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Serior Strength Training

CORRESPONDENCE EDUCATION PROGRAM # 2013-83

This course will expire on December 31, 2014.

After that date no credit will be awarded for this program.

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How to Complete this Program Thank you for choosing an Exercise ETC correspondence program for your continuing education needs. To earn your CECs/CEUs you will need to read the enclosed book. After you have completed the book, take the test that is included with your program. Remember to choose the best or most correct answer.

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Serious Strength Training Course Objectives

After completing the Serious Strength Training course, the participant will:

1. Distinguish the purposes of bodybuilding and strength training

2. Define periodization

3. Identify the stages of periodization

4. Apply the concepts of periodization in the form of a planned exercise program

5. Name the benefits of periodization

6. Define the process of a muscle contraction

7. Describe the physical components and organization structure of a muscle

8. Name the factors that determine a muscle’s ability to contract

9. Identify at least 3 benefits of strength training as it pertains to muscle fibers

10. Define and understand the sliding filament theory

11. Understand the all-or-none law as it applies to exercise programming

12. Describe and apply training to an entire muscle

13. Apply the concept of line f pull for strength training and bodybuilding

14. Understand the 3 types of muscle contractions


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15. Define the different types of strength training

16. Identify the different types of muscular adaptation

17. Explain the nervous coordination of muscles and strength gain development during neuromuscular adaptation

18. Define and explain metabolism and its role in strength development

19. Understand the concept of exercise program design in relation to the principles of strength training and body building

20. Explain the basic laws of strength training

21. Explain the step loading principle to a periodization exercise program

22. Understand the concept of volume in strength training and periodization

23. Understand the importance of good nutrition for muscle growth


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Serious Strength Training Course Examination

For each of the following questions, circle the letter of the answer that best answers the question.

1. What is the middle layer of connective tissue in the muscle? A. Fasciculi

B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Perimysium

2. What are the protein strands in each muscle fiber called? A. Actin

B. Myofibrils C. Myosin D. Sarcolemma

3. At what joint angle is the highest force output during a muscle contraction? A. 110-120 degrees

B. 90 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 0 degrees

4. What is the name of the site where the motor neurons and muscle cells connect? A. Fasciculi

B. Neuromuscular junction C. Neurotransmitter D. Motor end plate

5. Which type of fibers are intermediate fibers or fast oxidative glycolytic fibers? A. Type IIb

B. Type Ia C. Type IIa D. Type Ib

6. What is the only way an athlete cam improve the flow and smoothness of a muscle contraction? A. Contracting the agonist

B. Relaxing the synergist C. Relaxing the antagonist D. Contracting the stabilizers


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7. Which type of training/contraction helps to eliminate the “sticking point” or weak spot in an exercise?

A. Isokinetic B. Isotonic C. Isometric D. Eccentric

8. Which type of training is used extensively during the muscle definition phase of training? A. Isometric

B. General strength C. Maximum strength D. Muscle endurance

9. When it comes to the principles of training, a key word to incorporate into your training

recommendations is: A. Strength

B. Variety C. Repetition D. Overload

10. Which statement is false concerning Principles of Strength Training and Bodybuilding? A. Individualized work capacity

B. Work demand should be proportional to your experience, background, and age C. Consider factors outside of training that place high demands on you D. Follow the advice of seasoned athletes

11. Which technique is the most effective for load patterning? A. Step-loading principle

B. Regeneration cycle C. Maximum stimulation principle D. 1-RM principle

12. Which statement is false concerning the step-loading principle? A. Adaptation occurs only after repeated exposure to the same training loads

B. Each step of the microcycle brings improvements until you reach the regeneration phase C. The workload is increased at every training session D. One workout provides insufficient stimulus to produce changes in the body

13. Which of the following is not one of the basic laws of strength training and bodybuilding? A. Develop the body’s core before developing the limbs

B. Develop flexibility before muscle strength C. Develop tendons before muscle strength D. Develop endurance before muscle strength

14. Which specific training phase is the transition from the H-phase? A. Muscle definition

B. Mixed training phase C. Hypertrophy D. Anatomical adaptation


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15. What is an option for people who cannot commit themselves to the year-round training for a basic periodization program?

