all india maha mock ibps po mains - career power · market as it battles coca-cola in soft drinks...

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All India MAHA Mock IBPS PO Mains

Q1. Statement: Beverage and snacks maker PepsiCo India is pushing to become more aggressive in the

market as it battles Coca-Cola in soft drinks and ITC and Parle in foods. The new hierarchy clubs’ beverages

and foods into an integrated entity, with functions of marketing, operations, HR, finance, legal, corporate

affairs and R&D being brought together under common heads.

Which of the following can be a part of possible fallout of the above situation?

(a) The food business is getting increasingly fragmented.

(b) The company is battling growth slowing across foods and beverages, fluctuating weather conditions

that make market behavior unpredictable and consumers turning to healthier foods and drinks.

(c) Its top eight brands generate a business of about Rs. 1000 crore each.

(d) The company has made sweeping changes in its senior leadership structure.

(e) Both (a) and (c)

Q2. Statement: The government is set to overhaul annual targets for public sector lenders, ending a focus

on size that has long encouraged banks to inflate their loans and deposits at the year-end to hit growth

objectives. Banking and government sources said that the new targets, to be discussed at meeting with top

state bank officials, would focus on efficiency, with objectives set around return on assets, or return on

equity, and controlling bad debts.

Which of the following points can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that

is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information.)

(a) Loans and deposits of the banks will go up.

(b) Loans on which there is maximum probability of return will be encouraged.

(c) Number of bad debts per financial year will increase.

(d) Financial stability of the banks will be lost.

(e) All can be inferred.

Directions (3-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Fourteen persons are standing in four different queues at four counters viz. J, K, L and M. All the counter is

in the same line. All the persons are facing towards North. The distance between two persons standing in

a queue is same for all the queue. 1,2,3,4 denotes position in even

number block or in odd number blocks.

Amongst those fourteen persons there are seven girls i.e. C, Q, R, S, T,

V and X. Rest of them are boys. D is the only male in his queue. Only

one person is standing between U and W in the same queue. B is not

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standing in the queue of counter J. No boy is standing behind A. B is standing just behind Z and just ahead

Three persons are standing between T and X, who is standing last in the queue. Not more than five persons

are standing in a queue. V stands immediate left of D and immediate right of B. T stands immediate left of

Z. W stands just ahead of R. S stands just behind P. A is not standing in 1st block of any queue.

Q3. Who is standing at 2nd position of the queue in counter J?

(a) T

(b) P

(c) S

(d) D

(e) None of these

Q4. How many persons are standing behind P in his queue?

(a) Two

(b) None

(c) One

(d) Three

(e) None of these

Q5. Which of the following counter have highest number of females in the queue?

(a) J

(b) K

(c) L

(d) M

(e) None of these

Q6. How many females are standing in odd position?

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

(e) None of these

Q7. Who among the following is standing in 1st position of his/her queue?

(a) B

(b) C

(c) W

(d) P

(e) None of these


Directions (8-12): Study the following information to answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and re-arrangement.

And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 7533 3224 8541 3562 4521 3225 6546 5253 Q8. What is the sum of the number who is 3rd from right and who is 4th from left in step II? (a) 2414 (b) 2410 (c) 2014 (d) 2320 (e) None of these Q9. Which of the following is the square of the number who is 2nd from right in penultimate step? (a) 121 (b) 49 (c) 36 (d) 25 (e) None of these

Q10. Which of the following number is 3rd from the right of 4th from right end in step IV? (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 5 (d) 19 (e) None of these Q11. When all the numbers in step III is arranged in ascending order from left to right then, how many numbers will not change their position? (a) Two (b) One (c) None (d) Three (e) Four


Q12. What is the difference between the highest and lowest number in final step?

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 6.5

(d) 6

(e) None of these

Directions (13-17): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Six persons are going to see different animals in a zoo in different days of a week which starts from Monday

and ends in Saturday from their houses. There are different distances from the houses of the persons to

Zoo. Distances are positive integers and are in Arithmetic Progression. Distance of zoo from P’s house is

less than the distance from Q’s house. C who is going zoo after Wednesday is 10km far from zoo. Two

persons are going zoo between C and the person who is going to see Elephant. Three persons are going zoo

between the person who is going to see Elephant and the person who is 1km far from zoo. Only two persons

house have more distance from zoo than the distance of zoo from C’s house. Person who is going to see

Lion is going zoo just before A and just after P. C doesn’t go to see Lion. Distance of zoo from A’s house is

more than from Q’s house and less than from B’s house. R is going zoo just before the person who is going

to see Crocodile and just after the person who is going to see Wolf. Person who is going to see Deer is going

zoo before B and after Q. A doesn’t go to see Parrot.

Q13. How far Q’s house is from zoo?

(a) 4km

(b) 5km

(c) 6km

(d) 7km

(e) None of these

Q14. On which of the following day the person who is going to see Parrot is going zoo?

(a) Thursday

(b) Friday

(c) Saturday

(d) Wednesday

(e) None of these

Q15. How many persons are going zoo between the persons who are

going to see Deer and Crocodile?

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

(e) More than three

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Q16. Which of the following pair of combination is true?

(a) A-Wednesday-13km-Elephant

(b) Q-Monday-7km-Lion

(c) B-Saturday-16km-Crocodile

(d) R-Friday-4km-Parrot

(e) None is true

Q17. What is the average distance of zoo from the houses of A, B, P and Q?

(a) 9km

(b) 10km

(c) 11km

(d) 12km

(e) None of these

Directions (18-21): Each of the questions below, consist of a question and three statements

numbered I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient

to answer the question. Read the three statements and Give answer

Q18. Five persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T are in different professions. What is the profession of R?

I: P is not CA. Q is not Engineer. R is not Architect. S is not Scientist.

II: T is not Doctor. R is not CA. S is not Engineer. Q is not Architect.

III: P is not Scientist. Q is not CA. S is not Doctor. T is not Engineer.

(a) If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement III are not required to answer the question.

(b) If the data in statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement II are not required to answer the question.

(c) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are

not required to answer the question.

(d) If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.

(e) If the data in all the statements, I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q19. Nine persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J of three generations are living in a family. There are two couples

living in a family. How many male members are living in the family?

I: A is grand parent of B, who is only son of C. D is sister in law of C.

II: E is child of F, who is brother of D. G is mother of D, who is sister in law of H.

III: H is daughter of J, who is mother in law of F.

(a) If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in




(c) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are

not required to answer the question.

(d) If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.



Q20. Eight persons i.e. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a circular table facing towards center but not

necessarily in same order. How many persons are sitting between Q and R when counted clockwise direction from Q?

I: M sits 2nd to the right of N, who sits next to O. P faces Q, who doesn’t sit next to M. II: Two persons are sitting between R and S, who doesn’t sit next to Q.

III: R sits immediate right of T. Two persons are sitting between M and Q. (a) If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement III are not required to answer the question. (b) If the data in statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement II are not required to answer the question. (c) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are

not required to answer the question. (d) If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.


Q21. Six boxes of different colors i.e. Green, Red, Yellow, Pink, Blue, Purple are kept one above another but

not necessarily in same order. Which box is kept at topmost position? I: Green colored box is kept above Pink colored box and below Red colored box. Three boxes are kept

between Green and Blue colored box. II: Yellow colored box is kept above Purple colored box and below Red colored box. One box is kept between

Yellow and Green colored box. III: Three boxes are kept between Pink and Yellow colored box. Red colored box is kept above Purple

colored box and below Blue colored box. Pink colored box is not kept at bottommost position (a) If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in




(c) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are not required to answer the question.

(d) If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question. (e) If the data in all the statements, I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q22. There has been a considerable rise in unemployment in the country over the past few years with

many people loosing their jobs in the private sectors. Many of the unemployed are now struggling to earn their livelihood.

