mech 8 sem course info feb june 07

PESIT

B.E. Mechanical 8th Semester Course Information

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA & PROFESSIONAL ETHICS: CIP81

Class # Portions to be completed % of portion completed

1 Preamble to the Constitution of India

2 Evolution of Constitutional Law l 4

3 Introduction to Fundamental Rights

4-5 Scope of Fundamental Rights under Part III

6-7 Extent Fundamental Rights under Part III

8-10 Details of Exercise of Rights,

11-12 Limitations and Important 23

13-14 Introduction to State Policy

15-22 Relevance of Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV.

42

23 Significance of Fundamentals Duties under Part IV a. 44

24-25 Union Executive President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers

26 Parliament and Supreme Court of India. 50

27-28 State executive, Governor, Chief Minister, Council of Ministers

29-30 Legislature and High Courts. 58

31-32 Constitutional provisions for scheduled castes and tribes

33-34 Constitutional provisions for women and children and backward classes

65

35-36 Emergency powers

37-38 Major constitutional Amendments. 73.

39-40 Electoral Process. 77

41-42 Scope and Aims of Engineering Ethics 81

43-44 Responsibility of Engineers – Impediments of Responsibility.

85

45-46 Honesty

47-48 Integrity and Reliability 92

49-52 Risk Safety and Liability in Engineering. 100

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Model Question Paper 1

Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81. Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

Instructions to the Candidates: 1. Use OMR Sheet Supplied, and darken the bubble with black ballpoint pen only against your choice of correct answer for each question. 1. Double marking for the same question is considered as invalid. 2. Answer all the questions. 3. No negative marking. 4. Scribbling, folding, damaging of OMR Sheet is to be strictly avoided and University is

not responsible for the consequences.

1. In which year, did Cripps Mission come to India? a. 1935 b. 1945 c. 1949 d. 1942

2. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee of Constitution of India? a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad b. Jawaharlal Nehru c. Dr. B R Ambedkar d. Saradar Vallabhabai patel

3. When did Indian Constitution come into force? a. 1946 b. 1949 c. 1948 d. 1950

4. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India? a. Prime Minister of India b. Chief Justice of India c. President of India d. Law Minster of the union.

5. Who selected the first President of India? a. Members of the Lok Sabha and the Raj Sabha b. Members of the Lok Sabha, the Raj Sabha and Members of Legislative

Assembly of all the states c. Constituent Assembly d. Members of the British Parliament.

6. Who will appoint the Chief Minister of a State? a. Prime Minister of India b. Governor of that state c. Cabinet Minister of that state d. Congress Working Committee.

7.

Who will appoint the judge of the Supreme Court? a. Chief Justice of India b. President of India c. Law of Minister of India

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d. Central Government.

8. Who will appoint the cabinet Minister of a state? a. Chief Minister of that state b. Governor of that state c. Members of the Legislative Assembly d. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

9. What is the Minimum age to become the Vice- President of India? a. 35 b. 45 c. 25 d. 30

10 By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended? a. Members of Lok Sabha b. Members of Raj Sabha c. Members of both Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha d. Parliament, supported by more than fifty percent of states.

11. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the Constitution? a. Filing writ Petition b. Filing Criminal Complaint c. Filing Civil Suit d. No remedy

12 How many types of writs are there? a. seven b. three c. five d. six

13. What is the term of the President of India? a. Four years b. Three years c. Five years d. Six years

14 Who was the constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? a. Dr. B R Ambedkar b. JawaharLal Nehru c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad d. B.N .Rau

15 How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended? a. Three times b. Two times c. One time d. Not amended

16 What is the maximum percentage of jobs that can be reserved by a state for backward class people in the government jobs?

a. 75% b. 65% c. 50% d. 60%

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17 The rule of Equality before law is not applicable to a. Prime Minister of India b. Chief Justice of India c. Governor of a state d. Law minister of India

18 Writ of Certiorari is issued a. When a person is illegally arrested b. When a person is illegally detained c. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction d. When a search warrant is issued against a person

19 India has recognized a. Only one religion as National Religion b. Three religions as National Religions c. Five religions as National Religions d. No religion as National Religion

20. One of the aims of Engineering Ethics is to a. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field b. Stimulate the moral imagination c. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research d. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties

21 Professional Ethics is a. Set of standards adopted by Professionals b. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies c. Traditional rules observed since a long time d. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals

22 One of the ways of misusing the truth is a. Failure to seek out the truth b. Exaggerating the truth c. Making confused statement d. Making totally false statement

23 Engineers shall issue public statements only a. In subjective Manner b. In objective Manner c. On their personal responsibility d. Based on the reports sent by higher officers

24 A person is detained under the special law a. When he has committed criminal offence b. When he has committed civil wrong c. When there is likely hood of committing offence against public d. When there are chances of escaping from India

25. Once the National Emergency is proclaimed, it should be approved by the parliament within

a. 6 Months b. 3 Months c. 2 Months d. 1 Month

26. The owner of the patent right will be having patent rights for

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a. 100Years b. 75 Years c. 50 Years d. 20Years

27. Legislative Council is a. Dissolved after 6 Yrs b. Dissolved after 5Yrs c. Dissolved after 3Yrs d. Not dissolved

28. It is not a kind of trade mark a. Designs b. Sounds c. Symbols d. Goodwill

29 When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended a. Art 12 b. Art 14 c. Art 16 d. Art 19

30 The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the a. Prime minister of India b. Planning Commission c. President of India d. Chief Justice of India

31 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to a. The Prime Minister b. The Law Minister c. The President d. The High Court

32 A High Court Judge retires at the age of a. 65 b. 63 c. 60 d. 62

33 One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is a. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs b. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs c. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs d. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist

34 Raj Sabha is a. Dissolved once in three years b. Dissolved once in five years c. A Permanent body d. Dissolved once in six years

35 The President of India a. Can be prosecuted b. Cannot be prosecuted c. Can be prosecuted only in the case of Criminal Conspiracy

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d. Can be prosecuted only if the Parliament permits.

36 Writ can be directly filed a. In the magistrate Court b. In the Court of Civil Judge c. In District and Sessions Court d. In the Supreme Court

37 Professional Ethics takes into account of a. The personal character of engineers b. The temperament of engineers c. The religious bent of mind of engineers d. The social back-ground of engineers

38 To amend the constitution to change the procedure of election of the President of India, the bill has to be passed

a. By Simple majority b. By Special majority c. By Special majority, ratified by more than half of the states d. By Special majority and consented by Chief Justice India

39. Constitution empowers state governments to make special law for a. Women and children b. Workers working in the mines c. Farmers d. Unemployed youths

40 Right against exploitation prohibits a. Lending money at high interest b. Giving in marriage minor girls c. Women working at night in factories d. Traffic in human being

41 One of the restrictions of freedom of speech and expression is a. Contempt of Court b. Degrading the office of the president c. Speeding discontent among the citizens d. Holding unlawful assembly

42 Ex- post-facto-law means a. An out –dated law b. An invalid law c. Passing Criminal law with retrospective effect d. A law applicable only during emergency

43 This in one of the grounds for classification a. Religion b. Social status c. Taxation d. Annual income

44 Maximum percentage of reservation in educational institution is a. 75% b. 68% c. 50% d. 65%

45 When a person is detained under a special law

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a. He should be released within three months b. He should be produced within three months before the magistrate c. An Advisory Board must be constituted within three months d. A charge sheet must be filed within three months in the proper court

46. A writ of habeas corpus is issued a. When a person is arrested arbitrarily b. When the lower Court violates the principles of natural justice c. When a public authority fails to discharge his public duty d. When the lower court acts in excess of its authority

47 Common Civil Code means a. Common Civil procedure Code b. Common Civil law applicable to all c. Civil law applicable to common man d. Civil law applicable to Hindus, Muslims and Christians in certain matters

48. Fundamental duty demands a. To abide by the constitution b. To work sincerely c. To avoid corruption d. To abide by moral rules

49 President of India can be removed by a. Chief Justice of India b. Passing a resolution by the union Cabinet c. Passing a resolution in Lok Sabha by two- third majority d. Impeachment

50. President rule is imposed in a state a. When there is no clear majority b. When the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect c. When there is difference of opinion between the Governor and the Chief

Minister d. When the state government does not follow the direction given by the Prime

Minister.

51 Preamble of Indian Constitution a. Is part of the constitution b. Is not part of the constitution c. Was considered to be part of the constitution d. Is additional part of the constitution

52 Engineering Ethics a. Stimulates the moral imagination b. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering c. Stimulates to conduct research d. Stresses on Time Management

53 Socially and educationally backward class means a. People belonging to low caste b. Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe people c. Economically and educationally backward class people d. Uncultured and uneducated people

54. Jobs are reserved for SC and ST people a. At the time of appointment

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b. At the time of promotion c. Both at the time of appoint and promotion d. On the basis of their annual income

55 Right to life includes a. Right to die b. Right to contest for election c. Right to make a will d. Right to get education

56 Writ of Prohibition a. Prohibits police from interfering in one’s private affairs b. Prohibits a person to continue in a public post c. Prohibits lower court exceeding its jurisdiction d. Prohibits judicial and quasi judicial authority from taking an action

57 Vice-president of India is elected a. By the Members of Lok Sabha b. By the Members of Raj Sabha c. By the legislative Members of all the states d. By the members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

58 Original jurisdiction of the supreme Court relates to a. Civil suits directly filed in the Supreme Court b. Criminal Complaints directly filed in the Supreme Court c. Writs directly filed in the Supreme Court d. Disputes between the Union & the States

59 One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is a. They are strictly liable b. They are absolutely reliable c. They should do good works d. They should take reasonable responsibility

60 One of the impediments to responsibility is a. Interference by politicians b. Interference by higher officers c. Rampant corruption at higher level d. Self deception

61 Professional autonomy means a. Independent body controlling profession b. Liberty in selecting the work c. Liberty to express independent view d. Exercising independent and objective judgment

62 This is not a ground to declare state emergency a. No clear majority b. Not complying with the direction give by central government c. Disobeying the direction given by Supreme Court d. Failure to maintain law and order in the state

63 This is not a Directive Principle of state policy a. Organize village Panchayat b. Provide free Legal Aid c. Secure living wage d. Secure just and efficient judiciary

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64 This is not a fundamental duty

a. To abide by constitution b. To protect and improve natural environment c. To develop scientific temper d. Not to indulge in corrupt practice

65 It is not the objective enshrined in the Preamble a. Justice Social Economic and Political b. Liberty of thought and expression c. Equality of Status d. Secure shelter and proper livelihood to all

66 This is not the test for valid classification a. Intelligible differentia b. Relation between classification and the object sought to be achieved by the

state c. Arbitrariness d. Social and educational backwardness

67 This is not the ground to impose restriction on the right of freedom of speech and expression

a. National Security b. Law and order c. Contempt of court d. Morality or decency

68 This is not the power of the Chief Minister a. Formation of Government b. Control over ministers c. Chief advisor to the Governor d. Control over state judiciary

69 The President of India is not having a. Executive Power b. Diplomatic Power c. Legislative Power d. Power to control judiciary

70 The Election Commission has no power to conduct a. Election to parliament b. Election to state legislature c. Election to the office of the President d. Election to the speaker of the Lok Sabha

71 This is not the aim of studying Engineering Ethics a. Analyzing concepts b. Addressing unclarity c. Engaging sense of responsibility d. Procuring faultless results

