question code : b22103 u16sub code: chc21 sri s.ramasamy ...srnmcollege.ac.in/file_upload/question...
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20. a) How will you prepare carboxylic acid from
i) Malonic acid ii) acetoacetic acid
b) Write notes on
i) Kolbe‟s reaction ii) HVZ reaction
Question Code : B22103 Sub Code: U16CHC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY – I
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. A compound of formula C3H8 does not react with bromine in CCl4 in the
dark. The compound could be _______.
a) alkane b) cycloalkane
c) alkene d) cycloalkene
2. Markonikov‟s addition of HBr is not applicable to_______.
a) propene b) 1 – butene
c) 1 – pentene d) 2 – butene
3. 1,3-butadiene reacts with bromine to give
a) 3,4–dibromo–1–butene b) 4–bromo–1–butene
c) 1,4–dibromo–2–butene d) 1–bromo–2–butene
4. Which of the following compounds will give a white precipitate with
alcoholic AgNO3?
a) Vinyl benzene b) Chlorobenzene
c) Vinyl chloride d) Allyl chloride
5. Which of the bond in ethyl alcohol will undergoes heterolytic bond
fission most readily?
a) O–H b) C–H c) C–O d) C–C
6. When ethylene glycol is heated with concentrated HNO3 , it forms_____.
a) Ethylene oxide b) oxalic acid
c) dioxane d) diethylene glycol
7. Which of the following compound will give a positive test with
Fehling‟s solution?
a) Formaldehyde b) acetone
c) ethyl acetate d) acetic acid
8. The appearance of a silver mirror in Tollen‟s test indicate the
presence of _______.
a) An aldehyde b) A ketone
c) An alcohol d) An alkane
9. The greater activity of carboxylic acids compared to alcohol arises
primarily from_______.
a) the electron–donating effect of the hydroxyl group
b) the electron withdrawing effect of the carboxyl group
c) the acidity of alpha–halogens of carboxylic acids
d) the resonance stability associated with the carboxylate ion
10. Propane nitrile undergoes acid-hydrolysis to give ______.
a) formic acid b) propionic acid
c) acetic acid d) butyric acid
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write a note on hydroboration – oxidation.
(or)
b) Give the mechanism of addition of HBr to prepare in the presence
of peroxide.
12. a) How will you prepare the following
i) Westrosol ii) Freon iii) Allyl chloride
(or)
b) Describe any four important reactions of acetylene.
13. a) How do primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols differ in their
behaviour towards oxidation?
(or)
b) Write a short note on
i) Oxy mercuration ii) Deoxy mercuration
iii) Iodoform test
14. a) Describe the important chemical properties of diethyl ether.
(or)
b) Give the general mechanism of nucleophilic addition reactions of
carbonyl compounds.
15. a) Give the preparation and properties of lactic acid.
(or)
b) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing acidity and
explain your answer.
HCOOH, CICH2COOH, CH3COOH.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write notes on
a) Addition of H2SO4 to alkene
b) Ozonolysis in alkene
c) Hydroxylation in alkene
17. Write down any five synthetic applications of Grignard reagents.
18. Write down preparations of the following.
a) Sulphonal b) Mustard gas c) Glycol
19. Describe the following :
a) Aldol condensation b) Tischenko reaction
c) Rosenmunds reduction
Question Code : B22104 Sub Code: U16CHC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - I
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal gas laws over a wide
range of pressure is
a) critical temperature b) inversion temperature
c) boyle temperature d) reduced temperature
2. The unit of Vanderwall‟s constant „a‟ is
a) atm b) atmL2 c) atmL
2mol
–1 d) atmL
2mol
–2
3. Root mean square velocity of oxygen is calculated from
a) 16
3RT b)
32
3RT c)
4
3RT d)
8
2RT
4. On increasing the temperature of a gas, the mean free path ______.
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains unaffected d) decreases exponentially
5. Butter is a dispersion of
a) solid in liquid b) liquid in solid
c) liquid in liquid d) liquid in gas
6. The phenomenon of reversible sol–gel transformation is known as
a) imbition b) swelling
c) syneresis d) thixotrophy
7. The molecule which does not exhibit dipole moment is
a) H2O b) CHCl3 c) NH3 d) CCl4
8. Iron and cobalt are examples of
a) paramagnetic b) diamagnetic
c) ferromagnetic d) antiferrimagnetic
9. In adsorption of oxalic acid, the activated charcoal is called ______.
a) adsorber b) absorber
c) absorbate d) adsorbent
10. During Haber‟s process for the manufacture of ammonia, which of
the following act as catalytic poisons?
a) NO b) CO2 c) H2S d)N2
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the main postulates of Kinetic theory of gases?
(or)
b) Derive ideal gas law from the kinetic gas equations.
12. a) State and explain Maxwell‟s law of distribution of molecular
velocities.
(or)
b) Explain average, most probable and root mean square velocity.
How are they related with each other?
13. a) Discuss the optical properties of colloidal solution.
(or)
b) Write any five applications of colloids.
14. a) Define the terms viscosity and molar viscosity. Explain.
(or)
b) Differentiate diamagnetism and paramagnetism giving examples.
15. a) Distinguish between psysisorption and chemisorptions.
(or)
b) Deduce langmiur equation of adsorption.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. State law of corresponding state and derive the reduced equation of state
from vanderwaal‟s equation.
17. With reference to gases, explain the following terms.
i) Collision frequency ii) Collision diameter
iii) mean free path
18. How are colloids purified by dialysis and ultrafiltration?
19. Discuss the applications of dipole moment measurement.
20. Describe the theory of homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis.
Question Code : B22202 Sub Code: U16CHA21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANIC, INORGANIC AND PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - II
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Building blocks of aminoacids are _______.
a) oil b) fat c) carbohydrate d) protein
2. Globulin is a _______.
a) Simple protein b) Compound protein
c) Conjugated protein d) derived protein
3. The substance on whose surface adsorption takes place is called
_______.
a) adsorbate b) absorbent
c) active substance d) none of these
4. Which of the following is used as a catalytic promoter in Haber‟s
process?
a) Copper b) Iron
c) Molybdenum d) Vanadium
5. _______ is an elastomer.
a) Terylene b) Freon c) Rubber d) Bakelite
6. Which one is used as developer in Thin layer chromatography?
a) Silica gel b) Methylene blue
c) Malachite green d) Iodine vapour
7. In nuclear reactors, heavy water is used as a ________.
a) fuel b) coolant c) moderator d) projectile
8. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for _______.
a) Iron b) Gold c) Uranium d) Platinum
9. The structure of DNA is ______.
a) single helix b) double helix
c) α – helix d) β – helix
10. Which one of the following base is not present in RNA?
a) Thymine b) Adenine
c) Uracil d) Cytosine
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Give the preparation and uses of the following.
(i) Malachite green (ii) Indigo
(or)
b) What are proteins? Give any two examples. What do you
understand by the term “denaturation of proteins”?
12. a) Discuss the applications of adsorption.
(or)
b) Explain the mechanism and kinetics of enzyme catalysed
reactions.
13. a) How are the following polymers synthesises? Mention their uses.
(i) Polyethylene (ii) PVC
(or)
b) Write a note on synthetic Rubbers.
14. a) Define and explain Binding energy? How will you explain the
stability of nuclei based on binding energy curve.
(or)
b) Describe any one type of nuclear reactor in detail.
