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WRD-2016

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Junior Engineer Written Paper

(CIVIL ENGINEERING)

Answer Key with Solution


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WRD-2016Answer Key with Solution

CIVIL BRANCH (DEGREE)

1. In the merger of rajasthan states to know the opinionof the people of Bharatpur, Dholpur, Riyas;committee was constitude in that committee whowas not included ?(a) PrabhuDayal(b) M.S. Jain(c) Dr. Shankar Rav Dev(d) R.K. Sidhawa

Ans. (*) Not available right now.

2. Who established the Sardul Rajasthani ResearchInstitute?(a) Ramkaran Aasopa (b) Raichand(c) Dashrath Sharma (d) Jems Tod


3. Which code does not match ?

State Political Agent

(A) Udaipur – C.L. Shawarsh

(B)Kotah – Major Berton

(C)Jaipur – Major Lawrence

(D) Bharatpur – Major Nixon(a) D (b) B(c) A (d) C

Ans. (d) C

4. In which area did the Bhagat movement start ?(a) Udaipur – Chittorgarh(b) Sirohi – Pali(c) Dungarpur – Banswara(d) Barmer – Sirohi

Ans. (c) Dungarpur – Banswara

WRD JEN Solution2016

Objective Paper

5. Who did the foundation of the fort of Nawalkhan inJhalrapatan ?(a) Jalim Singh (b) Prithwi Singh(c) Madan Singh (d) Ratan Singh

Ans. (c) Madan Singh

6. What was the site located on the banks of river Sabiwhere ancient civilization in Rajasthan was settled ?(a) Nagari (b) Giloond(c) Baror (d) Jodhpur

Ans. (a) Nagari

7. Which historian has claimed that the Chouhansoriginated from the Brahmin ?(a) Cunningham (b) C.V. Vaidh(c) Dr. Ojah (d) Dr. Bhandarkar

Ans. (d) Dr. Bhandarkar

8. On which ruler was bestowed the title of ‘Kavi-versh’?(a) Munj (b) Pratap Singh(c) Rav Jodha (d) Abhay Singh

Ans. (b) Pratap Singh

9. When did the “third saka” of Chittor take place ?(a) 1567 AD (b) 1570 AD(c) 1568 AD (d) 1569 AD

Ans. (a) 1567 AD

10. Where is the “Chal phir shah’s” dargah located inRajasthan ?(a) Jaipur (b) Ajmer(c) Chittor garh (d) Nagour

Ans. (c) Chittor garh

WRD JEN- 2016 | Objective Paper (Degree) Civil Engineering

2 | Engineering Career Tutorial (ECT)

11. What are ‘Ghoonght’, ‘Gugadi’, ‘Bandra’, ‘Imli’ ?

(a) The rituals of food habits of Rajasthan.

(b) The names of the castes (Jati) in the gotra as

per the folk tradition in marwar.

(c) The names of large bations on the parapets of

Taragarh (Ajmer).

(d) The names of the garments worm by ladies in

interior of mewar.

Ans. (b) The names of the castes (Jati) in the gotra as

per the folk tradition in marwar.

12. Where is the main peeth of ‘Charandasi seet’ ?

(a) Delhi (b) Bikaner

(c) Alwar (d) Sikar

Ans. (a) Delhi

13. The ‘Boo’ village of Nagour was famous for which

reason?

(a) For iron implements

(b) For mud toys

(c) For patch work

(d) For jut pattis

Ans. (b) For mud toys

14. About which work is the following statement mode

we don’t know whether such a large published is

available in India of the world ?

(a) Vansh Bhashkar

(b) Rag Ratnakar

(c) Shrangar Har

(d) Rag Kalpdroom


15. Where is the Ornament ‘Poth’, ‘Hankar ’,

‘Sari’worn?

(a) In ear (b) In the feet

(c) Around the neck (d) In nose

Ans. (c) Around the neck

16. Which statement regarding Kuchamani khayal is notcorrect ?(a) In this male artist performed the female part also.(b) The main artist are chetram, Hammid beg,

Tarachand.(c) In this the dancers are also the singer.(d) The founder of Kuchamani khayal is Lacchiram.

Ans. (b) The main artist are chetram, Hammid beg,Tarachand.

