inspector examination 2 print name: · page 4 of 28 25. glass block is considered _____. Ł safety...

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________ Page 1 of 28 1. Safety in the workplace begins with ______. site watchdogs. governmental agencies. luck. you. 2. A “confined space” is defined by Industry Standard as a space that _____. is not designed for continuous employee occupancy. has limited or restricted means for entry or exit (for example tanks, vessels, silos, bins, hoppers, vaults, pits, and etc.) is large enough and is so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work. All answers presented herein. 3. A confined space that has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere may be classified as _____ a cellar. a permit required confined space. a vault. a pit. a pulpit. 4. Based upon the standard definitions, attics are considered to be _____ undefined. storage areas. confined spaces. respiratory hot spots. 5. The snake known to shake its tail when startled is a _____. Garter Snake. King snake. Water Moccasin. Copperhead. Rattlesnake. 6. Methane gas can cause death by _____. dehydration. emulation. suffocation. asphyxiation. emotication. flocculation. 7. A non self-supporting portable ladder, nonadjustable in length, consisting of but one section is called a _____. extension ladder. step ladder. single ladder. folding ladder.

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Page 1: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 1 of 28

1. Safety in the workplace begins with ______. • site watchdogs. • governmental agencies. • luck. • you.

2. A “confined space” is defined by Industry Standard as a space that _____.

• is not designed for continuous employee occupancy. • has limited or restricted means for entry or exit (for example tanks, vessels, silos, bins, hoppers,

vaults, pits, and etc.) • is large enough and is so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned

work. • All answers presented herein.

3. A confined space that has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere may be classified as _____

• a cellar. • a permit required confined space. • a vault. • a pit. • a pulpit.

4. Based upon the standard definitions, attics are considered to be _____

• undefined. • storage areas. • confined spaces. • respiratory hot spots.

5. The snake known to shake its tail when startled is a _____.

• Garter Snake. • King snake. • Water Moccasin. • Copperhead. • Rattlesnake.

6. Methane gas can cause death by _____.

• dehydration. • emulation. • suffocation. • asphyxiation. • emotication. • flocculation.

7. A non self-supporting portable ladder, nonadjustable in length, consisting of but one section is called a _____.

• extension ladder. • step ladder. • single ladder. • folding ladder.

Page 2: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 2 of 28

8. The chief hazard when using a ladder is _____. • ladder collapse. • slipping. • falling. • pinching. • electrocution.

9. Portable stepladders longer than 20 feet _____.

• must have a Class III rating. • must be made of fiberglass, • must be made of wood, • require a Class II rating, • must be made of metal, • shall not be used.

10. Anyone using a ladder shall _____.

• keep one hand free at all times. • always face the ladder when climbing up and down.

11. Which is the most correct statement?

• The base of the ladder should be placed so that it is one foot away from the building for every five feet of height to where the ladder rests against the building.

• The base of the ladder should be placed so that it is one foot away from the building for every four feet of height to where the ladder rests against the building.

• The base of the ladder should be placed so that it is one foot away from the building for every three feet of height to where the ladder rests against the building.

12. The main cause of falls from straight and extension ladders is sliding of the ladder base. This is where the ladder base slips out, and moves farther from the structure.

• True • False

13. The first point of disconnect for the conductors from the utility company is called the ______ or main panel.

• fixture • outlet • line • service

14. A minimum service of _____ amps is required for a single residential dwelling unit.

• 100 • 60 • 200 • 125

15. T/F: It is acceptable for a service panel to be located inside a clothes closet.

• True • False

Page 3: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 3 of 28

16. If the service or feeder rating in amps is 200, then the aluminum AWG size should be _______. • #2 • 4/0 • #4 • 2/0

17. An ungrounded conductor is commonly referred to as the ______ conductor.

• warm • white • neutral • hot

18. All 15- and 20-amp 120-volt circuits for dining rooms, living rooms, bedrooms, sun rooms, closets, hallways, and similar areas in a home must be ______ -protected.