72 This is not dishonesty in Engineering Research and Testings a. Crimping b. Cooking c. Forging d. Plagiarism

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74 Number of members in Election Commission including the chairman is a. Seven b. Nine c. Three d. Five

75 Legislate means a. Form Government b. Make Constitutional amendment c. Make law d. Put Administrative Machinery into action

76 Natural Justice means a. Justice not based on enacted law b. Justice according providence c. Just ,fair and reasonable action d. Justice which is not based on technical formalities

77 Tight Couple means a. Binding two beams tightly b. Erecting two pillars side by side c. Process tightly coupled d. Strong adhesive material

78 Forging means a. Signing in the name of some other person b. Strengthening material by special process c. Inventing research data which are reported d. Mixing material under high pressure

79 Amend means a. Remove the difficulties b. Make the meaning more clear c. Make the object of the act more clear d. Omit

80 Enact means a. Single chapter b. Single action c. Pass a law d. Rectify the mistakes , in the law

86 Right to privacy includes a. Right to move freely through out the territory of India b. Right to reside in any part of India c. Right to practice any profession d. Right to personal liberty

87 Minority may be a. Linguistic or religious b. Regional or national c. Racial or regional d. National or racial

88 The basic attitude towards responsibility is a. Intentionally causing harm b. Negligently causing harm

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c. Minimalist d. Recklessly causing harm

89 Conflict of interest may be a. False b. Potential c. Created d. Imaginary

90 The President of India is bound to follow the advice given by a. The Prime minister of India b. The Attorney general of India c. The Chief Justice of India d. The Council of ministers

91 This is not the function of the Lok Sabha a. Legislative Function b. Financial Function c. Controlling the executive d. Judicial function

92 Appellate Jurisdiction of the supreme court does not include a. Appeals in civil cases b. Appeals in Criminal cases c. Special leave to appeal d. Appeals against writs

93 One of the characteristics of profession is that a. Usually it is having monopoly b. It demands hard work c. It is based on honesty d. It is having tough competition

94 Ordinance can be promulgated by a. Lok Sabha b. President of India c. Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha d. Prime minister

95 This is not impediment to responsibility

a. Fear b. Self deception c. Ignorance d. Self respect

96 The chief election Commissioner is appointed by a. The Prime Minister b. The President c. The Chief Justice of the supreme court d. The law minister of India

97 Freedom of press is included in a. Right to carry on any occupation b. Right to personal liberty c. Right to freedom of speech and expression d. Right to education

98 Expert Testimony means

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a. Tested by expert engineer b. Evidence give by a person having competent technical knowledge c. Document drafted by a legal expert d. Designed by expert engineer

99 Fraternity a. Fatherly treatment b. Spirit of brotherhood c. Unity and integrity of the nation d. Elimination of economic injustice

100 Who officiates in the absence of president of India a. Prime Minister b. Vice president c. Speaker of Lok Sabha d. Chief Justice of India

Model question Paper 2

Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81. 1. Is Right to property a fundamental right? …….. 2. When was the Constitution of India adopted? ……… 3. Writ issued by a Court to a public official to do a thing which is part of his official duty,

but which he has failed to perform is ………….. 4. What are the constituents of Parliament? ………………………………. 5. Ultra virus means

i. Error of law ii. Error in Fact Finding iii. Procedural Error iv. Without Authority

6. How many Rajya Sabha members can be nominated by the President? ……. 7. Match the following of features borrowed by Indian Constitution

a. Residuary powers with the Center Australia b. Judicial review Germany c. Directive Principles of State policy Canada d. Parliamentary system of Government Ireland e. Fundamental Duties Soviet Union f. Emergency Provisions USA

Britain

8. Who is the present Chairman of Rajya Sabha? ……………… 9. There is a convention that while making the appointment of the Governor of a state, the

President consulates,

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a. Vice-President b. Chief Justice of India c. Chief Justice of the State d. Chief Minister of the State

10. The Constitution of India has ensured Independence of Judiciary by

a. Providing single Judiciary b. Protecting salaries and service conditions of the Judges c. Ensuring security of tenure to the Judges d. Prohibiting the Judges from carrying on practice in the Court of

law after retirement Which of the following is correct?

i. a, b, c, d ii. a, b, c, iii. b, c, d iv. a, c, d

11. Match the following to which they submit Resignation letter.

a. Lok sabha speaker Vice-President b. President President c. Governor Lok sabha Speaker d. Lok sabha Member Lok sabha Deputy Speaker e. Chief Minister Governor Prime Minister

12. Match the following Articles,

14. National Emergency 1. Abolition of untouchability 26 Equality before law 29 Financial Emergency 44 Organization of village Panchayats 325 Protection of Life and Personal liberty 356 Uniform Civil Code 360 State Emergency 368 Protection of interest of Minorities 17 Freedom to manage religious affairs Amendment procedure

13. During the proclamation of an emergency due to the break down of the Constitutional Machinery in a state, the President can

i. Assume all or any of the functions of the State Government ii. Assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor iii. Assume certain powers of the High court iv. Declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by

the Parliament or under the Authority of the Parliament.

Which of the following is correct? a. I, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv c. I, iii, iv

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d. I, ii, iv

14. A: Governor is the agent of the center B: Governor sends fortnightly reports to center about the affairs of the State which of

the following is correct?

a. A&B are both true and R is the correct explanation of A b. A is the true, R is the false c. A is false, R is true d. Both A &R are true but R is not the Correct explanation of A

15. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue Writs? ………………

16. Governor of a State does not appoint

a. Chief Minister b. Members of State Public Service Commission c. Judges of High court d. Advocate General.

17. Who are the members of the Electoral College for the election of the President? 18. A Governor can issue an ordinances

a. Whenever he likes b. Whenever CM advises him c. When the state Legislative Assembly is not in session d. When the Union Government tells him to do so

19. With how many Articles and schedules, did the Constitution come into effect in 1950? 20. What is the term of a Rajya Sabha member? 21. In the Presidential election

a. States are given greater weight age b. Center enjoys greater weight age c. Parity between the Centre and the States has been maintained

22. The emoluments of the ministers in the State Government are determined by

a. Chief Minister b. Governor c. Legislative Assembly d. President

23. What is Habeas Corpus?

24. Which Article deals with Constitutional remedies for the enforcement of fundamental

rights?

25. Which is the most lengthy and detailed constitutional document the world has so far

produced?

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26. Which Articles talks about organization of village Panchayats in the Indian Constitution?

27. Who elect the members of Rajya Sabha? 28. Which of the following are not mentioned in the Constitution of India?

a. Council of Minister b. Collective Responsibility c. Resignation of Ministers d. Office of Deputy Prime Minister

Choose the correct answer

i. a and b ii. a and c iii. b and d iv. c and d

29. The de-jure head of a State Administrations is

a. Chief Minister b. Law Minister c. Home Minister d. Governor

30. The correct Constitutional position regarding the Governor is that the

a. Governor acts on the advice of the Prime Minister b. Governor acts on the Advice of the Council of Ministers of the

state c. Governor acts on the advice of the Chief Minister of the state d. Governor acts on the advice of the President.

31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of

Parliaments in enacting the budget?

a. It can increase a tax, but not reduce it b. It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it c. It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it d. It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it

32. If the Prime Minister of India belongs to the Upper House of Parliament

a. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion

b. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the lower house c. He can make statements only in the Upper House b. He has to become a member of the Lower House within 6 months after being

sworn in as the Prime Minister.

33. Assertion (A). The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require constitutional amendment

Reason (R). Political parties contesting elections can allocate 33% of seats they

contest to women candidates without any constitutional amendment Choose the correct answer.

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a. A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b. A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is the true and R is false d. A is false and R is true

34. Who constitute the Electoral College for the election of Vice President of India?

35. An amendment to the constitution regarding the creation of new states will require

a.Two-third-majority b. One-third majority

c. Four-fifth-majority d. Simple majority

36. One-third of the members of the Rajya sabha retire after every

a. five years b. two years c. three years d. six years

37. The Republic of India established by the constitution is not

a. Sovereign b. Unitary

c. Socialist c. Secular

38. In which case was it first held by the Supreme Court that Fundamental Rights could not be abridged except by a new Constituent Assembly?

a. Minerva Mills b. Keshavananda Bharathi

c. Golaknath d. None of the above

39. Which of the following is /are stated in the Constitution? I. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament. II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and the two Houses. Choose the correct answer

a. Neither I nor II b. Both I and II c. I alone d. II alone

40. The expression “Prime Ministerial Form of Government” indicates a form of

Government in which

a. Prime Minister is directly elected by the people b. Prime Minister heads a coalition c. Prime Minister is the Head of the State d. Prime Minister is no longer the first among the equals but is

dominant. 41. The very first recognized status for governance of India under the direct rule of

British Government was

a. Government of India Act-1858 b. Indian Councils Act-1909 c. Indian Councils Act-1861 d. Government of India Act-1919

42. Supreme powers in India during British regime was

a. Governor General b. Provincial Governor c. British Parliament d. Her Majesty

43. Failure of Cripps mission was due to

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a. Personal Interest of Mr. Jinnah b. Indians did not like the British’s Idea c. Full Independence was not in the agenda. d. Her majesty did not liked the proposed

44. Largest Amendments of the Constitution of India is

a. 23rd Amendment b. 42nd Amendment

c. 44th Amendment d. 47th Amendment

45. Fundamental Rights are conferred under Constitution of India to citizens of India Under

a. Art.32 to 51 b. Art 14 to 18

c. Art 14 to 32 d. Art 51 to 63

46. The most powerful Article of the Constitution of India is

a. Right against exploitation b. Right to equality c. Right to Freedom of Religion d. Right to Constitutional remedies

47. Which one of the following in not a Directive Principle of State Policy

a. Right to adequate means of livelihood b. Right to live in any place of the Country c. To organize village Pancahyats d. Right of free education to children under the age of 14.

48. Fundamental Duties are available in the Constitution of India in the following

a. Part I b. Part II c. Part III d. Part VII

49. Which of the following article does not empower to declare Emergency

a. Art.352 b. Art 356 c. Art 360 d. Art 362

50. Which of the following is not a WRIT

a. Habeas Corpus b. Mandamus c. Prohibition d. Arrest

51. Who has the powers to enforce Fundamental Duties

a. State Government b. High Court c. Supreme Court d. None.

52. Election of the Vice-President is by an electoral college consisting of

a. Both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies b. Members of both the Houses of Parliament c. All citizens of India d. Legislative assemblies of State

53. The office of the President of India is vacated with

a. Five years of term of office

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b. Resignation of President c. His election is declared void by the election commission d. All the above

54. Which of the following is an absolute power of the President of India.

a. To forgive to conviction up held by the Supreme Court b. To pass the bill recommended by Parliament c. To declare war against any country d. To call for joint parliamentary session

55. Which of the following Judiciary is empowered to deal with Fundamental Rights

a. Supreme Court b. High Court

c Both (a) and (b) d. Only (a)

56. QUO-WARRANTO is the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through ……… 57 Article 40 directs the state to take steps to organize ……………………

58. President of India is ……………Executive while Prime Minister is ………. Real head. 59. Minimum age limit for the post of President of India is ……… years 60. Voting System for the President of India is ………………………………..

MODEL PAPER 3

Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81. Instructions to the Candidates

1. Double marking for the same question is considered as invalid. 2. Answer all the questions. 3. No negative marking.

1. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

e. Prime Minister of India f. Chief Justice of India g. President of India h. Law Minster of the union.