A. Double periodization B. Straight body building C. Strict isokinetic program D. Straight hypertrophy program

16. How long is the transition phase in the first half of the periodization program for entry level

bodybuilders? A. 4 months

B. 1 week C. 8 weeks D. 3 weeks

17. What should be incorporated for those who want to sculpt a toned, muscular, and symmetrical

body without adding bulking muscles? A. High variety

B. Lower reps C. More weights D. Focus on core

18. What modification should be made for those wanting to build muscle size?

A. Shorter hypertrophy phase alternated with mixed training toward the end of each segment

B. Longer maximum strength phase alternated with mixed training toward the end of each segment

C. Longer hypertrophy phase alternated with mixed training toward the end of each segment D. Shorter mixed training with longer transition phase at the end of each segment

19. Which is not an integral part of training volume? A. Number of sets and repetitions

B. Number of exercises C. Frequency of workouts D. Duration of training in hours

20. How are exercises cycled in the maximum strength training phase? A. Intermittent sequence

B. Vertical sequence C. Sporadically sequenced D. Horizontal sequence

21. What is considered to be the most popular loading patterns in bodybuilding? A. Cross training

B. Periodization C. Super sets D. Pyramid

22. In a skewed pyramid training sequence, the load constantly increases except when? A. The last set

B. The first set C. The middle set D. Every other set


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23. During pyramiding, how many repetitions should be performed for the muscular endurance phase? A. 1-7

B. 30-150 C. 6-12 D. 20-50

24. When should 1 RM re-test be performed? A. At the beginning of each new phase

B. At the end of a macrocycle C. Every 3 months D. Every 6 months

25. A training program is successful only with all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It uses periodization as a guideline

B. It is part of a longer plan C. It is based on scientific knowledge D. It follows a regimented plan used by most bodybuilders

26. How long should the general warm up last? A. 3-5 min

B. 20 min C. 10-12 min D. 5-10 min

27. How long is the suggested duration for maximum strength training sessions? A. 1.5 or more hrs

B. 1-1.25 hrs C. 1-1.5 hrs D. 1-2 hours

28. The most important tool in planning your main workout is the: A. Microcycle

B. Macrocycle C. Anatomical adaptation D. Muscle definition

29. The state of physiological and psychological arousal that ideally occurs before a day of high- intensity training is called: A. Excitation phase

B. Endorphins C. Supercompensation D. Inhibition

30. The hypertrophy stage of training utilizes what energy system? A. Phosphagen

B. Glycogen C. Fats D. Aerobic

31. When performing a 6-day split routine, how many sets should be performed for the shoulders? A. 10-12

B. 6-8 C. 4-6 D. 10


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32. Which statement is false concerning neural inhibition? A. Nerves can maintain working capacity for long periods of time

B. The nerve is in inhibition when fatigue occurs C. The body can neutralize fatigue by signaling motor units D. As fatigue increases, recruitment of motor units decreases

33. Two sites of muscle fatigue are the: A. Sarcolemma and the motor nerve

B. Sensory nerve and motor nerve C. Actin and myosin D. Motor nerve and neuromuscular junction

34. What is the major end product of anaerobic metabolism? A. Carbon dioxide

B. Glycogen C. Glucose D. Lactic acid

35. The maximum ATP production rate is highest during: A. Concentric contractions

B. High intensity exercises C. Eccentric contractions D. 1 RM

36. All of the following are main factors to consider when recovering from strength training EXCEPT: A. Older athletes require longer recovery

B. Male athletes have a slower rate of recovery due to the heavier loads lifted C. More experienced athletes require shorter recovery D. Negative emotions can impair the recovery process

37. How long should the rest interval be if the load percentage is 80-100%? A. 3-7 minutes

B. 4-7 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 2 minutes

38. All of the following are physiological effects of heat EXCEPT: A. Vasodilation

B. Increase blood flow C. Cellular function decreases D. Increased capillary permeability

39. How long should cryotherapy be applied? A. 60 minutes

B. As long as you want C. 20-30 minutes D. 10-15 minutes

40. A rest interval of how long will allow almost an entire restoration of ATP-PC? A. 30 seconds

B. 3-5 minutes C. 24 hours D. 48 hours


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41. Which statement about the metabolic diet is false? A. It spares protein