Which of the following is an appropriate course of action in light of the above statement? I. People should look for an opportunity in other countries.

II. People should revolt against the government policies.

III. Government should put on hold its push for automation like driver less trains and automated vending machines in Metro, automated buses etc.

(a) Only III (b) Only I and III

(c) Only II (d) Only II and III

(e) None of these


Q23. Economic recession has hit the automobile industry very hard resulting in massive retrenchment of

workers in the industry. As this would increase the supply of labour, the wages of workers in the financial sector are likely to go down considerably.

Which of the following is a major assumption in arriving at the above conclusion? (a) Workers of various industries are interchangeable.

(b) Economic recession has not hit the financial sector. (c) There is no minimum level of wages below which workers would not work.

(d) The financial sector is already saturated with workers. (e)None of these


below:

Eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W went on two different dates i.e., 8th and 15th of four different

months i.e., April, June, August and September in a year. There are four married couples and each are going

to different destinations i.e., Paris, Singapore, los angles and dubai. All information not necessary in the

same order. T went on an odd date in the month having 31 days. T is the son of W, who went just after Q, who went in

the month of June. The person who went just before Q, went to dubai. Three persons went between Q and the one who went to Los angles. Q is mother of W and S, who is wife of R. S went to dubai in the month of

April, but not just before Q. S is not the youngest person. Two persons went between the mother of W and P, who is husband of Q. P didn’t go just before the one who went to los angles. V is married to W, who visited

los angles. U went after Q. W is father-in-law of U, who went to paris.

Q24. Who among the following went born just after brother of S?

(a) Q

(b) T

(c) U (d) V

(e) None of these

Q25. How many persons went between S and the one who went on 8th september? (a) one

(b) two (c) three

(d) four (e) More than four

Q26. Who among the following went just after the one who went to dubai in the month of june?

(a) T (b) S

(c) W (d) Q

(e) None of these

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Q27. Which statement among the following is true regarding T?

(a) T went on an odd date

(b) W went just after T

(c) T went just after the one who went to Singapore?

(d) T is sister of U

(e) All is false

Q28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the

following does not belong to that group?

(a) P

(b) R

(c) W

(d) T

(e) Q


below:

Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons in each row in such a way that there is

an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are

facing north. In the second row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in

the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

Three persons sit between E and D, who faces Q. Two persons sit between Q and P. R faces C, who sits

immediate right of B. A is immediate neighbor of C and D. S does not faces A.

Q29. How many persons are sitting between A and E?

(a) one

(b) two

(c) three

(d) four

(e) More than five

Q30. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of the one who faces T?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) None of these



below:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing inside and

some are facing outside the table. All information not necessarily in the same order.

A sits 3rd to the right of C. Two persons sit between C and F. H sits 2nd to the left of F. Three persons sit

between B and E, who sits immediate right of G. D sits 2nd left of B. H sits 3rd right of E. The immediate

neighbors of B are facing outside. G faces in opposite direction with respect to D. A and C faces in same

direction.

Q31. How many persons are sitting between D and H, when counted in clockwise direction from D?

(a) one

(b) two

(c) three

(d) four

(e) More than five

Q32. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of the one who sits opposite to A?

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) None of these


below:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a row in such a way that some of them are facing North

and some are facing South. All information is not necessary in the same order.

Q sits 3rd to the right of D, who sits at one of the extreme ends. More than two persons sit between Q and

R. S is not an immediate neighbor of Q and D. Two persons sit between C and S. C sits to the right of R who

doesn’t face South. A is not an immediate neighbor of Q and C. A sits to the right of Q. B is not an immediate

neighbor of D. P faces opposite direction with respect to R. S faces opposite direction with respect to D. B

and C faces in the same direction. A faces in opposite direction with respect to C. Not more than two persons

sitting adjacent to each other faces in the same direction.

Q33. Which among the following pairs are sitting at extreme ends?

(a) D-A

(b) A-P

(c) R-D

(d) S-D

(e) C-R


Q34. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of the one who sits third to the left of A?

(a) C

(b) S

(c) B

(d) P

(e) None of these


below.

B is to the south of A. C is to the east of B. D is to the north of C. F is to the south of E. D is to the west of E. F

is to the east of G.

NOTE: O is the midpoint of EF. AB=2m, BC=4m, CD=4m, DE=2m, EF=6m, GF=2m

Q35. What is the shortest distance between O and G?

(a) 2m

(b) 4m

(c) √13m

(d) 2√5m

(e) None of these

Q36. If point X is east of point F at a distance of 4m, then what is the direction of X with respect to D?

(a) North

(b) South-east

(c) East

(d) North-east

(e) None of these

Directions (37-38): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions:

There are only 8 members in the family having three married couples. P is grand-father of C, who is married

to D. S is brother-in-law of D, who is son-in-law of A. B is parent of A and R. P is father-in-law of Q. R is

unmarried.

Q37. How is B related to S?

(a) Grandfather

(b) Father

(c) Grandmother

(d) Daughter

(e) None of these


Q38. How many male members are there in the family?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) More than four

(e) Can’t be determined

Directions (39-43): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a triangular table in such a way that some of them faces

away from the center and some are facing inside. Three persons are sitting at corners and remaining are

sitting at middle of the side of triangle. They work in three different sectors i.e., Education, Health and

Energy which comprises of six different companies i.e., Classmate, Arihant, Apollo, Fortis, Syska and Orpat,

but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than three persons are working in same sector. No two

females are sitting together.

A sits 2nd to the left of F, who does not sits at the corner. A works in health department, but not in Arihant,

Fortis and Orpat. The one who is immediate neighbor of both A and F, works in energy sector and orpat. B,

who works in energy sector is neither immediate neighbor of A, nor F. F does not work in health and energy

sector. The one who is immediate neighbor of the one who works in health and energy sector both, works

in Arihant. A is female and does not work in classmate and Syska. C, who faces inside does not work in

arihant and orpat. D does not work in orpat and faces inside. The one who works in arihant and F faces the

opposite direction. C does not work in syska and Classmate. F does not work in syska. D is not from health

and energy department. One of the persons from education department is a female. The one who works in

classmate sits immediate right of the one who works in health department. All persons from Energy

department are male. F sits immediate left of E. B and A faces in opposite direction with respect to each

other. The one who works in Apollo faces in opposite direction with respect to C. B and F doesn’t work in

Arihant.

Q39. Who among the following sits left to the one who works in Apollo?

(a) D

(b) E

(c) B

(d) F

(e) None of these

Q40. Which among the following pairs work in Education

department?

(a) D-B

(b) B-A

(c) F-D

(d) C-E

(e) None of these

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Q41. Who among the following sits immediate right of the one, who sits 2nd to the right of B?

(a) The one who works in orpat

(b) The one who works in Fortis

(c) A

(d) D

(e) None of these

Q42. How many females are sitting around the table?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) More than three

(e) None

Q43. Four of the following five belongs to a group, find the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) Fortis

(b) Syska

(c) Arihant

(d) Classmate

(e) Orpat

Q44. Alarmed at the increasing incidence of accidents on the highways, state X proposes to increase the

fine for violating traffic regulations by 50%. This measure, it is hoped, will bring down the number of

accidents on the highways effectively.

Which of the following is a major assumption in the above argument?

(a) The state has the legal right to enhance the fines for traffic violations.

(b) Users of vehicles on the highways can afford to pay such increased fines.

(c) Accidents occur only due to violation of traffic rules by road users.

(d) Fine rates and number of accidents are inversely related.

(e)None of these

Q45. Advertisement: According to a recent research study, daily use of Fresh Start, a new toothpaste,

reduces the risk of developing dental cavities by over 20 percent. In addition, as a result of a new formula,

the use of Fresh Start results in whiter, healthier-looking teeth. Clearly, Fresh Start not only gives your

teeth a beautiful look but also provides the most reliable protection against dental cavities.