15. a) Describe the structure of DNA.
(or)
b) Give the functions of various hormones in our body.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. How amino acids are classified? Explain each type with examples.
17. Distinguish between physisorption and chemisorption.
18. Discuss the principle, description and applications of paper
chromatography and column chromatography.
19. Explain the following
(i) Disposal of radioactive waste
(ii) Carbon dating
20. What are enzymes? Explain the factors influencing enzyme activity.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. (a) How is food classified based on the physiological functions?
(b) What is digestion? Explain physical and chemical digestion
processes.
5. (a) List out any five permitted food colorants and their uses.
(b) Write notes on: Intense sweeteners and Bulk sweeteners.
6. Discuss various food preservation techniques in detail.
7. (a) What is BMR? Explain the factors influencing BMR.
(b) Give an account of Flavouring agents.
8. (a) How is energy controlled in the human metabolic system through
chemical bonding?
(b) Write any five common food adulterants.
Question Code : B22402 Sub Code: U16CHS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
FOOD CHEMISTRY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) (i) Discuss the biological functions of water.
(ii) Explain malnutrition and good nutrition.
(or)
b) Give an account of biological functions of zinc, Copper, Magnesium,
Calcium and Sulphur.
2. a) Discuss the effect of cooking on Proteins, Fats and Vitamins.
(or)
b) Write notes on: Food preservation using chemical preservatives.
3. a) How will you analyse the food adulterants present in Ghee, Coffee
powder and Milk.
(or)
b) Explain the significance and functions of Antioxidants and
Acidulants.
Question Code : B32103 Sub Code: U17PAC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (PA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Under straight line method of charging depreciation, the depreciation is
________.
a) Increasing every year b) Decreasing every year
c) Fixed for all the year d) None of the above
2. Depreciation fund method is designed to ______.
a) Provide for depreciation of assets only
b) Provide for depreciation as also to accumulate the amount for the
replacement.
c) Provide for the payment of some liability
d) None of the above
3. Credit purchase are ascertained by preparing _______.
a) Total debtors account b) Total creditors account
c) Purchase account d) Sales account
4. Closing capital + drawings – opening capital = ?
a) Profit and loss account b) Additional capital
c) Opening creditors d) Opening debtors
5. Irrecoverable short workings account are transferred to _______.
a) Trading account b) Profit and loss account
c) P & L approximation account d) Balance sheet
6. Royalties are connected with which type of business?
a) Manufacturing business b) Mining industry
c) Construction business d) Trading business
1
7. Hire purchase price includes _______.
a) Cash price + interest b) Cash price + down payment
c) Down payment + interest d) Cash price – interest
8. When the hire purchase makes default in paying the installment the
hire vendor has ______.
a) The right to take repossession of the assets
b) No right to take repossession
c) The option to repossess or not to repossess
d) To go to the court
9. Rent and rates paid are apportioned among the departments on the
basis of _______.
a) Sales b) Purchase
c) Space occupied d) Value of machinery
10. Goods sent to branch at cost +25% the loading on the invoice price
is ________.
a) 16% b) 20% c) 25% d) 125%
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) The following balances appear in the books of mohan.
Rs.
1.1.90 Machinery a/c 50,000
1.1.90 Provision for depreciation 20,000
On 1.1.90 they decided to sell a machine for Rs.4,500. This machine
was purchased for Rs.9,000 in January 1986. You are required to
prepare machinery a/c and the provision for depreciation a/c on
31.12.90. Assuming the firm has been charging depreciation at
10%p.a. on straight–line method.
(or)
19. Kolkutta transport company purchased on 1st January 2008 from
Mumbai motors, three trucks costing Rs. 40,000 each on the hire
purchase system. Payment was to be made Rs. 30,000 down and the
reminder in three equal installments together with interest at 5%.
Kolkutta transport Co. wrote off depreciation @ 20% p.a. on diminishing
balance method. It paid the installments due at the end of the first year
but could not pay the next.
Mumbai motors agreed to leave one truck with the purchaser adjusting
the value of the other two trucks against the amount due. The trucks
were valued on the basis of 30% depreciation annually. Give necessary
ledger accounts in the books of kolkutta transport Co. for two years.
20. A madras head office has a branch at salem to which goods are invoiced
at cost plus 20%. From the following particulars, prepare Branch a/c in
the head office books;
Rs.
Goods sent to branch 2,11,872
Total sales 2,06,400
Cash sales 1,10,400
Cash received from branch debtors 88,000
Branch debtors on 1–1–96 24,000
Branch stock on 1–1–96 7,680
Branch stock on 31–12–96 13,440
2
7
17. The positions of manohar's business as on 1st January 1996 was as
under:
Sundry creditors Rs.1,70,000; Freehold premises Rs.5,00,000; stock
Rs.2,50,000; sundry debtors Rs.2,00,000 furniture Rs.20,000.
An abstract of the cash book is appended below:
Receipts Rs. Payments Rs.
Sundry debtors 1,50,000 Overdraft(1–1–96) 1,00,000
Cash sales 8,00,000 Expenses 5,00,000
Drawings 30,000
Sundry creditors 2,00,000
Cash in hand 20,000
Cash at bank 1,00,000
9,50,000 9,50,000
The following additional information is available; Closing stock Rs.
3,00,000; closing debtors Rs. 2,50,000; closing creditors Rs.
1,20,000. No additions were made during the year to premises and
furniture but they are to be depreciated @ 10% and 15%
respectively. A bad debts provision of 2.5% is to be raised.
Prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the ended
31st December, 1996 and a balance sheet as on the that date.
18. On 1.1.1982, Rama collieries Ltd, leaded a piece of land agreeing to
pay a minimum rent of Rs.2,000 in the first year, Rs.4,000 in the
second year and thereafter Rs.6,000 per annum, merging into a
royalty of 40 paise per tonne, with power to recoup short workings
over the first three years only.
The figures of annual output for the four years to 31st December
1985 were 1,000, 10,000, 18,000 and 20,000 tonnes respectively.
Record these transactions in the ledger of the company.
b) A company whose accounting year is the calendar year, purchased on
1–1–93 a machine for Rs.40,000. It purchased further machinery on
1st oct.1993 for Rs.20,000 and on 1
st July 1994 for Rs.10,000. On
1–7–1995, one fourth of machinery installed on 1–1–1993 became
obsolete and was sold for Rs.6,800.
Show how the machinery account would appear in the books of
the company for all the 3 years under diminishing balance method.
Depreciation is to be provided at 10% p.a.
12. a) Distinguish between single entry and double entry system?
(or)
b) Mr. Gopal started a business with Rs.30,800 on 1.1.2004. The
Drawings during the year amounted to Rs.16,400 and further Capital of
Rs.9,600 was introduced on 1st July 2004. Prepare statement to show
profit or loss made during the year from the following particulars, as on
31st Dec.2004.
Particulars Rs.
Creditors 34,800
Debtors 24,600
Furniture 4,800
Machinery 6,600
Cash 1,800
Investment 23,600
Bills payable 10,800
Stock 22,200
Bank O/D 7,600
Write off Rs. 1,200 towards Bad Debts and a further of 5% is to
be made towards Doubtful Debts. Depreciate Furniture by 5% and
machinery by 10% Outstanding salaries Rs.480 and prepaid Rent
Rs.320.