B. The primary fuel is protein C. It maintains fat burning D. In the beginning, carbs are limited

42. If you do everything correctly, what percentage of weight loss is fat loss on a high carbohydrate

diet? A. 40%

B. 60% C. 100% D. 80%

43. If insulin decreases, what will increase? A. Serum testosterone

B. Growth hormone C. Cortisol D. Epinephrine

44. What hormone breaks down muscle to use for energy? A. Testosterone

B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. Progesterone

45. Which is not a macronutrient? A. Proteins

B. Fats C. Carbohydrate D. Vitamins

46. Which of the following is not a complete protein? A. Yogurt

B. Eggs C. Vegetables D. Pork

47. What happens to glucose that is not stored as glycogen? A. It is burned through basal metabolism

B. It is stored as body fat C. It is used as quick energy D. It is converted into insulin

48. Research shows that a higher-fat, lower-carbohydrate diet will create a weight loss primarily from: A. Water

B. Muscle C. Body fat D. Glycolysis


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49. Fat oxidation is regulated primarily by: A. Carbohydrate intake

B. Fat intake C. Protein intake D. Exercise

50. When your body is in a stressful situation, what hormone kicks in? A. Insulin-like Growth Factor

B. Testosterone C. Epinephrine D. Growth hormone

51. What else besides stress can have an adverse effect on serum testosterone levels? A. Cortisol

B. Insulin C. Glucose D. Glycogen

52. When shifting from a high-carbohydrate diet to a higher-fat, low-carb diet, what protects the

protein in the body? A. Growth hormone

B. Cortisol C. Fat D. Carbs

53. Which of the following is not a polyunsaturated fatty acid? A. Poultry

B. Beef liver C. Pork D. Coconut oil

54. Most liquid fats are what type of fatty acid? A. Polyunsaturated

B. Monounsaturated C. Saturated D. Triglycerides

55. Alpha-linoleic acid is what type of fatty acid? A. Non-essential

B. Omega-6 C. Omega-3 D. Omega-9

56. Eicosanoids are involved in all of the following body functions EXCEPT: A. Digestion

B. Immune system C. Insulin sensitivity D. Blood pressure

57. Foods rich in EFAs are: A. Excellent for commercial use

B. Highly perishable C. Practical D. Profitable


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58. Omega 3’s are not effective against: A. Blood pressure

B. Clotting C. Fat loss D. Triglyceride levels

59. Trans fatty acids can: A. Reduce the risk of diabetes

B. Increase fat oxidation C. Decrease cholesterol D. Increase risks of cancer

60. How much flaxseed oil is recommended per day as a dietary supplement? A. 5 grams

B. 3 grams C. 1 tablespoon D. 1 teaspoon

61. Evening primrose oil has been used help all of the following EXCEPT: A. Cholesterol

B. Muscle soreness C. Chronic fatigue D. PMS

62. Fish oils are typically used to help all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increase insulin sensitivity

B. Lower blood cholesterol C. Improve vasoconstriction effects D. Cancers

63. What is the better fat to consume on the metabolic diet? A. Crisco

B. Canola oil C. Coconut oil D. Olive oil

64. Which nutrient is found in meat and not in vegetables? A. Vit C

B. Vit E C. Vit A D. Vit B 12

65. What percentage of your fat intake should come from EFA-rich foods? A. 15%

B. 25% C. 35% D. 45%

66. All of the following play a large role in determining cholesterol levels EXCEPT: A. Exercise intensity

B. Metabolism C. Body chemistry D. Genetics


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67. What is the optimal body fat percentage for female athletes? A. 15-25%

B. 10-18% C. 3-10% D. 30%

68. What is the name given to the disorder where males have body image issues? A. Dyslexia

B. Bulimia C. Anorexia D. Dysmorphia

69. In which phase of the metabolic diet should few or no carbs be consumed? A. Mid-week

B. Adaptation phase C. Weekends D. 2 hours before exercise

70. During the adaptation phase of the metabolic diet, what should be the percentage of fat intake of

your total calories? A. 30- 40%

B. 25% or less C. 30-40% D. 50-65%

71. What are the side effects to over-doing the first carbo load? A. Bloating, puffiness

B. Loss of muscle C. Loss of fat D. Diabetes

72. What is the carbo loading time for weekends? A. 6-12 hours

B. 12-48 hours C. 48-72 hours D. 24 hours

73. If you are feeling mildly to moderately tired on the low level of dietary carbs, what should you do? A. Stick it out for another 3 weeks