• AFCI • ACFI • GFCI

19. T/F: A main breaker is not required for a subpanel if over-current protection is provided for the feeder conductors.

• True • False

20. A grounded conductor is commonly referred to as the _______ conductor.

• single • hot • black • neutral

21. T/F: For roof slopes from 2:12 to 4:12, two layers of underlayment may be applied.

• True • False

22. T/F: In homes located in areas having a history of ice forming along the eaves, an ice barrier consisting of at least three layers of underlayment cemented together is required.

• True • False

23. T/F: Glazing in storm doors is considered a hazardous location.

• True • False

24. T/F: Glass in bi-fold closet doors is considered a hazardous location.

• True • False

Page 4: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 4 of 28

25. Glass block is considered ________. • safety glazing • hazardous • double glazing • masonry

26. T/F: Glazing in railings is considered a hazardous location.

• True • False

27. T/F: The door between an attached garage and a dwelling unit should be of solid wood not less than 2 inches thick.

• True • False

28. The vertical, upper portion above the top-most fixture through which gasses and odors escape the

sanitary drainage system, carrying no liquids or solids, best describes _______________.

• a vent stack

• an air-admittance valve

• a supply vent

• a sewer drain pipe

29. "Plumbing" comes from the Latin word for ______.

• toilet

• aluminum

• sauna

• lead

30. T/F: Contaminated water is considered potable water.

• True

• False

31. T/F: The inspector is not required to flush all of the toilets.

• True

• False

32. T/F: The inspector is not required to ignite a pilot light.

• False

• True

33. An inspector _____ required to determine whether the water supply is public or private.

• is not

• is

34. T/F: Inspectors are required to determine the existence of polybutylene plumbing in a dwelling.

• True

• False

Page 5: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 5 of 28

35. ABS stands for ________.

• alkaline board strand

• acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

• acrylic butylene styrene

36. ___________ is defined as the unobstructed vertical distance through the free atmosphere between an

outlet and the rim of a fixture.

• An indirect drainage space

• An air gap in a drainage system

• Air-venting contaminated water

• A connection problem

37. Air-admittance valves protect ________ from siphonage.

• waste valves

• return valves

• cisterns

• traps

38. A(n) _____ is the vertical, upper portion above the topmost fixture through which gasses and odors

escape the sanitary drainage system.

• supply vent

• air-admittance valve

• sewer drain pipe

• vent stack

39. A __________ is a bathroom or washroom sink.

• restroom

• washroom

• lavatory

• commode

40. A water closet flange is an anchoring ring secured to the floor, and a toilet is secured to this ring with

_________.

• a wax ring device

• a double-bolt flange

• bolts

• a gravity seal

41. A __________ is referred to in the plumbing Standards as a water closet.

• wash basin

• sink

• bathroom

• toilet

42. _________ is defined as the flow of liquids in piping for a potable water distribution system in

reverse of their intended path.

• Back-siphonage

• Backdraft

• Cross-contamination

• Backflow

Page 6: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 6 of 28

43. The following should be worn during an inspection, except ___________.

• nylon clothing

• leather shoes

• safety glasses

44. __________ should be inserted into an electrical panel during an inspection.