3. Who will appoint the cabinet Minister of a state?

e. Chief Minister of that state f. Governor of that state g. Members of the Legislative Assembly h. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

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4. What is the Minimum age to become the Vice- President of India? e. 35 f. 45 g. 25 h. 30

5. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the

Constitution? e. Filing writ Petition f. Filing Criminal Complaint g. Filing Civil Suit h. No remedy

6. How many types of writs are there?

e. seven f. three g. five h. six

7. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?

e. Three times f. Two times g. One time h. Not amended

8.Writ of Certiorari is issued e. When a person is illegally arrested f. When a person is illegally detained g. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction h. When a search warrant is issued against a person

9. One of the aims of Engineering Ethics is to

e. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field f. Stimulate the moral imagination g. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research h. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties

10. Professional Ethics is

e. Set of standards adopted by Professionals f. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies g. Traditional rules observed since a long time h. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals

11. One of the ways of misusing the truth is

e. Failure to seek out the truth f. Exaggerating the truth g. Making confused statement h. Making totally false statement

12. Engineers shall issue public statements only

e. In subjective Manner f. In objective Manner g. On their personal responsibility h. Based on the reports sent by higher officers


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e. 6 Months f. 3 Months g. 2 Months h. 1 Month


e. 100Years f. 75 Years g. 50 Years h. 20Years

15. Legislative Council is

e. Dissolved after 6 Yrs f. Dissolved after 5Yrs g. Dissolved after 3Yrs h. Not dissolved

16. When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended

e. Art 12 f. Art 14 g. Art 16 h. Art 19

17. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

e. Prime minister of India f. Planning Commission g. President of India h. Chief Justice of India

18. Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to

e. The Prime Minister f. The Law Minister g. The President h. The High Court

19. One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is

e. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs f. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs g. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs h. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist

20. Raj Sabha is

e. Dissolved once in three years f. Dissolved once in five years g. A Permanent body h. Dissolved once in six years

21. Professional Ethics takes into account of

e. The personal character of engineers f. The temperament of engineers g. The religious bent of mind of engineers h. The social back-ground of engineers

22. Preamble of Indian Constitution

e. Is part of the constitution f. Is not part of the constitution g. Was considered to be part of the constitution

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h. Is additional part of the constitution 23. Engineering Ethics

e. Stimulates the moral imagination f. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering g. Stimulates to conduct research h. Stresses on Time Management

24. One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is e. They are strictly liable f. They are absolutely reliable g. They should do good works h. They should take reasonable responsibility

25. Conflict of interest may be

e. False f. Potential g. Created h. Imaginary

Model Question Paper Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

Instructions to the Candidates: 1. Use OMR Sheet Supplied, and darken the bubble with black ballpoint pen

only against your choice of correct answer for each question. 5. Double marking for the same question is considered as invalid. 6. Answer all the questions. 7. No negative marking. 8. Scribbling, folding, damaging of OMR Sheet is to be strictly avoided and

University is not responsible for the consequences.

1. In which year, did Cripps Mission come to India? e. 1935 f. 1945 g. 1949 h. 1942

2. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee of Constitution of India? e. Dr. Rajendra Prasad f. Jawaharlal Nehru g. Dr. B R Ambedkar h. Saradar Vallabhabai patel

3. When did Indian Constitution come into force? e. 1946 f. 1949 g. 1948 h. 1950

4. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India? i. Prime Minister of India j. Chief Justice of India k. President of India

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l. Law Minster of the union.



6. Who will appoint the Chief Minister of a State? e. Prime Minister of India f. Governor of that state g. Cabinet Minister of that state h. Congress Working Committee.

7.

Who will appoint the judge of the Supreme Court? e. Chief Justice of India f. President of India g. Law of Minister of India h. Central Government.

8. Who will appoint the cabinet Minister of a state? i. Chief Minister of that state j. Governor of that state k. Members of the Legislative Assembly l. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

9. What is the Minimum age to become the Vice- President of India? i. 35 j. 45 k. 25 l. 30

10 By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended? e. Members of Lok Sabha f. Members of Raj Sabha g. Members of both Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha h. Parliament, supported by more than fifty percent of states.

11. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the Constitution? i. Filing writ Petition j. Filing Criminal Complaint k. Filing Civil Suit l. No remedy

12 How many types of writs are there? i. seven j. three k. five l. six

13. What is the term of the President of India? e. Four years f. Three years g. Five years h. Six years

14 Who was the constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

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i. Dr. B R Ambedkar j. JawaharLal Nehru k. Dr. Rajendra Prasad l. B.N .Rau

15 How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended? i. Three times j. Two times k. One time l. Not amended

16 What is the maximum percentage of jobs that can be reserved by a state for backward class people in the government jobs?

e. 75% f. 65% g. 50% h. 60%

17 The rule of Equality before law is not applicable to e. Prime Minister of India f. Chief Justice of India g. Governor of a state h. Law minister of India

18 Writ of Certiorari is issued i. When a person is illegally arrested j. When a person is illegally detained k. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction l. When a search warrant is issued against a person

19 India has recognized e. Only one religion as National Religion f. Three religions as National Religions g. Five religions as National Religions h. No religion as National Religion

20. One of the aims of Engineering Ethics is to i. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field j. Stimulate the moral imagination k. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research l. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties

21 Professional Ethics is i. Set of standards adopted by Professionals j. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies k. Traditional rules observed since a long time l. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals

22 One of the ways of misusing the truth is i. Failure to seek out the truth j. Exaggerating the truth k. Making confused statement l. Making totally false statement

23 Engineers shall issue public statements only i. In subjective Manner j. In objective Manner k. On their personal responsibility l. Based on the reports sent by higher officers

24 A person is detained under the special law e. When he has committed criminal offence f. When he has committed civil wrong

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g. When there is likely hood of committing offence against public h. When there are chances of escaping from India


i. 6 Months j. 3 Months k. 2 Months l. 1 Month


i. 100Years j. 75 Years k. 50 Years l. 20Years

27. Legislative Council is i. Dissolved after 6 Yrs j. Dissolved after 5Yrs k. Dissolved after 3Yrs l. Not dissolved

28. It is not a kind of trade mark e. Designs f. Sounds g. Symbols h. Goodwill

29 When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended i. Art 12 j. Art 14 k. Art 16 l. Art 19

30 The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the i. Prime minister of India j. Planning Commission k. President of India l. Chief Justice of India

31 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to i. The Prime Minister j. The Law Minister k. The President l. The High Court

32 A High Court Judge retires at the age of e. 65 f. 63 g. 60 h. 62

33 One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is

i. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs j. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs k. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs l. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist

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34 Raj Sabha is

i. Dissolved once in three years j. Dissolved once in five years k. A Permanent body l. Dissolved once in six years

35 The President of India e. Can be prosecuted f. Cannot be prosecuted g. Can be prosecuted only in the case of Criminal Conspiracy h. Can be prosecuted only if the Parliament permits.

36 Writ can be directly filed e. In the magistrate Court f. In the Court of Civil Judge g. In District and Sessions Court h. In the Supreme Court

37 Professional Ethics takes into account of i. The personal character of engineers j. The temperament of engineers k. The religious bent of mind of engineers l. The social back-ground of engineers

38 To amend the constitution to change the procedure of election of the President of India, the bill has to be passed

e. By Simple majority f. By Special majority g. By Special majority, ratified by more than half of the states h. By Special majority and consented by Chief Justice India

39. Constitution empowers state governments to make special law for e. Women and children f. Workers working in the mines g. Farmers h. Unemployed youths

40 Right against exploitation prohibits e. Lending money at high interest f. Giving in marriage minor girls g. Women working at night in factories h. Traffic in human being

41 One of the restrictions of freedom of speech and expression is e. Contempt of Court f. Degrading the office of the president g. Speeding discontent among the citizens h. Holding unlawful assembly

42 Ex- post-facto-law means e. An out –dated law f. An invalid law g. Passing Criminal law with retrospective effect h. A law applicable only during emergency

43 This in one of the grounds for classification

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e. Religion f. Social status g. Taxation h. Annual income

44 Maximum percentage of reservation in educational institution is e. 75% f. 68% g. 50% h. 65%

45 When a person is detained under a special law

e. He should be released within three months f. He should be produced within three months before the magistrate g. An Advisory Board must be constituted within three months h. A charge sheet must be filed within three months in the proper court

46. A writ of habeas corpus is issued e. When a person is arrested arbitrarily f. When the lower Court violates the principles of natural justice g. When a public authority fails to discharge his public duty h. When the lower court acts in excess of its authority

47 Common Civil Code means e. Common Civil procedure Code f. Common Civil law applicable to all g. Civil law applicable to common man h. Civil law applicable to Hindus, Muslims and Christians in certain matters

48. Fundamental duty demands e. To abide by the constitution f. To work sincerely g. To avoid corruption h. To abide by moral rules

49 President of India can be removed by e. Chief Justice of India f. Passing a resolution by the union Cabinet g. Passing a resolution in Lok Sabha by two- third majority h. Impeachment

50. President rule is imposed in a state e. When there is no clear majority f. When the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect g. When there is difference of opinion between the Governor and the Chief

Minister h. When the state government does not follow the direction given by the Prime

Minister.

51 Preamble of Indian Constitution i. Is part of the constitution j. Is not part of the constitution k. Was considered to be part of the constitution l. Is additional part of the constitution

52 Engineering Ethics i. Stimulates the moral imagination

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j. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering k. Stimulates to conduct research l. Stresses on Time Management

53 Socially and educationally backward class means e. People belonging to low caste f. Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe people g. Economically and educationally backward class people h. Uncultured and uneducated people

54. Jobs are reserved for SC and ST people e. At the time of appointment f. At the time of promotion g. Both at the time of appoint and promotion h. On the basis of their annual income

55 Right to life includes e. Right to die f. Right to contest for election g. Right to make a will h. Right to get education

56 Writ of Prohibition e. Prohibits police from interfering in one’s private affairs f. Prohibits a person to continue in a public post g. Prohibits lower court exceeding its jurisdiction h. Prohibits judicial and quasi judicial authority from taking an action

57 Vice-president of India is elected e. By the Members of Lok Sabha f. By the Members of Raj Sabha g. By the legislative Members of all the states h. By the members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha

58 Original jurisdiction of the supreme Court relates to e. Civil suits directly filed in the Supreme Court f. Criminal Complaints directly filed in the Supreme Court g. Writs directly filed in the Supreme Court h. Disputes between the Union & the States

59 One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is i. They are strictly liable j. They are absolutely reliable k. They should do good works l. They should take reasonable responsibility

60 One of the impediments to responsibility is e. Interference by politicians f. Interference by higher officers g. Rampant corruption at higher level h. Self deception

61 Professional autonomy means

e. Independent body controlling profession f. Liberty in selecting the work g. Liberty to express independent view h. Exercising independent and objective judgment

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62 This is not a ground to declare state emergency

e. No clear majority f. Not complying with the direction give by central government g. Disobeying the direction given by Supreme Court h. Failure to maintain law and order in the state

63 This is not a Directive Principle of state policy e. Organize village Panchayat f. Provide free Legal Aid g. Secure living wage h. Secure just and efficient judiciary

64 This is not a fundamental duty e. To abide by constitution f. To protect and improve natural environment g. To develop scientific temper h. Not to indulge in corrupt practice