B. Discontinue the diet C. Go through another 2 week adaptation phase to see if you feel better D. Do a Wednesday carbohydrate spike

74. When can you pretty much eat anything on the metabolic diet? A. Whenever you have cravings

B. Wednesdays C. Weekends D. Thursday - Sunday

75. Low levels of which neurotransmitter has been implicated in fatigue? A. Amino Acids

B. Serotonin C. Epinephrine D. Acetyl choline


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76. When is the ideal time to consume carbohydrates in relation to your exercise? A. 2-hours after exercise

B. 2-hours before exercise C. Every 15 minutes during exercise D. Within 30 minutes of completing your exercise

77. Eating what type of foods will help lead to shorter, more intense carbohydrate loads? A. High fat

B. Low glycemic C. High glycemic D. High protein

78. Which supplement has anti-inflammatory properties? A. Alpha-lipoic acid

B. Quercetin C. Vit C D. Selenium

79. Which supplement can cause impaired cardiorespiratory and metabolic functions when deficient? A. Selenium

B. Magnesium C. Zinc D. Calcium

80. Which of the following does not typically contain conjugated linoleic acid? A. Cheese

B. Dark green leafy vegetables C. Beef D. Venison

81. Which of the following is banned from all sporting federations? A. Ephedrine

B. Epinephrine C. Chromium D. Creatine

82. Which vitamin has some anticatabolic effects? A. Vit A

B. Vit K C. Vit. C D. Vit B1

83. All of the following are possible side effects from overdosing on creatine EXCEPT: A. Overheating

B. Kidney damage C. dehydration D. Low body temperature

84. In order to have the best anabolic effects, protein is best taken: A. In the morning

B. With meals C. Before training D. After training


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85. Which amino acid is the most abundant in the body? A. Cysteine

B. Glutamine C. Lysine D. Valine

86. Recruitment of muscle fibers within each motor unit begins in the: A. Brain

B. Cell body C. Spinal cord D. Neuromuscular junction

87. Which exercise had the highest motor unit activation in the rectus femoris? A. Hip belt squat

B. Safety squat C. Leg extension D. Squat to 90 degrees

88. Which exercise works the soleus muscle as a primary mover? A. Standing one-leg calf raise

B. Donkey calf raise C. Standing calf raise D. Seated calf raise

89. Which exercise works mainly the lower abdominus and serratus anterior? A. Hanging leg raise

B. Knee up on flat bench C. Nautilus crunch D. Diagonal curl-up

90. Which exercise is considered to be an excellent exercise specifically for vastus medialis? A. Leg extension

B. Squat C. Lunge D. Leg press

91. When performing the hack squat, how far should the knees be bent on the lowering phase? A. As far as possible

B. 90 degrees C. Just past parallel D. 60 degrees to focus on rectus femoris

92. Which of the following muscles is not a secondary muscle worked during the Smith Machine

squat? A. Abdominals

B. Hamstrings C. TFL D. Erector spinae

93. Which of the following is not a secondary muscle worked during the Lying Leg Curl exercise? A. Gastrocnemius

B. Gluteals C. Soleus D. Erector spinae


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94. What is considered the main mistake lifters make when performing the Modified Hamstring Deadlift?

A. Bending over too far B. Keeping the back straight C. Gripping the bar too wide D. Not lowering the bar far enough

95. If your calves lack width, what exercise should be the focus of your workout? A. Donkey calf raises

B. Standing calf raises C. Seated calf raises D. One-legged calf raise

96. What is essential in developing an impressive chest? A. Fully expanding the rib cage

B. Focusing on serratus anterior C. Working pectorals minor D. Focusing on rear deltoids

97. What muscles is not considered a secondary muscle for the Decline Dumbbell Bench Press

exercise? A. Lats

B. Rhomboid major C. Middle traps D. Infraspinatus

98. How far should the bar be lowered during the Decline Bench Press? A. Until the elbows are bent to 90 degrees

B. Until you feel a stretch on the muscle C. Until it rests on your chest for 1-2 seconds D. Until it lightly touches your chest