• A wire gauge

• None of these implements

• A torque wrench

• An amp probe

45. An electrical panel should not be opened if ___________.

• moisture is dripping from the enclosure

• the enclosure is rusty

• any of these conditions are present

• there are sounds of arcing

46. A "live wire" is more properly known as a(n) ____________.

• grounded conductor

• grounding conductor

• ungrounded conductor

47. An electrical panel cover is more properly called the __________.

• enclosure

• dead front

• distribution center

48. A service panel that does not contain the service disconnect is called a ________ panel.

• service

• main

• distribution

49. Wires to outlets are called __________.

• Romex

• receptacle cables

• branch circuit conductors

50. Electromotive force is measured in ________.

• amps

• watts

• volts

• ohms

51. Ohms are a measurement of _________.

• amperage

• resistance

• power

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 7 of 28

52. Complete the equation: Voltage = ___________

• Watts x Current

• Amps x Resistance

• Power x Amperage

53. Finish the equation: W = E x ______.

• O

• Q

• R

• I

54. Aluminum branch circuit conductors should be sized __________ copper.

• the same as

• one to two sizes smaller than

• one to two sizes larger than

• four sizes smaller than

55. A 20-amp breaker should feed a minimum ______ conductor.

• 10-awg

• 12-awg

• 8-awg

• 14-awg

56. The minimum cable size for a service entrance for a 200-amp supply is ______________.

• 2/0 copper or 1/0 aluminum

• 2/0 copper or 4/0 aluminum

• 1/0 copper or 2/0 aluminum

• 4/0 copper or 2/0 aluminum

57. Most residential services are ___________.

• 110/220-volt

• 120/240-volt

• 240 volt only

• 120 volt only

58. A flat roof is defined as one with a pitch of less than ______.

• 12/12

• 3/12

• 1/12

• 2/12

59. T/F: Since they are not part of the structure, tree limbs overhanging a home's roof need not be

reported by the inspector.

• True

• False

60. The chimney cap on this manufactured chimney is made of ________.

• steel

• copper

• aluminum

• lead

Page 8: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 8 of 28

61. A _________ roof has a pitch of 3/12.

• low-sloped

• flat

• conventional sloped

• steep-pitch

62. T/F: According to InterNACHI's Standards of Practice, inspectors are required to walk all roofs.

• False

• True

63. A roofing square covers an area of ______ square feet.

• 200

• 10

• 1,000

• 100

64. An inspector is not required to report on the _________.

• presence of TV antennae

• condition of covering

• type of roof covering

• guttering system

65. Most jurisdictions allow a maximum of _______ layers of roofing.

• six

• three

• two

• four

66. The formula for computing a roof's slope is ________.

• run/rise

• rise/run

• run/slope

• slope/rise

67. A standard gable roof has _____ planes.

• four

• two

• three

68. A ________ roof has four planes that meet at the ridge.

• hip

• mansard

• Dutch

69. The service life of standard 3-tab asphalt shingles is usually _______ years.

• 20 to 40

• 5 to 15

• 10 to 20

• 15 to 25

Page 9: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 9 of 28

70. T/F: Slate roofs last virtually forever.

• False

• True

71. The proper slope for guttering is ____ for every 5 to 10 feet.

• 1 inch

• 1/2-inch

• 1/4-inch

• 1/16-inch

72. A Home Inspection is a non-invasive, visual examination of a residential dwelling.

• True

• False

73. A home inspector is required to describe the energy source.

• True

• False

74. A home inspector is not required to describe the heating method.

• True

• False

75. The inspector is required to determine the BTU, size, and capacity.

• False

• True

76. The inspector is required to inspect window and through-wall air conditioning units.

• False

• True

77. Heat moves from the hotter body, and the colder body absorbs it.

• True

• False

78. Heat can move from one body to another by _________.

• capacitation

• locomotion

• radiation

• rationalization

79. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one molecule to another, or through one substance to another.

• True

• False

80. Forced-air furnaces function using primarily ________.

• radiation

• induction

• convection

• conduction

Page 10: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 10 of 28

81. You may be able to describe a heating system by its heat-conveying medium.

• True

• False

82. The ____________ is what carries the heat from the source to the enclosure being heated.

• heat-conveying medium

• radiator

• conduction

• BTU

83. Steam is considered a heat-conveying medium.

• True

• False

84. Most heating systems can be categorized in ___________ ways.

• four

• two

• six

• eight

85. Hydronic is a type of heating system.

• True

• False

86. Natural gas has a specific gravity of 1.5 and is heavier than air.

• False

• True

87. One of the major hazards of _________ framing is that fire can travel quickly within the chases from

floor to floor.

