cisco.selftestengine.640 916.v2015!04!03.by.wilbert.83q unprotected

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Selftestengine.640-916.83 questions

Number: 640-916Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 5.9

Cisco 640-916

Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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Exam A

QUESTION 1Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)

A. complexityB. scalabilityC. ease of managementD. resilience

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 2Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches? (Choose two.)

A. Telnet bitsB. SNMPv3 community stringsC. Zone port distributionD. Enforce password complexityE. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)

A. NSFB. Fibre ChannelC. CIFSD. SCSI


E. iSCSI


Explanation/Reference:real answer.

QUESTION 4Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)

A. 2148TB. 2224TC. 2248TD. 2248TPE. 2232PPF. 2232TM

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:accurate answer.

QUESTION 5What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. 30 daysB. 60 daysC. 90 daysD. 120 daysE. 150 daysF. 180 days

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation



Real 9Cisco 640-916 Exam

QUESTION 6Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 SeriesSwitches? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 2248TPB. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-EC. Cisco Nexus 2232PPD. Cisco Nexus 2232TM

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:fine answer.

QUESTION 7Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel fencingB. LUN maskingC. zoningD. access control listE. port security

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Real 10Cisco 640-916 Exam

Explanation:


QUESTION 8Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?

A. MDS-A# show license versionB. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-numberC. MDS-A# show license serial-numberD. MDS-A# show host-idE. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 9Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?

A. H_PortB. N_PortC. E_PortD. NL_PortE. NP_PortF. FL-Port


Explanation/Reference:accurate answer.

QUESTION 10Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)

A. SNMPReal 18Cisco 640-916 Exam

B. XML API


C. UCS Manager GUID. IPMIE. UCS Manager CLIF. CIM-XML

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:actual answer.

QUESTION 11Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)

A. VLANB. LANC. VSAND. PoliciesE. EquipmentF. GlobalG. Admin

Correct Answer: BEGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 12Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)

A. SNMP getB. local loginC. server discoveryD. firmware downloadsE. server bootF. backup jobs


Correct Answer: CDFSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 13What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)

A. unconfiguredB. enabledC. disabledD. uplinkE. serverF. errdisabled

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 14Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)

A. multiplexerB. chassis management consoleC. chassis management switchD. finite state machineE. chassis management controller

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation



Explanation:

QUESTION 15Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)

A. RestoreB. SetupC. ConsoleD. SerialE. Management 0

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 16Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?

A. VLANB. VSANC. pooled identitiesD. vNICE. vHBA

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:correct answer.

QUESTION 17Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?


A. UCS 5108B. UCS 2104XPC. UCS 6248UPD. UCS 6120E. UCS MK72-KR


Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:reliable answer.

QUESTION 18Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?

A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 19On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?

A. accessB. servicesC. aggregationD. transportE. network


F. core



QUESTION 20What is the principle function of the data center core layer?


A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. firewalling and intrusion preventionE. services layerF. QoS marking



QUESTION 21Which is a function of the data center access layer?

A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. firewalling and Intrusion PreventionE. services layerF. QoS marking

Correct Answer: F


Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 22Real 23Cisco 640-916 ExamWhere does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?

A. unified crossbar fabricB. unified port controllerC. supervisor moduleD. Policy Feature CardE. Connectivity Management Processor


Explanation/Reference:right answer.

QUESTION 23Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?

A. N to FB. VF to VNC. VE to VED. TE to TEE. NL to NF


Explanation/Reference:finely answered.


QUESTION 24What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?

A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenderB. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenderC. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchD. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender



QUESTION 25Real 24Cisco 640-916 ExamWhich is the complementary endpoint to a SCSI target?

A. sourceB. originC. host endpointD. initiatorE. successor



QUESTION 26Which is the correct command to install a feature license on Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches?

A. MDS-A# install license bootflash:license_file.licB. MDS-A# copy license bootflash:license_file.lic running-configC. MDS-A# install feature bootflash:license_file.licD. MDS-A# copy feature bootflash:license_file.lic running-config


E. MDS-A# update license pool bootflash:license_file.lic



QUESTION 27Which is employed by Cisco Nexus 7000 switching products to create multiple logical switches?

A. VLANB. VTPC. VRFD. VDCE. vPC


Explanation/Reference:satisfied with answer.

QUESTION 28Which method of virtualization requires significant modification to the guest operating system?