13. a) Bengal coal limited leased a colliery on 1st January. 2004 at a
minimum rent of Rs.15,000 merging into royalty of Re.1 per ton with a
stipulation to recoup short workings over the first three year of the lease.
3 6
The output for the first four years of the lease was 8,000, 13,000,
21,000 and 18,000 tonnes respectively. Draft the necessary journal
entries in the books of Bengal coal limited giving effect to the
above.
(or)
b) Ravi took a colliery on lease. The dead rent was Rs.750 a year,
merging into a royalty of 35 paise per tonne of coal raised, with the
right to recover short workings out of royalties of two subsequent
years from the period in which the short workings arose. the output
raised were:
I – 1,000 tonnes
II – 1,500 tonnes
III – 2,500 tonnes
IV – 1,500 tonnes
V – 1,000 tonnes
Show the analysis of Royalty table only.
14. a) From the following details of a businessman who sells goods of
small value at cost plus 50%. Prepare hire purchase trading account.
Rs.
1.1.90 Stock out with the customer at H.P price 9,000
Stock at shop at cost price 18,000
Instalments due but not received 5,000
31.12.90 Goods worth Rs.500 repossessed (Inst. not due
Rs.2000)
Cash received from customers 60,000
Purchase made during the year 60,000
Stock at cost at shop(excluding the goods repossessed) 20,000
Instalments due but not received 9,000
Stock out at hire – Purchase price with the customers 30,000
(or)
b) Write down the differences between hire purchase system and
instalments system.
15. a) Yule, the proprietor of a departmental store, decided to calculate
separate profits for his first two departments X and Y for the month
ending 31st January 2000. Stock on 31
st January could not be valued for
certain unavoidable reasons but his rates of gross profit (calculate
without reference to direct expenses) on sales for the two departments
are 40 and 30 percent. The following figures are given.
Dept X Rs. Dept Y Rs.
Stock on 1st January 2000 9,000 8,400
Sales 42,000 36,000
Purchases 27,000 21,600
Direct expenses 5,490 8,520
Indirect expenses for the whole business (containing five
departments) are 10,800 which are to be charged in proportion to
departmental sales, except as to one–sixth, which is to be divided
equally. Sales for remaining three departments were Rs.1,02,000.
Prepare a statement showing profits for the two departments X and Y.
(or)
b) What do you understand by "Interdepartmental transfer". Distinguish
between branch and department.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. A company purchased a 3–year, lease on 1–1–1990 for Rs.50,000. It is
decided to provide for the replacement of lease at the end of three years
by setting up a sinking fund. It is expected that the investment will fetch
interest at 5%. Sinking fund tables show that to provide the requisite sum
at 5% at the end of three years, an investment at Rs.15,864 is require
every year. Investments are made to the nearest rupee.
On 31st December 1992, the investments were sold for Rs.30,500. On
1.1.1993, the same lease was renewed for a further period of 3 years by
payment of Rs.60,000.
Show the ledger account of sinking fund a/c and sinking fund investment
a/c. Calculations are to be made to the nearest rupee.
5 4
20. Solve graphically
Maximize P = 3x + 2y
subject to 2x – y 1 ; x + 2y 3 ;
and x 0 , y 0.
Question Code : B32104 Sub Code: U17PAC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (PA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. A Set with no elements is called _______.
a) Finite set b) Infinite set
c) Empty set d) Sub set
2. Sum of money charged by the lender from the borrower for making use
of his money is called _______.
a) Interest b) Principal
c) Amount d) Time period
3. A Matrix that consist of only one row is called a _______.
a) row matrix b) square matrix
c) scalar matrix d) diagonal matrix
4. The order of matrix A = {4, 2, 5, 3} is
a) 4 x 1 b) 1 x 4 c) 4 x 4 d) 1 x 1
5. The relationship between the variables is called ______.
a) Function b) Co–efficient
c) Constants d) Range
6. The derivative of is
a) b) c) d)
7. Integral calculus deals with finding a function when its rate of change is
________.
a) Known b) Unknown c) Constant d) All of these
8. In case of Definite Integral ______ limits are given.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
9. Linear programming was developed by ______.
a) George. B. Dantzig b) W.W. Cooper
c) L.V. Kantorovich d) T.C. Koopmans
10. Linear programming is associated with _______.
a) objective function b) constraints
c) non–negative constraints d) al of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Find simple interest on
i) Rs.1600 for one year at 10% p.a
ii) Rs.2500 for 15 months at 15% p.a
iii) Rs.10,000 for 73 days at 20% p.a
(or)
b) Find the Compound Interest for Rs.10,500 at 8% for 3 years.
12. a) If 543
321 A B
110
212 and
011
105 C
Verify A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
(or)
b) Find the rank of
164
087
123
13. a) Evaluate : 23
2 lim
2
2
1 xx
xx
x
(or)
b) Find the Maxima and minima of the following function.
10 36 3 2 23 xxxy
14. a) Evaluate dxx 546
(or)
b) Compute Total Cost for the Marginal Cost Function 24 6 2 xxC , if total fixed cost is 50.
15. a) Briefly explain the concepts of Linear Programming.
(or)
b) Explain the Mathematical formulation of Linear Programming
Program.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6} and U= {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9},
then verify that
(i)
(ii)
17. Solve the Simultaneous Equations
5x – y + 4z = 5 ; 2x + 3y + 5z = 2 ; 7x – 2y + 6z = 5
18. If , find .
19. Evaluate a) 2
0
2 )54 ( dxxx and
b) dxex x
4
0
Question Code : B32202 Sub Code: U17PAA21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (PA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Managerial Economics has been described as economics applied to
______
a) National Income b) Decision Making
c) Production d) None
2. Managerial Economics is _______.
a) Macro Economics b) Agricultural Economics
c) Micro Economics d) None
3. The relation of price to sales is known in economics as ______.
a) Law of demand b) Elasticity of demand
c) Demand forecasting d) None
4. No reduction in price is needed to cause an increase in demand ______.
a) Perfectly elastic demand b) Perfectly inelastic demand
c) Relatively elastic demand d) None
5. A production function with one variable input is called as _______.
a) Law of variable proportion b) Laws of Returns to scale
c) Isoquants d) None
6. Costs that are recorded in the books of account of a business firm are
called as _______.
a) Explicit costs b) Implicit costs
c) Sunk costs d) None
7. Imitative pricing is also called as _______.
a) Full cost pricing b) Going rate pricing
c) Product line pricing d) None
8. Which one of the following is not a stage in the life cycle of a
product.
a) Introduction b) Growth
c) Decline d) Conclusion
9. The market situation in which there is only one buyer for a product
is called as _______.
a) Monopoly b) Monopsony
c) Oligopoly d) Oligopsony
10. The market situation in which there are two buyers for a product is
called as ________.
a) Duopoly b) Duopsony
c) Bilateral Monopoly d) Oligopoly
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the uses of Managerial Economics?
(or)
b) Enumerate the goals of a firm.
12. a) State the uses of Managerial Economics.
(or)
b) What is cross elasticity of demand?
13. a) Define Production Function. Bring out its Managerial uses.
(or)
b) Explain about returns to scale.
14. a) What are the objectives of pricing policy?
(or)
b) Explain the Marginal cost pricing.
15. a) What are the features of perfect competition.
(or)
b) Explain the concept of demand curve under oligopoly.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Examine the scope of Managerial Economics.