• chalet-style

• platform

• balloon

88. Parging coating is a mixture of _______________.

• backfill and cement

• sand and gravel

• Portland cement and sand

89. The _________ support the weight of a roof.

• sheathing materials

• exterior walls

• brick veneer covering materials

90. Collar ties span between ___________.

• plates

• headers

• rafters

• footers

• joists

Page 11: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 11 of 28

91. T/F: Poured concrete shrinks during the curing process, usually resulting in small cracks.

• False

• True

92. In the winter, truss uplift can occur when the bottom chord of roofing trusses ____________.

• arch up

• bow down

• spread apart

93. T/F: Home inspectors should note floors that squeak or groan.

• True

• False

94. Modifications to a bearing wall ______________.

• generally need to be designed and approved by a licensed professional engineer

• are never acceptable under any circumstances

95. T/F: A home inspection report should list the service-life expectancy of all structural components and

systems.

• True

• False

96. T/F: Truss uplift is a structural problem.

• True

• False

97. T/F: The condition of interior finish elements cannot provide accurate clues as to a home's structural

integrity.

• False

• True

98. T/F: Cracks in a basement's concrete floor are considered a serious structural defect.

• True

• False

99. T/F: Vertical cracks are typically caused by frost.

• False

• True

100. T/F: Homeowners are often most concerned with the structural integrity of their home.

• True

• False

101. T/F: If a crack exists in the mortar joint, rather than through the brick, it is not considered a

problem.

• True

• False

Page 12: Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: · Page 4 of 28 25. Glass block is considered _____. Ł safety glazing Ł hazardous Ł double glazing Ł masonry 26. T/F: Glazing in railings is

Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 12 of 28

102. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall inspect the flashing that is not visible or

readily accessible from the ground.

• False

• True

103. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall inspect the fascias.

• False

• True

104. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall inspect all the windows.

• True

• False

105. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall describe the exterior wall covering.

• False

• True

106. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall inspect for safety-type glass.

• True

• False

107. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires that the inspector shall inspect all exterior doors.

• True

• False

108. A(n) __________ is a classical architectural element consisting of the triangular space found above

the horizontal structure or columns.

• portico

• pediment

• cornice

• eave

109. A(n) ________ usually refers to the horizontal decorative trim over a door or window, or at the top

of an exterior wall and below the roof edge of a building.

• pediment

• entablature

• cornice

• portico

110. A __________ is a porch leading to the entrance of a building, with a roof structure over a walkway,

supported by columns or enclosed by walls.

• portico

• bracket

• door

• dentil

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 13 of 28

111. __________ are details at the corner of two walls, which typically project from the face of the walls

on both sides of the corner.

• Columns

• Eaves

• Quoins

• Porticos

112. A __________ is a vertical structural element that transmits the weight of the structure above to

other structural elements below.

• lite

• transom

• column

• pediment

113. A ___________ window has two operable or moving sashes.

• top-down-hung

• single-pane

• double-hung

• casement

114. The sash of a _________window swings in or out, like a door.

• double-hung

• awning

• casement

• jalousie

115. A ________ window is a casement window that has hinges on the bottom.

• single-hung

• sliding

• hopper

• transom

116. A ________ window is located above a door.

• light

• bay

• transom

• single-pane

117. When people look to others for guidance and make purchase decisions based upon what others say,

this is known as __________.

• consumer confidence

• social proof

• co-dependence

118. T/F: It costs five to six times as much to acquire a new (first-time) client as it does to keep a current

one.

• True

• False

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 14 of 28

119. You begin providing customer service ____________.

• when any of these things happen

• as soon as the client hears your outgoing voicemail message

• as soon as the client reads your email reply

• as soon as you meet the client for the first time

120. T/F: Most home inspectors are hired without ever physically meeting their client until the day of the

inspection.

• True

• False

121. Between “yes” or “yeah,” you should use ______ in your conversations with clients.

• yes

• yeah

122. Between “hello” or “what's up?” you should choose _______ as a businesslike greeting.

• hello

• what's up?

123. T/F: A smile is one of the most important aspects of effective communication.

• True

• False

124. If you know your client’s name, _____ it.

• avoid using

• use

125. When Inspector Jim did not walk up to his client, greet her and properly introduce himself, he was

clearly demonstrating that ___________.