99. What is considered the proper handgrip when performing the Decline Bench Press? A. Hands at shoulder width

B. Hands 3-5 inches wider that shoulder-width C. Hands as wide as possible D. Underhand grip

100. Which is not a primary mover for the Flat Dumbbell Bench Press? A. Triceps brachii

B. Pectoralis major C. Rhomboid minor D. Anterior deltoids

101. What is the proper grip for the Incline Bench Press? A. Underhand grip with hands in line with the shoulders

B. Overhand grip with hands in line with the shoulders C. Underhand grip with hands slightly wider than shoulder-width D. Overhand grip with hands slightly wider than shoulder-width

102. Which statement is correct form for the Incline Dumbbell Fly? A. Raise the elbows and lock them

B. Elbows stay slight flexed throughout the exercise C. When the elbows are raised, they are positioned directly over your mid chest D. Keep the elbows straight throughout the exercise


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103. How far is the bar lowered during the Incline Bench Press? A. Until it lightly touches your chest

B. Until you feel a stretch on the muscle C. Until it rests on your chest for 1-2 seconds D. Until the elbows are bent to 90 degrees

104. What is proper technique for the Cable Crossover? A. Begin the exercise with the arms open only wide enough without stretching the muscle

B. Use an underhand grip with palms facing the floor for your starting position C. Keep your back and elbows straight D. Bring the cables downward in an arcing motion 6-8 inches down from the pelvis

105. What muscle group is considered to be an important part of a competitive bodybuilder’s physique

in creating a good first impression to judges? A. Quads

B. Lats C. Abdominals D. Gluteals

106. How long should the abdominal muscles be held in contraction during the Abdominal Crunch Flat

Bench exercise? A. 10 seconds

B. 3-5 seconds C. 1-2 seconds D. 25 seconds

107. Where should the rope be held during the pulley crunch? A. 1 foot from the pulley machine

B. In alignment with the anchor of the pulley machine C. 2 feet away from the pulley machine D. Where it is comfortable

108. Which muscle is a secondary muscle worked during the Hanging Leg Raise? A. Serratus posterior

B. Oblique abdominals C. Intercostals D. Serratus anterior

109. Which is correct exercise technique for the Bent-over Barbell Row? A. Place a weight underneath the heels

B. Move the arms and the lower back slightly C. The torso should not move upward more than 4 inches D. Keep the torso above parallel to the ground in the starting position

110. When performing the T-Bar Row, how far should the torso move during the exercise? A. Not at all

B. No more than 4 inches C. Until the body is erect D. To a 45 degree angle

111. How wide of a grip should you use during the Front Chin-up? A. 8-13 cm wide

B. As wide as possible C. Hands directly in front of the shoulders D. Close grip with hands almost touching


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112. Which of the following is not a secondary or primary muscle worked during the Back Extension? A. Mid traps

B. Gluteals C. Erector spinae D. Lower traps

113. Why are the deltoids so important to bodybuilders? A. Because the make the neck look bigger

B. Because they make the waist look more defined C. Because they are used in the majority of all exercises D. Because they can be seen from every posing angle

114. What is the primary function of the trapezius muscle? A. To pull the shoulders upward and forward

B. To pull shoulders upward and backward C. To make the neck look bigger D. To flex the shoulders

115. Which muscle is not considered a secondary muscle for the Standing Dumbbell Bent Lateral A. Medial deltoids

B. Rhomboids C. Infraspinatus D. Teres major

116. When lowering the weight in front of the head during the Seated Front Barbell Press, what muscle

is targeted? A. Anterior deltoid

B. Upper pectorals C. Posterior deltoid D. Lower pectorals

117. When performing the Standing Front Dumbbell Raise, the starting position for the arms is: A. Straight down 2-4 inches from the upper thigh

B. Elbows slightly bent 2-4 inches from the upper thigh C. Underhand grip with palms facing upward D. Straight down 5-10 inches from the upper thigh

