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CLASS-VII_E1 to E3 SIMPLE HOLIDAY PACKAGE

NARAYANA GROUP OF SCHOOLS of 23

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Mathematics Physics

Chemistry

CLASS – VII – E1 to E3

VII_MPC_E1 to E3_SHP INDEX

Subject Page No. 1. MATHEMATHICS 02 - 08 2. PHYSICS 09 - 16 3.CHEMISTRY 17 - 22 Key (MPC) 22 - 23



MATHEMATHICS 1. Consider the following statements:

i) The sum of two prime numbers is a prime number ii) The product of two prime numbers is a prime number Which of these statements is/ are correct?

1) (i) alone 2) (ii) alone 3) Neither (i) nor (ii) 4) Both (i) and (ii)

2. If p = 5 and a = 2 then pa - a 15

is divisible by a number which is ______

1) even 2) odd 3) prime 4) Both (1) & (3) 3. If sum of first 11 odd numbers is added to sum of first 13 odd

numbers, then the resultant answer is 1) 290 2) 292 3) 294 4) 296 4. If sum of 3 consecutive positive even integers is 168 then what

should be added in 2nd number so that it become a prime number? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5. If 3a = 5b = 6c = 17d = 510 then a + b + c + d is 1) Odd 2) Even 3) Prime 4) Negative 6. If 5x + 11y is a prime number for natural number values of x and y,

then what is the minimum value of x + y? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 7. If a, b, c, d are first 4 two-digit odd composite numbers. If a + b + c

+ d + e is a perfect square, then the value of e is 1) 8 2) 9 3) 12 4) None of these 8. If a, b are twin primes and b, c are twin primes, then the value of a

+b+ c can be 1) 12 2) 15 3) 23 4) None of these

9. 94 × 32 × 72 and 32 × 63 × 54 are two numbers. If the two numbers are multiplied, then the resultant is

1) Odd 2) even 3) negative integer 4) none 10. The smallest divisor (other than 1) of a composite number is a/an 1) Odd number 2) even number 3) prime number 4) composite number

11. If a2 – b2 is prime, then the correct option is 1) a2 – b2 = a – b 2) a2 – b2 = a + b

3) a2 – b2 = ab 4) a2 – b2 = 4 12. If p is a prime and n is a positive integer, then GCD of p and n is 1) 1 2) P 3) n 4) 1 or p

13. If n3 – 1 is a prime number, where nN, then 1) (n + 1)2 is prime 2) n(n + 1) is prime

3) n – 1 is prime 4) n2 + n + 1 is prime



14. The square of a prime number is a 1) prime number 2) composite number 3) perfect number 4) can’t say 15. Let x and y be positive integers such that ‘x’ is prime and ‘y’ is

composite. Then which of the following is true ? 1) y – x can be even 2) xy can be even

3) x y

x

can be even 4) All of these

16. a, b, c, d, e are first five odd prime numbers then which of the following is true?

1) a + b + c is not odd composite 2) c + d + e is prime 3) bcd is even 4) a + b + c + d + e is an even composite

17. If a, b, c, d,...... are first four consecutive odd numbers, then 75th positive odd number is

1) 147 2) 151 3) 139 4) 149 18. For what value of n are 2n – 1 and 2n + 1 prime ? 1) 7 2) 5 3) 1 4) 2 19. The sum of digits of a 2-digit odd integer is 11. If their difference is

5 then the odd number is 1) 65 2) 47 3) 83 4) 92 20. Which of the following statements is/are false ? 1) An even number greater than 3 can never be a prime 2) A perfect square number can never be a prime 3) A number which is greater than 5 and whose unit digit is 5 can never

be prime 4) A number ending with 0 can be a prime number 21. If a1, a2, a3,……,an are in A.P., where ai > 0 for all i, then

1 2 2 3 n 1 n

1 1 1..... ________a a a a a a

1)1 n

n 1a a

2)1 n

n 1a a

3)1 n

n 1a a

4)None of these

22. A man accepts a position with an initial salary of Rs 5200 per month. It is understood that he will receive an automatic increase of Rs 320 in the very next month and each month thereafter. Find his salary for the tenth month.

1)Rs 8400 2)Rs 8080 3)Rs 8500 4)Rs 8720

23. If 0.04 0.4 0.004 0.4 , a b then ab

is:

1) 316 10 2) 416 10 3) 516 10 4)None of these



24. The sum of three prime numbers is 132. If one of them exceeds another by 36, then the largest prime among three is ______

1)71 2)83 3)89 4)73 25. A class consists of a number of boys whose ages are in AP. The

common difference being three months. If the youngest boy is 9 years old and the eldest boy among them is 15 years old, then the number of boys in the class is ?