65 It is not the objective enshrined in the Preamble e. Justice Social Economic and Political f. Liberty of thought and expression g. Equality of Status h. Secure shelter and proper livelihood to all

66 This is not the test for valid classification e. Intelligible differentia f. Relation between classification and the object sought to be achieved by the

state g. Arbitrariness h. Social and educational backwardness


e. National Security f. Law and order g. Contempt of court h. Morality or decency

68 This is not the power of the Chief Minister e. Formation of Government f. Control over ministers g. Chief advisor to the Governor h. Control over state judiciary

69 The President of India is not having e. Executive Power f. Diplomatic Power g. Legislative Power h. Power to control judiciary

70 The Election Commission has no power to conduct e. Election to parliament f. Election to state legislature g. Election to the office of the President h. Election to the speaker of the Lok Sabha

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71 This is not the aim of studying Engineering Ethics e. Analyzing concepts f. Addressing unclarity g. Engaging sense of responsibility h. Procuring faultless results

72 This is not dishonesty in Engineering Research and Testing e. Crimping f. Cooking g. Forging h. Plagiarism

73 Dr Rajendra Prasad was chairman of a. Drafting committee b. Constituent Assembly c. Raj Sabha d. First planning Commission

74 Number of members in Election Commission including the chairman is e. Seven f. Nine g. Three h. Five

75 Legislate means

e. Form Government f. Make Constitutional amendment g. Make law h. Put Administrative Machinery into action

76 Natural Justice means e. Justice not based on enacted law f. Justice according providence g. Just ,fair and reasonable action h. Justice which is not based on technical formalities

77 Tight Couple means e. Binding two beams tightly f. Erecting two pillars side by side g. Process tightly coupled h. Strong adhesive material

78 Forging means e. Signing in the name of some other person f. Strengthening material by special process g. Inventing research data which are reported h. Mixing material under high pressure

79 Amend means e. Remove the difficulties f. Make the meaning more clear g. Make the object of the act more clear h. Omit

80 Enact means e. Single chapter

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f. Single action g. Pass a law h. Rectify the mistakes , in the law

81 Special majority means a. More than fifty percent b. More than seventy five percent c. More than two third majority d. More than sixty six percent

82 Special leave means

a. Leave with salary b. Leave without salary c. Permission granted by the Supreme Court to appeal d. Leave granted only to Supreme Court Judges before retirement

83 Respite means a. Death due to strangulation b. Death due to drowning c. Awarding lesser punishment d. Painless death

84 Violate means a. Use Violence b. Use force c. Commit breach of law d. Over-rule

85 Interpret means a. Interrupting in the exercise of legal right b. Passing a law by absolute majority c. Ascertaining the meaning of a word d. Amending a law to make it more effective

86 Right to privacy includes e. Right to move freely through out the territory of India f. Right to reside in any part of India g. Right to practice any profession h. Right to personal liberty

87 Minority may be e. Linguistic or religious f. Regional or national g. Racial or regional h. National or racial

88 The basic attitude towards responsibility is e. Intentionally causing harm f. Negligently causing harm g. Minimalist h. Recklessly causing harm

89 Conflict of interest may be i. False j. Potential k. Created

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l. Imaginary

90 The President of India is bound to follow the advice given by e. The Prime minister of India f. The Attorney general of India g. The Chief Justice of India h. The Council of ministers

91 This is not the function of the Lok Sabha e. Legislative Function f. Financial Function g. Controlling the executive h. Judicial function

92 Appellate Jurisdiction of the supreme court does not include e. Appeals in civil cases f. Appeals in Criminal cases g. Special leave to appeal h. Appeals against writs

93 One of the characteristics of profession is that

e. Usually it is having monopoly f. It demands hard work g. It is based on honesty h. It is having tough competition

94 Ordinance can be promulgated by e. Lok Sabha f. President of India g. Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha h. Prime minister

96 The chief election Commissioner is appointed by

e. The Prime Minister f. The President g. The Chief Justice of the supreme court h. The law minister of India

97 Freedom of press is included in e. Right to carry on any occupation f. Right to personal liberty g. Right to freedom of speech and expression h. Right to education

98 Expert Testimony means e. Tested by expert engineer f. Evidence give by a person having competent technical knowledge g. Document drafted by a legal expert h. Designed by expert engineer

99 Fraternity e. Fatherly treatment f. Spirit of brotherhood g. Unity and integrity of the nation h. Elimination of economic injustice

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100 Who officiates in the absence of president of India e. Prime Minister f. Vice president g. Speaker of Lok Sabha h. Chief Justice of India

QUESTION PAPER-z 2006

Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81.

1 Right to decent environment includes

a. freedom to reside in any part of India b. right to life c. right to religion d. right to equal protection of law

2 Seats in educational institutions can be reserved for a. educationally backward class people b. Muslims c. Socially backward class people d. Socially and educationally backward class people

3 A judge of supreme court holds office until he attains the age of a. 65 b.63 c.60 d.58

4 This is one of the basis for classification a. economic b. geographical c. intelligible differentia d. social and economic backwardness

5 The total number of ministers in the council of ministers including the Prime minister shall not exceed a.12% of the total number of Lok-Sabha b.15% of the total number of Lok-Sabha c.18% of the total number of Lok-Sabha d.21% of the total number of Lok-Sabha

6 Reasonable restriction can be imposed on the right to practice any profession a. in the interest of clients b. in the interest of employees c. in the interest of commerce and trade d. in the interest of general public

7 One of the ways of reducing risk is a. complex interaction b. tight coupling c. normalization of deviance d. changing the working system

8 Oath is administered to the President before entering upon his office by the a. vice President b. Lok-Sabha speaker c. Attorney General of India d. Chief justice of India

9 Minimalist view means a. a ministerial view b. a novel plan to minimize industrial loss c. a narrow thinking d. a concept of responsibility

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10 The vice President has a. legislative function b. power to grant pardon c. executive power d. right to preside over Raj-Sabha


a. friendly relations with foreign states b. public nuisance c. defamation d. incitement of an offence

12 The directive principle of state policy a. can be enforced in high court b. can be enforced only in supreme court c. can not be enforced in any court d. can be enforced relating only to S.C and S.T

13 The number of ministers in central govt is fixed by the a. planning commission b. President c. Parliament d. Prime minister

14 This is not he function of election commission a. preparation of election rolls b. conduct of election c. ascertain the suitability of candidates d. counting votes

15 A cabinet minister of state govt can be removed by the a. chief minister b. governor c. cabinet d. chief minister with the consent of cabinet

16 The date of commence of Indian constitution is a. 26 nov 1949 b. 26 nov 1945 c. 26 Jan 1950 d. 16 aug 1947

17 Demand for a constitution, framed by constituent assembly was made by a. Puroshottamadas Tandon b. Surendranath Banarjee c. M.K.Gandhi d. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

18 For criminal misconduct, judge of the supreme court a. Can not be prosecuted b. can be prosecuted c. can be prosecuted with consent of president d. can be prosecuted with consent of chief justice of supreme court

19 Preamble of the Indian constitution indicates a. the source of Indian constitution b. the extent of govt. power to make law c. the facilities to be given to backward class people d. the circumstances under which the constitution can be amended

20 A person is detained under Preventive detention law when a. He has committed offences against the public b. he is likely to cause harm to the public c. he is about to escape from India

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d. he has violated law made by the central govt. 21 The ground for the impeachment of President is

a. failure to follow the advice given by prime minister b. unable to discharge his duties due to old age c. violation of constitution d. misbehavior with foreign dignitaries

22 The minimum age to eligible for the office of governor is a. 50 yrs b. 35 yrs c. 55 yrs d. No age limit is fixed

23 The election commission does not conduct election a. to the parliament b. to the office of President c. to the post of prime minister d. to the office of vice President

24 Governor will act under following circumstance with the advice of council of ministers while returning

a. the bill for reconsideration b. dissolving legislative assembly c. recommending President’s rule d. appointing the Advocate General

25 The owner of patent right retains his patent right for a. 100 yrs b. 20 yrs c. 50 yrs d. 75 yrs

26 To hold an engineer liable under law of Tart, the plaintiff need not prove that the engineer

a. violated the legal duty imposed by law of Torts b. violated the legal duty intentionally c. violated of legal duty caused him injuries d. that the violation of legal duty is the proximate cause of his injuries

27 The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held in a. 1949 b. 1950 c. 1947 d. 1946

28 If there is a dispute between two states a. high court has jurisdiction to decide that case b. only supreme court has jurisdiction to decide that case c. with the consent of both states, high court may decide d. if one the state does not agree to approach high court the dispute must be

decided by the supreme court 29 Good works mean

a. superior work done with great care and skill b. responsible work c. work above and beyond the call of duty d. work involving high risk

30 The following term has been included in the preamble by amending a. republic b. fraternity c. socialist d. sovereign

31 Telephone tapping is violation of a. right to freedom of speech and expressions

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b. right to life and expression c. right to carry on any profession d. right to equal protection of law

32 Engineering profession is considered to be like a building, its foundation is a. hard and sincere work b. expert engineering knowledge and skill c. sound common sense and expert knowledge d. honesty

33 Equality before take law implies a. absence of any privilege in favor any person b. equal opportunity in social and economic matters to all citizens c. that the law should be same both in the case of men and women d. that all the religions should be treated equally

34 Traffic in-human being means a. transporting human beings b. selling or purchasing men and women c. traffic in places having dense population d. illegal sale of human organ

35 The constitution prohibits to enact retrospectively a. criminal law b. civil law c. law related to election of President d. laws relating to women’s right to property

36 The minimum age to contest for the election of legislative assembly is

a.30 b.21 c.35 d.25 yrs

37 This is not the legislative power of the President a. summon each of house of Parliament b. nominate 12 members of Raj-Sabha c. to grant pardon d. assent to legislation

38 Sexual harassment of working-women is violation of a. fundamental right b. fundamental duty c. directive principles of state policy d. rule of law

39 When the election of President is declared void, all acts done by the President in the performance of the duties of his office before the date of decision become

a. illegal b. unlawful c. valid d. invalid

40 Forced labor does not include service rendered under

a. physical force b. legal force c. compulsion of economic circumstances d. moral force

41 Cooking means a. boiling under pressure b. retaining results which fit the theory c. making deceptive statements d. misleading the public about the quality of the product

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42 The directive principles of state policy to be followed by the state for securing economic justice does not include

a. equal right of men and women to adequate means of livelihood b. equal pay for equal work c. to protect health and strength of the workers d. to secure uniform civil code

43 Right to practice and propagate any religion is subject to a. public order b. public convenience c. public interest d. public consent

44 Ordinance is promulgated by the a. Lok-sabha b. Raj sabha c. Prime ministers on the advice given by the council of ministers d. President

45 The constitution classifieds the fundamental rights under a. 14 heads b. 12Heads c. 6Heads d. 4heads

46 This act was not passed to implement directive principles of state policy a. the forest act b. the arms act c. the maternity benefit act d. the water pollution act

47 Remission a. absolves the offender from all sentences b. temporarily suspends the sentence c. reduces the length of sentence d. substitutes one form of punishment for another of a lighter character

48 A governor a. may be transferred from one state to another b. can not be transferred from one state to another c. can be transferred with his consent d. can be transferred with written consent of President

49 One of the characteristics of profession is a. it gives scope to exercise one’s skill b. it gives monopoly on service c. it provides opportunity to help the poor and needy d. it demands high std of honesty