17. Where in Rajasthan is located the ‘TripuraSundarimata temple’ ?(a) Jalore (b) Jaisalmer(c) Banswara (d) Barmer

Ans. (a) Jalore

18. Who established ‘Vidhyarthi Youth League’ in Delhi1929 AD ?(a) Manikya Lal Verma(b) Master Aadityendra(c) Tikaram Paliwal(d) Janaki Devi Bajaj

Ans. (c) Tikaram Paliwal

19. The category ‘Davi’ and ‘Jeevani’ of Nobales waspopular in which part of Rajasthan(a) Kotah (b) Udaipur(c) Jaisalmer (d) Marwar

Ans. (d) Marwar

20. Which code does not match?

Prajamandal Founder

(A) Jaisalmer – Meethalal Vyas

(B)Kotah – NayanuramSharma

(C)Jaipur – Kapoorchand Patani

(D) Bundi – Gopilal Yadav(a) A (b) C(c) B (d) D

Ans. (b) C

Civil Engineering Objective Paper (Degree) | WRD JEN- 2016

Engineering Career Tutorial (ECT) | 3

21. Which of the districts of Rajasthan are benefited by

Choudhary Kumbha Ram lift of Indira Gandhi.

(a) Jodhpur and Nagaur

(b) Ganganagar and Bikaner

(c) Hanumangarh and Churu

(d) Sikar and Jhunjhunu

Ans. (c)

22. National Highway of Rajasthan which forms part

of both the Golden Quadrant project as well as West

corridor

(a) NH No. 8 (b) NH No. 79

(c) NH No. 76 (d) NH No. 15

Ans. (c) NH No. 76

23. Road route of Rajasthan included in ‘Super National

Highway’ is named as

(a) Maharaja Agrasen Route

(b) Mega Highway

(c) Expressway

(d) Maharana Pratap Route

Ans. (c) Expressway

24. Jhamar Kotra is famous for the mining of

(a) Manganese

(b) Rock Phosphate

(c) Silver

(d) Lead and Zinc

Ans. (b) Rock Phosphate

25. Which district of Rajasthan currently produces

maximum quantity of Gypsum ?

(a) Hanumangarh (b) Nagaur

(c) Bikaner (d) Jaisalmer

Ans. (b) Nagaur

26. Shape of Rajasthan state is

(a) Hexagonal (b) Rhombus

(c) Quadrangular (d) Equiangular

Ans. (b) Rhombus

27. Latitudinal extent of Rajasthan state is

(a) 24°4' to 31°15' North(b) 24°3' to 30°11' North(c) 23°3'to 30°12' North(d) 23°3' to 30°11' North

Ans. (c) 23°3'to 30°12' North

28. Which one of the following is the highest mountainpeak of Aravallis ?(a) Jarga(b) Raghunathgarh(c) Ser(d) Taragarh

Ans. (c) Ser

29. In which physical division of Rajasthan are theMukandra Hills located(a) Bhorat Plateau(b) Shekhawati Region(c) Southern Aravalli(d) Hadoti Plateau

Ans. (d) Hadoti Plateau

30. ‘Uparmal’ is part of(a) Abu plateau (b) Bhorat plateau(c) Nagaur plateau (d) Hadauti plateau

Ans. (d) Hadauti plateau

31. Topography of Thar desert is dominated by whattype of sand dunes?(a) Transverse (b) Parabolic(c) Barchan (d) Longitudinal

Ans. (c) Barchan

32. In terms of length within Rajasthan territory thecorrect ascending order of the rivers is(a) Chambal–Luni–Banas–Kantli(b) Luni–Banas–Kantli–Chambal(c) Banas–Kantli–Chambal–Luni(d) Kantli–Chambal–Luni–Banas

Ans. (d)



33. Which one of the following is not a reason for scanty

rainfall in western Rajasthan ?

(a) Excessive heat during oncoming monsoon

(b) High air pressure during summers

(c) Location of Aravalli

(d) Location in rain shadow zone

Ans. (d) Location in rain shadow zone

34. Which of the following soils extend over the largest

area of Rajasthan ?

(a) Inceptisols

(b) Aridisols and Entisols

(c) Aridisols and Vertisols

(d) Vertisols and Alfisols

Ans. (d) Vertisols and Alfisols

35. What type of natural vegetation is found in Mt. Abu

region ?

(a) Tropical thorn

(b) Sub-tropical evergreen

(c) Tropical evergreen

(d) Semi-arid deciduous

Ans. (b) Sub-tropical evergreen

36. Protected by law and included in world heritage the

unique birdlife protection spot in Rajasthan.