1) multiple of 5 2) 25 25 3) 52 4) All the above

26. The square of 27 y 49 is

1) 2 2y 14 y 49 2) 2 22y 14y 98 3) 2 2y 14 y 49 4)Both(1)and(2)

27. The least number which when divided by 6,7,8, 9 & 12 leaves the remainder 3 is

1) 501 2) 505 3) 504 4)507 28. The least number which when divided by 20,25,35 & 40 leaves

remainders 13, 18, 28 & 33 respectively is 1) 1394 2) 1393 3) 1407 4) 1408

29. If x3 – 1 = 2196 and y3 – 8 = 2736. Then which of the following is false?

1)y is multiple of x or x is a multiple of y 2) x is prime and y is even. 3) Both x and y are odd numbers 4) Both (1) and (3) 30. Which of the following has zero at the units place ? 1) 11! 2) 5! 3) 7! 4) All of

these

31. If 1256

, 1x , 2x , 3x , 1 are in GP then the value of 1 2 3x x x is

1)1964

2)2364

3)1764

4)2164

32. If a1, a2, ....., a28 are in A.P and a1 + a6 + a13 + a16 + a23 + a28 = 453, then a1 + a2 + a3 ..... + a28 =________

1)453 2)151 3)2114 4)4228 33. In a G.P., if the (m + n)th term is p and the (m – n)th term is q, then

the square of its mth term is

1) pq

2)pq 3) pq 4) 12

(p + q)

34. In an A.P, a = 2 and the sum of first five terms is one-fourth the sum of the next five terms, then t26 =

1)148 2)– 112 3)– 148 4)112

35. The 4th term of a G.P. is 27 and the 5th term is 9, then the sum of 7th term and 9th term is _________

1)43

2)10 3)1027

4)109



36. If the pth and qth terms of a G.P. are q and p respectively, then its p q th term is________

1)1

p qqp

2)1

pp qpq

q 3)

1

p p q

q

qp

4)None of these

37. A carpenter was hired to build 192 window frames. The first day heade five frames and each day, thereafter he made two more frames then he made the day before. How many days did it takes him to finish the job?

1)14 2)12 3)15 4)18

38. If 49 15 41, , ,.........6 2 6

are in AP, then the sum of first 22 terms is

1)773

2)553

3)773

4)None of these

39. If 9 3, ,4 8

pq

are in G.P then pq

=

1)1627

2)11116

3)Both (1) and (2) 4) 33

2

40. Three numbers are in G.P., whose sum is 105, if the 1st number is multiplied by 8 and 2nd number is multiplied by 3, then the numbers will be in A.P. . Find the numbers.

1)10, 20, 40 2)5, 20, 80 3)15, 30, 60 4)Both(2) and (3) 41. The sum of positive terms of the series

3 3 127 26 25 25 ......is8 4 8

1)2387

8 2)

47744

3)2387

4 4)None of these

42. The maximum sum of the series 5 115 14 14 ...........9 9

is

1)782

3 2)

7829

3)8527

4)None of these

43. If x, 2y and 3z are in A.P. where the distinct numbers x,y and z are in G.P., then the common ratio of the G.P. is

1)3 2) 13

3)2 4) 12

44. Three numbers are in G.P. If we tripple the middle term, we get an A.P. Then the common ratio of the G.P. equals :

1)3 2 2 2)2 3 2 3)3 2 2 4)Both(1) and (3) 45. Let Sn denote the sum of the first n terms of an A.P. ,

if S2n = 3Sn, then 3n

n

SS

is equal to________

1)4 2)6 3)8 4)10



46. The fifth, ninth and thirteenth terms of a G.P. are p, q and r respectively, then

1)p2 = q2 + r2 2) p qq r

3)p2 + qr 4)r2 = p2 + q2

47. Find the rth term of an A.P. sum of whose first n terms is 22 3n n . 1)3 1r 2)6 1r 3)6 1r 4)none of these

48. The sum of n terms of the series,

1 1 1 ......

1 3 3 5 5 7

1) 2 1 12

n 2) 2 1

2 1

n 3) 1 1

2 2 4

n 4)None of these

49. cricket tournament 16 school teams participated. A sum of Rs 8000

is to be awarded among themselves as prize money. If the last

placed team is awarded Rs 275 as prize money and the award

increases by the same amount for successive finishing places,how

much amount will the first place team receive?

1) Rs 225 2)Rs 625 3)Rs 725 4) None of these

50 Number of terms of a G.P. 5, 52, 53, .....are needed to give the sum 3905 is

1)4 2)5 3)8 4)10

51. Which of the following number is exactly divisible by 24? 1) 5245648 2) 52563744 3) 7834600 4) 46897122

52. Find the least number which when multiplied by 24300 gives a perfect square number.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

53. The value of 10 25 108 154 225 is 1) 2 2) 4 3) 22 4) Both (2)and(3)

54. The square of 29 y 81 is

1) 2 2y 18 y 81 2) 2 2y 18 y 81

3) 2 22y 18y 162 4) Both (2) and (3) 55. The number of positive integers less than or equal to 100, which are

not divisible by 2,3 or 5, is: 1) 21 2) 29 3) 26 4) 23 56. The cube root of 0.000729 is 1) 0.9 2) 9 3) 0.009 4) 0.09



57. 225 25 16729 144 81

=?

1)

148

2)

548

3)

516

4) None of these

58. Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by all the prime numbers between 40 and 50?