Which of the following is an assumption in the argument above?

(a) No other toothpaste provides more reliable protection against dental cavities.

(b) Fresh Start's formula does a better job of whitening teeth than do competitor's formulas.

(c) People are just as interested in having beautiful teeth as they are in having healthy teeth.

(d) Fresh Start also prevents other dental disorders, such as gingivitis.

(e) Reliable protection against dental cavities, combined with excellent aesthetic properties, is likely to

make Fresh Start a popular toothpaste in the market.


Q46. One liter of a% of milk is mixed with three liters of b% of milk to give 60% of milk and a > b. Find how many integer values ‘a’ can take (a is multiple of 9). (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3 (e) 9 Q47. The average of five distinct positive numbers p, q, r, s, and t numbers is ‘a’. If we remove q from this set, then the average drops to ‘b’ (b is less than a). Average of r, q, s and t is ‘a’ and r is less than s and t is less than a. The difference between r and q is equal to the difference between s and t. If the average of p, q, r and t is greater than b, then write these five distinct positive numbers p, q, r, s and t in ascending order. (a) r, t, q, s, p (b) t, p, r, s, q (c) q, r, s, p, t (d) s, r, q, t, p (e) t, r, p, s, q Q48. Quantity I: Marked price (in rs.) of an article if a tradesman gives 4% discount on the marked price and 1 article free with every 15 articles bought and still gains 35%. C.P. of the article is Rs. 100. Quantity II: Profit (in rs.) made on selling the pen at marked price. Even after reducing the marked price of a pen by Rs. 32, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 15%. The cost price of a pen is Rs. 320. (a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II (c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II (e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation Q49. Quantity I - How many three digits positive integers, with digits x, y and z exist such that x < y and z < y (Assume that ‘x’ is in hundred's place, ‘y’ is in ten's place and ‘z’ is in unit's place). Quantity II – Set A comprises all multiples of four less than 500, set B comprises all odd multiples of seven less than 500 and Set C comprises all multiples of six less than 500. How many elements are present in (A ∪ B ∪ C) (a) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (b) Quantity I < Quantity II (c) Quantity I > Quantity II (d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II (e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation Q50. There are five concentric circles that are spaced equally from each other by 2.5 meters. The innermost circle has a square of side √128 meters inscribed in it. If a square need to be inscribed in the outermost circle, what will be its area? (a) 644 m² (b) 648 m² (c) 649 m² (d) 650 m² (e) 652 m²


Directions (51-55): Bar graph given below shows time (in hours) taken by five different pipes to fill

a tank ‘T’ alone. Ratio of efficiency of all five pipes remain same throughout any situation. Study the

data carefully and answer the following questions.

Q51. All five-pipe start filling another tank ‘X’ together and E closed after 8 hours. Tank filled by B is same

as tank filled by C, while A and C fill the tank for same time. D fill the tank for ‘p’ hours. If B, C & D together

can fill the tank ‘X’ in 24 hours and B fill the tank for only 10 hours, then find the value of ‘p’.

(a) 7 hours

(b) 9 hours

(c) 11 hours

(d) 13 hours

(e) 15 hours

Q52. A and C together can fill another tank ‘P’ in (T + 42) hours, while B and D together can fill the tank ‘P’

in (T + 15) hours. Find how many hours B fill the tank ‘P’.

(a) 100 hours

(b) 90 hours

(c) 85 hours

(d) 50 hours

(e) 60 hours


Q53. All five pipes started together to fill another tank M. E fill the tank for 6 hours and then closed. After

3 hours more both B and D closed too. 40% of total tank is filled by A and C together but after ‘x’ more

hours ‘A’ left. Remaining tank is completed by ‘C’ in ‘d’ more hours. If ‘d – x = 3’, then number of hours for

which ‘C’ fill the tank is what percent more than number of hours for which ‘A’ fill the tank.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q54. A, B and C together starts to fill tank ‘T’. After seven hours ‘C’ closed and after three hours more ‘A’

and ‘B’ also closed. If remaining tank is filled by D and E alternatively in ‘d’ hours. If ‘d’ is integer, then find

‘E’ filled for how many hours?

(a) 3 hours

(b) 4 hours

(c) 5 hours

(d) 6 hours

(e) Cannot be determined

Q55. A, B and D together started filling tank ‘T’. After five hours, B and D replaced by C and E and after five

more hours A also close. After one more hour E close too. C fill the tank for total ‘t’ hours. In other case A

and B starts filling together to tank ‘T’. After four hours both pipes are replaced by E. If E fill the tank for

five hours and replaced by D who fill the tank for eight hours. Remaining tank filled by C in ‘d’ hours. Find

(d – t)?

(a) 4 hours

(b) 10 hours

(c) 6 hours

(d) 8 hours

(e) 12 hours

Directions (56-60): A, B and C are three persons who each invested some amount in three different

schemes (X, Y and Z). Data tells about amount invested and time of investment by them. Study the

data carefully & answer the following questions.

Amount invested by A in scheme ‘X’ is 50% of amount invested by C in the same scheme. B invested Rs

40,000 in scheme ‘X’ and time for which he invested in scheme ‘X’ is five months more than time for which

A invested in the same scheme. Ratio of amount invested by A and C in Scheme ‘Z’ is same as ratio of amount

invested by A and C in scheme ‘X’. B invested 10,000 less in scheme ‘Z’ than that of amount invested by C

in scheme ‘Z’.

Time of investment of B and C is same in scheme ‘Y’. Amount invested by B in scheme ‘Y’ is 4% less than

amount invested by A in scheme ‘Y’. C invested Rs 50000 more than B in scheme ‘Y’. A invested 40% less in

scheme ‘X’ than that of amount invested by him in scheme ‘Y’. Ratio of amount invested by C in scheme ‘X

to scheme ‘Y’ is 15 : 22.


Out of total profit earned from scheme ‘Y’, C got 50%. Ratio of profit share of A and B is 3 : 4 in scheme ‘Z’,

while time of investment of A and B in scheme ‘Z’ is 4 : 3. C invested for ten months in scheme ‘Z’.

A got 25% of total profit both in scheme ‘Z’ as well as in scheme ‘X’. Time of investment of A in scheme ‘X’

is two months less than that of in scheme ‘Z’. A invested for sixteen months in scheme ‘Y’

Q56. B and C both invested same amount they invested in scheme ‘Y’ in two different schemes i.e,

respectively. offers 20% p.a at C.I and 25% p.a at S.I respectively. Find the difference between

interest earned by both after two years?

(a) Rs. 28,800

(b) Rs. 28,900

(c) Rs. 28,000

(d) Rs. 28,100

(e) Rs. 28,600

Q57. If C earned Rs. 14,490 profits from scheme ‘Z’ and ratio between profit earned by C from scheme Z

and X is 9 : 4 , then find total profit earned by A from scheme ‘X’ and ‘Z’ together?

(a) Rs. 15674

(b) Rs. 13294

(c) Rs. 14324

(d) Rs. 14966

(e) Rs. 15022

Q58. If scheme ‘Y’ offers S.I. at the rate of 15% p.a, then find interest earned by A?

(a) Rs 13250

(b) Rs 14500

(c) Rs 14000

(d) Rs 12500

(e) Rs 13750

Q59. Amount invested by C in scheme ‘Z’ is what percent more than amount invested by A in scheme ‘X’?

(a) 140%

(b) 100%

(c) 144%

(d) 50%

(e) 20%

Q60. If B doubles his investment in scheme ‘X’, then find what percent

of decrement is seen in C profit percentage?

