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© The University of Trinidad & Tobago July 2014 Final Examinations HSEV1005 – Introduction to Health, Safety and Environment

THE UNIVERSITY OF TRINIDAD & TOBAGO

FINAL EXAMINATIONS JULY 2014

Course Code and Title: HSEV1005 - Introduction to Health Safety and Environment

Programme: NETD – Diploma

Date and Time: 23rd

July 2014 9:00 a.m.– 12:00 noon Duration: 3 hours

PLEASE READ ALL INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE YOU BEGIN THIS

EXAMINATION

Instructions to Candidates

1. This paper has twenty-three (23) pages and contains four (4) sections.

2. You are required to answer all questions in Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D.

3. You must return the question paper along with any other writing paper to the

invigilator at the end of the assessment.

Key Examination Protocol

1. Students please note that academic dishonesty (or cheating) includes but is not limited to

plagiarism, collusion, falsification, replication, taking unauthorised notes or devices into an

examination, obtaining an unauthorised copy of the examination paper, communicating or

trying to communicate with another candidate during the examination, and being a party to

impersonation in relation to an examination.

2. The above mentioned and any other actions which compromise the integrity of the academic

evaluation process will be fully investigated and addressed in accordance with UTT’s

academic regulations.

3. Please be reminded that speaking without the Invigilator’s permission is NOT allowed.

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FINAL ASSESSMENT/EXAMINATIONS JULY 2014

ANSWER SHEET FOR SECTION A

Shade the correct circle

1. A B C D

2. A B C D

3. A B C D

4. A B C D

5. A B C D

6. A B C D

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10. A B C D

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20. A B C D

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21. A B C D

22. A B C D

23. A B C D

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27. A B C D

28. A B C D

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30. A B C D

31. A B C D

32. A B C D

33. A B C D

34. A B C D

35. A B C D

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ANSWER SHEET FOR SECTION B

Shade the correct circle

36. T F

37. T F

38. T F

39. T F

40. T F

41. T F

42. T F

43. T F

44. T F

45. T F

46. T F

47. T F

48. T F

49. T F

50. T F

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SECTION A

(35 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

You are required to shade the correct response on the answer sheet provided

1. The most commonly used framework for an Environmental Management System is the

one developed by

a. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) for the ISO 14001

standard

b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

c. The Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS)

d. none of the above

2. After you have identified hazard controls what should you do next?

a. Evaluate the effectiveness of controls

b. Do a job hazard analysis

c. Create checklist and tools

d. Implement controls

3. Fumes from welding are an example of ________________ hazard.

a. biological

b. physical

c. chemical

d. psychological

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4. An MSDS may not contain information about:

a. what the hazardous substance should be used for.

b. first Aid instructions.

c. the health effects of the hazardous substance.

d. the requirement for health surveillance.

5. You can reduce your exposure to radiation by doing the following:

a. Increasing your distance from the source

b. Decreasing the amount of time near the source

c. Provide shielding between yourself and the source

d. All of the above

6. A confined space is one that

a. has a flammable atmosphere

b. has an unrestricted means of entry or exit for employees

c. is designed for continuous employee occupancy

d. is large enough that a person can enter and perform tasks

7. Which of the following duties is the entry supervisor responsible for?

a. Authorizing entry.

b. Determining if conditions are acceptable for an entry.

c. Terminating the entry if necessary.

d. All of the above.

8. Several factors are commonly related to confined space injuries or deaths among

emergency responders. These include all of the following except:

a. Pre-incident planning and standard operating procedures.

b. Insufficient training on procedures for safe confined space rescues.

c. Lack of knowledge of the hazards of confined spaces.

d. Lack of air testing devices and rescue equipment

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9. Which of the following is a method for preventing slips, trips, and falls?

a. Look for signs of flooring change

b. Be aware of wet areas or objects on the floor

c. Wear appropriate footwear

d. All of the above

10. All of the following can prevent slips except…

a. walking quickly

b. wearing slip-resistant shoes

c. keeping your hands free for balance

d. making wide turns at corners

11. Clean floors, keeping all work areas tidy and good lighting are important safety

considerations to:

a. ensure a steady flow of customers

b. reduce the risk of slips, trips and falls

c. make sure the workplace looks uncluttered and attractive

d. reduce the risk of back ache

12. The risk of back injury increases during lifting, carrying, pushing and pulling of loads, if

the load is:

a. too heavy

b. too large

c. bulky

d. all of the above

13. The optimal position for the handling of loads is

a. at an arms distance

b. at knee level

c. bending and reaching

d. mid-thigh level

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14. Which of the following statements are correct?

a. reorganising work tasks can reduce manual task hazards

b. mechanical lifting devices reduce manual task hazards

c. a fit and healthy worker, working long hours does not increase the risk of manual

task injury

d. a and b only

15. Electrical safety-related work practices involve:

a. the use of ground fault circuit interrupters

b. verifying power is off before doing repairs

c. keeping proper distance from overhead power lines

d. all of the above

16. Earthing or grounding cable is typically coloured

a. green

b. yellow

c. grey.

d. black.