(a) Ranthambhor

(b) Darrah

(c) Keoladeo Ghana

(d) Desert national Park

Ans. (c) Keoladeo Ghana

37. What is the root cause of desertification inRajasthan.(a) Deepening ground water level(b) Loss of soil cover(c) Frequent droughts(d) vegetative cover

Ans. (b) Loss of soil cover

38. Crops grown in the largest cultivated area (2013-14) of Rajasthan are(a) Cereals(b) Pulses(c) Sugarcane and Cotton(d) Oil seeds

Ans. (a) Cereals

39. According to the livestock census 2012 (Provisional)the total livestock number of Rajasthan is(a) 547 lacs(b) 566 lacs(c) 577 lacs(d) 491 lacs

Ans. (c) 577 lacs

40. Which one of the following irrigation projects is thejoint venture of Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryanastates?(a) Mahi Bajaj Sagar(b) Beas(c) Narmada Canal(d) Indira Gandhi Canal

Ans. (b) Beas


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41. Maximum permissible wear in stones for road workis(a) 3% (b) 4%(c) 1% (d) 2%

Sol. (d)Maximum permissible wear in stones for buildingwork = 3%Maximum permissible wear in stones for road work= 2%

42. A good brick earth can be rolled without breaking insmall thread of diameter(a) 10 mm (b) 3 mm(c) 1 mm (d) 6 mm

Ans. (b) 3 mm

43. Fat lime is used for best performance in___(a) None(b) Lime concrete(c) Masonry mortar(d) Plaster work

Sol. (d)Fat lime – Plaster workHydraulic Lime – Masonry construction work

44. Which of the following grades of concrete in R.C.C.is recommended for severe exposure condition byBIS ?(a) M15 (b) M25(c) M20 (d) M30

Sol. (d)Exposure condition Grade of Concrete

MildModerate

SevereVery Severe

Extreme

M20M25M30M35M40

45. Which of the following minerals has more than 50%share in rapid hardening cement(a) C4AF (b) C3S(c) C2S (d) C3A

Ans. (b) C3S

46. Which of the following range of pigment volumeconcentration number is recommended for paint forprime coat on metal ?(a) 50–60 (b) 25–40(c) 60–70 (d) 40–50

Ans. (b) 25–40

47. The best season for felling of trees for timberproduction in hilly area(a) Winter (b) Spring(c) Monsoon (d) Summer

Sol. (d)In hilly areas, felling is done in mid-summer as thereis heavy rainfall in winter.In plain areas, mid-winter is proper season for fellingas due to large evaporation of sap in summerformation of cracks occurs.

48. Which of the following Indian standard is referredto determine zone of fine aggregate ?(a) IS 383 (b) IS 1893(c) IS 1237 (d) IS 456

Ans. (a) IS 383

49. A dummy activity in a project network does notconsume(a) Time (b) Material(c) Money (d) All the above

Sol. (d)Dummy activity is an imaginary activity which doesnot require time, material and money.

50. In a CPM network latest finish time for an event I is10 weeks i-j takes 4 weeks for completion. Event Jstarts after 16 weeks. Float of activity i-j is(a) 2 weeks (b) 12 weeks(c) 6 weeks (d) 10 weeks

Sol. (a)Float = Time by which an activity can be delayed

without extending the time of completionof project.

= 16 – (10 + 4) = 2 weeks



51. Surface tension is due to(a) Cohesion and Adhesion(b) Cohesion only(c) Adhesion only(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Cohesion only

52. The absolute pressure is equal to(a) Gauge pressure + Vaccum pressure(b) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure(c) Atmospheric pressure – Vaccum pressure(d) Gauge pressure – Vaccum pressure

Sol. (b)Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure – Atmosphericpressure

53. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquiddisplaced is called(a) Centre of buoyancy(b) Meta centre(c) Centre of pressure(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Centre of buoyancy

54. Which of the following function represent thevelocity potential of a function?

(a) 2 22x y (b) 2 2x y

(c) 3 3x y (d) 2 2x y

Sol. (d)For velocity potential function first continuityequation to be satisfy.

2 2x y

u 2xx

v 2yy

Continuity equation

u v 0x y

–2 + 2 = 0And for velocity potential function flow must beirrotational.