1) 79335 2) 86387 3) Both (1) & (2) 4) 82861

59. The square root of (4502 – 1262) is 1) 384 2) 432 3) 396 4) 468 60. Which of the following integers is the square of an integer for every

integer n? 1)

2 1n 2) 2n n 3)

2 2n n 4) 2 2 1n n

61. The L.C.M of two numbers is 1008. The numbers are in the ratio 7:8. Then the sum of the numbers is

1) 240 2) 270 3) 260 4) 280 62. If L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two numbers are p and q respectively, then

H.C.F. of p and q is

1) pq 2) pq

3) q 4) p

63. Find the greatest possible quantity which can be used to measure exactly the quantities 3L 250mL, 3L 500 mL and 4L

1) 25mL 2) 125mL 3) 250mL 4) 500mL 64. The product of two numbers is 3468 and their H.C.F is 17. The

number of such pairs is 1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 65. H.C.F of 32 × 81 × 2401, 16 × 27 × 625 × 343 and 8 × 243 × 125 ×

49 × 121 is 1) 2310 2) 1764 3) 10584 4) 16464 66. Find the greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves

remainders 6 and 5 respectively. 1) 125 2) 127 3) 129 4) None of these 67. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after

every 48 sec., 72 sec. and 108 sec. respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hours, then at what time will they again change simultaneously ?

1) 8: 32 : 27 2) 8: 12 : 27 3) 8: 12 : 07 4) 8: 27 : 12

68. H.C.F of the fractions 36 84 60, ,7 5 14

is

1) 356

2) 1270

3) 1260 4) 3514

69. Find the greatest number of 4 digits such that they are exactly divisible by 12, 15, 20 and 35.

1) 9999 2) 9240 3) 9660 4) 8820



70. The sum of two numbers is 528 and their H.C.F is 33. Find the number of pairs of such numbers satisfying the above conditions ?

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1

71.

n 31 ! n 41 ! n 51 !61 n

n 30 ! n 40 ! n 50 !

, then

1) n = 20 2) n = 40 3) n = 30 4) n = 10

72. If (n + 5) ! = 132(n + 3) ! then n = 1) 6 2) 5 3) 3 4) 7

73. If

12 13 ! 11 13 ! 24k ,11 13 ! 12 13 ! 25

then the value of k is ____

1) 25 2) 28 3) 23 4) 24

74. LCM of 36! 48!,35! 47!

is

1) 72! 2) 48! 3) 108 4) 144

75. 44 × 45 × 46 × 47 × 48 × 49 × 50 × 51 =

1) 52!43!

2) 51!44!

3) 51!43!

4) 52!44!

76. The HCF & LCM of 51! & 71! are respectively 1) 52! & 72! 2) 51! & 71! 3) 50! & 70! 4) 51 & 71

77. If 1 1 x ,7! 8! 9!

then the value of x is ________

1) 49 2) 64 3) 81 4) 36

78. Statement – I: If

n 2 ! 10! 6n 1 ! 9!

, then n = 14.

Statement – II: n! = n × (n – 1)! . 1) Both Statements are true, Statement II is the correct explanation of

Statement I 2) Both Statements are true, Statement II is not correct explanation of

Statement I 3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false 4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

79. If n 7 !

132n 5 !

, then the value of n is

1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 5 80. Find the total number of prime factors in the expression

11 5 24 7 11 . 1) 29 2) 414 3) 18 4) 413



PHYSICS 1. A sphere of mass 4Kg having a velocity of 4m/s his another sphere

of mass 4Kg moving with a velocity of 2m/s in the opposite direction. After the collision they stick each other , and move with common velocity. Then the common velocity is

1) 2 14 10 Kgms 2) 14Kgms 3) 13Kgms 4) 11Kgms

2. A neutron of mass -27kg1.67×10 moving with a speed of 6m/s3×10 collides with a deuteron of mass -27kg3.34×10 at rest. After collision they both stick together and form a triton. Velocity of triton is

1) 8 110 ms 2) 10 110 ms 3) 6 110 ms 4) 4 110 ms 3. A body of mass 100 kg moving straight line with a velocity of 30

m/s, moves in opposite direction with a velocity of 10 m/s after hitting a wall. What is its magnitude of impulse?

1)6000 Ns 2)5000 Ns 3)4000 Ns 4)3000 Ns 4. A bullet of mass 100g is fired from a gun of mass 30 kg with a

velocity of 300ms–1. Then the velocity of recoil of the gun is 1)–1.5 m/s 2)-0.5 m/s 3)–2.5 m/s 4)-1 m/s 5. A body of mass 2Kg moving with uniform velocity of 40m/s collides

with another body at rest. If the two bodies move together with a velocity of 10m/s , mass of the other body is

1)0.6 Kg 2)0.9 Kg 3)2 Kg 4)6 Kg 6. After collision they stick together in this collision 1)Perfectly inelastic 2)Perfectly elastic 3)Elastic 4)All of these 7. When a body is travelling at constant velocity, the net force on it is

___ 1)< 1 2)> 1 3)0 4) 8. A force of 100 g wt. is required to pull a body weighing 1 kg over

ice. What is the co-efficient of friction ? [g = 9.8m/s2]

1)0.01 2)0.1 3)1 4)10

9. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. the coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is