(a) 20%

(b) 40%

(c) 284

7%

(d) 426

7%

(e) 571

7%

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Q61. A hollow cylinder having inner radius 14 cm and height is 28 cm and thickness is 2 cm. if this cylinder

is melted to form identical spheres having radius of 4.2 cm, then find how many maximum spheres can be

formed?

(a) 17

(b) 16

(c) 18

(d) 15

(e) 14

Q62. Anurag can do a work in 12 days and ratio of efficiency of Veer to Ayush is 8 : 9. Anurag & Ayush

together can do 2 units more work in a day as Anurag & Veer together can do in a day and time taken by

Veer and Ayush together to do same work is 72/17 days. Find the time taken by Anurag & Ayush to

complete the same work together?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q63. How much minimum marks is required to pass the examination?

I. Student A secured 38% in the examination and failed by 8 marks. Student B secured 42% marks in the

same examination and got 12 more than the minimum pass marks.

II. Student A secured 35% of the total marks in the examination and failed by 23 marks. If he had secured

25 more marks his percentage of marks would have been 40%.

III. A student will be declared passed, if he secures 39.60% of the total marks.

(a) Any two of them

(b) Only I

(c) III and either I or II

(d) Either I or II

(e) Only II

Q64. The average earning of all members of a family is Rs. 98 per day. The difference between the highest

and lowest amount earned in the family is Rs.140. If highest and lowest earning members are excluded the

average earning of the group decreased by Rs. 2. If the minimum earning is more than Rs 45 and is multiple

of 7 and the number of members initially was equal to a prime number, with its both digits prime then

which of the following will be the initial number of members?

I.23

II.37

III.53

IV. 73


(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Both I and III

(d) Both II and III

(e) None of the above

Q65.What will be the share of R in the profit earned by V, R and A together?

I. They together earned a profit of Rs. 54000 for a period of 1 yr.

II. R’s investment was 25% less than V’s and 50% more than A’s.

III. The profit of V is Rs. 4000 more than that of A.

(a) Only I and II together

(b) II and either I or III only

(c) Only II

(d) Only II and III together

(e) None of these

Q66. The difference of a three-digit number and the number formed by reversing its digits is more than

198. The sum of the units and tens digit is the same as the difference of the hundredth and the unit digits

and also the hundredth digit is twice of the unit digit. Find the number.

I.613

II.603

III.623

IV. 804

V.834

VI.824

(a) Both II and IV

(b) II, IV and V together

(c) I, III and V together

(d) Both I and VI

(e) None of these

Q67. A boat takes 2 hours to travel from point A to B in still water. To find out the speed in upstream, which

of the following information is/are required?

I. Distance between point A and B.

II. Time taken to travel downstream from B to A.

III. Speed of the stream of water.

(a) All are required

(b) Any two of the three

(c) Only I and II

(d) Only I and III

(e) Only II and III


Q68. Quantity I: In the town, shopkeeper’s union has decided to buy

and sell goods in the range of Rs. 500 to Rs. 999 and a shopkeeper on

a particular day decides not to buy or sell goods for amounts that

contain the digit 9 or for amounts that are a multiple of 13. What is

the maximum possible profit he can earn for an item?

Quantity II: difference between the largest and the smallest sum. A

sum of Rs. 1440 is lent out in three parts at SI in such a way that the

interests on first part at 2% for 3 years, second part at 3% for 4 years

and third part at 4% for 5 years are equal.

(a) Quantity I > Quantity II

(b) Quantity I < Quantity II

(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Q69. There are two bags A and B. Bag A contains 5 blue balls and _x_ red balls and bag B contains _x_ blue

balls and 8 red balls. If one ball is chosen at random from any one bag, then the probability that it is a red

ball is 5/9. Which of the following can be the value of x?

I. 10

II. 4

III. 3

IV. 5

V. 6

(a) Only I

(b) Only V

(c) Both I and IV

(d) Both II and III

(e) Both I and II

Q70. X, Y and Z secured 45%, 50% and 60% marks respectively in Biology. W’s marks in Biology is 12.5

more than X’s marks and 4 less than Z’s marks. To find the individual marks of four students which of the

following statements are required.

I. For the student total marks obtained in Biology is 311.5.

II. Total of W’s and X’s marks in Biology is 147.5.

III. Z has obtained 84 marks.

(a) I and II together

(b) Only III

(c) A and either II or III

(d) All together

(e) None of the above

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Directions (71-75): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Sales (by volume) of a product by four different companies (in lakh units)

Q71. The market share of a company is defined as the volume of the sales of the company as a percentage

of the total sales volume of all the four given companies. In which year was the market share of company C

the highest?

(a) 2018

(b) 2015

(c) 2013

(d) 2016

(e) 2017

Q72. In the year 2017, if the profit percent on selling a product by company A is 25%, and the selling price

of each product is Rs. 10, what was the expenditure incurred by company A in making these products?

(a) Rs. 12 cr

(b) Rs. 14 cr

(c) Rs. 16 cr

(d) Rs. 10 cr

(e) none of these


Q73. In the year 2016, the expenditures of company A, B, C and D are in ratio 3: 2: 6: 8. Which company had the highest profit percentage in 2016? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) Cannot be determined (e) none of these Q74. Which company had the highest growth rate for the period 2013 to 2017? (a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C (e) none of these Q75. Total sales (by volume) of company A from 2014 to 2017 are what percent more/less than the total sales (by volume) of company D from 2015 to 2018? (a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 150% (d) 200% (e) none of these Q76. Two persons A and B entered into a partnership. Find the profit of B. I. A and B started the business with a capital of Rs 12,000 and Rs 9,000 respectively. II. A invested the money for two months more than that of B. III. A’s share in the total profit at the end of first year is Rs 1500 more than that of B. (a) Only I and II together (b) Only I and III together (c) Any two of them (d) All statements are required (e)Question can’t be answered even using all the statements Directions (77-80): Study the following information given below and answer the following questions- Mr. Kunal Dwivedi wants to buy a motorbike which is priced at Rs 45,500. The bike is also available at Rs 25,000 down payment and monthly installment of Rs 1000 per month for 2 years or Rs 18,000 down payment and monthly installment of Rs 1000 per month for 3 years. Mr. Kunal has with him only Rs 12,000. He wants to borrow the balance money for the down payment from a private lender whose terms are: If Rs 6,000 is borrowed for 12 months, the rate of interest is 20 per cent. The interest will be calculated on the whole amount for the whole year, even though the repayment has to be done in 12 equal monthly installments starting from the first month itself. Thus he will have to repay an amount of Rs 600 per month for 12 months to repay Rs 6000 (Principal) + Rs 1200 (Interest @ 20 per cent). If Rs 10,000 upwards is borrowed for one year, the rate of interest is 30 per cent and is calculated in exactly the same manner as above.


Q77. If Mr. Kunal is ready to pay either of the down payments then which of the installments schemes is

the better option of the two? (Assume that Mr Kunal will pay the installments out of his own earnings and

he keeps his savings with himself and earns no interest on the same.) Also assume for the down payment,

he saves the balance before purchase.

(a) Rs 1000 for 2 years

(b) Rs 1000 for 3 years

(c) Either of two

(d) Data inadequate

(e) none of these

Q78. What is the approximate percentage difference in the total amount paid to the bike dealer, between

the two installment schemes (with respect to the total payment of the scheme with Rs 25,000 down

payment?) (Assume that Mr Kunal will pay the installments out of his own earnings and he keeps his

savings with himself and earns no interest on the same) Also assume for the down payment, he saves the

balance before purchase.

(a) 10.2%

(b) 13.5%

(c) 11.4%

(d) 14.3%

(e) none of these

Q79. If kunal can spare only a total of Rs 2000 to be paid to the bike dealer and the money lender from his

monthly earnings starting from the first month onwards which scheme should he choose (time taken to

pay to the lender is equal to the time to pay all installments)?