50 Equal protection of law means a. the same law shall apply to all who are similarly situated b. the same law shall apply to all irrespective of religion, race caste c. there should not be any discrimination while protecting men and women d. laws applicable to back-ward class people should be same

51 Mandal commission deals with a. rights to the minority b. laws relating to sexual harassment c. reservation for back-ward class people d. laws relating o child labors

52 Engineering ethics is a a. preventive ethics b. developing ethics c. natural ethics

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d. scientifically developed ethics 53 This is not one of the directive principles of state policy

a. securing equal pay for equal work for men and women b. securing the level of nutrition c. to bring about prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks d. take stringent measures to eliminate corruption

54 This is not writ a. writ of Habeas Corpus b. writ of Mandamus c. writ of Prevention d. writ of Certiorari

55 An engineer may not be held legally for causing harm, when the harm is caused a. internationally b. ignorantly c. negligently d. recklessly

56 The vice-President of India may be removed by a. impeachment b. Lok sabha c. Raj sabha d. Raj sabha, agreed by Lok sabha

57 The right to education is part of a. right to freedom of speech and expressions b. right to social equality c. right to life d. right to freedom of profession and trade

58 An arrested person should be allowed a. to contact his relatives b. to contact higher police officer c. to consult his lawyer d. to contact nearest Magistrate

59 Egocentric tendencies means a. superiority complex b. arrogant and irresponsible behavior c. interpreting situation from limited view d. habit of condemning the views of

60 Appeal by special leave means a. appeal permitted on payment of fine b. appeal permitted by the supreme court in matters relating to the election

of president c. supreme court, granting special permission to appeal, through the time to

appeal is barred by limitation d. supreme court, granting in its discretion special permission to appeal from

any judgment passed by any court 61 To contest for the election of Lok sabha, the person

a. should be citizen of India b. should be resident of India for at least 10 years c. should be resident of India for at least 12 years d. should be resident of India for at least 5 years

62 The freedom of speech and expression does not include a. the right to express ones own conviction b. right to propagate the views of other person c. commercial advertisements d. calling for “Bundh”

63 Revealing confidential information amounts to a. misusing the truth

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b. breach of contract c. criminal breach of trust d. violation of patient right

64 Raj sabha members are elected by a. the adult suffrage b. the members of legislative council c. the elected members of legislative assembly d. the members of lok-sabha and the elected members of legislative assembly

65 They are not trade secrets a. formulas b. principles c. patterns d. devices

66 Writ of Mandamus is issued directing the

a. detaining authority to produce the body before the court b. directing the judicial officer to act within his authority c. directing the public authority to discharge his duty d. directing the lower court to follow the principles of natural justice

67 Conflict of interest exists for an engineer when period is detained

a. threat b. professional impediments c. professional harassments d. loyalties

68 Lok sabha is composed of not more than ____ members a. 420 b. 550 c. 450 d. 540

69 It does not amount to misusing the truth a. withholding information b. deliberation deception c. biased professional opinion d. failure to seek-out the truth

70 A person to be appointed as prime minister should be a. member of Lok sabha b. member of Raj sabha c. member of legislative assembly d. need not be, none of the above

71 Writ of Habeas Corpus is issued when period is detained a. by a private individual b. by the order of lower court c. by the order of High court

d. by the order of supreme court 72 The chief Justice of India is appointed by

a. prime minister b. council of minister c. president d. parliament

73 One of the characteristics of high risk technologies susceptible to accident is a. complex combinations b. complex working system c. complex interaction d. complex design

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74 For the breach of fundamentals Duty, an action a. can be initiated in Magistrate court b. can be initiated in the civil court c. cannot be initiated in any court d. can be initiated either in high court or supreme court

75 Acceptable risk means a. risk which can not be avoided b. inevitable risk c. risk of harm equal to probability of producing benefits d. risk which is natural part of the process

76 The following factor does not help to maintain independence of judiciary a. security of tenure b. highly attractive retirement benefits c. salary of judges can not be reduced d. no discussion in legislature on the conduct of judges

77 Group thinking a. is useful to understand the different facts of the problem b. is an impediment to responsibility c. leads to confusion and may cause loss d. is an impediment in the progress of work

78 Collective responsibility of the cabinet means, all ministers are collectively responsible to

a. the Prime minister b. the President c. the Lok-sabha d. the Raj-sabha

79 An expert testimony des not depend

a. adequate time for a thorough investigation b. consulting extensively with lawyer c. expert legal knowledge d. objective and unbiased demeanor

80 Writ of quo warranto is issued a. to arrest a person without warrant b. to release a person who has been arrested without warrant c. to restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled d. to a quasi-judicial authority to follow the principles of natural justice

81 The constitution does not protect the right of the minority with regard to a. script b. cult c. culture d. language

82 A proclamation of national emergency ma be revoked by another proclamation at time by the a. Lok-sabha b. Raj Sabha c. both, Lok-sabha and Raj-sabha d. President

83 The following act does not amount to practicing untouchability a. denying access to any shop b. refusing admission to a hospital c. denying access to a home d. refusing to sell goods or render service

84 Self-incrimination means

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a. compelling a person to give evidence b. compelling a person to file complaint c. compelling a person to commit crime d. compelling a person to be a witness against himself

85 One of the tests for valued classification is, it must be based on

a. principles of natural justice b. directive principles of state policy c. intelligible differentia d. social and educational std

86 The directive principles of state policy are a. political rights b. constitutional rights c. social rights d. legal rights

87 When a state emergency is declared, all or any of the functions of the state govt are assumed by the

a. governor b. President c. Prime minister d. Union cabinet

88 The tenure of member of legislative council is ___ years a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6

89 The election of President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation y means of

a. transferable vote b. valid transferable vote c. single transferable vote d. single considerable vote

90 To declare national emergency a decision must be taken by the a. Lok sabha b. Raj sabha c. both Lok sabha and Raj sabha d. cabinet

91 One of the aims in studying engineering ethics is a. to gain better insight into the profession b. to know the secrets of the profession c. to understand professional problems d. to develop analytical skill

92 Without the certificate of high court an appeal can be made to supreme court a. if party belongs to S.C b. if party belongs to S.T c. if party is a war widow d. with the special leave of supreme court

93 This is not a ground to declare national emergency

a. war b. serious internal disturbance c. armed rebellion d. external aggression

94 The India independence act 1947 was passed by the a. constituent assembly b. British parliament

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c. Governor General of India d. Provincial Government

95 No criminal proceedings shall be instituted during his term of office against the a. Prime minister of India b. Vice President of India c. Governor d. Chief minister

96 Creamy layer means a. highly educated persons b. persons holding high posts c. highly cultured persons d. persons having higher incomes

97 The principles of natural justice do not require

a. reasonable notice b. reasonable opportunity being heard c. decision on merits d. follow instructions strictly by superior officer

98 State emergency can be declared, when the a. govt of the state can not be carried on in accordance with the provision of

the constitution b. chief minister resigns c. party forming the ministry has a total rout in the election of Lok sabha d. when the state govt refuses to follow the direction given by the supreme

court 99 The total members in the legislative council should not be less than

a. 250 b. 80 c. 20 d. 40

100 Backward class can be classified into a. moderately back-ward class b. more back-ward class c. most back-ward class d. highly back-ward class

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COMPOSITE MATERIALS – ME833

Faculty: Dr.Kishore T Kashyap

% of Portions covered Class

# Chapter Title /

Reference Literature Topics to be covered

Reference chapter

Cumulative

1 - 6

Chapter : 1 Introduction to Composites T1: page 1.1 – 1.54 T2: page 1 - 36 R1: page 1 - 14 R2: page 3 – 19

Definition, classification and characteristics of composite materials – fibrous composites, laminated composites, particulate composites. Properties and types of Matrix and Reinforcement materials

12% 12%

7 - 16

Chapter : 2 Fiber reinforced plastic processing T1: page 4.1 – 4.93 T2: page 271 - 279 R2: page 419 – 565

Lay up and curing, fabricating process – open and closed mould process – hand lay up techniques – structural laminate bag moulding, production procedures for bag moulding – filament winding, pultrusion, pulforming, thermo-forming, injection, injection moulding, liquid moulding, blow moulding

20% 32%

17 – 24

Chapter : 3 Fabrication of composites T1: page page 6.1 – 6.75 R2: page 613 – 651

Cutting, machining, drilling, mechanical fasteners and adhesive bonding, joining, computer aided design and manufacturing, fabrication equipment

16% 48%

25 – 26

Chapter : 4 Application of composites T2: page 293 - 309 R1: page 15 - 45 R2: page 1017 - 1101

Automobile, Aircraft, Space hardware, Electrical and electronics, marine, recreational & sports, future potential of composites

4% 52%

27 – 36

Chapter : 5 Metal matrix composites T2: page 34 - 36 R1: page 36 - 39 R2: page 3 - 19

Reinforcement materials, types, characteristics and selection, selection of base metals – Need for production of MMC’s and its application

10% 62%

37 – 44

Chapter : 6 Fabrication process for MMC’s T2: page 280 - 286 R1: page 36 - 39 R2: page b579 – 588

Powder Metallurgy technique, liquid metallurgy technique, secondary processing, special processing techniques

16% 78%

PESIT


Text Books: T1: Composite hand book by Mel Schwartz, Second edition, Mcgraw Hill T2: Introduction to composite materials by Hull & Clyne, Camridge University Press, 2nd Edition, 1990 Reference Books: R1: Mechanics of Composites by Artar Kaw, CRC Press 2002 R2: ASM Hand Book Vol 21 Composites

Question Bank

Chapter : 1 Introduction to Composites

01* Define a composite material. 02 List the various types of fibres used in PMC’s 03* What are the merits and demerits of carbon, glass, and boron fibres. 04* How composites are different from conventional materials. 05* Discuss the classifications and characteristics of composite materials. 06* What is the need for advanced materials. 07* How are composite materials classified. Give an example in each. 08* List the advantages, limitations and applications of composite materials. 09 Distinguish between thermo plastic and thermo set polymers.

Chapter : 2 Fiber reinforced plastic processing

10* List different methods used in production of FRP’s. Breifly explain general steps involved in the production of FRP’s.

11 With relevant examples explain in detail fibre reinforced plastic composites. 12 With relevant examples explain in detail laminate reinforced plastic composites. 13* With relevant examples explain in detail particulate reinforced plastic

composites. 14* Explain the following FRP fabrication methods.

a. Hand layup techniques b. Liquid injection moulding c. Pultrusion d. Pulforming

e. Thermoforming f. Blow moulding 15 Explain bag moulding, vaccum bag moulding and auto clave process. 16* Differentiate between pultrusion and pulforming. 17* Differentiate between open bag moulding and closed bag moulding. 18* Explain the concepts in filament winding techniques and explain its application. 19 Explain the concept of thermo forming. 20 Breifly explain the following.

a. Epoxy resin e. Prepeg b. Hybrid composite f. Glass fibre

Reference chapter

Cumulative

45 – 50

Chapter : 7 Study of properties of MMC’s T2: page 208 - 269 R2: page 195 - 360

Physical, mechanical, wear, machinability and other properties. Effect of size, shape and distribution of particulate on properties

12% 90%

51 - 52

Chapter : 8 Shape Memory alloys

Introduction, characteristics and types of shape memory alloys

10 % 100 %

PESIT


c. Boron fibre g. Carbon fibre d. Graphite fibre h. Aramide fibre

Chapter : 3 Fabrication of composites 21* What are the problems encountered in machining of composites by conventional

machining process. Suggest remedies. 22* What are the precautions to be underatken to machine the composites. 23* Explain the method used in machining of FRP’s highlighting a selection of tooling,

preocess parameters, problems associated 24* Explain tooling trimming techniques used in composites. 25* What are the merits and demerits of bonded and bolted joints as applied to

composite materials. 26* Write a note on joining and bonding of FRP’s. 27 Explain adhesive bonding and the types of adhesives used. 28 Enumerate on advantages and disadvantages of adhesive bonding. 29 Briefly explain joining methods of FRP’s. 30 Breifly explain the different types of joint designs used in FRP’s. Chapter : 4 Application of composites 31* Write short notes on the application of composites in the following industries.

a. Space b. Marine b. Missiles c. Recreational and sports equipment.