17. Explain the different types of price elasticity.
18. Examine the law of variable Proportions.
19. Explain the life cycle of a product.
20. How price is determined under Monopoly?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. What are the benefits of corporate social responsibility?
5. Explain the reasons for conservation of natural resources.
6. What are the issues in environmental ethics?
7. Write the importance of ethical finance.
8. At the time of consumer protection, what are the points to be
considered?
Question Code : B32401 Sub Code: U17PAS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
ETHICS IN BUSINESS
Time : 2 Hrs B.Com (PA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Explain the scope of business ethics.
(or)
b) Explain the principles of corporate governance.
2. a) What are the benefits of ethics in workplace?
(or)
b) Explain the various ways to protect the natural environment.
3. a) Explain the common problems of ethics in finance.
(or)
b) Explain the major ethical issues in finance.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Calculate the mode of the following distributions:
Marks 0-9 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59
No.of.students 6 29 87 181 247 263
17. Fit a curve of the form xbeay to the following data:
Year (x) 1951 1952 1953 1954 1955 1956 1957
Production in tons (y) 201 263 314 395 427 504 632
18. The two variables x and y have the regression lines
02623 yx and 0316 yx . Find (i) the mean values of x
and y (ii) the correlation coefficients between x and y (iii) the
variance of y if the variance of x is 25.
19. Use the method of least squares and fit a straight line trend to the
following data given from 82 to 92. Hence estimate the trend value
for 1993.
Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92
Production in Quintals 45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48
20. One factory F1 produces 1000 articles, 20 of them being defective,
second factory F2 produces 4000 articles, 40 of them being defective
and the third factory F3 produces 5000 articles, 50 of them being
defective. All the articles are put in one stock pile. One of them is
chosen and it is found to be defective. What is the probability that it
is from the factory F1?
Question Code : B24202 Sub Code: U16CSA21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Collect the data from materials available in published records, which is
called _______
a) Primary data b) Range
c) Secondary data d) None of these
2. The arithmetic mean of 18, 15, 18, 16, 17, 18, 15, 19, 17, 17 is
__________
a) 17 b) 18 c) 16 d) 19
3. The difference between the maximum and the minimum value of the
variate is called _______
a) Dispersion b) Deviation
c) Range d) Standard Deviation
4. If ,Axd then ._______2
a) 22 ds b) 22 ds c) 22 .ds d) 22 / ds
5. If the variable X and Y are uncorrelated, then .______),( YXCov
a) 1 b) –1 c) 0 d)
6. If one of the regression coefficient is greater than 1, then the other is
________.
a) Less than 1 b) equal to 1
c) equal to 0 d) equal to –1
60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99
133 43 9 2
7. If the period of oscillations for the periodic movements in a time
series is greater than one, then the time series is called the ______.
a) Period of cycle b) Cyclic variation
c) Seasonal variation d) None of these
8. Seasonal and cyclic variations are the classifications of ________.
a) Short term functioning b) Period of cycle
c) Irregular fluctuation d) None of these
9. The probability of an empty set is always ______.
a) S b) 1 c) 0 d) –1
10. ._______)()( APAP
a) 1 b) 0 c) –1 d) None of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Calculate the Arithmetic Mean of the following frequency
distribution of the marks obtained by 50 students in a class.
Marks 05-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45
No. of students 5 6 15 10 5 4 3 2
(or)
b) Given that the mode of the following frequency distributions of 70
students is 56.75. Find the missing frequencies 1f and .2f
Class Frequency
52 – 55 15
55 – 58 1f
58 – 61 25
61 – 64 2f
12. a) Find the mean deviation from the mean and variance of the
arithmetic progression .2...,,2,, dnadadaa
(or)
b) Explain the method of fitting the curve of good ).0(aeay xb
13. a) Out of the two lines of regression given by 052 yx and
0832 yx , which one is the regression line of x on y.
(or)
b) Find the rank correlation coefficient between the height in c.m and
weight in kg of 6 soldiers in Indian Army.
Height 165 167 166 170 169 172
Weight 61 60 63.5 63 61.5 64
14. a) Calculate (i) three yearly moving average (ii) short term fluctuations
for the following data :
Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92
Production in Quintals 45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48
(or)
b) Write the short notes on (i) Method of curve fitting
(ii) Method of semi averages.
15. a) A bag contains 5 red and 3 black balls and a second bag has 4 red and
5 black balls. One of the bag is selected at random and a draw of 2 balls
is made from it. What is the probability that one of them is red and other
is black?
(or)
b) Let A and B be two events such that 3/2)(AP and .6/5)(BP
Show that the following (i) 3/2)( BAP (ii) 6/5)(2/1 BAP .
Question Code : B24102 Sub Code: U16CSC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPUTER SYSTEM AND ARCHITECTURE
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. _______ is a group of bits that tell the computer to perform a specific
operation.
a) Instruction Register b) Instruction code
c) Instruction cycle d) Instruction format
2. _______ is a Memory reference instruction
a) CLA b) INC c) BUN d) INP
3. Microinstructions are stored in control memory in groups, with each
group specifying a _________.
a) Routine b) Address
c) Instruction d) Data
4. In _______ address mode, the content of the program counter is added to
the address part of the instruction in order to obtain the effective address.
a) Direct b) Indirect
c) Relative d) Indexed
5. Status bits are also called as ______ bits.
a) Code b) Flag
c) Condition d) None of these
6. _______ is not a basic type of data Manipulation Instructions.
a) Program instruction b) Shift instruction
c) Arithmetic instruction
d) Logical and bit manipulation instruction
7. Expand DMA : ________.
a) Defined Memory Access b) Direct Memory Access
c) Defined Memory Arguments d) Direct Memory Arguments
8. Data valid handshaking line is generated by the _______ unit.
a) Both source and destination b) Memory
c) Source d) Destination
9. The address used by the programmer is called________.
a) Physical address b) Virtual address
c) Auxiliary address d) Imaginary address
10. Auxiliary memory average access time is usually ______ times that
of main memory.
a) 1000 b) 10 c) 100 d) 10000
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write a note on Interrupt cycle.
(or)
b) Explain about the Accumulator registers with example.
12. a) Explain the following
(i) Relative Address mode
(ii) Indexed Addressing mode
(iii) Direct Address mode
(iv) Indirect Address mode
(or)
b) Explain the concept of control memory.
13. a) Explain the following concepts with example.
i) Shift instructions
ii) Data transfer instructions
(or)
b) Explain multiplication with signed –2‟s complement numbers
with an example.
14. a) Explain the concept of Handshaking.
(or)
b) Explain microprocessor interface.
15. a) Explain about the Memory connection to microprocessor with
diagram.
(or)
b) Write a brief note on the following topics given below.
i) Magnetic Disk
ii) Magnetic Drum
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss Timing and Control in detail.
17. Explain the concept of Address Sequencing.
18. Describe about program control.
19. Explain in detail about I/O interface.
20. Explain the concept behind cache memory.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Explain the following concepts in C++ with example
(i) Data types (ii) Looping statements
5. Explain the following concepts with suitable programs.
(i) Parameterized constructor
(ii) Copy constructor
(iii) Destructor
6. Discuss briefly the following concepts with examples.
(i) Static data members
(ii) Static member functions
(iii) Nesting of member functions
7. Discuss the virtual function and pure virtual function with suitable
program.
8. Write a program to arrange a given set of numbers in descending
order using pointers.