A. full virtualizationB. paravirtualizationC. partial virtualizationD. hypervisor virtualizationE. host virtualizationF. storage virtualizationG. LAN virtualization



Explanation/Reference:definite answer.

QUESTION 29Which is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?

A. least loadedB. round robinC. hash cookieD. least bandwidthE. least connections




QUESTION 30For which two reasons should customers deploy FCoE beyond the access layer? (Choose two.)

A. higher throughput compared to traditional Fibre ChannelB. better security than traditional Fibre ChannelC. device consolidationD. FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.


Explanation/Reference:best answer.

QUESTION 31Which option describes the function of a Cisco Nexus 2000?

A. positioned for access layer switching


B. to expand the port density of a parent switchC. to provide edge routingD. to host virtual appliances



QUESTION 32Refer to the exhibit.

After you install and configure a Cisco Nexus 5548, you notice that you cannot ping its default gateway. Assume that your management interface is upand running, and other devices in the same subnet or VLAN can communicate with the default gateway.



Which statement describes the problem?

A. The subnet of the management port is incorrect.B. The default route is configured incorrectly.C. You are using the incorrect cable.D. You must ping from the management VRF.


Explanation/Reference:genuine answer.

QUESTION 33


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Yes, the OTV license is installed on Nexus-7010-PRO-A switchFrom a licensing perspective, OTV support requires the use of the new Transport Services (TRS)license which we can see is installed.

QUESTION 34


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:The overlay interface is a logical interface that connects to the remote edge devices on the overlaynetwork through an associated physical interface on the transport network.The overlay network consists of one or more logical overlay interfaces that are created on theedge device in each remote site that connects to the physical transport network.Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nxos/


OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NXOS_OTV_Configuration_Guide_chapter_011.html#task_4CD4BC7B5C2140A1BD9619876E5A0591

QUESTION 35


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation: TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG

QUESTION 36


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:N7K-PROD-A has vPC role primary and N7K-PROD-B has vPC role secondary.Use the "show vpc role" command on each switch to verify.

QUESTION 37


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:00:23:04:ee:be:01Use the "show vpc role" command to see the system-mac address.

QUESTION 38Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)


A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. services layerE. QoS marking

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 39Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)

A. coreB. aggregationC. accessD. distributionE. services




QUESTION 40Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series SwitchesB. Cisco Nexus 1000VC. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchesD. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches


E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors



QUESTION 41Which option describes what VNTags are used for?

A. to separate broadcast domainsB. to identify and separate virtual interfacesC. to prioritize FCoE trafficD. to extend a Layer 2 domain across a Layer 3 boundary




QUESTION 42Which three devices support FCoE? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5500B. Cisco Nexus 7000C. Cisco Nexus 3000D. Cisco Nexus 1000VE. Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation



Real 53

QUESTION 43


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:the "show otv route" command verifies that MAC addresses are being discovered across the OTVcloud.

QUESTION 44


Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:2338768 secondsUse the "show vpc peer-keepalives" command to show vpc see the peer has been alive for2338768 seconds.

QUESTION 45Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?


A. VLANB. VSANC. ZoneD. FLOGIE. LUN


Explanation/Reference:correct answer.

QUESTION 46Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?

A. MDS-A# show vsan 10B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 databaseC. MDS-A# show vsan 10 portsD. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membershipE. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database



QUESTION 47Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?


A. RAID 0B. RAID 1C. RAID 3D. RAID 4


E. RAID 5F. RAID 6

Correct Answer: FSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 48Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)

A. better server utilizationB. increased network visibilityC. decreased complexityD. uniform hardware presented to operating systemsE. physical resource sharing

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:real answer.

QUESTION 49Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)

A. dedicated LAN NICB. dedicated SAN HBAC. resource partitioningD. hardware abstractionE. virtual machine isolation

Correct Answer: CDESection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:


Explanation:

QUESTION 50Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)


A. Adapter FEXB. Virtual Ethernet ModuleC. Virtual Fibre Channel ModuleD. Virtual Supervisor ModuleE. License keyF. VM-Fex

Correct Answer: BDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 51Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)

A. private VLANsB. port state migrationC. access control listsD. port securityE. SPANF. ERSPANG. QoS marking

Correct Answer: CDEFGSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:best answer.


QUESTION 52Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?

A. controlB. managementC. packetD. backplaneE. SVI




QUESTION 53Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?