118. When performing the Upright Row, where does the bar rest in the starting position? A. Wherever it is comfortable

B. Across the lower abs C. At the level of the pelvis D. Across the upper thigh

119. What muscle is the bodybuilder’s favorite muscle to train? A. Pecs

B. Triceps C. Biceps D. Quads

120. Besides the bicep brachii, what other muscle is a primary mover during the Biceps Preacher

Curl? A. Brachialis

B. Brachioradialis C. Triceps D. Coracobrachialis


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121. Which muscle is not a secondary muscle for the Standing Biceps Curl-Narrow Grip? A. Pronator quadratus

B. Forearm flexors C. Wrist flexors D. Pronator teres

122. Which muscle is not a secondary muscle for the Standing Dumbbell Curl – Alternate Arms A. Wrist flexors

B. Pronator teres C. Pronator quadratus D. Forearm flexors

123. Which muscle is not worked during the Standing EZ Biceps Curl – Wide Grip? A. Bicep long head

B. Brachioradialis C. Bicep short head D. Brachialis

124. How best do bodybuilders develop triceps mass? A. Overhead exercises

B. Pulling exercises C. Pushing exercises D. Press down exercises

125. How many sets of triceps exercises should a beginner bodybuilder perform? A. 3-5 sets

B. 5-7 sets C. 1-3 sets D. 8-12 sets

126. Which muscle is not worked during Decline Triceps Extension? A. Triceps long head

B. Triceps medial head C. Triceps outer head D. Forearm extensors

127. Which is not considered a correct starting position for the Triceps Press Down with Angled Bar? A. Feet are shoulder-width apart

B. The upper arms should not rest against the sides of the torso C. Use an overhand grip D. Elbows should be flexed

128. Which exercise works all three heads of the triceps brachii? A. One-Arm Cable Triceps Extension

B. Triceps Press Down with Angled Bar C. Overhead Rope Triceps Extension D. Triceps Dip between Benches

129. Which of the following is not a good tip to help work the forearm muscles? A. Train them hard

B. Save the forearm exercises until the end of the workout C. Gains are slow in coming D. Work the forearms each day


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130. Which exercise is not recommended during the first few weeks of the AA phase? A. Front chin-ups

B. Parallel bar dips with a plate C. Abdominal crunches D. Push-ups between benches

131. How long should the AA training be for recreational bodybuilders? A. 6 weeks

B. 8 weeks C. 3-6 weeks D. 2 weeks

132. The best training method for the AA phase is: A. Step-loading

B. Periodization C. Circuit training D. Super sets

133. In order to create a good cardiorespiratory and strength training base, how long should the

combination workout be? A. 45-60 minutes

B. 10-15 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 20-30 minutes

134. Which is recommended for the entry level body builder training guidelines during the AA phase? A. 2 aerobic training sessions per week

B. 2-3 days per week C. 8-9 stations D. 3-4 sets

135. Which of the following is not a recommended tip to properly execute your AA phase? A. Start with a lower load and use slower progression for the hamstrings

B. Choose a variety of exercises C. Do 20-25 minutes of aerobic work as part of your warm up D. Test for 1 RM at the end of week 7 only

136. When it comes to nutrition during the AA phase, the biggest challenge many bodybuilders have

is: A. Eating too many calories

B. Adjusting their supplements C. Fatigue D. Getting enough calories

137. What is the recommended starting point for caloric intake for the bodybuilder who weighs 180

lbs? A. 3000

B. 3600 C. 3240 D. 4000


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138. What is one of the negative side effects of the metabolic diet? A. Diarrhea

B. Constipation C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperglycemia

139. Besides a fiber supplement, what else might be beneficial to supplement with during the AA

phase? A. Chromium

B. Growth hormone C. Creatine D. Vitamin and minerals

140. The standard periodization model calls for hypertrophy phases how often? A. 1 six-week phase

B. 4 two-week phases C. 6 two-week phases D. 2 six-week phases

141. Which is not a factor in determining the duration of H training? A. Type of diet followed

B. Athletic classification C. Training background D. Specific body goals

142. What is the key element in hypertrophy training? A. Exhaustion per set

B. Amount of weight lifted per set C. The cumulative effect of exhaustion over the total number of sets D. Body type

143. How long does it take to replenish liver glycogen? A. 46-48 hours

B. 3-5 minutes C. 24 hours D. 15 minutes

144. When performing resisted repetitions, during the last two or three reps, you should: A. Make the eccentric phase twice as long as the concentric phase