(a) Rs 1000 per month for 2 years

(b) Rs 1000 per month for 3 years

(c) Either of two

(d) Data inadequate

(e) none of these

Q80. The average age of x persons is 60 years. If two persons of 52 years and 68 years leave the group and

two new persons of y years and 72 years join the group, then the average age of the group increases by 1

year. If x is a perfect square and 54<y<64, which of the following will

be the possible value of y?

I. 59

II. 55

III. 57

IV. 61

V. 62

(a) Only II

(b) Only I

(c) Only III

(d) Only V

(e) None of these

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Directions (81-85): Read the following passage and answer the following questions based on the

given passage.

The great migration of European intellectuals to the United States in the second quarter of the twentieth

century prompted a transformation in the character of Western social thought. The influx of Continental

thinkers ______________(1)______________ American academic circles, leading to new developments in such

diverse fields as linguistics and theology. But the greatest impact was on the emigrés themselves. This

“migration experience” led _______(II)__________ to reexamine the supposedly self-evident premises inherited

from the Continental intellectual tradition. The result, according to H. Stuart Hughes in The Sea-Change,

was an increased ____________(2)________________.

One problem facing newly arrived emigrés in the U.S. was the spirit of anti-intellectualism in much of the

country. The empirical orientation of American academic circles, moreover, led to the conscious tempering

by many European thinkers of their own tendencies toward speculative idealism. In addition, reports

of oppression in Europe shook many Old World intellectuals from a stance of moral isolation. Many great

European social theorists had regarded their work as separate from all moral considerations. The

migration experience proved to many intellectuals of the following generations that such notions of moral

consolation were unrealistic, even irresponsible.

This transformation of social thought is _____________(3)_____________ German theologian Paul Tillich.

Migration confronted Tillich with an ideological as well as a cultural dichotomy. Hughes points out that

Tillich’s thought was “suspended between philosophy and theology, Marxism and political conformity,

theism and disbelief.” Comparable to the fusion by other expatriate intellectuals of their own idealist

traditions with the Anglo-American empiricist tradition was Tillich’s synthesis of German Romantic

religiosity with the existentialism born of the twentieth-century war experience. Tillich’s basic goal,

according to Hughes, was to move secular individuals by making religious symbols more accessible to

them. (I) Forced to make his ethical orientation (A) explicit in the context of American attitudes, Tillich

avoided the (B) esoteric academic posture of many Old World scholars, and was able to find a wide and

(C) sympathetic audience for his sometimes difficult (D) theology. In this way, his experience in America,

in his own words, “deprovincialized” his thought.

Q81. Four words have been highlighted in statement (I), which may or may not be at their correct positions.

Identify the possible rearrangement of words to make the statement grammatically and contextually

meaningful.

(a) B-C & A-D

(b) C-D

(c) A-C & B-D

(d) A-B & C-D

(e) No interchange required

Q82. Which of the following phrases can fill in the blanks (1), (2) and (3) in the similar sequence as given

in the options below?

(i) perhaps best exemplified in the career of the

(ii) members of the scientific community had not become actively involved

(iii) fleeing fascist regimes had a great impact on


(iv) sophistication and deprovincialization in social theory

(v) domination of American science in general after

(vi) leave their homeland or remain in the face of oppression

(a) (ii), (iii), (v)

(b) (iii), (iv), (i)

(c) (iii), (i), (vi)

(d) (vi), (iv), (ii)

(e) none of these

Q83. Which of the following words could replace “CONSOLATION”, as highlighted in the above passage, to

make the statement grammatically and contextually correct?

(a) appellation

(b) interjection

(c) elocution

(d) contraposition

(e) seclusion

Q84. Which of the following words could fit in the blank (II), to make the statement grammatically and

contextually correct? Also, it must fit in the other two statements given below.

(i) Without doubting the capabilities of the local workforce in Nigeria, some of these investors require the

services of foreign workforce or ________________ especially in the initial phases of their business in Nigeria,

due to the nature or technicality of such businesses.

(ii) Proceeds generated by fees levied on _________________ who get treatment in public hospitals and health

centres have dropped by KD9 milion to KD20 million only last year.

(a) Floes

(b) Nukes

(c) Cirrhosis

(d) Expatriates

(e) Antipopes

Q85. Which of the following statements is not true as per the information given in the passage?

(A) Resulting from the 20th C war experience was the Tillich’s German Romantic religiosity with the

existentialism

(B) Inspite of being influenced by American academics, European

thinkers had deliberately continued proposing their own attributes of

idealism.

(C) Relocation of European highbrows had led to modification in the

attributes of the Western social thought.

(a) Both B & C

(b) Both A & B

(c) Only C

(d) Only B

(e) All are true

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Directions (86-90): Read the following passage and answer the following questions based on the

given passage.

In day-to-day functioning, people rely on both memory and knowledge of that memory, referred to as

metamemory. For example, a person often cannot immediately recall a name upon meeting someone, but

they feel that they know it. This feeling is the result of monitoring memory. Because of this feeling-of-

knowing (FOK), most people will continue to search their memory for this name. Once a name is generated,

people then monitor and __________(I)________________.

Memory monitoring involves evaluating the ongoing progress of any aspect of memory. Experiments that

evaluate memory monitoring typically have individuals make ______(II)___________ learning and recall.

Participants are asked a series of questions. After each question that they answer, they are asked to provide

a (A) assessing confidence (RC) judgment, rating the (B) prospective that their response is accurate.

When participants do not answer a question, they are asked for their (C) likelihood FOK judgment, (D)

retrospective whether they nonetheless feel they do know the answer (for example because they think

they may be able to remember it at some point in the future).

Perhaps predictably, RC judgments are highly correlated with actual knowledge of a topic. FOK judgments,

however, correlate rather weakly— (1) howbeit positively—with actual knowledge. While there are some

instances where the FOK is the result of a _______(III)______________, more often than not the FOK stems from

the sense that one should know something, for example because the field is familiar.

Research has resulted in a general consensus that, when monitoring memory, individuals infer if a particular

response will be, or has been, remembered based on the inputs that are readily available. However, the

particular inputs used differ depending on when memory is assessed. Prospective FOK judgments are

thought to be based on familiarity of the cue, accessibility of information about the memory, or a

combination of the two. In contrast, it is widely accepted that RC judgments are based on the memory-

_______(2)____________ experience—that is, the “on-line” experience of directly retrieving some previously

studied item.

Q86. In the given passage, three phrases have been omitted- (I), (II), (III). Identify the phrases from the

options given below, which will fit in the same sequence, as given in the passage above to make the

statements grammatically and contextually correct.

(i) source of the majority of one’s knowledge

(ii) subjective judgments about their memory at various stages of

(iii) by which the human brain stores knowledge

(iv) decide if they are confident enough to use that name

(v) momentary inability to recall something

(a) (iv), (ii), (i)

(b) (v), (iii), (iii)

(c) (i), (v), (iii)

(d) (iv), (ii), (v)

(e) (ii), (iii), (i)


Q87. Which of the following sets of words will be interchanged to make the statement grammatically and

contextually correct? Also, if all the words are at their correct positions, mark option (E) ‘no interchange

required’, as your answer.

(a) A-B & C-D

(b) A-C & B-D

(c) A-D & C-B

(d) A-D

(e) no interchange required

Q88. Which of the following words will replace (1), to make the statement grammatically and contextually

correct?

(a) ergo

(b) albeit

(c) whilst

(d) contrary

(e) thence

Q89. A statement has been italicized in the above passage, which may or may not contain an error. Identify

the part of the statement which has error. Also, if there is no error in the statement, mark option (E), ‘no

error’ as your answer.