2

1 v u 02 x y

55. Which of the following pressure units represents theleast pressure ?(a) Kgf/cm2 (b) mm of mercury(c) Millibar (d) N/mm2

56. The reading of differential manometer of a venturimeter placed at 45°to the horizontal is 11 cm. If theventurimeters is turned to horizontal position, themanometer reading will be

(a) 11 / 2 cm (b) 11 cm

(c) 11 2 cm (d) Zero

Sol. (b)With change the position of venturimeter.No effect on reading of manometer.So, manometer reading will remain 11 cm.

57. The Cippoleti weir is a ............ weir.(a) Triangular (b) Trapezoidal(c) Circular (d) Rectangular

Ans. (b) Trapezoidal

58. The Power transmitted through the pipe is maximumwhen the head loss due friction is equal to

(a) 2 of the total supply head3

(b) 1 of the total supply head3

(c) 1 of the total supply head4

(d) 1 of the total supply head2

Ans. (b) 1 of the total supply head3

Ans. (c) Millibar



59. Due to aging of a pipe line, its carrying capacity hasdecreased by 25%. The corresponding increase inthe Darcy Weisbach friction factor f is ..........%(a) 63% (b) 77%(c) 56% (d) None of the above

Sol. (c)Darcy-Weisbach equation:

hL

2

5

f Q12D

l

f 2

1Q

f 2

1(0.75)

f 10.5625

60. The friction factor of laminar liquid flow in a circularpipe is proportional to(a) Inversely to the Reynold’s number(b) Square root of the Reynold’s number(c) Square to the Reynold’s number(d) Reynold’s number

Sol. (a)

f e

64R

In laminar flow through circular pipes, friction factordepends only on Reynold’s number.

f e

1R

61. The local mean time at a place located in longitude90°40 E when the standard time is 6 hours and 30minutes and the standard meridian is 82°30 E is(a) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds(b) 5 hours, 47 minutes and 20 seconds(c) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds(d) 6 hours and 30 minutes

Sol. (*) None of the options is correct.

360° 24 hours 1° 4min

90 40 E 82 30 E 8 10 8 4min 4 10sec32min 40sec

So Standard time6 hours 30 min 32 min 40 secs

5 hours 57 min and 20 secs

62. The survey in which the earth’s curvature is alsoconsidered is called(a) Geodetic survey(b) Topographical survey(c) Preliminary survey(d) Plain survey

Ans. (a) Geodetic survey

63. The latitude and departure of a line AB are +78 mand –45.1 m, respectively. The whole circle bearingof the line AB is(a) 330° (b) 120°(c) 30° (d) 150°

Sol. (a)Latitude is positive positive y-axisDeparture is negative negative x-axisGiven coordinates will be in 4th quadrant which is330°.

64. A series of closed contour lines on the map withlower to higher values inside them, represents a(a) Ridge (b) Depression(c) Steep slope (d) Hill

Ans. (d) Hill

65. Two-point problem and three-point problem aremethod of(a) Resection(b) Orientation(c) Orientation and Resection(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Orientation and Resection

Q decrease by 25% means now it is 75%.

It means friction factor Increases by 56%.



66. The collimation method for obtaining the reducedlevels of points does not provide a check(a) Intermediate sights(b) Back sights(c) Fore sights(d) Change points

Ans. (a) Intermediate sights

67. Size of a theodolite is specified by(a) Diameter of vertical circle(b) Diameter of upper plate(c) Diameter of lower plate(d) Length of telescope

Ans. (c) Diameter of lower plate

68. The point on the celestial sphere vertically belowthe observation position is called(a) Pole (b) Zenith(c) Celestial point (d) Nadir

Ans. (d) Nadir

69. The most widely used antenna in GPS is(a) Horn antenna(b) Microstrip antenna(c) Slotted antenna(d) Parabolic antenna

Ans. (a) Horn antenna

70. In long and short wall method of estimation, thelength of long walls is the centre to centre distancebetween the walls and plus(a) Breadth of the wall(b) Half breadth of wall on each side(c) One fourth breadth of wall on each side(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Half breadth of wall on each side

71. For conducting a Standard Proctor Compaction Test,the weight of hammer (P in kg), the fall of hammer(Q in mm), the number of blows per layer (R) andthe number of layers (S) required are respectively

P Q R S(a) 4.89 450 25 3(b) 2.60 310 25 3(c) 3.60 310 35 4(d) 5.89 550 50 3

Ans. (b)