1)20N 2)50N 3)100N 4)2N

10. Dimensional formula of impulse is

1)[ML-1T-1] 2)[M2LT-1] 3)[MLT] 4)[MLT-1]

11. If the normal force is doubled, coefficient of friction is



1)Halved 2)Doubled 3)Not changed 4)Zero

12. A car and a truck use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping distance

1) Is smaller for the car 2) Is smaller for the truck 3) Is the same for both 4) Depends on colour of the truck or car 13. In order to increase friction between two bodies 1) their surface of contact should be smooth 2) the weight of the body should be more 3) both (1) and (2) 4) none of these 14. Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with

respect to each other, the force of friction comes into play 1) only if the objects are solid. 2) only if one of the two objects is liquid. 3) only if one of the two objects is gaseous. 4) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous

15. a boy is shown pushing the box from right to left. The force of friction will act on the box 1)from right to left ( ) 2)from left to right ( ) 3)vertically downwards 4)vertically upwards ( )

16. A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on 1)muddy surface 2)polished marble surface 3)cemented surface 4)brick surface 17. If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will 1)Increase 2)decrease 3)disappear altogether 4)will remain unchanged 18. Two particles A and B of masses 20 g and 30 g respectively are at

rest at a certain time. Because of the forces exerted by them on each other, the particles start moving. At a given instant, particle A is found to move towards the east with a velocity of 6 cm/s. What is the velocity of particle B at this instant?

1)4 cm/s 2)8 cm/s 3)6 cm/s 4)5 cm/s 19. A block of mass 10 kg is on a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal

force 4 N is applied on it. If coefficient of static friction between those two surface is 0.5, frictional force between the two surface in contact is

1)20 N 2)49 N 3)4.9 N 4)4 N



20. If the external force applied in the horizontal direction on a block which is on a table is balanced by the frictional force. Then such friction is called

1)Maximum friction 2)Sliding friction 3)Static friction 4)Rolling friction 21. Two bodies A and B have their masses in the ratio 4 : 1 and kinetic

energies in the ratio 1 : 4. Then ratio of their velocities respectively is

1)4 : 1 2)1 : 3 3)1 : 16 4)1 : 4 22. A 5kg mass falls through 500 cm. The work done on it by the

earth’s gravitational force is (g=10 m/sec2). 1)196 J 2)1960 J 3)2500 J 4)250 J 23. The Dimensional formula for energy is 1) 2MLT 2) 1 2ML T 3) 2 2ML T 4) 1 3 2M L T 24. The work done on an object does not depend upon Which of the

following? 1)displacement 2)force applied 3)initial velocity of the object 4)All of these 25. Nature of work done by gravitational force 1)may be negative 2)may be positive 3)Always zero 4)Both (1)and (2) 26. The work done by a force on a body depends on 1)Magnitude of the force. 2)External dimensions of the body 3)Distance through which the body moves 4)Both (1) and (3) 27. A man does 200 J of work in 5 seconds and a boy does 100 J of

work in 4 seconds. Who is delivering more power?( Power is defined as the rate of doing work)

1)man 2)boy 3)Both are delivering same power 4)can’t say 28. A person “A” does 600 J of work in 10 minutes and another person

“B" does 600 J of work in 10 minutes. Let the power delivered by A and B be P1 and P2 respectively. Then,

(Power is defined as the rate of doing work) 1)P1 = P2 2)P1 > P2

3)P1 < P2 4)P1 and P2 are undefined

29. Calculate the work done by a student in lifting a 0.5 kg book from the ground and keeping it on a shelf 1.5 m high.

1)4.9 J 2)7.35 J 3)8.9 J 4)10 J 30. A boy pushes a book by applying a force of 5.0 N. Find the work

done by this force in displacing the book through 20 cm along the direction of the push.

1)1 N-m 2)5 N-m 3)3 N-m 4)2 N-m



31. If the linear momentum of a sphere is doubled .Its kinetic energy will become

1)Twice 2)Four times 3)Eight times 4)sixteen times

32. A ball is dropped from a height H. When it reaches the ground , its velocity is 20 m/s then the height H=__________(g=10m/s2)

1)40 m 2)30 m 3)20 m 4)50 m

33. If the momentum of a body is increased to ‘4’ times, its kinetic energy increases to ________ times.

1)16 2)2 3)8 4)none

34. The momentum of a body is 20,000 dyne-sec. Its K.E is 400 erg. the mass of the body is

1)100 kg 2)500 kg 3)5000 kg 4)1000 kg 35. The ratio of kinetic energies of two bodies is 4:1 and their

momentum is in the ratio of 1:2. the ratio of their masses respectively is

1)1:4 2)1:16 3)16:1 4)none 36. In solar cell 1) Sound energy into electrical energy 2) Chemical energy into electrical energy 3) Mechanical energy into electrical energy 4) Light energy into electrical energy 37. A 5kg sphere is projected vertically up ward with a speed of 20ms–1. It rises to a height of 12 m. The energy used up in

overcoming the air resistance is (g=10 m/s2)

1)412J 2)588 J 3)26J 4)400 J

38. The momentum of a body is 20,000 dyne-sec . Its K.E is 200 erg . the mass of the body is

1)100 kg 2)1000 kg 3)2000kg 4)10000 kg 39. Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy by 1)Electrical motor 2)Dynamo 3)Fan 4)Torch 40. Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy in this device 1)Electric cell 2)Dynamo 3)Fan 4)Electric motor 41. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases

continuously. What happens to the loss of potential energy ?