17. Always use a ground fault _________ interrupter (GFCI), which will instantly disconnect

a circuit when an electrical shock occurs.

a. conductor

b. insulator

c. circuit

d. tools and materials.

18. Which ONE of the following fire extinguishers should NOT be provided to cover a fire

risk involving flammable liquids?

a. Powder

b. Water

c. Foam

d. Carbon dioxide

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19. Which ONE of the following is NOT one of the aims of a fire extinguisher?

a. To put out a large fire

b. To provide an avenue of escape

c. To prevent fires

d. All of the above

20. On fire extinguishers, which symbol represents combustible metals or class D fuels?

a. Star

b. Square

c. Triangle

d. Circle

21. If a fire alarm sounds, but you see no sign of fire, you should:

a. Ignore it

b. Respond as if there were a real fire

c. Ask a co-worker what’s going on

d. None of the above

22. In the event of a fire in your work area, your best course of action is:

a. Leave the area using a designated escape route

b. Attempt to fight the fire and rescue others

c. Shelter in a room without windows

d. None of the above

23. Which of the following divides the risk assessment process into nodes

a. A what if

b. A job hazard analysis

c. HAZOP

d. A risk assessment calculator

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24. Which risk assessment tool breaks down a job into steps, identifying safety hazards at

each step and develops safe job procedures for each step?

a. A what if


c. HAZOP


25. Which of the following can be used to assess the severity of a hazard?

a. A what if


c. HAZOP


26. Which of the following is an example of nonpoint source pollution?

a. discharge pipe from a meatpacking plant

b. storm-water runoff from a storm drainpipe

c. agricultural fertilizers from cropland

d. domestic sewage from a town

27. Excluding heat, _________ is/are the leading cause of pollution in streams.

a. agricultural chemicals

b. municipal sewage (wastewater)

c. industrial wastewater

d. solid waste

28. What is the most desirable method of dealing with municipal solid waste?

a. Land filling

b. Incineration

c. Energy recovery

d. Recycling

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29. Which of the following is NOT a major option for managing hazardous waste?

a. Reducing the production of waste while increasing the amount generated.

b. Reducing the volume and/or hazard of the waste.

c. Long-term storage or disposal.

d. Dumping at sea.

30. The 4Rs principle of waste management include all of the following except

a. Refuse

b. Reduce

c. Reuse

d. Recycle

31. ________________ are abandoned, idle, or commercial property that may be

environmentally contaminated.

a. Red Zones

b. Green Fields

c. Brownfields

d. None of the above.

32. Noise does which of the following?

a. Causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.

b. Enhances a message

c. Distorts or interferes with a message.

d. Focuses wandering thoughts.

33. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels

a. above 30.

b. above 80.

c. above 100.

d. above 120.

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34. Possible health effects of noise pollution include

a. hearing loss

b. hypertension

c. tinnitus

d. all of the above.

35. In Trinidad and Tobago there are three noise pollution zones. Zone II addresses the

a. Industrial areas

b. Residential areas

c. Environmentally sensitive areas

d. general area

GO TO NEXT SECTION

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SECTION B

Answer all questions in this section. For questions 36-50 shade ‘T’ for

True or “F’ for False on the answer sheet provided (page 4)

36. An ecosystem is a biological community of interacting organisms and their physical

environment.

37. According to the hierarchy of control for hazards, the first means of control is guarding.

38. It is acceptable to keep your lunch in a refrigerator labeled “Caution Radioactive

Material,” as long as your lunch is tightly sealed.

39. The atmosphere of a confined space is unacceptable if the oxygen level is below 19.5

percent or above 23.5 percent.

40. Elevated storage and work surfaces need only guardrails, and no toe boards and a

permanent means of access.

41. The most common source of workplace fires is from chemicals.

42. Smoking only in permitted areas is a fire prevention precaution.

43. In a HAZOP, each basic step of the job is to identify potential hazards and to recommend

the safest way to do the job.

44. Sulphuric acid is a major greenhouse gas.

45. A major problem in surface water is thermal pollution.

46. Paper products make up the largest percentage of waste produced by households and

businesses.