Question Code : B24402 Sub Code: U16CSS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PROGRAMMING IN C++
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Explain the concept of function overloading with a suitable program.
(or)
b) Explain in detail about the operators available in C++.
2. a) Demonstrate the use of friend function through a simple program.
(or)
b) Explain unary operator overloading with an example program.
3. a) Explain the following concepts with example.
i) Multilevel inheritance
ii) Multiple inheritance
(or)
b) Explain the following concepts with example.
i) Hierarchical inheritance
ii) Hybrid inheritance
17. Discuss the (i) Schrodinger and (ii) Heisenberg representation for
describing the dynamic behaviour of a system. Obtain the equation
of motion for a state function and for an operator.
18. Solve the radial equation to obtain the energy eigen value of
Hydrogen atom.
19. Using time independent non–degenerate perturbation theory obtain
expressions for the first order corrections to the energy and
wavefunction.
20. Applying variational method to Helium atom and obtain its ground
state energy.
Question Code : B61105 Sub Code: P16PHC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
QUANTUM MECHANICS – I
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The uncertainty in the momentum of the particle when its position is
determined with 0.01 cm is _______.
a) 130 10 05.1 mskg b)
130 10 05.1 mskg
c) 130 10 05.1 msgm d) mskg 10 05.1 30
2. Debroglie wavelength associated with an electron mass em is given by
Xm
h
e
where X stands for
a) Momentum b) Position
c) Energy d) Velocity
3. In the quantum mechanical concept that only those dynamical variables
whose expectation values are _______ should be considered to be
directly measurable.
a) Imaginary b) Negative
c) Real d) None
4. If there exists only _____ eigen function belonging to given eigen value
is said to be non–degenerate.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
5. Rigid rotator serves as a good approximate model for the motion of
_____ molecules.
a) Polyatomic b) Triatomic
c) diatomic d) none
6. The tunnelling through the potential increases if ______.
a) height is reduced and width increased
b) height is increased and width reduced
c) height and width are reduced
d) height and width of the barrier increased.
7. The first excited state (n=2) of Hydrogen atom is _______ fold
degenerate.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None
8. The Hamiltonian 322
2
2
1
2xxm
m
pH differs from the
harmonic oscillator by the anharmonic term_______.
a) m
p
2
2
b) 22
2
1xm c)
3 x d) None
9. For a particle constrained to move between classical turning points
1xx and 2xx in a potential well, the energy levels are obtained
from the conditions
a) )(2
1
ndxxp
x
x
b) )1( )(2
1
nndxxp
x
x
c) 21 )(
2
1
ndxxp
x
x
d) )( 21
2
1
ndxxp
x
x
10. The variation method is used primarily for the estimation of ______
state energy.
a) Excited b) intermediate
c) metastable d) ground
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) State and prove Ehrenfest theorems.
(or)
b) Explain Debroglie‟s hypothesis and obtain an expression for
Debroglie wavelength.
12. a) Define Hermitian operator. Show that eigen values of a Hermitian
operator are always real. Also show that Two eigen finctions of a
Hermitian operator belonging to different eigen values are orthogonal.
(or)
b) If the Hamiltonian )( )( 10 tHHtH , show that the state vector
changes in accordance with )(1 tH whereas the dynamical variables
change in accordance with 0H in the interaction picture.
13. a) Discuss the problem of the three dimensional square well of finite
depth is defined by
ar
arVrV
0
0 )( 0
(or)
b) Derermine the energy eigen values and eigen functions of a rigid
rotator.
14. a) Discuss the effect of electric field on the n = 2. State of Hydrogen
atom.
(or)
b) Write short notes on “Spin orbit interaction”.
15. a) Outline the variation method used for obtaining approximate value of
ground state energy of the system.
(or)
b) Write down the connection formulas of WKB method and explain
them briefly.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Derive time dependent Schrodinger equation for a
(i) free particle (ii) Particle subjected to force.
Also write the physical significance of wave function.
Question Code : B61106 Sub Code: P16PHC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
STATISTICAL MECHANICS & THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Out of the following, the physical quantity that relates with first law of
thermodynamics is_______.
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Energy d) Number of moles
2. Gibbs Potential is defined as ______.
a) G = U – PV + TS b) G = U + PV + TS
c) G = U – PV – TS d) G = U + PV – TS
3. The ratio of adiabatic and isothermal elasticities of a gas is ______.
a) b) 2 c)
1 d) . d
4. Internal energy of a real gas depends upon ______.
a) only on the temperature of the gas
b) only on the volume of the gas
c) only on the pressure of the gas
d) size of the molecule
5. Entropy is a measure of _______.
a) perfect order b) available energy
c) disorder d) none of the above
6. Entropy is maximum at which state ______.
a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can be any
7. Deduction of Planck's law is possible on the basis of ______.
a) F.D statistics b) Classical statistics
c) M.B statistics d) B.E. statistics
8. According to which statistics, the energy at absolute zero cannot be
zero
a) M – B b) B – E c) F – D d) None of these
9. According to Debye's theory, the atomic heat of a solid at law
temperature varies as ______.
a) Proportional to its absolute temperature
b) Proportional to square of its absolute temperature
c) Proportional to cube of its absolute temperature
d) independent of temperature
10. The Spin of photon is _______.
a) zero b) 2
1 c) d) 2
3
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain helmheltz function and Gibbs function.
(or)
b) State and explain second law and third law of thermodynamics.
12. a) Explain Joule Thomson effect for vander waal's gas in detail.
(or)
b) Write down the application of I law of thermodynamics.
13. a) Write a short note on (i) Canonical ensemble
(ii) Micro and Grand canonical ensemble
(or)
b) State and explain Liouville's theorem.
14. a) Obtain an expression for B.E distribution law.
(or)
b) Compare the basic postulates of M.B, B.E and F.D statistics.
15. a) Derive Einstein's theory of the specific heat capacity of a solid.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Bragg Williams approximation.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. State and explain Nernst heat theorem.
17. Explain about two Tds equations and its applications.
18. (i) Write down the basic postulates of classical statistical
thermodynamics.
(ii) Write a note on phase space.
19. Derive the expression for F.D distribution law.
20. Derive the Debye theory of the specific heat capacity of a solid.
18. Give Maxwell's equations. Explain how the divergence equations
are obtained from the curl equations.
19. Describe the propagation of plane electromagnetic waves in good
conductors with necessary theory.
20. Obtain the electric and magnetic field components in the
electromagnetic wave propagation in TE mode in a hollow
rectangular wave guide.
Question Code : B61303 Sub Code: P16PHE21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The electric polarization is the_______.
a) number of dipoles per unit volume
b) number of dipoles in the given volume
c) dipoles moment per unit volume
d) dipoles moment in the given volume
2. Polar dielectrics are dielectrics which have_______.
a) permanent dipole moments b) non –conductors
c) conductors d) both (b) & (c)
3. Which one of the following is not the unit of magnetic induction?
a) tesla b) wber/meter2 c) weber d) gauss
4. Convection current occurs in _______.
a) good conductors b) semi conductors
c) insulators d) vacuum diodes
5. In the case of a changing magnetic flux, the induced electromotance
a) = 0 b) c) d) 0
6. First pair of Maxwell's equation is ______.
a) and
b) and
c) and
d) and
7. A medium whose properties do not vary from point to point is called
______.
a) linear medium b) homogeneous medium
c) isotropic medium d) linear and isotropic medium
8. The Poynting vector has the dimensions of ________.
a) energy / (area x time) b) energy / area
c) energy / time d) energy
9. A TE wave has _______.
a) a component of only along the z-axis
b) a component of only along the z-axis
c) component of both and along the z-axis
d) both and in a plane transverse to the z-axis
10. Electric dipole radiation is produced by ________.
a) any charge b) any charge distribution
c) any static charge distribution
d) any charge distribution with sinusoidal variation of dipole
moment.
