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  • 8/18/2019 Latest-Cisco-EnsurePass-640-916-Dumps-PDF.pdf

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    Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-916 Exam

    Vendor Cisco

    Exam Code: 640-916

    Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies - DCICT

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    QUESTION 1

    Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)

    A. complexityB. scalabilityC. ease of managementD. resilience

    Correct Answer: BD

    QUESTION 2

    Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)

    A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. services layerE. QoS marking

    Correct Answer: CD

    QUESTION 3

    Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)

    A. coreB. aggregationC. accessD. distributionE. services

    Correct Answer: AC

    QUESTION 4

    Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)

    A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series SwitchesB. Cisco Nexus 1000VC. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchesD. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series SwitchesE. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directorsCorrect Answer: AC

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    QUESTION 5

    Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?

    A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.

    Correct Answer: F

    QUESTION 6

    Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)

    A. control plane-based MAC learningB. dynamic encapsulationC. MAC address learning based on floodingD. pseudo wires and tunnelsE. complex dual-homingF. native automated multihoming

    Correct Answer: ABF

    QUESTION 7

    Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?

    A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switchB. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches

    C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switchD. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 8

    Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)

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    A. few devices to manageB. deterministic latencyC. lower oversubscriptionD. fewer ISLsE. easy to analyze and tune performanceF. cost-effective for large SANs

    Correct Answer: BEF

    QUESTION 9

    Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)

    A. Cisco Nexus 7010B. Cisco Nexus 5020C. Cisco Nexus 5548D. Cisco Nexus 2248E. Cisco Nexus 2232

    Correct Answer: AC

    QUESTION 10

    Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?

    A. ping -m 10.10.1.1B. ping 10.10.1.1 -mC. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf managementD. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 11

    Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series

    Fibre Channel Switches? (Choose two.)

    A. Telnet bitsB. SNMPv3 community stringsC. Zone port distributionD. Enforce password complexityE. Default switchport mode F

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    Correct Answer: DE

    QUESTION 12

    Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

    Switches? (Choose two.)

    A. Telnet bitsB. SNMPv3 community stringsC. VDC modeD. Default interface layerE. Default interface stateF. CoPP

    Correct Answer: DE

    QUESTION 13

    Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)

    A. NSFB. Fibre ChannelC. CIFSD. SCSIE. iSCSI

    Correct Answer: BD

    QUESTION 14

    Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)

    A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight

    B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transportC. zone port distributionD. reduced cablingE. SNMPv3 strong authentication

    Correct Answer: BD

    QUESTION 15

    Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?

    A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)

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    B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 16

    How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless

    fabric in FCoE?

    A. 1B. 2

    C. 3D. 4E. 6F. 8

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 17

    Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)

    A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchesB. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series SwitchesC. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series SwitchesD. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series SwitchesE. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

    Correct Answer: ABE

    QUESTION 18

    Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to

    a FEX?

    A. HIF (host interface)B. LIF (logical interface)C. connected EthernetD. SIF (satellite interface)E. VIF (virtual interface)

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    Correct Answer: E

    QUESTION 19

    Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose

    two.)

    A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.

    Correct Answer: AE

    QUESTION 20

    Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?

    A. 2148TB. 2224TC. 2248TD. 2248TPE. 2232PPF. 2232TM

    Correct Answer: E

    QUESTION 21

    Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)

    A. 2148T

    B. 2224TC. 2248TD. 2248TPE. 2232PPF. 2232TMCorrect Answer: CDEF

    QUESTION 22

    Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the

    upstream switch? (Choose three.)

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    A. 2148TB. 2224TC. 2248TD. 2248TPE. 2232PPF. 2232TM

    Correct Answer: ACD

    QUESTION 23

    What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

    A. 30 daysB. 60 daysC. 90 daysD. 120 daysE. 150 daysF. 180 days

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 24

    Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus

    5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)

    A. Cisco Nexus 2248TPB. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-EC. Cisco Nexus 2232PPD. Cisco Nexus 2232TM

    Correct Answer: AC

    QUESTION 25

    Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?

    A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)

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    E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 26

    Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a F ibre Channel network? (Choose two.)

    A. Fibre Channel fencingB. LUN maskingC. zoningD. access control listE. port security

    Correct Answer: BC

    QUESTION 27

    Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product

    Activation Key?