32* Discuss the future potential of composites. 33 Write a short note on the use of composites in electrical and elctronic industries. 34 Write a short note on the use of composites in medical devices. 35 Write a short note on the recycling of composites. Chapter : 5 Metal matrix composites 36* List the important requirements of reinforcement materials used in MMC’s. 37* What are the characteristics of base metal requirements for the production of

MMC’s. 38* List the advantages, limitations and application of MMC”s. 39* Explain MMC”S highlighting their exceptional features. 40 What is the need for production of MMC’s.

Chapter : 6 Fabrication process for MMC’s

41* Describe the production of aluminium based composites using particulates by liquid metallurgic technique. Draw neat sketches for the same.

42* Discuss the application of MMC composites. 43* Discuss the different fabrication techniques used in MMC’s. 44 What are MMC’s. List typical MMC’s along with their applications. 45* Explain powder metallurgy technique with a flowchart for fabrication of MMC’s. 46* With examples distinguish between hard and soft reinforcement materials. 47* What are the secondary processing techniques used in MMC’s. 48 Explain special fabrication techniques adopted for production of MMC’s. 49 With a flowchart explain powder metallurgy processing of MMC’s. 50 Explain the concept of sintering.

Chapter : 7 Study of properties of MMC’s

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51* Explain the influence of shape, size and distribution of particles on mechanical

properties of MMC’s Chapter : 8 Shape Memory alloys

52* Discuss pseudo elasticity in shape memory alloys. 53* Discuss shape memory alloys and ceramics.

NOTE : Question with * mark as appeared in VTU exam

PESIT


JET AND ROCKET PROPULSION (JRP) - ME 844

Faculty : Wg Cdr M R Vaggar (Rtd)

Class Portion to be covered. Reference % portion covered

Duration Periods

1-11 Basic Principles of Thermodynamics, Fluid Mechanics & Gas Dynamics.

e)1-37, 44-94 f) 3-74

17.3(9hrs) 9hrs(11)

12-19 Moment principle, Thrust principle, Thermodynamic cycles analysis (ideal & real), including variants for inter-cooling, reheat etc, Efficiency parameters, Description of air- and non-air-breathing engines.

b)27-63,99-167 e)127-161, 211-255

28 (15hrs0 6hrs(7.5)

20-26 Non-rotating components analysis-diffuser, nozzle, combustion chamber.

d)98-115, 159-181 e)404-433,483- 503, 519-528 f)164-171

40 (21hrs)

6hrs(7.5)

27-37 Rotary components, compressor and turbine including velocity diagrams, matching, surge & stall etc

d)175-236 e)263-376 f)175-236

59(31hrs) 10hrs(10)

38-45 Jet propulsion types, pulse jet, Ram jet, Turbo jet, Efficiency and power of propulsion.

d)1-28,110-155 e)210-235 f)109-142

69(36hrs) 5hrs(6)

45-62 Principle of rockets, Propellants Analysis of Convergent-divergent nozzle, Internal ballistics of solid propellant rockets, Liquid propulsion devices, Hybrid propulsion devices

d)237-333 e)485-503, 593-622

100(55hrs) 16hrs(19.2)

REFERENCE BOOKS:

a) Gas Turbine theory – Cohen Rogers, Sarvanamuttoo – (Longman). b) Applied Thermodynamics for Engineers – T.D Eastop & A.McConkey (Pearson

Education). c) Elements of Rocket Propulsion-Sutton G.P (John Wiley). d) Understanding of Aerospace Chemical Propulsion–H S Mukunda–(Interline

publisher). e) Gas Turbines – 2003, V Ganesan (Tata Mc Graw Hill). f) Gas Turbine Theory and Jet Propulsion – J K Jain- (Khanna publisher). g) Basic Applied Thermodynamics – P K Nag (Tata Mc Graw Hill). h) Gas Turbine and Jet Propulsion System – Khajuria and Dubey (Dhanpat Rai

publication).

PESIT


QUESTION BANK

1. Explain with neat sketch the details of gas turbine power plants. 2. What are the most important two factors which affect the performance of a gas turbine

engine. 3. Which are the parameters of most important to determine the overall efficiency of a

gas turbine cycle? 4. What are the advantages of a gas turbine over reciprocating engine from the point of

view of component development? 5. How many components are there in a simple gas turbine power plant? Mention the

additional components that can be added to improve the power output and efficiency. 6. Explain the relationship between Enthalpy and Internal energy. 7. Explain the terms stagnation pressure and stagnation temperature. 8. What the streamlines and stream tubes? Explain with the sketch. 9. Explain the difference between laminar and turbulent flow. 10. What is a boundary layer? Give account of boundary layer separation. 11. With the help of thermodynamic analysis develop an expression for the energy transfer

of a rotating machines. 12. Discuss briefly the theory of aerofoil employed for wings, compressors and turbine

blades. 13. What is meant by lift and drag? Show the effect of angle of attack on CL and CD on a

graph. 14. What is the purpose of adding a heat exchanger in a gas turbine engine (GTE)? Explain

the details with suitable sketches. 15. With a neat sketch explain the straight compounded twin-spool arrangement on a GTE. 16. Briefly discuss the applications of GTE. 17. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a closed cycle system over open cycle

system 18. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of GTE over reciprocating engine and Vise-

versa. 19. A gas turbine operates on a pressure ratio of 6 the inlet air entering the turbine is

300k and the air entering the turbine is at a temperature of 577ºC if the volume rate of air entering the compressor is 240 m3-s..calculate the net power out put in MW. Also compute its efficiency. Assume that the cycle operates under ideal conditions (Ans: 39.21 MW, 40.16%). GT-G 97

20. State the assumptions made in an ideal cycle analysis of gas turbines 21. Draw the schematic diagram of a simple cycle and explain briefly the working of the

cycle. Draw the p-V and T-s diagram of the cycle. 22. Show that the specific work output is maximum when the pr.ratio is such that the

compressor outlet and turbine outlet temperatures are equal. 23. Drive an expression for specific work output and the efficiency of a simple cycle with

reheat. Draw their trends as a function of pressure ratio. 24. By means of suitable graph compare the specific work output of various cycles with out

heat exchanger. 25. Derive the expression for specific work output and the efficiency of a simple cycle with

intercooler. Draw their trends as a function of pressure ratio. 26. What is meant by jet propulsion? What are the basic differences of jet propulsions and

shaft power cycle. 27. Explain the principle of jet propulsion and mention how the jet propulsion engines are

classified. 28. With a sketch explain the working principle of Ramjet engine and give its advantages

and disadvantages. 29. What is meant by thrust? Derive thrust equation for a general propulsion system. 30. Explain the performance graph of turbo jet engine. What are the advantages and

disadvantage of turbo jet engine.

PESIT


31. With a graph of mass flow against pr.ratio in a compressor explain the stall and surge phenomenon and its effects on performance of gas turbine engine.

32. A gas turbine with regenerator has got the following data=: Compressor inlet temperature- 290 K Compressor outlet temperature- 460 K Inlet temperature of turbine- 900ºC Outlet temperature of turbine- 467ºC Assume no pressure drop in the heat exchanger, calculate

(a) The pressure ratio of compressor and turbine (b) The specific power output (c) The overall efficiency of the cycle (d) The work required to derive the compressor

Assume 100% mechanical efficiency {Ans: rc=5, Wn=246.3 KJ/Kg, η=60.7%, comp. work=170.85KJ/Kg, rt=5)

G T-G, 101 33. The specific power output of a turbine is 336.5 KW and the exhaust gases leave the

turbine at 700 K. Calculate the turbine pressure ratio if the value of Cp & Cv are 1 KJ/KgK and 0.717 KJ/KgK respectively. Calculate to the nearest integer the pressure ratio. { Ans: rt = 4} G T – G 104

34. A gas turbine power plant operates between 5ºC and 839ºC . Find ( ) Pressure ratio at which cycle efficiency = Carnot cycle efficiency. ( ) Pressure ratio at which maximum work is obtained ( ) Efficiency under the conditions giving maximum work output

{ Ans: r = 128 – Carnot, ηwmax = 50%, rwmax = 11.3} G T – G 107 35. A gas turbine power plant operates m number of compressor stages and n numberof

turbine stages. The maximum temperature rise in the gas turbine is Tmax. The ambient temperature is Tmin. Assume pressure ratio in compressor is same in all m stages and perfect inter cooling. Also assume the pressure ratio in turbine are same and the working fuel is reheated to Tmax. Show that

t = (ra)(m+n)/mn , where ‘r’ is the ratio of maximum pr to minimum pr t= Tmax / Tmin and a = (γ-1)/ γ G T – G 118

36. A gas turbine unit has pr.ratio of 10/1 and a maximum cycle temperature is 700ºC. The isentropic efficiencies of the compressor and the turbine are 0.82 and 0.85 respectively. Calculate the power output of an electric generator geared to the turbine when the air enters the compressor at 15ºC and at the rate of 15 Kg/s. Take Cp= 1.005 KJ/KgK and γ = 1.4 for the compression process Cp = 1.11 KJ/KgK and γ = 1.333 for the expansion process. { Ans: 1098} A T E – Eastop 263.