(a) Research has resulted in a general consensus that, when

(b) monitoring memory, individuals infer if a

(c) particular response will be, or has been, remembered based

(d) on the inputs that are readily available.

(e) no error

Q90. Which of the following words will fit in the blank (2), to make the statement contextually and

grammatically meaningful? Also, it must fit in the blanks given in both the statements given below.

(i) Hundreds of Kenyans gathered at the shores of the Indian Ocean in Likoni Friday morning to witness

the ___________________ of a vehicle that plunged into the Indian Ocean 13 days ago.

(ii) The system will use intelligent ____________ technologies to increase the speed, ease and accuracy of

answering customer support calls.

(a) retaining

(b) proposition

(c) dualism

(d) retrieval

(e) none of these


Directions (91-95): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions based on the

passage.

Our propensity to look out for regularities, and to impose laws upon nature, leads to the psychological

phenomenon of dogmatic thinking or, more generally, dogmatic behaviour: we expect regularities

everywhere and attempt to find them even where there are none; events which do not yield to these

attempts we are inclined to treat as a kind of ‘background noise’; and we stick to our expectations even

when they are inadequate and we ought to accept defeat. This dogmatism is to some extent necessary. It is

demanded by a situation which can only be dealt with by forcing our conjectures upon the world. Moreover,

this dogmatism allows us to approach a good theory in stages, by way of approximations: if we accept

defeat too easily, we may prevent ourselves from finding that we were very nearly right.

It is clear that this dogmatic attitude, which makes us stick to our first impressions, is indicative of a strong

belief; while a critical attitude, which is ready to modify its tenets, which admits doubt and demands tests,

is indicative of a weaker belief. Now according to Hume’s theory, and to the popular theory, the strength of

a belief should be a product of repetition; thus it should always grow with experience, and always be

greater in less primitive persons. (I) But dogmatic thinking, an (A) uncontrolled wish to impose

regularities, a (B) maturity pleasure in rites and in repetition as such, is characteristic of primitives and

children; and increasing experience and (C) manifest sometimes create an attitude of caution and criticism

rather than of (D) dogmatism.

My logical criticism of Hume’s psychological theory, and the considerations connected with it,

____________________ (II)___________. But the distinction between dogmatic and critical thinking, or the dogmatic

and the critical attitude, brings us right back to our central problem. For the dogmatic attitude is clearly

related to the tendency to verify our laws and schemata by seeking to apply them and to confirm them,

even to the point of neglecting valour, whereas the critical attitude is one of readiness to change them—to

test them; to refute them; to falsify them, if possible. This suggests that we may identify the critical attitude

with the scientific attitude, and the dogmatic attitude with the one which we have described as

pseudoscientific. (III) It further suggests that genetically speaking the pseudo-scientific attitude is more

primitive, and prior to, the scientific attitude: that it is a pre-scientific attitude. And this primitivity or priority

also has its logical aspect. For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-

imposed upon it: criticism must be directed against existing and influential beliefs in need of critical

revision—in other words, dogmatic beliefs. A critical attitude needs for its raw material, as it were, theories

or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically.

Q91. Which of the following words can replace “valour”, to make the statement meaningful and

grammatically correct?

(a) frugality

(b) refutations

(c) rancour

(d) mirth

(e) no replacement required


Q92. Which of the following words must be interchanged in the statement (I), so as to make the statement

grammatically and contextually meaningful? Also, if no interchange is required, mark ‘e’, no interchange

required as your answer.

(a) A-B & C-D

(b) A-D

(c) B-C

(d) A-C & B-D

(e) no interchange required

Q93. Which of the following phrases will fill in the blank (II), to make the statement grammatically and

contextually correct?

(a) attitude leads to the attitude of reasonableness and rationality

(b) may seem a little removed from the field of the philosophy of science

(c) initial hypotheses or conjectures can never be made

(d) development of science is essentially because of our critical attitude

(e) none of these

Q94. Identify the error in the italicized statement (III). Also, if there is no error in the statement, mark ‘e’,

no error, as your answer.

(a) It further suggests that genetically

(b) speaking the pseudo-scientific attitude is

(c) more primitive, and prior to, the scientific

(d) attitude: that it is a pre-scientific attitude.

(e) no error

Q95. Why has the writer attached importance to the dogmatic behavior?

(i) as conjectures arising out of our dogmatic attitude become science.

(ii) helps advance towards some of the finest theories in several phases

(iii) implies endless questioning, and, therefore, it cannot lead to strong beliefs

(a) both (ii) & (iii)

(b) only (ii)

(c) both (i) & (iii)

(d) all (i), (ii), (iii)

(e) only (i)

Q96. In each of the questions, five statements have been given. Among

the five statements, four of them form a coherent paragraph. Identify

the statement which fails to become the part of a coherent paragraph.

(a) Based on a March 18, 2016 report from the Philippine Statistics

Authority, the country's 2015 poverty incidence (the proportion of

people below the poverty line versus the total population) is at 26.3%

while the subsistence incidence (the proportion of Filipinos in

extreme or subsistence poverty) is at 12.1%.

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(b) As a whole, financial inclusion in the rural as well as financially backward pockets of cities is a win-win

opportunity for everybody involved – the banks/NBFC’s intermediaries, and the left-out urban population.

(c) Despite India boasting economic growth rates higher than most developed countries in recent years, a

majority of the country’s population still remains unbanked

(d) Financial Inclusion is a relatively new socio-economic concept in India that aims to change this dynamic

by providing financial services at affordable costs to the underprivileged, who might not otherwise be

aware of or able to afford these services.

(e) Global trends have shown that in order to achieve inclusive development and growth, the expansion of

financial services to all sections of society is of utmost importance.

Q97. In each of the questions, five statements have been given. Among the five statements, four of them

form a coherent paragraph. Identify the statement which fails to become the part of a coherent paragraph.

(a) Amid this, the future of the international development system itself is under scrutiny, as it becomes

clear that government alone cannot deliver on the global UN Sustainable Development Goals or the Paris

Agreement on climate change.

(b) The shared resources that sustain humanity are under severe strain, with the climate, oceans and food

systems facing unprecedented crises.

(c) These crises are exacerbated by a global economy that is extremely inequitable and an international

governance system that is under acute stress.

(d) Global ecological systems are straining under the burden of nearly 8 billion people consuming within

the planet’s limited boundaries.

(e) These Amazonian wildfires are a human-made disaster, set by loggers and cattle ranchers who use a

“slash and burn” method to clear land.

Q98. In each of the questions, five statements have been given. Among the five statements, four of them

form a coherent paragraph. Identify the statement which fails to become the part of a coherent paragraph.

(a) Production is more than manufacturing – it encompasses everything from research and development

to design, consumer behaviour and end-of-use cycles.

(b) While manufacturing has been the foremost source of growth, jobs and innovation globally, production

also contributes heavily to CO2 emissions and climate change.

(c) The community evaluates and proposes pilots, examines the latest approaches in skills development,

drives improvements in partnerships and informs business model transformations and next generation

industrial development strategies.

(d) It includes multiple industries as diverse as automotive, chemicals, electronics, healthcare and textiles.

(e) Emerging technologies are transforming the world of production, enabling more efficient processes and

creating new value for industry, society and the environment.


Directions (99-100): In each of the following questions a sentence is given with a word given in

BOLD. Corresponding to each question three sentences are given with the use of the same word.

From the options choose the sentences which give a DIFFERENT MEANING for the word used in the

sentence above. The meaning used in the sentence(s) should be different from the one used in the

main sentence.

Q99. Hurricane Dorian put on a damper on last week’s schedule, forcing a few cancellations and

postponements, including Atlantic’s game against Clearwater Academy.

(A) Changes in the level of subsidies and feed-in tariffs can put a damper on activity.