    A. MDS-A# show license versionB. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-numberC. MDS-A# show license serial-numberD. MDS-A# show host-idE. MDS-A# show license host-id

    Correct Answer: E

    QUESTION 28

    Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?

    A. H_PortB. N_PortC. E_PortD. NL_PortE. NP_PortF. FL-Port

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 29

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    Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)

    A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre ChannelE. NFSF. CIFS

    Correct Answer: CDEF

    QUESTION 30

    Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

    A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre ChannelE. NFSF. CIFS

    Correct Answer: CD

    QUESTION 31

    Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

    A. TelnetB. SSHC. iSCSID. Fibre ChannelE. NFS

    F. CIFSCorrect Answer: EF

    QUESTION 32

    Which command would you use to determine whether a F ibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco

    MDS switch?

    A. MDS-A# show host loginB. MDS-A# show host dataC. MDS-A# show flogi database

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    D. MDS-A# show host-idE. MDS-A# show host fcid

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 33

    Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?

    A. MDS-A# show host loginB. MDS-A# show host databaseC. MDS-A# show flogi databaseD. MDS-A# show host-idE. MDS-A# show fcns database

    Correct Answer: E

    QUESTION 34

    Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel

    Switches?

    A. 1 with all licensesB. 2 with Standard Zoning licenseC. 3 with Enhanced Zoning licenseD. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 35Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000

    series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)

    A. Time and DateB. Management IP addressC. Default Zoneset distributionD. Enforce password complexityE. Default switchport mode F

    Correct Answer: CE

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    QUESTION 36

    Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000

    Series Fibre Channel Switches?

    A. VLANB. VSANC. ZoneD. FLOGIE. LUN

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 37

    Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?

    A. MDS-A# show vsan 10B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 databaseC. MDS-A# show vsan 10 portsD. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membershipE. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 38

    Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?

    A. RAID 0B. RAID 1C. RAID 3

    D. RAID 4E. RAID 5F. RAID 6

    Correct Answer: F

    QUESTION 39

    Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)

    A. better server utilization

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    B. increased network visibilityC. decreased complexityD. uniform hardware presented to operating systemsE. physical resource sharing

    Correct Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 40

    Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)

    A. dedicated LAN NICB. dedicated SAN HBAC. resource partitioning

    D. hardware abstractionE. virtual machine isolation

    Correct Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 41

    Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)

    A. Adapter FEXB. Virtual Ethernet ModuleC. Virtual Fibre Channel ModuleD. Virtual Supervisor ModuleE. License keyF. VM-Fex

    Correct Answer: BDE

    QUESTION 42

    Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware

    vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)

    A. private VLANsB. port state migrationC. access control listsD. port securityE. SPANF. ERSPANG. QoS marking

    Correct Answer: CDEFG

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    QUESTION 46

    Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?

    A. N1000v-VSM# show vemB. N1000v-VSM# vem statusC. N1000v-VSM# show moduleD. N1000v-VSM# show vem statusE. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 47

    Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?

    A. Ports 1-4B. NoneC. Ports 1-6D. Ports 1-8E. Ports 17-20

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 48

    Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration

    of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)

    A. M71-KR

    B. M81-KRC. VIC-1240D. VIC-1280E. P61EF. P71EG. P81E

    Correct Answer: BCDG

    QUESTION 49

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    Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose

    three.)

    A. SNMPB. XML APIC. UCS Manager GUID. IPMIE. UCS Manager CLIF. CIM-XML

    Correct Answer: BCE

    QUESTION 50

    Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCSManager GUI? (Choose three.)

    A. VLANB. LANC. VSAND. PoliciesE. EquipmentF. GlobalG. Admin

    Correct Answer: BEG

    QUESTION 51

    Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation?

    (Choose three.)

    A. SNMP getB. local login

    C. server discoveryD. firmware downloadsE. server bootF. backup jobs

    Correct Answer: CDF

    QUESTION 52

    Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing

    System?

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    A. finite state machineB. state monitorC. state managerD. discoveryE. logical state arbiter

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 53

    What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric

    Interconnect? (Choose three.)

    A. unconfiguredB. enabledC. disabledD. uplinkE. serverF. errdisabled

    Correct Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 54

    Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose

    three.)

    A. multiplexerB. chassis management consoleC. chassis management switch

    D. finite state machineE. chassis management controller

    Correct Answer: ACE

    QUESTION 55

    Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect?

    (Choose two.)