1) It is continuously converted into sound energy

2) It is continuously converted into kinetic energy

3) It is continuously converted into magnetic energy

4) none of these



42. During the electrolysis of salt solutions , the electric energy changes into _________ energy

1)Light 2)magnetic 3)Sound 4)Chemical 43. Electrical energy is converted into sound energy in 1)Loud speaker 2)Electric bulb 3)Dynamo 4)Fan 44. A body is moving horizontally at a height of 20 m has its P.E equal

to K.E. Then velocity of that body is (g = 10 m/s2 ) 1)14 m/s 2)20 m/s 3)34 m/s 4)54 m/s 45. A block of mass 2.0 kg slides on a rough surface. At t=0, its speed is

2.0 m/s. If stops after covering a distance of 20 cm because of the friction exerted by the surface on it. Find the magnitude of work done by friction.

1)4 J 2)8 J 3)10 J 4)0 46. If two bodies of different masses have equal kinetic energy 1) Their moment are equal 2) Heavier body will have greater momentum 3) lighter body will have greater momentum 4) We cannot decide about their moment 47. Two bodies having kinetic energy K1 and K2 have equal masses.

Their moment are p1 and p2 respectively, then p1/p2 is

1)K1:k2 2)K2:k1 3) 2 1K : K 4) 1 2K : K

48. Dimensional formula of momentum is

1)[ML-1T0] 2)[ML1T-1] 3)[ML-2T2] 4)[ML0T2] 49. When a body falls freely 1)It’s kinetic energy remains constant 2)It’s kinetic energy changes 3)Neither (1) or (2) 4)Both (1) and (2) 50. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum.

Which of the following quantities remain constant during the fall? 1)Kinetic energy 2)Potential energy 3)Total mechanical energy 4)None of these 51. An energy of 8 kJ causes a displacement of 32 m in 4 s. The power

delivered is 1)200 W 2)20 W 3)2000 W 4)20000 W 52. The kinetic energy of a 400gm stones 150 J . Against a force of 60N

how long will it travel? 1)0.1 s 2)0.18 s 3)0.3 s 4)0.4 s 53. A stone is projected vertically up to reach a maximum height h. The

ratio of its kinetic energy to potential energy at a height 3h/5 will be

1)5:3 2)2:3 3)3:2 4)3:5 54. A stone is moving along a circular path makes 40 revolutions in 10

sec. what is the angular velocity of the stone?

1) 8 rad/s 2) 4 rad/s 3)2

rad/s 4)2 rad/s



55. A car and a truck use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping distance

1)Is larger for the car 2)Is larger for the truck

3)Is the same for both 4)Depends on colour of the truck or car

56. For any circle the ratio of circumference to its diameter is always equal to

1)337

2)2214

3)227

4)127

57. A truck of mass 600 kg moving at 5 m/s collides with another truck of mass 1800 kg moving in the same direction at 3 m/s. What is their common velocity just after the collision if they move together?

1)2 m/s 2)3.5 m/s 3)350 cm/s 4)Both (2) and (3) 58. Choose the correct statements 1) The angular displacement per unit time is called angular velocity. 2) The number of revolutions made by the particle per second is called

the frequency of the particle. 3) In uniform circular motion equal angles are swept by the radius

vector in very second. 4) All the above 59. The angular velocity of a scooter whirled is 40rad/s and the

diameter of the scooter wheel is 50cm, then the speed (linear) of the scooter in m/s is

Angular displacementAngular velocity

Time t

1)20 m/s 2)8 m/s 3)10 m/s 4)15 m/s 60. A cyclist is running at a speed of 20m/s of the radius of each wheel

of the bicycle be 50cm, then the angular velocity of the wheel is

Angular displacementAngular velocity

Time t

1)52.8 rad/s 2)22.2 rad/s 3)42.4 rad/s 4)40 rad/s

61. A force of 20N acts on an area of 60 cm2. What is the pressure in Pascal?

1)3300 Pa 2)4200 Pa 3)5200 Pa 4)2200 Pa 62. An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attraction

between the earth and apple. If F1 is the magnitude of force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by apple on earth, then

1)F1 is very much greater than F2 2) F2 is very much greater than F1 3)F1 is only a little greater than F2 4)F1 and F2 are equal



63. If the total pressure inside a base of liquid tank is 3 atm, then calculate the pressure due to water column in tank. [ atmospheric pressure = 1 atm]

1)1 atm 2)2 atm 3)3 atm 4)0.5 atm 64. The ratio of the C.G.S unit of pressure to the S.I unit of pressure is 1)10 2)0.1 3)5 4)15 65. With the increase in the area of contact of an object the pressure (Note : Thrust remains same) 1)Increases 2)Decreases 3)Is not affected 4)None of these