72. Sheep-foot rollers are recommended for compacting(a) hard rock(b) granular soil(c) cohesive soil(d) any type of soil

Ans. (c) cohesive soil

73. Given that for a soil deposit

Ko = earth pressure coefficient at rest

Ka = active earth pressure coefficient

Kp = passive earth pressure coefficient

= Poisson’s ratio

The value of (1 – )/ is given by

(a) p aK / K (b) o1 / K

(c) oK (d) a pK / K

Sol. (b)

Ko o

1 11 K

74. A gross bearing capacity of a 2.0m wide strip footingat a depth of 1.5m is 450 KN/m2. If = 20 KN/m3,what is the net bearing capacity ?(a) 430 KN/m2

(b) 410 KN/m2

(c) 400 KN/m2

(d) 420 KN/m2

Sol. (d)qnet gross fq D

450 20 1.5 2420 kN / m



75. The size of square bearing plate in the plate loadtest for determining the bearing capacity of soilshould(a) greater than 1.0 m(b) between 300 mm and 750 mm(c) less than 300 mm(d) between 750 mm and 1.0 m

Ans. (b) between 300 mm and 750 mm

76. A catchment consists of 40% area with run-offcoefficient 0.30 with the remaining 60% area withrun-off coefficient 0.50. The equivalent run-offcoefficient will be(a) 0.38 (b) 0.48(c) 0.42 (d) 0.52

Sol. (c)Equivalent run-off

40 0.3 60 0.5100

0.42

77. For calculating the maximum flood discharge inalluvial stream, which is the best suited relation?

(a) 0.64V D (b) 2/3 1/3V R S(c) 1/2 1/2V R S (d) 2/3 1/2V R S

Ans. (a) 0.64V D

78. Discharge per unit drawdown at a well is called(a) Specific capacity(b) Specific storage(c) Specific yield(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Specific capacity

79. Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually(a) Above atmospheric pressure(b) At atmospheric pressure(c) At sub atmospheric pressure(d) At 0.5 time of the atmospheric pressure

Ans. (a) Above atmospheric pressure

80. The water utilized by plants is available in the formof(a) Chemical water (b) Gravity water(c) Capillary water (d) Hydroscopic water

Ans. (c) Capillary water

81. A canal has designed to supply the irrigation needsof 1000 ha of land growing rise of 140 days baseperiod and having a delta of 126 cm. If the canalwater is used to irrigate wheat of base period 120days and having a delta of 60 cm, the area that canbe irrigated is(a) 2000 ha (b) 2200 ha(c) 1600 ha (d) 1800 ha

Sol. (d)

Dhact A 8.64B

cumec Q

Q 1 1 2 2

1 2

A AA8.64B B B

A21000 126 120 1800 ha

140 60

82. In the alignment of an irrigation channel wherefromoff takes have to be provided at regular intervals,changes in the given channel parameters are madeof. The correct sequence of the decreasing order ofpreference of these parameters is(a) Width, depth, slope(b) Depth, width, slope(c) Depth, slope, width(d) Width, slope, depth

Ans. (a) Width, depth, slope

83. A ridge canal is called a:(a) Watershed canal(b) Contour canal(c) Across the contours(d) Side slope canal

Ans. (a) Watershed canal



84. Lacey’s silt factor for medium silt whose averagegrain size is 0.25 mm. is likely to be(a) 0.66 (b) 0.88(c) 0.77 (d) 0.99

Sol. (b)

f mm1.76 d

1.76 0.25 1.76 0.5 0.88

85. Garret’s diagrams are based on(a) Laey’s thoery(b) Kennedy’s theory(c) Blight’s theory(d) Khosla’s theory

Ans. (b) Kennedy’s theory

86. Which of the following method is most accurate forthe determination of the water content of soil(a) Sand bath method(b) Oven drying method(c) Calcium carbide method(d) Pynometer method

Ans. (b) Oven drying method

87. The plastic limit and liquid limit of a soil sample are35% and 70% respectively. The percentage of soilfraction with grain size finer than 0.002mm is 25.The activity ratio of the soil sample is(a) 1.0 (b) 1.8(c) 1.4 (d) 0.6

Sol. (c)

Activity (Ac) pI 70 35

% clay 25

35 1.425

88. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick sandcondition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.8m, specificgravity 2.65 and void ratio 0.65 is equal to(a) 1.2 m (b) 1.6 m(c) 1.8 m (d) 1.0 m

ic G 1 2.65 1 1.65 11 e 1 0.65 1.65

89. The hydrostatic pressure on the Phreatic line withina dam section is(a) Greater than atmospheric pressure(b) Equal to atmospheric pressure(c) Less than atmospheric pressure(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Equal to atmospheric pressure