• he did not value her as a client

• he was already in "work mode," which is good

• he wasn't going to waste his client's time with pleasantries

126. T/F: When business is good and you have clients booked solid, there may be a tendency to take

them for granted.

• False

• True

127. People respond mostly to the _________ you use.

• spoken words

• written words

• body language

128. You should wash your vehicle _____________.

• about once a month

• once a week, whether it needs it or not

• in the morning before arriving at the first inspection of the day

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 15 of 28

129. T/F: It’s okay to spit, if you need to, during an inspection.

• False

• True

130. Before exiting your vehicle, check your breath, nose and _____.

• seat belt

• mirror

• compass

• map

• teeth

131. When meeting a person for the first time, he or she first _____ you, and then _____ you.

• hears..... sees

• sees..... hears

132. T/F: Inspectors are required to inspect the insulation in unfinished spaces, including the attic.

• False

• True

133. Inspectors are required to inform their clients about the lack of _______ in areas of the house.

• moisture

• mold

• radon

• insulation

134. T/F: Inspectors are required to check the mechanical ventilation system by activating

thermostatically operated fans.

• True

• False

135. T/F: Inspectors are required to remove and check above a representative number of drop-ceiling

tiles.

• True

• False

136. Heat can move from one body to another by ____________.

• dispersion

• osmosis

• radiation

• rationalization

137. Radiation is the transfer of ________ by electromagnetic wave motion.

• water molecules

• nuclear energy

• radiated molecules

• heat energy

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Inspector Examination 2 PRINT NAME: ______________________________________

Page 16 of 28

138. The transfer of heat from one molecule to another, or through one substance to another, describes

the process of ___________.

• ventilation

• conduction

• radiation

• translucence

139. The transfer of heat by warming the air next to a hot surface and then moving that warm air

describes the process of _________.

• radiation

• evaporation

• convection

• conduction

140. Hot air is _______ than cold air.

• more moist

• heavier

• less moist

• lighter

141. T/F: Inspectors should report visible water damage.

• False

• True

142. Water shutoff valves should be ___________ so that the water supply can be easily turned off in the

event of a plumbing leak.

• electronically operated

• painted red and accessible

• near a light switch

• identified and readily accessible

143. T/F: An inspector is required to report any present condition or clear indication of active water

penetration.

• False

• True

144. Code prohibits the installation of loose, rolled, or foam-in-place insulation around _________.

• floor joists

• doors

• windows

• knob-and-tube wiring

145. Homeowners can generally reduce their energy bills by adding more ______ where they already see

it, such as in the attic.

• retarding material

• insulation

• ventilation

• vapor barrier

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Page 17 of 28

146. To prevent _________ in an attic, it is recommended that enough insulation be installed to cover the

tops of the floor joists.

• thermal movement

• thermal bridging

• wood condensing

• air exfiltration

147. T/F: Rail failure is the cause of more injuries than a complete collapse of a deck. • False • True

148. _________ accounts for roughly 90% of all deck collapses.

• Weak or rotted deck planking • Too great a load • A separation of the deck ledger board from the house

149. A "hammer test" test is important ________.

• to check if wood is solid • to see if girders are large enough • to see if bolts are tight

150. A deck load is typically carried by the ______ and the _______.

• planking..... decking • balusters..... stringers • handrails..... guardrails • deck-to-house connection..... posts

151. According to InterNACHI's rule of thumb for deck ledger connectors, there should be _______ joists with ledger connectors _______ on center.

• 10-foot..... 10 inches • 8-foot..... 24 inches • 20-foot..... 10 inches

152. There is no correlation between deck failure and ___________.

• the load on the deck • the lack of a building permit • the structural integrity of the deck

153. Inspectors should be aware that painted deck posts can _______ wood decay.

• cause • prevent • hide

154. A deck constructed on 4-inch by 4-inch posts that is 13 feet high may be ________.

• unsafe • resistant to wind gusts • up to code if made of yellow pine

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Page 18 of 28

155. Inspectors typically check for girder sag by ________ the structure.

• leg-leveling • eye-balling • eye-squaring

156. You cannot have a butt joint in the middle of a _________.

• girder span • post • footer rail

157. As a nominal depth, joists should be cantilevered no more than _____ times the joist's width.

• ten • five • three

158. A common issue found in decks that could compromise child safety is ________.

• 6-inch x 6-inch posts • graspable handrails • tight deck planking • open stair risers