66. At a depth of 1000 m in an ocean (a) what is the absolute pressure? (The density of sea water is 1.03 × 103 kg m-3, g = 10m s–2.) 1 1)10.4 atm 2)104 atm 3)1.04 atm 4)1040 atm

67. The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved without changing distance between them, then the gravitational force would become

1)F/4 2)F/2 3)F 4)2F

68. Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be

1)14

times 2)4 times 3)12

times 4)unchanged

69. The atmosphere is held to the earth by 1)gravity 2)wind

3)clouds 4)earth’s magnetic field

70. If the atmospheric pressure (P0) acting on the free surface of liquid

is also taken into account the total pressure in a liquid at a depth ‘h’ is

1)Atmospheric pressure + pressure due to liquid column

2)Atmospheric pressure – pressure due to liquid column

3)Atmospheric pressure × pressure due to liquid column

4)Atmospheric pressure / pressure due to liquid column

71. The liquid used in Barometer is

1)Mercury 2)Kerosene 3)Water 4)Alcohol

72. The ratio of the C.G.S unit of pressure to the S.I unit of pressure is

1)10 2)0.1 3)5 4)15



73. What is the weight of 3kg mass on earth? 29.8 /g m s

1)29.4 N 2)9.8 N 3)7.9 N 4)19.6 N

74. The weight of a body is 40 N. What is its mass? 1)2.08 kg 2)3.08 kg 3)6.08 kg 4)4.08 kg

75. If the weight of a body on the earth is 12N, what it will be on the moon?

1)About 2N 2)About 5N 3)About 3N 4)About 1N

76. It is quite difficult to lift heavy weights on the earth but it become very easy to lift the same heavy weights on the moon because

1)‘g’ is very large on moon

2)‘g’ have azero value on moon

3)‘g’ is very small on earth

4)‘g’ is very small on moon

77. The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called.

1)Acceleration due to gravity

2)Universal gravitational constant

3)Both (1) & (2)

4)Neither (1) nor (2)

78. The value of ‘g’ on the surface of the moon 1)is the same as on the earth

2)is less than that on the earth

3)is more than that on the earth

4)keeps changing day by day

79. The acceleration produced in a freely falling body depends on

1)mass of the body

2)shape of the body

3)colour of the body

4)mass of the planet

80. The water is floating with a force is 50 N and pressure on the fluid

is 5N/m2. Then the force of water acted on the area is

1)8m2 2)9 m2 3)10 m2 4)12m2



CHEMISTRY

1. 2 4 2NaOH H SO X H O 1) 2 4 2Na (SO ) 2) 4NaHSO 3) 3NaHCO 4) 3 4Na SO 2. The number of sulphur atoms present in calcium hydrogen

sulphate. 1)2 2)3 3)4 4)1 3. The substance formed by the neutralisation of an acid with a base is

called : 1)Acid 2)Base 3)Salt 4)Organic acid

4. A salt formed by the partial replacement of H+ ions of an acid from its molecule with metal ions is called:

1)Normal salt 2)Acid salt 3)Basic salt 4)Hydrated salts 5. The formula of copper nitrate is 1) 3 2

Cu NO 2) 2 3Cu NO 3) 3 3

Cu NO 4) 4 2Cu NO

6. The formula of Magnesium hydrogen sulphate is 1)

4 3Mg HSO 2)

2 3Mg HSO 3)

4 2Mg HSO 4)

3 2Mg HSO

7. Which of the following is normal salt? 1)Sodium chloride 2)Calcium oxide 3)Aluminium hydroxide 4)Magnesium hydroxide 8. The no of oxygen atoms present in Zinc nitrate. 1)4 2)6 3)3 4)2 9. The formula Zinc nitrate is. 1) 3Zn NO 2) 2Zn NO 3) 3Zn NO 4) 3 2Zn NO

10. Total no. of atoms present in sodium carbonate. 1)4 2)5 3)6 4)3 11. 2H O

4NaHSO Na H X what is X 1) 1

4SO 2) 24SO 3) 3

4SO 4) 44SO

12. Which of the following is/are deliquescent salts? 1)Calcium chloride 2)Magnesium chloride 3)Mercury nitrate 4)All of these 13. Colour of the Iron sulphate is 1)Blue 2)Green 3)Red 4)White 14. The salts which contain certain fixed number of water molecules

attached loosely to their one molecule are called: 1)Normal salt 2)Acid salt 3)Basic salt 4)Hydrated salts 15. The residue left when a hydrated salt loses its water of

crystallization is called : 1)Basic salt 2)Hydrated salt 3)Water of crystallization 4)Anhydrous salt



16. Identify active metal from the following: 1)Mg 2)Zn 3)H 4)Both 1 and 2 17. Which of the following is basic Salt? 1) Zn OH Cl 2) Cu OH Cl 3) 4 2CuSO 7H O 4)Both 1 and 2