    A. Restore

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    B. SetupC. ConsoleD. SerialE. Management 0

    Correct Answer: AB

    QUESTION 56

    Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?

    A. VLANB. VSANC. pooled identities

    D. vNICE. vHBA

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 57

    Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?

    A. UCS 5108B. UCS 2104XPC. UCS 6248UPD. UCS 6120E. UCS MK72-KR

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 58

    Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect clusterconfiguration?

    A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers forredundancy.

    B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peersfor redundancy.

    C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers forredundancy.

    D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers forredundancy.

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    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 59

    On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and

    WAAS typically appear?

    A. accessB. servicesC. aggregationD. transportE. networkF. core

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 60

    What is the principle function of the data center core layer?

    A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. firewalling and intrusion preventionE. services layerF. QoS marking

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 61

    Which is a function of the data center access layer?

    A. repeaterB. high-speed packet switchingC. access controlD. firewalling and Intrusion PreventionE. services layerF. QoS marking

    Correct Answer: F

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    QUESTION 62

    Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?

    A. vPC overlay linkB. vPC peer linkC. vPC keepalive linkD. vPC control linkE. vPC management link

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 63

    Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?

    A. unified crossbar fabricB. unified port controllerC. supervisor moduleD. Policy Feature CardE. Connectivity Management Processor

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 64

    Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?

    A. N to FB. VF to VNC. VE to VED. TE to TEE. NL to NF

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 65

    What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?

    A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenderB. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extenderC. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series SwitchD. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender

    Correct Answer: A

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    QUESTION 66

    Which is the complementary endpoint to a SCSI target?

    A. sourceB. originC. host endpointD. initiatorE. successor

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 67

    Which is the correct command to install a feature license on Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel

    Switches?

    A. MDS-A# install license bootflash:license_file.licB. MDS-A# copy license bootflash:license_file.lic running-configC. MDS-A# install feature bootflash:license_file.licD. MDS-A# copy feature bootflash:license_file.lic running-configE. MDS-A# update license pool bootflash:license_file.lic

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 68

    Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel

    switch?

    A. H_Port to N_PortB. N_Port to S_Port

    C. H_Port to S_PortD. N_Port to F_PortE. H_Port to F_Port

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 69

    Which is employed by Cisco Nexus 7000 switching products to create multiple logical switches?

    A. VLAN

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    B. VTPC. VRFD. VDCE. vPC

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 70

    Which method of virtualization requires significant modification to the guest operating system?

    A. full virtualizationB. paravirtualizationC. partial virtualization

    D. hypervisor virtualizationE. host virtualizationF. storage virtualizationG. LAN virtualization

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 71

    Which is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?

    A. least loadedB. round robinC. hash cookieD. least bandwidthE. least connections

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 72What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-

    availability mesh?

    A. 16B. 8C. 4D. 3E. 12F. 14

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    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 73

    When the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion, by what

    percentage is the congestion window reduced?

    A. 12%B. 25%C. 50%D. 75%E. 100% (send zero window)

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 74

    HOTSPOT

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    Correct Answer:

    QUESTION75 HOTSPOT

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    Correct Answer:

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    QUESTION 76

    HOTSPOT

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    Correct Answer:

    QUESTION 77

    HOTSPOT

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    Correct Answer:

    QUESTION 78

    HOTSPOT

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    Correct Answer:

    QUESTION 79

    HOTSPOT

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    isco ompTIA Oracle VMWare IBM

    100-101 640-554 220-801 LX0-101 1Z0-051 V AD510 2170-011

    200-120 640-802 220-802 N10-005 1Z0-052 V P510 2180-319

    300-206 640-816 BR0-002 SG0-001 1Z0-053 V P550 4030-670

    300-207 640-822 AS-001 SG1-001 1Z0-060 V A 510 4040-221

    300-208 640-864 LO-001 SK0-002 1Z0-474 V P5-D V RedHat

    350-018 642-467 ISS-001 SK0-003 1Z0-482 V P510PSE EX200

    352-001 642-813 JK0-010 SY0-101 1Z0-485 EX300

    400-101 642-902 JK0-801 SY0-301 1Z0-580

    640-461 700-302 1Z0-820

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om/oracle.htmlhttp://www.ensurepass.com/comptia.htmlhttp://www.ensurepass.com/cisco.htmlhttp://www.ensurepass.com/user/registerhttp://www.ensurepass.com/certfications?index=A