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Obtain expressions for the electric potential and electric field
intensity at a point due to an electric dipole.
(or)
b) Derive the Clausius - Mossotti equation. Also obtain an expression for
the molar polarization.
12. a) Write note on Ampere's circuital law.
(or)
b) Drive an expression for the magnetic vector potential due to a current
distribution using Biot-Savart law.
13. a) Give a detailed account on Faraday induction law.
(or)
b) Obtain the differential form of the law of conservation of free and
bound charges.
14. a) Describe the propagation of plane electromagnetic waves in non-
conducting media.
(or)
b) Show that plane electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the
speed of light.
15. a) Obtain an expression for the average Poynting vector due to an
oscillating electric dipole.
(or)
b) Describe the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a co-axial line
with necessary theory.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Obtain an expression for the force per unit volume of a dielectric exerted
by a nonuniform external electric field.
17. Obtain Legendre's equation.
Question Code : B80105 Sub Code: P16ELC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BRITISH LITERATURE III
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ______ son of Ho–ti.
a) Bo–bo b) Chi–Cho c)Ho–Ho d) Di–Du
2. John is Lamb‟s _______.
a) Father b) Uncle c) Brother d) Grandfather
3. William Wordsworth‟s Michael is a ________.
a) Ode b) Elegy c) Ballad d) Pastoral poem
4. „Beauty is truth. Truth beauty‟ are the lines from ______.
a) Michael b) Ode on a Grecian Urn
c) Ulysses d) Dover Beech
5. Lord Alfred Tennyson belongs to ______ age.
a) Victorian b) Elizabethan
c) Jacobean d) Queen Anne‟s
6. My Last Duchess is narrated by ________.
a) Duke of wales b) Duke of Cowder
c) Duke of Ferrara d) Duke of Milan
7. In the castle of ________ De Bracy imprisoned Cedric‟s party.
a) Torquilstone b) Traquair
c) Totnas d) Tintagle
8. Darcy ________ Elizabeth when he visits her in the Collin‟s home.
a) Proposes to b) Kisses
c) Splaps d) Insults
9. Damon is in love with ________.
a) Eustacia b) Diggory
c) Clym d) Thomasin
10. _________ is Nancy‟s pimp.
a) Fagin b) Mrs.Brownlow
c) Marks d) Bill sikes
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Critically analysis the story „A Dessertation Upon Roast Pig‟.
(or)
b) How does Charles Lamb narrates his early life to his children?
12. a) How does Coleridge create metaphors from natural objects and
scenes?
(or)
b) How do you justify the theme of Michael is taken from Bible‟s
prodigal son.
13. a) Bringout the autobiographical elements is the poem Ulysses.
(or)
b) Write a note on Browning‟s creating the ironic note in the poem
„My last Duchess‟.
14. a) What possible tension exists between the rules of Chivalry and
rules of behaviour that governs kings in the novel Ivanhoe?
(or)
b) Sketch the character of Elizabeth Bennet.
15. a) What role do superstition, Pagan culture and fantasy play in the novel
„The Return of the Native‟.
(or)
b) How does Dickens portrays the life of Poors in Oliver Twist.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write an essay on Charles Lamb‟s style.
17. What role does imagination play in Coleridge‟s work, both as a source
and as a subject.
18. Arnold‟s poem is read as a record of the class between Science and
Religion – Disucss.
19. Sketch the character of Ivanhoe.
20. Justify the title of the novel „The Return of the Native‟.
Question Code : B80106 Sub Code: P16ELC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF ENGLISH LITERATURE
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Chaucer's poetic career is divided into ______ periods.
a) two b) three c) four d) five
2. Wyatt borrowed the sonnet form from ______.
a) Petrarch b) Surrey
c) Dante d) Spenser
3. In 'Paradise Regained' Satan tempts ________.
a) Adam b) Eve
c) Christ d) None
4. 'Voyage to Lisbon' is the last work of _______.
a) Fielding b) Goldsmith
c) Jane Austen d) Smollett
5. Wordsworth was born in ______.
a) 1770 b) 1777 c) 1780 d) 1788
6. "Confessions of an Opium Eater" is the autobiography of _______.
a) Thomas De Quincey b) Keats
c) Hazlitt d) Lamb
7. _________ is Browning's famous dramatic monologue.
a) Meeting at Night b) My Last Duchess
c) Evelyn Hope d) None of these
8. Which of the following novelist was awarded the Nobel Prize for
literature?
a) Kipling b) Conan Doyle
c) Meredith d) Hardy
9. 'The Lady is not for Burning' is ______ famous play.
a) Barrie's b) Sean O' Casey
c) John Osborne d) Christopher Fry
10. Samuel Beckett introduced a new type of drama called the ______.
a) Absurd Drama b) Poetic Drama
c) Prose Drama d) None of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) How does the Shakespearean sonnet form differ from the
Petrarchan form?
(or)
b) Write a note on the Cavelier poets of the 17th
Century.
12. a) Describe Milton's personal life.
(or)
b) What are the symbols used by Blake? Explain each one.
13. a) Write a note on Lamb's essays.
(or)
b) Discuss Jane Austen's women characters.
14. a) Explain about Macaulay's essays.
(or)
b) Describe Mathew Arnold's personal life.
15. a) Explain in detail about Samuel Beckett.
(or)
b) Write a note on Somerset Maugham.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain about the survey of the works of the University Wits.
17. Write a essay on Dryden as a dramatist.
18. Describe about the prominent aspects of Keats poetry.
19. Write an essay on Tennyson as a representative of the Victorian age.
20. Explain about the main themes of H.G.Well's fiction.
Question Code : B80107 Sub Code: P16ELC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SHAKESPEARE
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Viola is saved from the wreck by _______.
a) antonio b) a sea captain
c) a sailor d) one of orisino‟s men
2. Sir Toby, Olivia‟s uncle has the surname ______.
a) Snore b) Snout
c) Belch d) Aguecheek
3. In which Act does Caesar get assasinated?
a) Act 2 b) Act 1 c) Act 3 d) Act 4
4. Whose speech in the tragedy of Julius Caesar includes the famous
address „Friends, Romans, Countrymen‟?
a) Octavius Caesar b) Marc Antony
c) Marcus Brutus d) Julius Caesar
5. Why did Cassio most worry about after the punishment?
a) The drop in pay b) The less of his reputation
c) Desdemona‟s opinion on him
d) The expensive clothes that were rushed in the brawl.
6. How does Othello kill Desdemona?
a) He strangler her b) He stabs her
c) He beats her d) He poisons her
7. Who was considered the spirit on earth in the play „The Tempest‟?
a) Ariel b) Prospero
c) Caliban d) Tinculo
8. Who embodies fancy and imaginative genius of poetry in „The
Tempest‟ ?
a) Ferdinand b) Ariel
c) Miranda d) Prospero
9. Shakespeare began his dramatic career with _______.
a) Tragedies b) Romances
c) Comedies d) Historical plays
10. Shakespeare wrote ______ plays.
a) 36 b) 35 c) 37 d) 38
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Give the character sketch of Viola.