18. Blue coloured hydrated salt is 1) 4 2MgSO 7H O 2) 4 2ZnSO 7H O 3) 4 2CuSO 5H O 4) 4 2FeSO 7H O 19. Calcium chloride is 1)Basic salt 2)hydrated salt 3)Deliquescent salt 4)Anhydrous salt 20. Anhydrous salts regain their colour on the addition of 1)Oxygen 2)Nitrogen 3)Water 4)Ammonia 21. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, Atoms of different _______are

different in all respects. 1) Elements 2)Compound 3)Molecule 4)Ions 22. Atom is no longer indivisible, but consists of 1) Neutrons 2)Protons 3)Electrons 4)All of these 23. Chemical formula of Magnesium sulphate 1) FeSO4.7H2O 2) Na2CO3.10H2O 3) MgSO4.7H2O 4) CuSO4 24. Ammonium carbonate is called as ________ 1) Smelling salt 2) Epson salt 3) Table salt 4) Baking power 25. Which of the following is true according to Dalton’s atomic theory? 1) Matter consists of small indivisible particles called atoms. 2) Atom is the smallest unit of matter which takes part in a chemical

reaction. 3) Atoms combine in small whole numbers to form compound atoms

(molecules). 4) All the above 26. According to Dalton, Atoms combine in small whole numbers to

form 1) Compound atoms 2)Molecules 3) Ions 4)Both (1) and (2) 27. Which of the following salts are obtained from sulphuric acid? 1) Sodium sulphate 2) Copper sulphate 3) Potassium phosphate 4) Both (1) and (2) 28. The first atomic theory was proposed by: 1) Democritus 2) John Dalton 3) William crooks 4)J.J. Thomson 29. The common name for calcium carbonate is: 1) Chalk 2) Lime stone 3) Marble 4)All the above 30. The chemical name for baking soda is: 1) Hydrogen carbonate 2) Sodium carbonate 3) Sodium hydrogen carbonate 4) Sodium nitrate 31. The ratio of specific charge (e/m) of an electron to that of a

hydrogen ion is: 1)1 : 1 2)1840 : 1 3)1 : 1840 4) 2 : 1



32. The mass of electron in amu is: 1)1.00727 2)0.000548 3)2.007 4)5.00001 33. The charge of electron is: 1) -191.602 10 C 2) -241.67 10 kg 3) 289.11 10 kg 4) -19-1.602 10 C 34. Relative charge of electron in________ 1)0.00055 Kg 2)0.00055 Gm 3)0.00055a.m.u 4)0.00055coloumbs 35. 1 Atomic mass unit is_________ 1) 241.66 10 gm 2) 271.66 10 Kg 3)Both 1 & 2 4)None of these 36. Mass of electron in Kg is_______ 1) 289.1 10 2) 319.1 10 3) 389.1 10 4) 219.1 10 37. Mass of electron is nearly equal to _____the mass of one atom of

hydrogen

1)1

1937 2)

11737

3)1

1837 4)

11637

38. Thomson atomic model can explain only: 1)Existence of Nucleus 2)Electrical neutrality 3)Orbital concept 4)All the these 39. ___________ rays discovered by Goldstein 1)Anode rays 2)Cathode rays 3)x-rays 4) rays

40. Positive rays are_____ 1)Cathode rays 2)Anoderays 3)Electrons 4)All of these

41. Anode rays deflected in: 1)Electric field 2)Magnetic field 3)Both 1 and 2 4)None of these

42. Whose atomic model was compared with the watermelon 1)J.J. Thomson 2)Dalton 3)Maharishi kannada 4)None 43. Neutrons possess 1)Positive charge 2)No net charge 3)Negative charge 4)All are correct 44. Which of the following are positive rays : 1)Cathode rays 2)Electrons 3)Positively charged gaseous ions 4)All of these 45. The electrode connected to the negative terminal of the source is

called: 1)Cathode 2)Anode3 3)Both 1 and 2 4)None of these

46. Cathode rays are travel in: 1)Straight line 2)Cross line 3)Curve line 4)Circle

47. Specific charge is indicated by_____ 1)e/m ratio 2)a.m.u 3)k.cal 4)All of these



48. Cathode rays penetrate through thin sheets of ____________ and other metals.

1)Aluminium 2)Carbon 3)Iodine 4)Phosphorous

49. Which consists of particle of matter? 1) rays 2) rays 3)Cathode rays 4)All of these 50. The e/m is constant for_____ 1)Cathode rays 2)Positive rays 3) rays 4) rays 51. Rutherford identified the existence of protons at the centre of the

atom in his experiment by: 1)The deflection of alpha particle 2)The absorption of alpha rays 3)The retention of alpha rays 4)None 52. Which of the following is not related Daltons atomic theory 1) Matter consists of small indivisible particles called atoms 2) Atoms of same elements are alike in all respects 3) Atoms of different elements are different in all respects 4) All atoms have isotopes 53. Common salt dissolved in water turns blue litmus red 1)No it does not change 2)Yes it will change 3)It will change to greenish 4)None of these 54.