(B) The rain here in Tampa, though not yet at tropical-storm levels, has put a damper on the now delayed

convention.

(C) After a very dry end to the summer, autumn has been damper than we are accustomed to in the East.

(a) Both B & C

(b) Both A & B

(c) Only C

(d) Only A

(e) None of these

Q100. The chairman conceded that shareholders had been "impacted by the decline in market prices".

(A) Hysen handled the ball and conceded the penalty that gave Manchester United the lead.

(B) After citing multiple studies, the inquiry conceded that a clear, causal link was yet to be established

between loot boxes and problem gambling.

(C) A strike by some ten thousand bank employees has ended after the government conceded some of their

demands.

(a) Both B & C

(b) Both A & B

(c) Only B

(d) Only A

(e) None of these

Directions (101-105): In the questions given below a sentence is given with two blanks in each.

Corresponding to each question two columns are given with three words in each column. Which

combination of words from the two columns will perfectly fit into the blanks to make the sentence

contextually correct and meaningful.

Q101. China’s ___________ of the CPEC has been rejected by India as it passes through Pakistan Occupied

Kashmir. Straws in the wind suggest that China may have realised that the CPEC was a hasty decision,

without proper ____________ with India.

COLUMN I

(A) endorsement

(B) transgression

(C) specious


COLUMN II

(D) succinct

(E) consultations

(F) insolence

(a) A-D & C-F

(b) B-F

(c) A-E

(d) C-E & B-F

(e) None of these

Q102. The idea of higher fines as a/an ___________ to traffic crashes is based on the assumption that a driver

is careless and that the fear of a higher penalty will __________ “careful” behaviour while on the road.

COLUMN I

(A) innate

(B) deterrent

(C) concord

COLUMN II

(D) exhort

(E) indict

(F) castigate

(a) A-D & C-E

(b) B-D

(c) B-F

(d) A-E & B-F

(e) A-D, C-E, B-F

Q103. Since the August 5 decision by the government on Article 370 and the bifurcation of Jammu and

Kashmir, and Ladakh, and the strong reaction from China, these positive steps seemed to have

been_____________. If Beijing’s decision to raise the Indian government’s move at the UNSC was a clear break

from the “Wuhan Spirit”, its subsequent statements including at the UN General Assembly have

______________ New Delhi further.

COLUMN I

(A) mortified

(B) stalled

(C) hamstrung

COLUMN II

(D) accorded

(E) alienated

(F) estranged

(a) C-F & B-E

(b) A-E & B-D

(c) C-D & A-F

(d) B-E & C-F

(e) none of these


Q104. The International Monetary Fund has some words of advice

for global leaders on how to ____________ the faltering global economy.

On Tuesday, its new managing director Kristalina Georgieva singled

out India, along with Brazil, as witnessing a “pronounced” growth

slowdown as global growth experiences a “synchronised” ___________ .

COLUMN I

(A) resuscitate

(B) ennoble

(C) reinvigorate

COLUMN II

(D) downswing

(E) gloomy

(F) distraught

(a) B-D & C-E

(b) Only A-F

(c) Only C-D

(d) A-E &B-F

(e) A-D & C-D

Q105. What the IMF chief did not get into during her speech, was the failure of even the ___________ period

of extremely loose monetary policy to sustain global growth. The global economy has been helped by a

whole decade of historically low interest rates, yet the recovery that ___________ after the global financial

crisis was the slowest in history and seems to be in trouble already.

COLUMN I

(A) germane

(B) protracted

(C) prolonged

COLUMN II

(D) ensued

(E) detained

(F) salvaged

(a) C-D & B-D

(b) C-F & A-D

(c) B-E

(d) A-F

(e) A-F & C-E

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Directions (106-110): In the following questions, a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence

is given which is divided into five parts, (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Part (E) is fixed and highlighted in

BOLD. You have to arrange the other four parts to make a contextually and grammatically

meaningful sentence (the meaning can be different from the one given in the question). If no such

rearrangement is possible mark (E) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement possible'.

Q106. in Europe, spent more money on research than its rivals Cisco, Nokia or Ericsson (A)/ boasts a

revenue twice as much as that of Cisco and significantly (B)/ the focus is on how Huawei has filed the most

patents (C)/ earned half of its income from outside of China, and (D)/ more than that of IBM. (E)

(a) CBDA

(b) ACDB

(c) CABD

(d) BADC

(e) No rearrangement possible

Q107. with the IMD EMBA class attributed Israel’s relative failure at (A)/ scaleup to a lack of interest by

Israelis in creating structure (B)/ and processes, and their distaste for hierarchy (C)/ some people I met

during the Israel Discovery Expedition (D)/ and following anyone else’s rules. (E)

(a) DACB

(b) CDBA

(c) CBDA

(d) DABC


Q108. were cited at least once and that mentioned (A)/ chinese AI took off in early 2016 and China has

already (B)/ surpassed the United States in terms of journal articles that (C)/ the term ‘deep learning’,

leaving Europe, India, (D)/ Japan, and South Korea far behind. (E)

(a) BCAD

(b) DCAB

(c) BADC

(d) DBCA


Q109. AI more efficiency and creativity, but this (A)/ self-learning without imitating humans could teach

(B)/ to tasks that don’t involve human collaboration, (C)/ could create algorithms more appropriate (D)/

such as warehousing robots. (E)

(a) DBAC

(b) CABD

(c) BADC

(d) ABDC



Q110. such as Malong Tech, which was recently recognized as China’s most (A)/ building on the successes of Baidu, Alibaba, Tencent and Pingan, and (B)/ becoming a leader in AI will reinforce China’s position as a tech powerhouse, (C)/ supported by a host of emerging tech ventures waiting in the wings, (D)/ innovative company by Fast Company. (E) (a) CDAB (b) ACBD (c) CBDA (d) CDBA (e) No rearrangement possible Q111. In the questions given below five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer. (a) benevolent (b) benign (c) congenial (d) indulgent (e) belligerent Q112. In the questions given below five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer. (a) raucous (b) squawky (c) dissonant (d) rasping (e) dulcet Q113. In the questions given below five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer. (a) ingenuous (b) cynical (c) credulous (d) gullible (e) impressionable Q114. In the questions given below five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer. (a) agile (b) sprightly (c) supple (d) deft (e) taut

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Q115. In the questions given below five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and

one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four,

as your answer.

(a) proliferation

(b) plummeting

(c) mushrooming

(d) burgeoning

(e) escalating

Q116. The Complaint Management System (CMS) is a software application launched by _________________ on

its website.

(a) RBI

(b) IRDAI

(c) SBI

(d) TRAI

(e) SEBI

Q117. Who among the following has been awarded Men’s Footballer of the Year award in AIFF Awards

2019?

(a) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu

(b)Baichung Bhutia

(c)Sunil Chhetri

(d)Sandesh Jhingan

(e) None of these

Q118. Name the organization, which was awarded World Economic Forum’s (WEF) ‘Technology Pioneers’

award 2019.

(a) iConcept Software Services

(b) Derron IT solutions

(c) Quantela Inc

(d) Indmax IT Services

(e) None of these

Q119. What does the term 'Call Money' refer to?

(a) A loan made for a very short period of a few days or a week

(b) Student loans to help cover the cost of higher education

(c) Loans to allow consumers to buy homes they can't pay for upfront

(d) Personal loans for any personal expenses which don't have a designated purpose

(e) Loans to veterans and their families


Q120. The Reserve Bank relaxed the leverage ratio (LR) to _____________ for Domestic Systemically

Important Banks (DSIBs) and 3.5% for other banks.

(a) 4.75%

(b) 5.50%

(c) 4.50%

(d) 5.00%

(e) 4.00%

Q121. Recently, which of the following payments has been allowed through the Bharat Bill Payment

System (BBPS) by Reserve Bank of India?