(or)
b) Discuss the different types of love in “Twelfth Night”.
12. a) Why did cassius kill himself?
(or)
b) Analyse Antony‟s final speech over Brutus body? Is he insincere?
13. a) Why does Iago want to destroy Othello?
(or)
b) Describe how Othello‟s pride lead to his fall.
14. a) Describe the love between Ferdinand and Miranda.
(or)
b) Comment on the dramatic purpose of the supernatural elements in
the play „The Tempest‟.
15. a) Comment on any two most famous villains of Shakespeare.
(or)
b) Write briefly on the characteristic features of comedy.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. „Twelfth Night‟ has been called the best of Shakespeare‟s Romantic
Comedies – Discuss.
17. Are Caesar and Antony really true friends? How is friendship defined
through the characters in the play?
18. Explain the ascendency which Iago obtains over Othello in the play
„Othello‟.
19. Analyse the theme of forgiveness in the play „The Tempest‟.
20. Write an essay on Shakespeare‟s treatment of History.
Question Code : B80108 Sub Code: P16ELC24
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INDIAN WRITING IN ENGLISH
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which of the following Indian English authors may be classified as “The
most leaning Towards the left” ______.
a) Kamala Dass b) Mulk Raj Anand
c) R.K.Narayan d) Raja Rao
2. Which English Writer Wrote preface to Tagore‟s Gitanjali _______.
a) G.B.Shaw b) C.F.Andrews
c) E.M.Forster d) W.B.Yeats
3. Indian _______ which has always maintained itself even in the decline
of the national vitality;
a) ability b) spirituality
c) liberty d) fraternity
4. The word renaissance at all applies since India has always been awake
and stood in no need of ______.
a) reforming b) rejoice
c) reawakening d) rebirth
5. Tagore deals with the norms and dogmas which are very necessary to get
heavenly ______.
a) thought b) freedom
c) patriotic d) philosophy
6. The river is personified as a ______.
a) fortune b) destroy
c) god d) mother
7. What is a theme of Dattani‟s play “Tara” ______.
a) Feminism b) Gender Role
c) Identity d) Idealism
8. Mahesh Dattani was born in ______.
a) 1965 b) 1957 c) 1958 d) 1942
9. _______ murder Ram Lal for his moveable fortunes.
a) malli and his gang b) jugga
c) the police d) iqbal
10. Sudha receives packet from ______.
a) Gouri b) Ashok c) Sanghji d) her father
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What is the tone of the works of Rabindranath Tagore?
(or)
b) Consider Asif Currimbhoy as a post Independent Indian writer.
12. a) What are the reasons for the declination of Indian spirituality
according to Aurobindo?
(or)
b) Examine Aurobindo‟s ideas regarding Indian Renaissance.
13. a) R.Parthasarathy‟s poem “River, Once” is highly suggestive –
Discuss.
(or)
b) Write a short note on the themes of the poem “Heaven of
Freedom”.
14. a) Justify the title Tara.
(or)
b) Sketch the character of Chandan.
15. a) Sketch the character of Juggut Singh?
(or)
b) In sister of Heart, how are Anju‟s problems related to economic
injustice?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss Kamala Das as a confessional poet.
17. Examine Sri Aurobindo‟s views on The Renaissance in India.
18. Discuss the poem Poet, Lover and Bird Watcher shows how Ezekiel has
travelled a long way since the romantic idealism.
19. Examine the theme of identity in Mahesh Dattani‟s Tara.
20. Comment on the realism in Kushwant Singh‟s Train to Pakistan.
Question Code : B80303 Sub Code: P16ELE21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPUTER FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Fifth generation computing devices were based on_______.
a) artificial intelligence b) integrated circuit
c) microprocessor d) transistors
2. Laptop is a ______ computer.
a) Super b) Mainframe c) Mini d) Micro
3. The Keyboard shortcut for selecting the entire document is _____.
a) ctrl + V b) ctrl + A c) ctrl + S d) ctrl + C
4. Microsoft was first released under the name of _______.
a) Rich Text format b) Microsoft Gallery
c) Multi–Tool word d) Wordstar
5. The first power point version was _____.
a) machintosh 1987 b) macintosh 1986
c) windows 1971 d) windows 1992
6. _____is an example of Exit Animation.
a) Fade in b) Fly out
c) Crow and Turn d) Spin Emphasis.
7. WWW stands for______.
a) World West Water b) World White Wood
c) World White Women d) World Wide Web
8. ______ is a process of identifying the words and expressions that
best describe the page.
a) retrieving b) relevancy
c) indexing d) crawling
9. The term “cyberspace” was first appeared in the visual arts in the
late______.
a) 1950‟s b) 1960‟s c) 1970‟s d) 1980‟s
10. The term „blog‟ was coined by _______.
a) Peter Merholz b) Jorn Barger
c) Dave Winer d) Evan Winer.
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write a short note on Minicomputers.
(or)
b) Describe the first Generation of Computers.
12. a) Describe the process of formatting a text.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Mail Merge.
13. a) Discuss the procedure of creating a PowerPoint Slide.
(or)
b) Explain the different kinds of Animations with examples.
14. a) Write a short note on Human powered directories.
(or)
b) Bring out the uses of Internet in our daily life.
15. a) Discuss the importance of Cyberspace.
(or)
b) Suggest some tips for writing Content for Blogs.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Trace the history of Windows Operating system.
17. Attempt an essay on the salient features of Microsoft Word.
18. Discuss the guidelines for Making Effective PowerPoint Presentations.
19. Explain the significance of Investigation tools and resources for private
investigators.
20. Enumerate the basic components of a web site.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. i) Prove that U(x,y) = x2 – y
2 is a Harmonic function.
ii)Evaluate I = ∮ dz , where C is a circle with│z│= 4.
17. Prove . Using it find the value of
18. Drive an expression for electromagnetic field strength tensor and
dual field strength tensor.
19. State and explain the Great Orthogonality Theorem.
20. What is a binomial distribution? Obtain the constants of binomial
distribution.
Question Code : B61104 Sub Code: P16PHC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MATHEMATICAL PHYSICS – II
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. If i = than ii is equal to
a) b) –1 c) d)
2. If i) f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function then u and v are harmonic
functions.
ii) u and v are harmonic functions then u + iv may or may not be an
analytic function
a) true , false b) true , true
c) false , true d) false, false
3. If f(z) = z−1
then U(x,y) and V(x,y) are
a) , b) ,
c) , d) , -
4. If f(z) is analytic in the entire z plane and z = a is a point in the z plane
then
a) –
b)
c) d)
5. IfAμ and B v are the components of a contravariant and covariant tensors of
rank one, than = Aμ B v are the components of a
a) mixed tensor of rank two b) mixed tensor of rank three
c) covariant tensors of rank one
d) contravariant tensors of rank one.
6. In the most general case, which one of the following quantities is
NOT a second order tensor?
a) stress b)strain
c) moment of inertia d) pressure
7. If G = { 1, -1, i, - i} is group under multiplication, then inverse of - i
is
a) 1 b) −1 c) i d) None of Above
8. The factor group of an abelian group is necessarily
a) Abelian group b) non Abelian group
c) cyclic group d) permutation group
9. Analysis of variance is concerned with:
a) Determining change in a dependent variable per unit change in an
independent variable .
b) Determining whether a qualitative factor affects the mean of an
output variable .
c) Determining whether significant correlation exists between an
output variable and an input variable.
d) Determining whether variance in two or more populations are
significantly different.