159. The modern electrical standards require _____________ on decks that are 20 square feet or larger.

• at least one electrical receptacle • an interior-use lamp, if an extension cord is used • tiki torches, candles or a battery-powered lamp

160. If ________ and ________ are located too close to posts, they could contribute to rot.

• downspout discharges..... lawn sprinklers • septic tank access..... emergency egresses

161. Each segment of deck planking should be supported by a minimum of _____ joists.

• four • two • five • three

162. Moisture and water vapor moves in and out of a house in three ways: with air currents; by diffusion through materials; and by ______ transfer.

• positive • cold • heat • water

163. Of the three main ways that moisture moves through a house, ______ movement accounts for more than 98% of all water-vapor movement in building cavities.

• water • vertical • air • gravitational

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164. ________________ refers to the amount of moisture contained in a quantity of air compared to the maximum amount of moisture the air could hold at the same temperature.

• Moisture content (MC) • Relative • Relative transfer • Relative humidity (RH)

165. T/F: Roof coverings provide a first line of defense against the elements, and also tend to be the most exposed component of a building’s exterior envelope.

• False • True

166. The minimum roof pitch for composition shingles is ____.

• 1:12 • 6:12 • 2:12 • 8:12

167. For roof slopes from 2:12 to 4:12, there should be ______ layer(s) of underlayment applied.

• four • one • three • two

168. Re-roofing over an existing layer of composition shingles, while generally permitted by code, reduces the ability of the newer shingles to resist impact damage from _______.

• UV light • leaves • hail • water

169. T/F: To avoid roof leaks, appropriate flashing details should be installed wherever possible, and roofing cement or caulk should not be solely relied upon.

• False • True

170. Roof system ventilation and insulation are important for a number of reasons: condensation control; temperature control; energy efficiency; and the prevention of chronic _____ -dam formation.

• liquid • frost • water • ice

171. Roof __________ and projections provide a primary means to deflect rainwater away from building walls.

• large gutters • awnings • overhangs • trees and bushes

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172. A(n) _______________ is one layer of #15 asphalt felt or other approved water-resistive barrier applied over the studs or sheathing of all exterior walls.

• REW • water-resistive barrier • EIFS barrier wall • liquid-applied sealant

173. T/F: Caulking of nail flanges (particularly at the window head and jambs) is critical to the prevention of moisture intrusion around commonly used nail flange windows.

• False • True

174. T/F: A drained cavity WRE relies on deflection, drainage, and drying to protect the wall from moisture damage.

• False • True

175. _____________ at exterior window and door openings shall extend to the surface of the exterior wall finish or to the water-resistive barrier for subsequent drainage.

• #15 felt • Flashing • 6-mil barrier • Sealant

176. T/F: Approved corrosion-resistant flashings shall be installed continuously above all projecting wood trim.

• False • True

177. T/F: The most damaging insects that attack structural wood are termites.

• True • False

178. An insect’s skeleton is on the outside of its body and the muscles attach inside; hence, it is known as a/n _____________.

• hard shell • exoskeleton • skeleton • soft shell

179. Some termite bait toxicants kill termites by interfering with the __________ process.

• mounting • molting • melting • molding

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180. T/F: All insects share a number of characteristics, including a segmented body with three distinct regions (head, thorax and abdomen).

• True • False

181. T/F: Insects are warm-blooded.

• True • False

182. Insects that make a complete change in appearance from juvenile to adult have undergone a ____________ metamorphosis.

• complete • incomplete • simple • gradual

183. In the insect group that includes termites, cockroaches, crickets, grasshoppers, boxelder bugs and earwigs, individuals hatched from the egg only partially resembling the adult have undergone _________ metamorphosis.