37. Prove that the efficiency corresponding to maximum work done in Brayton cycle is given by the relation ηwmax = (1- 1/√t ) , where t is the ratio of max .and min. temperature of the cycle. G T – G 111

38. A gas turbine operating on Brayton cycle between 27ºC and 827ºC. Determine the maximum net work per kg and cycle efficiency. Also compare Carnot efficiency with the Brayton efficiency for these temperature limits. { Ans: Wmax = 252.34 KJ/Kg , ηwmax = 47.77% , ηCarnot = 72.72 %. G T – G 112

39. In an ideal gas turbine cycle with reheat, air at state (p1, T1) is compressed to pressure are rp1 and heated to T3 the air is then expanded in two stages, each turbine having the same pressure ratio with reheat to T3 between the stages assuming this working fluid to be perfect gas with constant sp heats and the compression and expansion are isentropic , show that the sp work output will be maximum when r is given by r = t(2/3a) where t = T3/T1 and a= (γ-1)/ γ G T – G113

40. A turbojet aircraft is flying at 800 km/h at 10700m where pressure and temperature of atmosphere are 0.24 bar and -50ºC and the maximum cycle temperature is 820ºC. Calculate the thrust developed and the specific fuel consumption using the following information, : entry duct efficiency is 0.9, isentropic efficiency of the compressor 0.9 stagnation pressure loss in the compressor is 0.14 bar, calorific value of the fuel is 43,300 kJ/kg , combustion efficiency 98%; isentropic efficiency of the turbine 0.92, mechanical efficiency of the drive 98%. Jet pipe efficiency 0.92; nozzle outlet area

PESIT


0.08m2, Cp and γ for compression process 1.005 kj/kgK and 1.4; Cp and γ for the combustion and expansion process 1.15 kj/kg K and 1.333; assume the nozzle is convergent. {Ans: Total thrust = 6453 N, sfc = 0.0291 kg/KNs}. (A T E – Eastop 317)

41. A turbo prop aircraft is flying at 650 Km/h at an altitude where the ambient temperature is -18ºC the compression ratio is 9/1 and the maximum cycle temperature is 850ºC, the intake duct efficiency is 0.9 and the stagnation isentropic efficiency of the compressor and the turbine are 0.89 and 0.93 respectively calculate the specific power output and the cycle efficiency taking a mechanical efficiency of 98% and neglecting the pressure loss in combustion chamber. Assume that the exhaust gases leave the aircraft at 650 km/h relative to the aircraft and take Cp and γ for compression process 1.005 kj/kgK and 1.4; Cp and γ for the combustion and expansion process 1.15 kj/kg K and 1.333 {Ans: Specific power output 252.5 kw/kg/s, ηTh = 37.4 % } A T E – Eastop 322

42. Explain with suitable diagram working principle of a centrifugal compressor. 43. What are the blade shapes and how are they classified? 44. Explain with sketch how the blade shapes effect the performance of a compressor. 45. Explain the phenomenon of surge and choking in centrifugal compressor. 46. With suitable sketch explain the working principle of an axial flow compressor. 47. Explain the phenomena of surging and stalling in an axial flow compressor explain also

the rotating stall. 48. What is meant by a stage and explain in detail the stage velocity triangles in an axial

compressor. 49. Explain the process of combustion in a gas turbine combustion chamber. 50. What are the various possibility of combustion chamber arrangement? 51. Write short notes on :

( ) Flame tube cooling ( ) Fuel injection ( ) Ignition ( ) Use of cheaper fuels ( ) Pollution

52. What is the purpose of an aircraft gas turbine inlet and nozzle? 53. Explain briefly the supersonic inlets in an aircraft. 54. Explain the engine back pressure control for a gas turbine engine. 55. Explain the exhaust nozzle area ratio for a subsonic and supersonic aircraft. 56. Explain thrust reversing and thrust vectoring employed for vertical take-off and

landing (VTOL) aircraft. 57. Explain the various materials that can be used for gas turbine blades. 58. Explain the principle of operation of a turbine and what are the primary parts of the

turbine? 59. Explain the various factors considered in the selection of blade materials and their

manufacturing techniques. 60. Explain the various methods of turbine blade fixing and blade cooling. 61. Explain the problems of high temperature operations of blades in aircraft gas turbine

engines. 62. Explain the general matching procedure for a two spool turbo jet engine. 63. What do you understand by the term matching of components? 64. Mention working principle of a pulse jet engine and give advantages and

disadvantages. 65. Explain with neat diagram working of a turboprop engine and also bring its

applications. 66. Explain the thrust augmentation by after burner method. 67. How does water methanol injection help in thrust augmentation. 68. Explain the various efficiencies associated with a propulsion device. 69. Explain various factors affecting the performance of a propulsion device. 70. What is the difference between rocket propulsion and jet propulsion?

PESIT


71. Derive a general expression for thrust produced by a chemical rocket and hence discuss the importance of molecular weight of propellants.

72. Draw the schematic diagram of solid propellant and explain its working. What are the applications of this type of rocket?

73. Draw the schematic diagram of liquid propellant rocket. 74. What are the different systems of injecting liquid propellants into the combustion

chamber. 75. What is the desirable propellant of liquid for rockets? 76. Explain how nuclear power can be used for the rocket propulsion. 77. Explain the internal ballistics of solid propellant rocket with neat diagrams (Burning

mechanisms) 78. What do you understand by thrust vector control in rockets. 79. Explain hybrid propulsion devices. 80. Explain the gas and pump pressurization system in liquid rocket systems. 81. Explain with a neat diagram plasma rocket propulsion system. 82. Explain the various functions of exhaust nozzles used on rockets. 83. Explain the functioning of convergent and divergent nozzle how it helps for an engine

with after burning on a turbo jet air craft. 84. How aircraft engine back pressure control is achieved. 85. Explain the phenomenon of thrust reversing and thrust vectoring in gas turbine

engines and rocket engines. 86. An airplane is propelled by a turbo jet engine. The flight speed at 10,000 m attitude is 800km/h. The drag coefficient is 0.16. Its weight is 5,000kg and its wing area is 20m2. The effective jet velocity is 500m/s. Determine the thrust and the air consumption of the engine Cp = 0.24 and density ratio = 0.374. {Ans: specific thrust = 28.4 kg/kg of air, air flow rate = 13.28 kg/s} GT RP-J-201

PESIT


NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING (ME 845) LESSON PLAN

Faculty: MOHANDAS K N

Class # Portions To Be Covered. %

Covered

1-3 Introduction to ND Testing: Selection of ND methods, Visual inspection, leak testing.

6

4-5 Liquid Penetration Inspection, its advantages and limitations, 10

6-9 Magnetic Particle inspection: Methods of generating magnetic fields, types of magnetic particles and suspension liquids-steps in inspection, application and limitations

18

10-13 Eddy Current Inspection: Principle, operation variables, procedure, inspection coils, and detectable discounts by the method.

26

14-15 Microwave Inspection: Microwave holography, applications and limitations.

30

16-25

Ultra Sonic Inspection: Basic equipment characteristics of ultra sonic waves, variables in inspection, inspection methods – pulse echo A,B,C, scans, transmission, resonance techniques, transducer elements, couplants, search units, contact types and immersion types. Inspection standards-standard reference blocks, inspection of products like casting, extrusions, rolled products, weld-set.

50

26-35

Radiographic Inspection: Principles, radiation sources, x-rays and gamma rays: x-rays tubes, radio graphic films, screens and filters, image intensifiers, technique charts, industrial radiography, electro-radiography, X-ray radiography, image quality, radiographic sensitivity, Peneramotors, electron neutron radiography. Application of radiographic inspection in industry.

70

36-42 Industrial Computed Tomography: Basic principles, capabilities, and comparison with other NDT methods – application of ICT. Thermal inspection, principles, equipment, inspection methods applications.

84

43-48 Optical Holography: Basics of holography, recording and reconstruction – interferometric techniques of inspections, procedures of inspection, typical applications.

96

49-50 Acoustical Holography: Systems and techniques applications. Indian standards for NDT.

100

Reference Books:

1. McGonnagle J.J “Non Destructive Testing”-garden and reach NEWYORK (Latest Edition)

2. “Non Destructive Evaluation and Quality Control.” Volume 17 of Metals Handbook, 9th edition – Asia internal 1989

3. DAVIS H.E., TROXELL G.E., WISKOVIL C.T., “The Testing Inspection of Engg. Materials”, Mc Graw Hill (Latest Edition)

4. “Non-Destructive Testing of Welds” by Baldev Raj, C.V.Subramanian, T. Jayakumar Question Bank

1. Explain the operating characteristics of x - ray tube. Write a note on the applications of radiographic inspections.

2. Compare computer tomography with other NDT methods and justify. 3. Explain the principle and capabilities of Computer Tomography.

PESIT


4. With a neat sketch explain the principle of operation and procedure of Eddy current inspection.

5. Write short notes on inspection coils and eddy current instruments. 6. Explain the basic equipments and the principle of ultrasonic inspection. 7. Explain the major variables in ultrasonic inspection. 8. Briefly discuss the pulse echo method with respect to ultra sonic inspection. 9. Explain the working principle of acoustical emission inspection and explain the variation

in inspection with respect to other NDT methods. 10. Describe the various methods of magnetization. 11. Explain the basic principle of Eddy current testing and the factors affecting Eddy current. 12. Explain the benefits of NDT with examples and its significance with respect to metrology

and evaluation. 13. Write short notes on Gamma Ray radiography. 14. Explain the major categories of thermal inspection equipments and explain in brief the

working of infra red imaging equipment. 15. Explain steady state inspection method with respect to thermal inspection. 16. Explain the objectives of leak testing and explain the different methods used for leak

detection. 17. Briefly explain the instruments used in visual inspection and write a note on the

limitations on the visual inspection methods. 18. Explain the principle and procedure of Liquid Penetrate Inspection. 19. Write a note on NDT digital image enhancement system. 20. Explain image enhancement principles. 21. Compare the advantage of Ultrasonic inspection over Magnetic Particle Testing,

radiographic testing and eddy current inspection methods. 22. Discuss briefly real time radiography and film radiography. 23. Explain the principle of Computed tomography (CT). List the application of CT

technology. 24. What is digital image enhancement? Explain in brief image capture & acquisition system. 25. List out the advantages, disadvantages & applications of the Eddy current inspection. 26. Write a short note on:

1. Specimen preparation 2. Microstructure characterization 3. Micro structural analysis 4. Optical Holography 5. Ultrasonic inspection

PESIT


POWER PLANT ENGINEERING – ME 82 Faculty : Jagadeesh.Y.J

Hours Topics to be covered % of Portions to be covered (cumulative)

Introduction

01 01hr

Introduction to Power Plant Engineering---Importance to Mechanical Engineers---Scope and objectives---Study resources and references— Teaching/Instruction methodology

1. Steam Power Plants 02 02 01 02 01 02 04

15 hrs

Different types of fuels used for steam generation Equipment for burning Coal Oil burners Pulverised fuel firing systems Cyclone furnace Coal and ash handling High pressure steam generators (La Mont, Benson, Velox, Loeffler, Schmidt, Ramson)

28 %

2. Chimneys 01 01

17 hrs

Types of chimneys Calculation of chimney heights

32 %

3. Steam generator acessories 01 01

19 hrs

Super heaters and control of super heaters –de superheaters Economisers, Air pre heaters and re heaters

36 %

4. cooling towers 02

21hrs

Different types of cooling towers and cooling ponds 40 %

5. Diesel engine power plants 02 02 02

27hrs

Starting, cooling and lubrication of diesel engines Filters, Centrifuges, oil heaters, intake and exhaust systems Diesel power plant lay out

52 %

6. Gas turbine power plants 01 01

29hrs

Advantages/ disadvantages Open and closed cycle type plants with acessories

55 %

7. Hydro Electric Power Plants 02 01 01 01 01

Storage and pondage---flow duration and mass curves—hydrographs Low, medium and high head plants, pumped storage plants Penstock, water hammer, surge tanks, gates and valves

67 %

PESIT


35 hrs Power house, general layout, Some important hydel installations in India

8. Nuclear Power Plants 01 01

02

01 01 01 01

43hrs

Nuclear rnergy, fission and fusion, Nuclear fuels used in reactors, Multiplication and thermal utilization factors Elements of nuclear reactors—moderator, controlrod, fuel rods, coolants, Pressurized water reactor, Boiling water reactor Sodium graphite reactor, Fast breeder reactor, Homogeneous graphite reactor, gas cooled reactor Radiation hazards, shieldings, Radioactive waste disposal

83 %

9. Choice of site for power station 01 03

01 01

49 hrs

Choice of site for power stations Lload estimation, load duration curves, load factor, capacity factor, use factor, diversity factor, demand factor Variable load on power plants Selection of the number and size of the units