(a)Multiple Payment

(b)Single Payment

(c)Fixed Payment

(d)Recurring Payment

(e) None of these

Q122. Name the former High Court Justice, who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Appellate

Tribunal for Prevention of Money Laundering (PMLA) Act .

(a) Sunil Gaur

(b) H.L Dattu

(c) Madan kaur

(d) P.N Bhagwati

(e) None of these

Q123. Name the nationwide campaign launched by NASSCOM’s Data Security Council of India (DSCI) in

collaboration with Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) & Google India that will

educate end-users on the benefits of making digital payments ?

(a)Digital India Programme

(b)Digi payment

(c)Digital Payment Abhiyan

(d)Digital Payment Programme

(e) None of these

Q124. A savings as well as current account should be treated as

inactive if there are no transactions in the account for over a period of

_____ months.

(a) 24 months

(b) 30 months

(c) 12 months

(d) 06 months

(e) 36 months

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Q125. CDR mechanism is a voluntary non-statutory mechanism under which financial institutions and

banks come together to restructure the debt of companies facing financial difficulties due to internal or

external factors, in order to provide timely support to such companies. What is the meaning of “R” in CDR?

(a) Regulation

(b) Reserve

(c) Restructuring

(d) Ratio

(e) Reduce

Q126. Who has been appointed as the Executive Director for India at International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(a) Urjit Patel

(b) Subir Gokarn

(c) Surjit S Bhalla

(d) Rakesh Mohanty

(e) None of these

Q127. Scheduled commercial bank can take equity stake in a payments bank to the extent permitted under

Section 19 (2) of the-

(a) Indian Societies Registration Act, 1860

(b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

(d) Companies Act, 1956

(e) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992

Q128. Where was the 14th edition of the Indo – Mongolian joint military training exercise Nomadic

Elephant-XIV for the year 2019 held ?

(a) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia

(b) Mumbai, India

(c) Bakloh, India

(d) Erdenet, Mongolia

(e) None of these

Q129. Senior Citizen Saving Scheme (SCSS) is exclusively meant for people over the age of 60 years. They

shall come into force on-

(a) August 2004

(b) August 2002

(c) August 2010

(d) August 2008

(e) August 2006


Q130. Prakash Portal has been launched for monitoring the supply of :-

(a) Oil & Petroleum (b) Natural Gas

(c) Coal (d) Electricity

(e) None of these

Q131. There are only four eligible categories of PSLCs i.e. PSLC General, PSLC Small and Marginal Farmer, PSLC Agriculture & PSLC Micro Enterprises. PSLC stands for-?

(a) Public Sector Lending Certificates (b) Priority Sector Lending Certificates

(c) Priority System Lending Certificates (d) Priority Service Lending Certificates

(e) Priority Sector Lending Cash

Q132. Who has become the first bowler to take 100 wickets in Twenty20 International cricket?

(a)Sunil Naraine (b)Bhuvneshwar Kumar

(c)Lasith Malinga (d)Jasprit Bumrah

(e) None of these

Q133. What is the minimum tenure of gold deposits under Gold Monetization Scheme, 2015? (a) Five years

(b) Two years

(c) One year

(d) Three years

(e) Four years

Q134. Name the telecommunications services company, which has tied up with Bharti AXA Life Insurance to offer prepaid plan for its users along with insurance protection plan.

(a) Vodafone (b) Airtel

(c) BSNL (d) Reliance Jio

(e) None of these

Q135. BSBDA is a simple, basic account for routine banking

transactions without the need of minimum balance requirement. BSBDA stands for-?

(a) Basic Savings Branch Deposit Account (b) Balance Savings Bank Deposit Account

(c) Basic Savings Bank Demand Account (d) Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account

(e) None of the given options is true

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Q136. Name the organizations, which has released the 'Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision

2019 - 2021'.

(a) RBI

(b) NPCI

(c) SBI

(d) PayTm

(e) None of these

Q137. ____________ is a one-stop payment platform for all bills providing an interoperable and accessible

“Anytime Anywhere” bill payment service to all customers across India with certainty, reliability, and

safety of transactions.

(a) BBPS

(b) NPCI

(c) AEPS

(d) NACH

(e) NFS

Q138. Who has been appointed as next Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Ujjivan

Small Finance Bank Limited from December 1, 2019?

(a) Nitin Chugh

(b) Sachin Bansal

(c) Ashish Deval

(d) Ravi Kumar Batra

(e) None of these

Q139. The FRDI Bill is part of a larger, more comprehensive approach by the Centre towards systematic

resolution of all financial firms. FRDI stands for-

(a) Financial Resolution and Deposit India

(b) Financial Resolution and Deposit International

(c) Financial Resolution and Deposit Initial

(d) Financial Resolution and Deposit Increase

(e) Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance

Q140. Name the Indian woman, who has become the first to successfully scale Mount Makalu — the fifth-

highest mountain in the world at 8,481 meters

(a) Premlata Agarwal

(b) Priyanka Mohite

(c) Santosh Yadav

(d) Malavath Purna

(e) None of these


Q141. Where is the head office of Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?

(a) Zurich, Switzerland

(b) New York, USA

(c) Basel, Switzerland

(d) Berlin, Germany

(e) Geneva, Switzerland

Q142. Who has been sworn-in as the President of El Salvador recently?

(a) Muhammadu Buhari

(b) Nayib Bukele

(c) Sebastian Kurz

(d) Prince Naruhito

(e) None of these

Q143. Currency swap is an instrument to manage _______

(a) Interest Rate Risk

(b) Currency Risk

(c) Cash flows in different countries

(d) All of the Above

(e) None of the given options is true

Q144. Which bank has entered into a pact with Centrum Wealth Management Ltd. (Centrum) to form a

private limited joint venture (JV) to offer wealth management services to its clients?

(a) Indian Overseas Bank

(b) Indian Bank

(c) Karur Vysya Bank Ltd.

(d) Lakshmi Vilas Bank

(e) None of these

Q145. Loans against the security of shares, debentures and bonds should not exceed the limit of Rupees

_______________ per individual if the securities are held in dematerialised form.

(a) ten lakhs

(b) five lakhs

(c) thirty lakhs

(d) fifty lakhs

(e) twenty lakhs

Q146. Ginger Baker, Who passed away recently, belongs to which

field?

(a) Drummer

(b) Director

(c) Singer

(d) Writer

(e) None of these

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Q147. The book “Politics of Jugaad: The Coalition Handbook” is authored by?

(a) Anita Desai

(b) Salman Rushdie

(c) Saba Naqvi

(d) Aravind Adiga

(e) None of these

Q148. World Rhino Day is observed annually on _______?

(a) 1 May

(b) 21 April

(c) 3 June

(d) September 22

(e) None of these

Q149. What is the currency of South Korea?

(a) renminbi

(b) yen

(c) won

(d) krone

(e) dollar

Q150. Bhagalpur city is situated on which river?

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Mahanadi

(c) Ganga

(d) Kaveri

(e) None of these

Q151. The Bhavani Sagar Dam constructed across Bhavani river in which state?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Gujarat

(e) Kerala

Q152. Kathakali is one of the major forms of classical Indian dance. It is performed in which state?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Odisha

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Kerala

(e) Karnataka


Q153. The Hornbill Festival is a celebration held every year from 1 -

10 December in which state?

(a) Mizoram

(b) Nagaland

(c) Sikkim

(d) Assam

(e) None of these

Q154. Name the First Bank to introduce Credit Card in India.

(a) SBI

(b) HDFC

(c) ICICI

(d) Punjab National Bank

(e) Central Bank of India

Q155. The Inderkilla National Park (INP) is located in which state, which is established in 2010?

(a) Assam

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Gujarat

(d) Kerala

(e) Odisha

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