90. For a particular loading condition, a saturated claylayer undergoes 30% consolidation in a period of180 days. What would be the additional time requiredfor further 20% consolidation to occur(a) 160 days (b) 280 days(c) 320 days (d) 220 days

Sol. (c)2

V11 12

2 V2 2

Tt Ut T U

2 22 2

22 21 1

t U (50)t 180 500t U (30)

More days required = 500 – 180 = 320 days

91. Reduction in design shear capacity of bolts duepacking plate in excess of 6 mm is expressed (asper IS800-2007) by:(a) 1 – 0.25 tpm (b) 1 – 0.125 tpm

(c) 1 – 0.0125 tpm (d) 1 – 0.12 tpm

Where tpm : thickness of thicker packing plateAns. (c) 1 – 0.0125 tpm

92. Transverse shear to be considered for design ofbatten plate is(a) 2.5% of axial force(b) 10% of axial force(c) 5% of axial force(d) 25% of axial force

Ans. (a) 2.5% of axial force

Sol. (c)



93. A concrete mix has entrapped air about 1% resultsin:(a) Requires less quantity of water(b) Improved quality of concrete(c) Poor quality of concrete(d) Average quality of concrete

Ans. (d) Average quality of concrete

94. Which one of following is not mechanical propertyot bricks ?(a) Tensile strength(b) Modulus of rupture(c) Fire resistance(d) Texture

Ans. (d) Texture

95. Relevant IS code for specification of bath typeconcrete mixers is:(a) IS : 1791 (b) IS : 2506(c) IS: 2502 (d) IS: 1786

Ans. (a)

96. Tolerance limits for dimensions of bricks in length,width and height, respectively, for a sample of 20bricks taken together as per IS code are:(a) 100 mm, 95 mm, 95 mm(b) 80 mm, 40 mm, 40 mm(c) 50 mm, 20 mm, 20 mm(d) 2000 mm, 90 mm, 90 mm

Ans. (b) 80 mm, 40 mm, 40 mm

97. Consider following requirement of documents foragreement to be signed for a construction project:

(i) Letter of acceptance

(ii) General conditions of contract

(iii)Conditions of particular application

(iv)Technical specification

(v) Drawing

(vi)Price bill of quantities

Which one of the following is correct answer?(a) i, ii, iv and v only(b) i, iii, iv and v only(c) ii, iii, iv and v only(d) All

Ans. (a)

98. A bar made of a material which has modulus ofelasticity 2 × 105 MPa and Poison’s ratio 0.25. Whichone of the following corresponds to shear modulusof the material?(a) 0.8 × 105 MPa(b) 0.4 × 105 MPa(c) 0.2 × 105 MPa(d) 0.5 × 105 MPa

Sol. (a)

E 2G(1 )

G 52 10 0.8 10 MPa2 (1 0.25)

99. In a propped cantilever beam ABC. Fixed at end Aand propped at B. AB = L and overhang BC = L/4.A point load “P” is applied at C will generate momentat A:(a) PL/10 (b) PL/4(c) PL/2 (d) PL/8

Sol. (d)

A BP

L L/4

C

RB

Total deflection at point B= Downward deflection due to point load P= Upward deflection due to reaction RB

AP

C

RB

PL4

23

PL LPL 43EI 2EI

3BR L

3EI



311PPL24EI

3B

BR L 11R P3EI 8

Moment at A 5 11 1P L P L PL4 8 8

100. a shaft of length L having torsional rigidity GJ issubjected to a torque T. The corresponding stiffnessshall be:

(a)TJL

(b)TGL

(c)GJL

(d)TJGL

Ans. (c)

101. Euler’s critical buckling load for a column fixed atone end and free at other end is:

(a)2

2

4 EIL

(b)2

2

EI2L

(c)2

2

EIL

(d)2

2

EI4L

Ans. (d)

102. A rectangular block is subjected to normal stresseson two orthogonal faces 600 Mpa and 400 Mpa ofsame nature. What shall be maximum shear stressproduced on a plane ?(a) 250 MPa (b) 500 MPa(c) 100 MPa (d) 300 MPa

Sol. (c)

max 1 2 600 400 100 MPa2 2

103. Consider following for a short column:(i) Fails primarily due to crushing,(ii) Ultimate load capacity depends upon its length,(iii) Yield stress governs crushing strength.