A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vimB. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmwareC. N1000v-VSM# show svs connectionsD. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status



QUESTION 54Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)

A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flightB. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transportC. zone port distribution


D. reduced cablingE. SNMPv3 strong authentication



QUESTION 55Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?

A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)


D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)



QUESTION 56How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 6F. 8

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 57Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchesB. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series SwitchesC. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series SwitchesD. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series SwitchesE. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 58Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 59Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?





QUESTION 60Real 8Cisco 640-916 ExamWhich four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)


Correct Answer: CDEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 61Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?

A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.


D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.

Correct Answer: FSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Actual answer.

QUESTION 62Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?

A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switchB. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switchesC. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switchD. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches



QUESTION 63Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)

A. few devices to manageB. deterministic latencyC. lower oversubscriptionD. fewer ISLsE. easy to analyze and tune performanceF. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEFSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 64Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 7010B. Cisco Nexus 5020C. Cisco Nexus 5548D. Cisco Nexus 2248E. Cisco Nexus 2232



Explanation:

QUESTION 65Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?

A. ping -m 10.10.1.1B. ping 10.10.1.1 -mC. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf managementD. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default



QUESTION 66Which three items are needed to perform the initial setup for a Cisco Data Center device? (Choose three.)

A. IP address and network mask


B. FTP passwordC. Active Directory passwordD. console cableE. device software licensesF. admin password to assign to the deviceG. SFP+ cables

Correct Answer: ADFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 67Which settings are used to access the console port on the Cisco Nexus?

A. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parityB. 19200, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parityC. 9600, 8 data bits, 0 stop bit, No parityD. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, Parity



QUESTION 68What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh?

A. 16B. 8C. 4D. 3E. 12F. 14




QUESTION 69In a large enterprise, which two SAN switches are ideal core switches for providing high availability? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Nexus 5548B. Cisco MDS 9710C. Cisco MDS 9509D. Cisco Nexus 7028E. Cisco MDS 9222i

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:sophisticated answer.

QUESTION 70Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)

A. host connectivityB. firewall connectivityC. QoS markingD. spanning-tree edge portsE. high-speed packet switching

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 71


In a three-tiered data center network design, where does the Layer 2 / Layer 3 boundary typically reside?


A. core layerB. aggregation layerC. access layerD. services layer



QUESTION 72Which two methods to configure LACP port channels are valid? (Choose two.)

A. channel-group 10 mode activeB. port-channel 10 mode activeC. channel-group 10 mode onD. channel-group 10 mode passiveE. channel-group 10 mode lacp

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 73Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SANedge? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco MDS 9250iB. Cisco MDS 9506C. Cisco MDS 9148


D. Cisco MDS 9509


Explanation/Reference:good answer.

QUESTION 74Which four components are parts of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.)

A. Cisco 6000 Series SwitchB. Cisco ASR 9000C. Cisco 1000v SwitchD. Cisco IOS SoftwareE. Cisco 4500E SwitchF. Cisco NX-OS SoftwareG. Cisco 6509-E SwitchH. Cisco Fabric Extender

Correct Answer: ACFHSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:valid answer.

QUESTION 75On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.)

A. pingB. show interface briefC. show otvD. show vdc membershipE. traceroute

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)


Explanation



QUESTION 76Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches?

A. VNB. VEC. VFD. E



QUESTION 77Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)

A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre Channel


E. NFSF. CIFS

Correct Answer: CDEFSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:properly sorted answer.


QUESTION 78Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre ChannelE. NFSF. CIFS

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 79Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre ChannelE. NFSF. CIFS

Correct Answer: EFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 80Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?

A. MDS-A# show host loginB. MDS-A# show host database


C. MDS-A# show flogi databaseD. MDS-A# show host-idE. MDS-A# show fcns database



QUESTION 81Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?

A. 1 with all licensesB. 2 with Standard Zoning licenseC. 3 with Enhanced Zoning licenseD. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license


Explanation/Reference:appropriate answer.

QUESTION 82Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?

A. Ports 14B. NoneC. Ports 16D. Ports 18E. Ports 1720


Explanation/Reference:


suitable answer.

QUESTION 83Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)

A. M71-KRB. M81-KRC. VIC-1240D. VIC-1280E. P61EF. P71EG. P81E

Correct Answer: BCDGSection: (none)Explanation


cisco.selftestengine.640 916.v2015!04!03.by.wilbert.83q unprotected

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