B. Make the concentric phase twice as long as the eccentric phase C. Have your partner help you perform those repetitions D. Cheat or jerk another part of the body to lift the weight

145. Which of the following is not a benefit of isokinetic equipment? A. It can result in maximal strength gains

B. It is useful for rehabilitation C. It is well suited for the hypertrophy phase of training at faster speeds D. It is suitable for entry-level athletes

146. What is the main objective of H training? A. To increase 1 RM

B. To focus on the muscles that are the weakest C. To focus on hamstrings D. To train all muscles so as to be symmetrical


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147. How many workouts per week take place for the Advanced bodybuilder during H1 and H2 phases?

A. 2-3 B. 3-5 C. 5-6 D. 4-5

148. Why are the calves able to resupply their energy needs more quickly than other muscles? A. Because they have a higher proportion of capillaries

B. Because they are smaller muscles C. Because they are at the lowers point of gravity, therefore blood is more accessible D. Because they are used more in a variety of exercises

149. Which tip is incorrect when executing your H-phase? A. Perform all the sets per exercise before moving on to the next exercise

B. The number of sets can be increased or decreased in response to your needs C. Decrease the number of reps if the load is too high D. The number of exercises can be slightly increased or decreased based on your needs

150. The goal for weight increase on the metabolic diet during the H-phase should be: A. 5% above ideal

B. 15% above ideal C. At ideal D. 5% below ideal

151. During the H-phase, bodybuilders should consume how many calories? A. 25% of total calories above what they would eat to maintain their target weight

B. 15% of total calories above what they would eat to maintain their target weight C. 25 calories for each pound of targeted weight D. 15 calories for each pound of targeted weight

152. What is the “10% Rule?” A. Not to exceed 10% of total calories from the AA phase for the metabolic diet

B. Not to go over 10% of 1 RM when transitioning into the H-phase C. Not to exceed 10% of calories from fat D. Not to go over 10% of body fat for men

153. What is a good amount of mass gain per week during the H-phase? A. 2 lbs per week

B. 1 lb per week C. 4 lbs per week D. 3 lbs per week

154. What is the purpose of including the supplement Antiox in your diet? A. To improve the immune system

B. To increase free radicals C. To reduce free radicals D. To reduce fatigue

155. How long should the mixed phase last for recreational bodybuilders? A. 3-6 weeks

B. 2-3 weeks C. 4 weeks D. 4-8 weeks


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156. When is MxS training recommended? A. The day before a rest day

B. The middle workout of the week C. The first workout of the week or after a rest day D. Every other week after a rest day

157. Why is slight fatigue a positive factor in training? A. It allows for great glycogen storage in the muscles

B. It lets you know when your carb stores are low C. It can prevent injury D. It can stimulate muscle growth

158. Which tip is incorrect when executing the M-phase? A. You can mix the exercises and the load pattern for variety

B. Exercise can be substituted with similar exercises C. The number of sets can be increased or decreased based on your needs D. If a load is too high, you can reduce I while keeping the same number of reps

159. How should exercises patters be performed during the MxS program? A. Rest interval should be 2-3 minutes

B. Always work the exercises in a series of twos from the top down C. Work all the exercises for one muscle and then move on to another muscle group D. If you feel ready to start the next set, go ahead even if the rest interval is not complete

160. How many calories per pound of top body weight goal should be consumed during the mixed

phase each day? A. 15

B. 23 C. 17-25 D. 32

161. How heavy of a load based off 1 RM must be lifted in order to recruit fast twitch motor units? A. At least 75%

B. At least 80% C. At least 90% D. 100%

162. The diameter of the myosin filaments depends on: A. Volume and duration of the MxS phase

B. Frequency of the MxS phase C. Volume and frequency of the MxS phase D. Duration and frequency of the MxS phase

163. How long should the MxS phase last? A. 2 weeks

B. 4 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 8 weeks

164. The Max Load Method provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT: A. It decreases the catecholamine levels

B. It increases motor unit activation C. It increases the diameter of the muscle’s contractile elements D. It improved coordination of muscle groups


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165. Which of the following is not considered an important element for MLM training? A. Rest interval