Which one of the following is correct answer ?(a) i and ii only (b) ii and iii only(c) i and iii only (d) i only

Ans. (c)

104. Radius of gyration of two rectangular columns is ina ratio of 3:1. What shall be the ratio of their depths?

(a) 1: 3 (b) 1: 3(c) 3 :1 (d) 3:1

Sol. (d)

31 1 1

21 1 1 11 1

3 22 22 2 2 2

2 2 2

I b dA b d dr d

r dI b d dA b d

105. A free end of a cantilever beam rotates by 0.001radians under a point load 10 kN. Then deflection atthe free end due to a moment of 100 kN-m is:(a) 25 mm (b) 40 mm(c) 10 mm (d) 20 mm

Sol. (c)

In cantilever beam deflection 3PL

3EI

Deflection P

2 22

1 1

P 100 0.001 0.01P 10

Assuming 1 m length deflection = 0.01 m = 10 mm

106. A prismatic beam of uniform flexural rigidity EI issimple supported over a spam, L. If a moment, Mapplied at one support, the resulting bending strainenergy is

(a)2M L

6EI(b)

2M L2EI

(c)2ML

EI(d)

2M L4EI

Ans. (b)

107. Which one of the following represents curvature ofa beam subjected to pure bending?

(a) 2y '(1 y )

(b) 1/2y (1 y )

(c) 1/2y '(1 y )

(d) 3/2y (1 y )



Sol. (*) None of the options is correct

Curvature

2

2

3/ 2 3/ 22 2

d y1 ydxR 1 (y )dy1

dx

108. As per IS code provision the tolerance on placing of

reinforcement in a structural member having effective

depth more than 200 mm shall be:

(a) ±25 mm (b) ±15 mm

(c) ±20 mm (d) ±10 mm

Ans. (b) ±15 mm

109. A curve showing percentage passing on ordinate

v/s sieve size on abscissa of aggregate a hotizontal

portion for certain range indicates:

(a) Porous grading

(b) Gap grading

(c) Continuous grading

(d) Mix grading

Ans. (c) Continuous grading

110. Partial safety factors to be taken for concrete and

steel reinforcement, respectively, for design purpose

per IS:456-2000 are:

(a) 1.15 and 1.5

(b) 1.5 and 1.5

(c) 1.15 and 1.15

(d) 1.5 and 1.15

Ans. (d) 1.5 and 1.15

111. In a monolithic slab-beam RC constructions

transverse reinforcement to be provided in the slab

shall be:

(a) 50% of main reinforcement at mid span

(b) 25% of main reinforcement at mid span

(c) 40% of main reinforcement at mid span

(d) 60% of main reinforcement at mid span

Ans. (d)

112. For limit state design of RC beam consider following:

(i)y

ck

f0.36

f

(ii) stA 4%bd

(iii) u,maxx0.48

d

Which one of the design criteria shall be applicable?(a) Over-reinforced section(b) Under reinforced section(c) Both balanced and over reinforced sections(d) Balanced section

Ans. (d) Balanced section

113. Most appropriate hot rolled indian standard sectionfor steel girder is:(a) ISWB (b) ISHB(c) ISMB (d) ISLB

Ans. (c) ISMB

114. Gauge length of steel specimen as per codal provisionis:(a) 8d

(b) 05.65 A

(c) 5d(d) 6dWhere

d: larger dimension of the specimen;A0: cross sectional area of the specimen

Ans. (b) 05.65 A

115. Which one is correct about prying force ?(a) Additional torsional force(b) Additional compressive force(c) Additional tension force(d) Additional bending moment

Ans. (c) Additional tension force



116. When the F9 key of the keyboard is pressed, thefollowing facility is toggled on/off:(a) Snap (b) O-Snap(c) Ortho (d) Grid

Ans. (a) Snap

117. What does WCS stand for ?(a) World CAD setting(b) Worldwide coordinate(c) Western CAD system(d) World coordinate system

Ans. (d) World coordinate system

118. The Fillet command creates:(a) Sharp corners(b) Round corners(c) Round and Sharp corners(d) None of above

Ans. (a) Sharp corners

119. What keyboard key used for polar on/off ?(a) F11 (b) F8(c) F12 (d) F10

Ans. (d) F10

120. Which command allows you to change the line typescale ?(a) LTS (b) LS(c) LTSC (d) LT

Ans. (a) LTS

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