• complete • incomplete • simple • gradual

184. Termites live in true social colonies, with a division of labor among the various types of groups called ________.

• casts • productives • groups • castes

185. T/F: Several species of subterranean termites are found in the United States in every state except Alaska.

• True • False

186. T/F: Many species of termites rely on protozoa in their gut to digest cellulose to extract the sugar content.

• True • False

187. T/F: Unfortunately, termites do not distinguish between the wood of a structure and the wood of a dead tree in a forest.

• False • True

188. Adult winged termites have two pairs of long, narrow wings of ________ size.

• equal • unequal • small

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189. In nature, termites start new colonies by the process of ____________.

• transporting • swarming • excavation • flight

190. T/F: Molds can cause allergic reactions in sensitive individuals. • True • False

191. The most important factor influencing mold growth outdoors is __________.

• temperature • moisture • light • organic matter

192. Water-damaged furnishings and building components should be dried within __________ to prevent mold growth.

• one month • one hour • 24 to 48 hours • one week

193. T/F: Some mold spores can be found floating through the air and in dust indoors, but they will not grow if moisture is not present.

• True • False

194. T/F: Mold spores are commonly found in indoor air.

• False • True

195. The most important factor influencing mold growth indoors is ____________.

• temperature • moisture • organic matter • light

196. T/F: Mold cannot grow in cold places.

• False • True

197. T/F: Dead mold is still allergenic.

• False • True

198. T/F: All molds produce mycotoxins.

• True • False

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199. T/F: All mold is either black or green.

• True • False

200. T/F: A moldy odor in a building suggests that mold is growing in the building whether or not you actually see any mold.

• False • True

201. T/F: The use of chlorine bleach for mold cleanup is recommended.

• True • False

202. The way to control mold growth is to control ____________.

• light • moisture • temperature • RH

203. T/F: Inadequate building ventilation could lead to mold growth.

• True • False

204. T/F: Using a gas stove can increase indoor humidity.

• True • False

205. T/F: Active foundation cracks can be sealed with a flexible sealant.

• False • True

206. ___________ support the weight of the structure and transfer this weight to the footings.

• Girders • Foundation walls • Insulated posts • Steel I-beams

207. ________ is a term frequently used to describe the damaging effects of excessive moisture penetration and subsequent freezing of the masonry's outer layers.

• "Efflorescence" • "Powdering" • "Flaking" • "Spalling"

208. Mortar acts as a drainage system to equalize _________ within the masonry.

• hydrochloric staining • hydroponic static • hydrostatic pressure • foundation leveling

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209. Above-ground brick walls __________ with weather changes.

• heave and settle • expand and contract • rise and fall

210. T/F: Concrete is naturally porous.

• True • False

211. Compared to those constructed earlier, masonry walls in buildings built during the last 40 to 50 years are generally _________.

• deeper • thinner • thicker

212. T/F: Masonry can deform elastically over long periods of time in order to accommodate small amounts of movement.

• True • False

213. T/F: A 1/2-inch-wide crack in a 50-year-old building is evidence of rapid settlement.

• True • False

214. Two important qualities of mortar are _______________.

• to add color and a decorative appearance to masonry walls • its ability to bond to masonry, and its internal strength • its ability to act as a water barrier, and to add strength to walls

215. Structure-related problems are usually found over _______ and under ________.

• openings..... roof eaves • roof eaves..... openings

216. Masonry walls sometimes show signs of _________ as they age.

• bolting • vibration • sliding • bulging

217. T/F: Cement substitutes are typically classified as admixtures.

• True • False

218. Concrete is ________ aggregate.

• 70% to 80% • 50% to 60% • 60% to 70%

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219. Some ___________ materials actually penetrate into the concrete, sealing the pores, capillaries and shrinkage cracks that occur naturally in concrete.

• water-resistant • waterproofing • aggregate • dampening

220. Gas furnaces are classified by efficiency by the following percentages in terms of their gravity: 60% to 65%; 80% to 85%; and __________.

