way to the left79. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft a. That is the least maneuverable.b. At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.c. That has the- other to its right.80. Unless other wise authorized, what is the maximum speed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?a. 200 Kts IASb. 288 Kts TASc. 250 Kts IASd. 250 Kts ground speed81. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?a. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (PMP)b. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and nltHmli1 reporting equipment

c. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.82. Pilots arc not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless thea. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.b. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.c. Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot.83. An ATC clearance providesa. Adequate separation from all trafficb. Priority over all other traffic.c. Authorization to precede under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.84. Changes in domestic routes will be notified in.a. AIPb. CARc. AICd. Aircraft manual85. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which Is a category of aircraft?a. Landplane, seaplane.b. Normal, utility, acrobatic.c. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.86. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?a. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.b. Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.c. Transport, restricted, provisional.87. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching I mm the left. Which pilot should give way?a. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.b. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.c. Each pilot should alter course to the right.88. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?a. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.b. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to he passed on the right.c. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right, the pass.89. An ac on dry lease Iease Indian airlines to IAF will be flown under categorya. Civilb. Privatec. Military90. Flight data recorder data is preserved fora. 30 minsb. 30 hrsc. 24 hrs91. During Test flights passengers fora. Can be carriedb. Can be carried without remunerationc. Can not be carried92. End of runway is marked by.a. Green lightb. White lightc. Red light93. A CPL holder can fly as pic of an a/c with AUWa. Below 1500 kgs onlyb. 5700 kgsc. No restriction94. Cabin crew is carried in ac on the basis of.a. VIP on board b. Aircraft sealing rapacity.

c. Passengers on board95. Navigator is carried on ac when.a. Flying over enemy airspace

b. When directed by PIC.c. Distance exceeds 600 nms and navigation aids are not available within 30 nms of track.96. If threshold RVR is above but Mid RVR is below minima the Pilot .a. Can proceed with IAP and landing b. Cannot carry out IAP and landingc. Can land if co pilot has instrument rating.97. Flight Engineer is carried on board ata. Flights exceeding 600 nmsb. When directed by PIC.c. When directed by air hostess.

d. When specified in its CO A.98. Facilities at an aerodrome are listed in.a. AIPb. Notamsc. AIC d. CARs99. Two digit black colour against yellow background displayed vertically indicate.a. Aerodrome elevation b. Runway direction in usec. Wind direction100. Runway designator 24 means.a. Runway direction [true] is between 024 to 029.b. Runway direction is 235 [M] and 244 [M].c. Runway direction is 235 [T] and 244 [T].101. Width of airway [ATS route] is.a. 20Nms [10 nms either side] over land and 40 [20 nms either side] over sea.b. 20 nms over land and also over sea.c. 10 nms over land and also over sea.102. FDTL, extension per day due to weather /ac unserviceability etc isa. 2 hrsb. By concerned statec. By ATC103. Transition altitude of aerodromes is laid down by.a. ICAOb. By concerned state

c. BY ATC104. The Pilot of a search plane which has sighted distress signals displayed by survivors will convey to persons on ground that it has understood the message by.a. Flying low over the crash siteb. By circling over the place.c. By rocking wings during day and switching on and off nav / landing lights twice during hours of darkness.105. Lowest transition altitude used in India isa. 3000 ftb. 4000 ftc. 5000 ft106. Control zone isa. Area in which air traffic control service is provided.b. Area of defined dimensions extending upwards from ground level to unspecified height.c. Area of defined dimension extending from ground to a specified bright upwards.107. The pairs of touchdown zone markings indicate that LDA threshold to threshold distance, is.a. Less than 2900 mtrs.b. 1200 mtrs upto but not including 1500 mtrs.c. More than 2100 mtrs.108. Fight threshold stripes indicate that runway width is.a. 23 mtrsb. 30 mtrsc. 45 mtrs109. Length of runway center line and spacing between each line isa. 30m/30m

b. 20m/20mc. 30m/20md. 20m/30m110. Deviations if any from JCAO recommended practices arc given in.a. Aircraft act 1034

b. Aircraft rules 1937

c. AIP111. Amendments to Rules 1937 are published asa. Blackb. Whitec. Oranged. Green112. On an instrument approach where a Hi I or MDA 'applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless thea. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.b. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.c. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.113. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.b. The other aircraft is approaching head on.c. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

114. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other a/c.a. The other aircraft is crossing lo the left.b. The other aircraft is approaching head on.c. The other aircraft is flying away from you.115. When departure or destination aerodrome has not been allotted ICAO designator; in Flight Plan form appropriate column enter.a. ////b. XXXXc. ZZZZd. Nil116. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should beset to which altitude or altimeter setting? a. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.b. The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.c. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.117. Cabin crew position at take-off time is.a. Near cockpitb. In crew cabinc. Any passengers sentd. At floor level near exits118. Track separation is.a. Vertical separationb. Lateral separationc. Longitudinal separation.119. An ac may fly without registration markings when.a. Used for govt purpose.b. Permitted by central govt.c. Under test flight before purchase.d. All above are correct120. COA is valid in India for.a. 36 monthsb. 12 months for all a/cc. 12 months for a/c less than 20 years old and 6 months for a/c more than 20 years old.121. An ac departing behind a heavy ac should maneuver a/c to avoid wake turbulence.a. Above and upwind of preceding a/c.b. Below and upwind of preceding a/c.c. Above and downwind of preceding a/c.122. A flight plan is considered currenta. When ETD is filled in it is filed.b. When ETA is filled in.c. When amended and read back123. Airport information signs area. In green colour nn white background b. In white colour on black background.c. In yellow colour on black background d. In black colour on yellow backgroundAVIATION MEDICINE124. Which statement best defines hypoxia?a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.b. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.125. The most effective method of scanning for oilier ah craft for collision avoidance during daylight hours in to use a. Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.b. A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degrees sector.c. Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'cIock positions.126. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?a. Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.b. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.c. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

127. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is loa. Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate.b. Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.c. Concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.128. Pilots are more subjects to disorientation ifa. Eyes are moved often in the process of cross -checking the flight instruments.b. They ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.c. Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.129. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known .ita. Hyper ventilationb. Aerosinusitsc. Aerotitis130. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?a. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.b. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear, c. The excessive consumption of alcohol.131. A pilot is able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation bya. Increasing the breathing rate in order lo increase lung ventilation.b. Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.c. Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.132. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases asa. Altitude decreases.b. Altitude increases.

c. Air pressure increases.133. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result ina. Loss of muscular power.

b. An increased sense of well-being.c. Tightness across the forehead/throbbing in temles.134. What effect does haze have on the ability to sec traffic or terrain features during flight.a. Haze causes the eyes to focus at Infinity.b. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.c. The colour contrast is less distinct, objects become difficult lo see eyes tend to overwork in ha/r and do not detect relative movement easily.135. A stale of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined asa. Hypoxia.b. Hyperventilation.

c. Spatial disorientation.136. Loss of cabin pressure may cause hypoxia because cabin altitude increases and.a. Oxygen percentage decreases

b. Nitrogen percentage Increasesc. Partial pressure[amount] of oxygen decreasesPage 25