B. Load C. Frequency D. Speed

166. How long should the rest interval be for MLM? A. 10 minutes

B. 2-3 minutes C. 3-5 minutes D. 48 hours

167. The benefit of eccentric training is that it: A. It results in less muscle soreness

B. It does not require a spotter C. It is harder than the concentric phase D. It creates a higher muscle tension

168. Which of the following are better suited to using eccentric training? A. Those with 2-3 years bodybuilding experience

B. The recreational bodybuilder C. The new bodybuilder D. The occasional bodybuilder

169. How many sets/sessions should the professional bodybuilder perform during the MxS phase? A. 25-40

B. 20-32 C. 15-20 D. 10-15

170. Which of the following tips is incorrect when creating a successful MxS phase? A. Lower the load if it is too high

B. Rest intervals should be 3-5 minutes C. Use multi-joint exercises D. Do 10-15 minutes of aerobic exercise after training sessions

171. What days are off days during the MxS phase low step for professional bodybuilders with a

mixture of MLM and eccentric methods? A. Day 1 and 6

B. Day 2 and 6 C. Day 2 and 4 D. Day 3 and 6

172. Which supplement can help with joint pain? A. Exersol

B. Antiox C. ReNew D. MVM

173. Which supplement helps keep the energy system in high gear even during decreased caloric

intake? A. TestoBoost

B. Creatine advantage C. GHboost D. Myosin Protein Complex


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174. Specific high-repetition training helps stimulate the use of what for fuel? A. Carbohydrates

B. Fatty acids C. Protein D. Creatine

175. What percentage of your 1 RM should you use in order to perform extremely high repetitions for

each muscle group? A. 60-70%

B. 10-30% C. 30-50% D. 70-90%

176. Prolonged work exhausts which energy supply? A. Fatty acids and Glucose

B. Glucose and ATP-PC C. Glycogen and ATP-PC D. Fatty acids and glycogen

177. What is the proper protocol for week 3 of the MD phase for recreational bodybuilders? A. 4 exercises together nonstop or 200 reps

B. 100 reps with 1 min rest C. 40 reps with 1 min of rest D. 50 reps with 1 min of rest

178. Which is not an appropriate tip for the MD program? A. Speed should be moderate throughout the set

B. Set up all the equipment in advance C. The same exercise may be performed twice per set D. A beginner bodybuilder may go as high as 60 or 75 reps

179. During the muscle definition phase, what is the rule of thumb for cutting calories? A. 500 per day the first week

B. Do not lose more than 1.5 lbs per week C. Slower weight loss is best D. If you have lost more than 2 lbs during the week, continue with the same number of

calories 180. Which of the following is not considered a high fiber food for the metabolic diet and muscle

definition? A. Broccoli

B. Bread C. Grapefruit D. Collard greens

181. How far in advance to you generally want to go into the pre-contest phase of diet and training

before a major contest? A. 16 weeks

B. 4 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 6 weeks


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182. When should your last heavy training session occur before a contest? A. 10 days prior

B. 16 days prior C. 3 days prior D. The day before

183. When do you look your best after your carbo load? A. 1 week after

B. The same day C. 1 day after D. 3 days after

184. All of the following supplements should be increased during the muscle definition phase

EXCEPT: A. Calcium

B. Iron C. Potassium D. Magnesium

185. During the transition phase, how much is activity reduced? A. 100%

B. 20% C. 60-70% D. 30-40%

186. What percentage of total caloric intake should be made of carbs when re-introducing

carbohydrates back into the diet during the transition phase? A. 65-70%

B. 55-65% C. 20-30% D. 20-50%

187. All of the following supplements are still recommended to take during the transition phase

EXCEPT: A. Minerals

B. Vitamins C. Myosin Protein Complex D. MVM

188. A high daily value (DV) is considered to be: A. 10% or higher

B. 20% or higher C. 5% or higher D. 15% or higher

189. High fiber foods are those that: A. Are insoluble

B. Have 5 g of fiber or more C. Are soluble D. Are from fruit


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190. If a meat is considered “lean” it has all of the qualities EXCEPT: A. Less than 10g of fat

B. 95 mg of cholesterol or less C. 50% less fat than the regular product D. 4g or less of saturated fat

correspondence education program # 2013-83exerciseetc.com/file/serious-strength-training.pdf ·...

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