• 95% to 100% • 40% to 45% • 110% to 115% • 90% to 95%

221. One main feature of gas furnaces rated at 80% to 85% efficiency is ________________.

• atmospheric venting • fan-assisted combustion • an oil filter on the fuel supply line • excessive water condensate-capture

222. T/F: Furnace efficiency is increased by installing an intermittent pilot ignition system.

• False • True

223. A main feature of gas furnaces rated at 80% to 85% efficiency is ___________________.

• atmospheric venting • an oil filter on the fuel supply line • an intermittent pilot-ignition system • excessive water condensate-capture

224. For gas furnaces that are rated at 80% to 85% efficiency, there is ___________________.

• no need to capture excessive water condensate • no air-circulating blower fan • a standing pilot ignition system • atmospheric venting

225. T/F: On a gas furnace with an efficiency of 60% to 65%, one main feature is a normally aspirated draft.

• False • True

226. T/F: Gas furnaces with an efficiency of 60% to 65% have continuous pilot lights.

• False • True

227. Incomplete combustion creates more _______________.

• carbon peroxide • CH4 • carbon monoxide • hydro carbox compounds

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228. Incomplete combustion releases less _______________.

• carbon monoxide • soot • energy • CO

229. A byproduct of hydrocarbon combustion is __________.

• nitrogen • CH4 • soot • water vapor

230. "BTU" stands for _______________, a basic measure of heat energy.

• British Thermal Unity • British Thermal Unit • Barometric Thermal Unit • Basic Thermal Unit

231. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of liquid water by one degree at a constant pressure is known as a(n) ________.

• BUT • TBS • BTU • USB

232. The condition of a flame lifting up off the burner because of too much air or gas pressure is called ____________.

• dropping flame • lifting flame • settling flame • falling flame

233. T/F: When inspecting a fireplace, an inspector is required to operate gas fireplace inserts.

• False • True

234. T/F: When inspecting the fireplace, an inspector is required to open and close the damper door if it is readily accessible.

• True • False

235. T/F: When inspecting a fireplace, an inspector is required to inspect the vent system.

• False • True

236. T/F: In the inspection report, the inspector is required to describe the type of material used in the insulation/wrapping of pipes.

• False • True

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237. Gas furnaces are classified by these four common arrangements: upflow; downflow: horizontal; and ________.

• terminal • commercial • universal • counterflow

238. T/F: A universal-type furnace uses a fan to assist in the draft of exhaust gasses through the heat exchanger.

• False • True

239. For a downflow-type furnace, the burners are always ___________ of the unit.

• on the top • in the backside • counter-positioned • on the bottom

240. T/F: The blower fan is typically installed on the bottom of a downflow furnace.

• True • False

241. Inspectors are required to inspect: • central cooling systems. • wall cooling systems. • through-wall cooling systems. • electronic air filters.

242. When inspecting the plumbing, which group is not required?

• Clothes washing machine connections, oil storage tanks, shower pans • Main water shut-off valve, water heating system, water supply • Hot and cold faucets, water supply, mechanical drain-stops • Mechanical drain-stops, shower pans, oil storage tanks • Clothes washing machine connections, oil storage tanks, water supply

243. T/F: When inspecting the plumbing, an inspector is not required to evaluate compliance with local or state conservation or energy standards.

• True • False

244. T/F: Reporting whether or not there are sufficient clean-outs for effective drain cleaning is required in an inspection report.

• False • True

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245. When inspecting the electrical system, an inspector is not required to ______: • report on the continuity of the connected service ground. • report a receptacle in which polarity is reversed. • report a receptacle which has no cover in place. • report on the amperage rating of the service. • report the absence of smoke detectors.

246. T/F: An inspector is required to determine the accuracy of breaker labeling.

• False • True

247. T/F: An inspector is required to examine the electrical current.

• False • True

248. T/F: An inspector is required to conduct drop voltage calculations.

• False • True

249. When inspecting fireplaces, an inspector is required to inspect_______:

• hearth extensions. • combustion make up devices. • the vent system. • fire doors. • mantels. • heat distribution assists.

250. T/F: InterNACHI's SOP requires home inspectors to inspect the interior flue of chimneys.

• True • False