23Cu(NO ) Is the chemical formula of______ 1)Copper sulphate 2)Copper nitrate 3)Copper chloride 4)All of these 55. Mercury nitrate is the example of ______ 1)Normal salt 2)Basic salt 3)Both 1 and 2 4)Deliquescent salt 56. Which of the following is correct about Blue vitriol 1)Hydrated copper sulphate 2) 4 2.5CuSO H O 3)It is used in electroplating copper metal 4)All of these 57. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect for Rutherford

experiment? 1) The negatively charged body is called nucleus 2) Rutherford model is also known as Water melon atomic model 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Electron revolve around nucleus 58. Which of the following statement is/are correct about washing soda 1)The chemical name of washing soda is hydrated sodium carbonate 2) It is used in fire extinguishers 3) The chemical formula of washing soda is 2 3 2.10Na CO H O 4) All the above 59. Which of the following is incorrect? 1) The charge of electron is positive 2) Cathode rays was discovered by Goldstein 3) Cathode rays travelling curve line 4) All of these



60. Which of the following are the correct examples of common normal salt

1) 2 3Na CO 2) NaCl 3) 4MgSO 4) All of these 61. The mass number of an atom A is 16 and its atomic number is 8.

Find the number of neutrons? 1)16 2)32 3)8 4)2 62. The mass number of an atom A is ‘39’ and no. of protons are ‘19’.

So no. of neutrons present in the atom is 1)19 2)39 3)20 4)58 63. The frequency for infrared region which is used for heating is : 1) 610 Hz 2) 1310 Hz 3) 1010 Hz 4) 1610 Hz 64. The frequency of a wave light is 6 11.0 10 sec . The wave length for

this wave is 1) 43 10 cm 2) 43 10 cm 3) 46 10 cm 4) 66 10 cm 65. If the atomic weight of an element is 23 times that of the lightest

element and it has 11 protons, then it contains: 1)11 protons, 23 neutrons,11 electrons 2)11 protons, 11 neutrons, 11 electrons 3)11 protons, 12 neutrons, 11 electrons 4)11 protons, 11 neutrons, 23 electrons 66. Nucleon is the collective name of two important subatomic particle

they are 1)Electron and proton 2)Only protons 3)Electron and neutron 4) Neutron and proton 67. The total no. of neutrons in dispositive zinc ions with mass number

‘70’ is 1)34 2)40 3)36 4)38 68. Among 20 21 22

10 11 11A B C and 2212D the isobar combination is

1)A and B 2)B and C 3)C and D 4)A and D 69. Which of the following is not a electromagnetic wave. 1)X -rays 2) rays 3) rays 4)Radio-waves

70. 19 239 11F and Na is the correct example of

1)Isodiapheres 2)Isotopes 3)Isotones 4)All of these 71. The atoms of an element which have the same atomic number but

different mass numbers are called: 1)Isobars 2)Isotopes 3)Isodiapheres 4)Isotones 72. Number of neutrons in the three isotopes of hydrogen (H, D, T)

respectively are: 1)0, 1, 2 2)1, 2, 3 3)1, 1, 1 4)0, 0, 0

73. Choose the correct representation of carbon isotopes.

1)1 14 12

4 6 5, ,C C C 2)12 13 14

6 6 6 , ,C C C 3)11 14 12

3 4 7C, C, C 4)10 16 14

2 2 7C, C, C



74. Electromagnetic radiation possesses the properties of a:

1)Wave 2)Particle 3)Both 1 and 2 4)None

75. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic radiation? 1)X-rays 2)Cathode rays 3)Anode rays 4)Both 2 and 3

76. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600nm is 1) 14 15.0 10 s 2) 2 12.5 10 s 3) 7 15.0 10 s 4) 14 12.5 10 s 77. Which of the following statement is correct 1)Isotopes have same number of neutrons 2)Isobars have same number of neutrons 3)Isotones have same number of protons 4)Isobars are atoms of different elements 78. Choose the incorrect statement 1)The number of protons in all the isotopes of an element is the same 2)The nuclide symbol is expressed as A

Z X 3)The isotopes of an element have same number of neutrons 4)Both 1 and 2 79. Atoms of the different elements which contain same number of

A-2z are 1)Isodiapheres 2)Isotopes 3)Isotones 4)All of these 80. The mass number of potassium element is : 1)42 2)31 3)24 4)39

VII_SHP _Maths_E-1 to E3 KEY

Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

KEY 3 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 3

Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

KEY 2 4 4 2 4 2 4 4 3 4 Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

KEY 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 4

Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

KEY 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 4

Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

KEY 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2

Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

KEY 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 4 2 4

Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

KEY 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 3 3

Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

KEY 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 1



VII_SHP _PHYSICS_E-1 to E3_KEY

Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

KEY 4 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 2 4

Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

KEY 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 4 3

Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

KEY 4 4 3 3 4 4 1 1 2 1

Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

KEY 2 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 1

Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

KEY 2 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 3

Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

KEY 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 3 4

Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

KEY 1 4 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1

Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

KEY 1 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 3

VII_SHP _CHEMISTRY_E-1 to E3_KEY

Q.NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

KEY 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 4 3

Q.NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

KEY 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 Q.NO. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

KEY 1 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 3

Q.NO. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

KEY 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 2

Q.NO. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

KEY 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 4 1

Q.NO. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

KEY 1 4 1 2 4 4 3 4 4 4

Q.NO. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

KEY 3 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 1

Q.NO. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

KEY 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 4

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