94 %

10. Economic analysis of Power Plants 01 01 01 01

53 hrs

Cost of energy production Selection of plant and generating equipments Performance and operating characteristics of power plants Tariffs for electrical energy

100 %

Text Books : 1. Power Plant Engineering……P.K.Nag…………………………………….….PKN 2. Power Plant Engineering……F.T.Morse……………………………………...FTM References : 1. Principles of Energy Conversion….A.W.Culp………………………………...EC 2. Power Plant Technology…………..El Wakil…EL 3. Power Station Engineering and Economy….Skrotizke and Vopat…………….SV 4. Power Plant Engineering……Domkundwar……………………………………DK. 5. Reference CD/Notes made available…..AMK PODUVAL…………… …CD/CN. 6. Power Point Presentation……………………………………………………...PPP

PESIT


QUESTION BANK INTRODUCTION

* Discuss “Indian Power Scenario” with reference to current installed capacity in each sectors, viz., thermal, hydro, GT & IC engines, nuclear and renewable energies. Add brief notes on various bodies in the power sector w.r.t. planning, policy making, execution, control so also on trends and possibilities. * dentify the nearest Hydroelectric power plant to your location and note down the salient details. * Identify the nearest Thermal power plant to your location and note down the salient details * Identify the nearest Nuclear power plant to your location and note down the salient details

STEAM POWER PLANT 1. Review : Carnot cycle, heat engine, heat pump, enthalpy, entropyDiscribe the

different operations of a Rankine cycle. 3. Sate the different methods of increasing the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle 4. What are the different fuels used in steam generation? 5. How was coal formed? What are the different types of coal available in India? 6. Write a short notes on “Indian Coals” and “Coal reserves of India” 7. Explain the following 1. proximate analysis of coal 2. Ultimate analysis of coal 8. What are the important properties of coal for Power Plant applications? 9. Explain the type of liquid fuels used in boilers and its advantages and disadvantages 10. Discuss the merits and demerits of using natural gas for thermal power plants. 11. Explain briefly “Coal gasification” 12. Explain briefly “Coal liquefaction” 13. What are the advantages of using Coal-oil and Coal-oil mixtures in power plants? 14. What are the different methods of using ‘Biomass” as boiler fuels? What are its advantages? 15. Explain the term “Co generation” and why and it is beneficial? 16. Give the layout diagram of a steam power plant and label all the essential

equipments and facilities such as: coal storage, coal handling, feed water circuit, ash handling circuit, chimney and flue gas system, economizer, superheater, air preheater, turbo- generator, feed water heaters, condenser, cooling water circuit, cooling tower, etc. etc.

17.. What are the factors to be considered while selecting coal firing equipments? 18. Give a simple labelled sketch of the “gas loop” and explain the functions of each

component/ equipment. 19. Give a simple labeled sketch of the “feed water loop” of a thermal power plant

and explain the function of each component/ equipment. 20. Explain briefly the various piping systems in a thermal power plant (such as: HP

sup. and sat. steam, HP drip piping, LP steam piping, boiler feedwater piping, heater piping, blow off piping, condensate piping, hot and cold water service piping, circulating water piping, oil piping, compresses air piping, soot blower piping, drainage piping etc. etc.)

21. Distinguish between “underfeed” and “over feed “ fuel beds. Show the various combustion zones.

21. With the help of a neat diagram, properly labeled, explain the salient features of the following: GRATE FIRED FURNACE CHAMBER TYPE/ FLAME FURNACE TRAVELLING GRATE STOKER CHAIN GRATE STOKER SPREADER STOKER RETORT TYPE UNDERFEED STOKER COAL CRUSHERS COAL PULVERISERS

PESIT


PULVERISED COAL FEEDING SYSTEM ( BIN/STORAGE SYSTEM, DIRECT FIRING SYSTEM, SEMI DIRECT FIRING SYSTEM)) OIL FIRING BURNERS FOR BOILERS ASH HANDLING AUTOMATIC BOILER CONTROL La Mont Boiler Benson Boiler Velox boiler Schmidt boiler Loeffler boiler Ramson boiler WATER WALLS DRUM INTERNALS AIR PREHEATERS REHEATORS Ljunhgstorm air preheater 22. What do you mean by pulverized coal firing system? What are its advantages? What

are the disadvantages? 23. What are the factors to be considered in designing/ selecting a furnace for pulverized

coal? 24. Distinguish between dry bottom and wet bottom pulverized fuel furnaces? 25. With the help of neat diagrams explain the features and characteristics of various

types of pulverized coal burners? (circular and rectangular cross section models, straight flow burners, scroll turbulent burners, distributed mixing burner, low NOx burner, multifuel burner )

26. Discuss the various turbulent burner arrangements for pulverized system (front firing, opposed firing, opposed firing on side walls ) ; bring out the relatve advantages.

27. Discuss the various straight flow burners for pulverized system (opposed displaced firing, corner firing with encountering jets, corner firing with tangential jets, vertical firing)

28. What is a cyclone furnace? Where does it find application? What are its advantages? Give a neat labeled sketch.

29. What are the equipments used in coal delivery and handling systems from coal delivery to the furnace? Give a flow diagram. Give simle sketch an explain the working of BELT CONVEYOR, SCREW CONVEYOR, BUCKET ELEVATOR, GRAB BUCKET ELEVATOR, SKIP HOIST, FLIGHT CONVEYOR etc.

30. Explain the term “circulation” as applied to steam boilers. 31. What are the advantages of forced circulation boilers? CHIMNEYS 32. What is draught ? How is draught produced in a steam generator ? What are the

functions of the draught system ? 33. Differentiate between natural draught and forced draught. What do you mean by

balanced draught ? 34. Explain how the height of a chimney is calculated to produce a given draught. 35. What are the different types of chimneys used in a boiler plant? Discuss their

advantages and disadvantages 36 Write a short note on “measurement of draught” NUMERICALS 37. A chimney is 30 m height. Temperature of hot gases inside the chimney is 300 C.

Ambient temperature is 28 C. Boiler furnace is supplied with 15 kg of air per kg of coal. Calculate (1) Draught produced in mm of water (2) Draught in metres of hot gases

38. Determine the height of a chimney to produce a static draught of 22 mm of water. The mean flue gas temperature may be taken as 290 C, ambient temperature being 25 C. Take the gas constant for air , R, as 29.26 kgfm/kg/K and for chimney 26,2. Barometer reads 760 mm of Hg

PESIT


39. Determine the height of the chimney to get a net draught of 12 mm, if the total draft losses are 4 mm. Ambient air temperature is 25 C and Chimney gases 300 C.Air fuel ratio of the boiler is 18. Take specific volume of air at NTP as .7734 cu m.

ACCESSORIES FOR STEAM GENERATORS 40. What are primary and secondary superheaters ? Explain the features and

working of a pendent superheater. 42. What are the methods used for superheat control ?. Explain the operation of a spray

type desuperheater. 43. What is the function of an economizer ? Describe salient features of economizers

for power boilers. 44. Why air preheaters are used in boiler plants ? How does an air preheater saves fue? 45. Differentiate between recuperative and regenerative air heaters. Explain the working

of any one type from both the categories with a neat diagram. COOLING TOWERS AND COOLING PONDS 46. Give a layout diagram of the cooling water circuit of a thermal power plant.

1. How are cooling towers classified ? Explain the working of a natural draft cooling towercooling tower

2. Explain the advantages of forced draft cooling towers over natural draught towers. 3. Write a short note on “materials for cooling towers” for improved efficiency. 4. Explain the terms “adiabatic saturation” and “wet bulb depression”

DIESEL ENGINE POWER PLANT 5. What are the different methods of starting a DIESEL Engine ?

6. What precautions to be taken so that diesel engines start and operate efficiently even in sub-zero temperatures.

7. Give the layout of a standard diesel power plant. 8. Explain the following systems of a diesel engine power plant: (1) Starting

system (2) Cooling system (3) lubrication system

9. Explain the function of the following in a diesel power plant. Also explain the salient features and working of any one type in each category. (1) Air filters (2) Oil filters (3) centrifuges (4) oil heaters (5) Intake system (6) Exhaust system

10. Write short notes on (1) Biodiesel (2) Diesel additives

GAS TURBINE POWER PLANTS

11. What are the essential components of a simple open cycle GT Plant. Explain how

intercooling and regeneration improves the efficiency. 12. What are the advantages of closed cycle GT Plant over Open type ? 13. Explain the working of closed cycle plant. 14. Give the layout plan of Gas Turbine Power Plant. 15. What are the requirements of the fuel used in GT Plants ? 16. Write short notes on the following with reference ti Gas Turbines: (1) Pressure ratio

(2) Air fuel ratio (3) Specific Thrust (4) Work ratio 17. Compare gas turbine with a steam turbine. 18. What are the major operating parameters that strongly affect the efficiency of a gas

turbine ? (List at least five)

HYDRO ELECTRIC PLANTS 19. Define ‘ hydrograph’ and explain its use in the study of water power.

20. Explain how to construct a flow duration curve from a hydrograph.

PESIT


21. Explain how a flow duration curve can be used as a power duration curve. 22. Explain mass curve and its use in estimating reservoir capacity and the rate of

discharge that will be available when a reservoir has been built. 23. Discuss the factors that has to be considered when selecting the site for a

hydroelectric project dam. 24. Discuss the types of dams used in hydroelectric projects. 25. Write short notes on : (1) spillway (2) forebay (3) water hammer (4) surge

tank (5) gates and valves in hydo power stations 26. Define firm power and secondary power of a hydro station. 27. Classify different types of hydroelectric plant and explain their field use. 28. Explain the principle of operation of pumped storage plants . How does it help

in meeting sudden peak loads in a power system? 29. Give a a neat general layout of a hydro electric power plant . 30. Explain any major hydro electrc power plant of your state giving salient

features, caspacities etc. 31. List 10 major hydro electric power plants in India and explain the salient

features of (1) any one (2) the largest of them . State the installed capacity of hydro power in India , state wise.

32. Write short notes on ‘mini” and ‘micro’ hydel power stations and explain its suitability in our country.

NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS

33. Explain the following with reference to nuclear energy. (1) atomic number (2) mass

number (3) amu (4) isotope (5) binding energy (6) radioactive decay (7) radio isotopes (8) half-life (9) nuclear fission (10) nuclear fusion (11) chain reaction (12) Neutron flux (13)

34. EXPLAIN BRIEFLY THE TYPES OF NUCLEAR FUELS USED AND Its AVAILABILITY IN INDIA.

35. With a neat sketch explain the various elements of a Nuclear reactor in general. 36. What are different types of reactors used in nuclear power stations? Give a brief

explanation, a neat sketch, any special features and advantages and dis advantages of each type.[such as…..PWR(pressurized water reactor), BWR( boiling water reactor), SGR( sodium graphite reactor), FBR ( fast breeder reactor), HGR, (homogenius graphite reactor), GCR (gas cooled reactor)

37. What do you mean by uranium enrich ment? Describe a few methods for the same. 38. Explain the terms ‘breeding’ ‘burn up’ 39. What are the desirable properties of control rods? 40. Discuss the economics of nuclear power plants. 41. Discuss the special and normal safety measures in nuclear power plants.

POWER PLANT ECONOMMICS

42. Explain the foll0wing terms (1)Demand factor (2) connected load (3) maximum demand (4) capacity factor (5) use factor

Work out Question (Problems) 1.1 to 1.15 of your prescribed text PKNag.

mech 8 sem course info feb june 07

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