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47. We can conserve by buying products created close to home.

48. The higher the dose of a toxic chemical, the smaller the effect (response).

49. Demolition is a source of noise pollution.

50. Noise is measured in watts.

GO TO NEXT SECTION

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SECTION C

Case Study

(10 marks)

You are to read the following case study and answer one of the questions which follow.

Oil spill off Tobago was one of T&T’s worst Monday, December 30, 2013

Khara Persad

For more than a week an oil spill in south Trinidad has made headlines as clean-up efforts

and containment by the Petroleum Company of T&T Limited (Petrotrin) have been

slow. The spill which was initially discovered in Pointe-a-Pierre on December 17, and

initially claimed by Petrotrin to have been contained there, has affected the Point Fortin

and La Brea communities and the south-western coastline. Residents, fishermen and

marine life have been affected by the widespread damage and environmentalists have

been critical.

This was not the first oil spill to occur so close to T&T shores. Back in 1979, one of the

worst recorded oil spills in history happened just ten miles off Tobago. On July 19 that

year, two vessels loaded with a combined total of about 500,000 tonnes of crude oil

collided causing fires on both ships, and resulting oil spills. According to reports, the

total loss of the 280,000 tonnes of oil as a result of that collision was in the top ten of

world records for an oil tanker accident. An impact study was never undertaken.

In a telephone interview yesterday Secretary of Fishermen and Friends of the Sea (FFOS)

Gary Aboud was asked to compare the 1979 spill with last week’s in terms of impact, but

said it was difficult to compare due to the differing nature of both locations. Aboud was

http://www.guardian.co.tt/byline-authors/khara-persad

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not living in T&T at that time, and could not comment on clean-up efforts, but said the

impact would be based on different points. He said the Gulf of Paria was a smaller,

contained area, and so there would be a higher concentration of toxins.

“The Gulf of Paria is a very shallow basin, so the impact based on volume of water would

be different. The concentration of contaminants would be immense.” Aboud said the

1979 spill occurred in the open sea, so the volume of water impacted was substantially

more. Another difference was that the Gulf of Paria was a spawning area, and so the

recent oil spill would severely impact the food chain and circle of life for marine life.

“Migratory species heading to Gulf would be impacted. Future food for other fish would

be gone, and the population of some species would drop.” He said the so-called

contingency plans for the current oil spill were a disgrace, and that even though it was

Christmas, it was a terrible day. “Imagine the Government doesn’t have equipment for an

oil spill. T&T has no emergency response capacity.”

Source: http://www.guardian.co.tt/news/2013-12-30/oil-spill-tobago-was-one-

tt%E2%80%99s-worst

a. Using the case study above, identify two (2) disasters which have occurred in the

oil industry in Trinidad and Tobago. 2 marks

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b. According to the Secretary of Fishermen and Friends of the Sea, what is the

impact of the oil spill on the Gulf of Paria? 3 marks

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c. Discuss how air pollution contributes to pollution in the Gulf of Paria. 3 marks

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d. In what ways can a risk assessment contribute to mitigate against the negative

effects of the oil industry? 2 marks

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Section D

OPTION FOR NETD SOFTWARE ENGINEERING/COMPUTER

NETWORK AND TELECOMMUNICATION

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

Question #1:

(i) You are the technician assigned to the helpdesk at the University of Trinidad and

Tobago. A member of the academic staff requires some assistance. Identify how you

would assist with each of the following:

a. His hands become easily tired when typing on the keyboard. His elbows are in a

downward position.

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b. The screen is being affected by glare

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c. The user cannot comfortably reach all the equipment and papers he needs to

use.

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d. He has requested your advice on what is good keyboard technique

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(4 marks)

(ii) You have to work on your laptop for an extended period of time to complete your

HSEV1005 class project. Identify three (3) precautions you should take to reduce the risk of

musculoskeletal discomfort or injury.

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(3 marks)

(iii). The portable nature of your laptop makes it likely that you will carry the laptop more often.

Identify three (3) simple principles to reduce back, shoulder and neck strain:

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(3 marks)

Question #2:

i. What is the Basel Convention?

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(2 marks)

ii. Identify three (3) hazardous elements found in computers and explain how these

elements can impact negatively on human health.

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(3 marks)

iii. What does the term ‘product stewardship’ mean?

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(2 marks)

iv. Kodak as part of its commitment to product stewardship offers customers products

that carry the ENERGY STAR® logo. Identify one benefit that can be gained from

the use of ENERGY STAR® products.

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(1 mark)

Question #3:

Identify two (2) barriers to recycling e-waste. (2 marks)

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END OF EXAMINATION

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