10. The Poisson random variable is given by
a)!
)( Prr
emrX
mr
b) !
)( Prr
emrX
mr
c)!
)( Prr
emrX
mr
d) none of the above.
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Derive C-R differential equations.
(or)
b) If )(zf is an analytic function of z prove that
2
2
2
2
yx
2'2
)(4)( zfzf .
12. a) i)Find the zeros and poles of the complex function f (z) = .
ii) Find the residue of as infinity
(or)
b) Find the value of the integral where C is a closed contour,
defined by the equation traversed in the anticlockwise direction.
13. a) Show that symmetry properties of a tensor are invariant.
(or)
b) Explain Quotient law.
14. a) Explain Isomorphism and Homomorphism in group theory.
(or)
b) State and explain Caley‟s theorem.
15. a) What is Poisson distribution ? Calculate the mean and Standard
deviation for the Poisson distribution.
(or)
b) The life of army shoes is normally distributed with means 8 months
and standard deviation 2 months .If 5000 pairs are issued , how many
pairs would be expected to need replacement after 12 months
(Given: 0228.0)2( Pr Z andX
Z ).
Question Code : B90101 Sub Code: MP16CO11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY IN COMMERCE
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Commerce) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) What are the uses of Social Science Research?
(or)
b) What is the field survey? How does it differ from a survey?
2. a) What is meant by secondary sources? What are its features?
(or)
b) Briefly explain about the classifications of scales in research.
3. a) What are the types of analysis of data?
(or)
b) What is editing of data? For what is it done?
4. a) What is meant by hypothesis? What are the steps involved in testing
of hypothesis?
(or)
b) Memory capacity of 9 students was tested before and after training.
State the 5 percent level of significance whether the training was
effective from the following scores:
Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Before 10 15 9 3 7 12 16 17 4
After 12 17 8 5 6 11 18 20 3
Use paired t–test for your answer.
5. a) An experiment is conducted to judge the effect of brand name on
quality perception. 16 subjects are recruited for the purpose and are
asked to taste and compare two samples of product on a set of scale
items judged to be ordinal. The following data are obtained.
Pair 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Brand A 73 43 47 53 58 47 52 58 38 61
Brand B 51 41 43 41 47 32 24 58 43 53
11 12 13 14 15 16
56 56 34 55 65 75
52 57 44 57 40 68
Test the hypothesis, using Wilcoxon matched pairs test, there is no
difference between the perceived of the two brands. Use 5% level of
significance.
(or)
b) what are the features of non parametric test?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Discuss the sources from which the research problems are identified.
7. Enumerate the methods of non–probability sampling.
8. Describe the contents of a research report.
9. Setup an analysis of variance table for the following information
relating to three drugs testing to judge in reducing blood pressure for
three different groups of people.
GROUP OF PEOPLE DRUG
X Y Z
A 14
15
10
9
11
11
B 12
11
7
8
10
11
C 10
11
11
11
8
7
Do the drugs act differently? Are the different groups of people
affected differently? Is the interaction term significant? Also state
whether variety of differences are significant at 5% level.
10. Use the Kruskal – Wallis test at 5% level of significance to test the null
hypothesis that a professional bowler performs equally well with the four
bowling balls for the five Bowling Games are as follows :
With Ball No A 271 282 257 248 262
With Ball No B 252 275 302 268 276
With Ball No C 260 255 239 246 266
With Ball No D 279 242 297 270 258
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Explain the various steps involved in Human Resource Planning.
7. Describe the nature and importance of employee selection. Explain
in brief the steps involved in selection procedure.
8. Explain the relative merits and demerits of seniority and merit as the
basis of promotion.
9. Explain in brief the traditional methods of performance appraisal.
What are the weaknesses in these methods?
10. How will you control the human resource cost of an organization.
Question Code : B90301 Sub Code: MP16COE11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Commerce) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) Is HRM a profession? Explain.
(or)
b) What is man power planning? Why is it necessary?
2. a) Distinguish between Recruitment and Selection.
(or)
b) What are the various hurdles in a Selection Procedure?
3. a) How will you identify training needs of an Organization?
(or)
b) Describe the essentials of a good transfer policy.
4. a) What is post appraisal interview? Describe its uses.
(or)
b) Discuss the process of evaluating employee performance.
5. a) In what way it is useful to the management of human resources.
(or)
b) What are the advantages of human resource information system?
Current ratio = 2.5 :1
(i) Acid test ratio = 1.5 :1
(ii) Fixed Assets to Proprietors funds = 0.75 : 2
(iii)Working capital = Rs.90,000
(iv) Reserves and Surplus = Rs.60,000
(v) Bank Overdraft = Rs.15,000
10. From the following information, prepare a statement showing the
average working capital requirement:
i) Output per annum = 39,000 units
ii) 25% of the output is sold against cash.
iii)
Analysis of cost of each unit Rs.
Raw materials 5
Direct Labour 4
Overheads 3
Total Cost 12
Profit 3
Selling price 15
iv) Raw Materials are in stock on average for four weeks and
finished products for three weeks.
v) Factory processing will take on average two weeks.
vi) Credit allowed to debtors – 4 weeks
vii) Credit allowed by suppliers – 3 weeks
viii) Lag in payment of Labour –2 weeks
ix) Lag in payment of Overheads – 4 weeks
x) Cash on Hand in expected to be Rs.10,000
Assume that production is carried on evenly throughout the
year. Wages and Overhead accrue similarly.
Question Code : B90102 Sub Code: MP16CO12
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ADVANCED FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Commerce) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) Explain the “Wealth Maximisation” Objective of Financial
Management.
(or)
b) (i) Mr.X deposits Rs.5,000 at the beginning of each year for 5 years in
a Bank and the deposit earns a compound interest @ 8% p.a. Determine
how much money he will have at the end of 5 years?
(ii) Mr. X has to receive Rs.2,000 per year for 5 years. Calculate the
present value of the annuity assuming that he can earn interest on his
investment at 10% p.a.
2. a) What is Capital Budgeting? Explain its Singnificance.
(or)
b) A Company issues 10,000 10% Preference Shares of Rs. 100 each.
Cost of Issue is Rs. 2 per share. Calculate cost of preference capital if
these shares are issued (a) at par, (b) at a premium of 10%, and (c) at a
discount of 5%.
3. a) What is Leverage? Briefly explain the types of Leverages.
(or)
b) (i) A company expects a net operating income of Rs.1,00,000. It has
Rs.5,00,000, 6% Debentures. The overall capitalization rate is 10%.
Calculate the value of the firm and the equity capitalization rate(cost of
Equity) according to the Net Operating Income Approach.
(ii) If the debenture debt is increased to Rs.7,50,000. What will be the
effect on the value of the firm and the equity capitalization rate?
4. a) What are the advantages of Ratio Analysis?
(or)
b) The following figures relate to a company for the year ending
1979.
Rs. Rs.
Sales 5,20,000 Selling & Distribution
Expenses:
Purchases 3,22,500 Salaries 15,300
Opening Stock 76,000 Advertising 4,7000
Closing Stock 98,500 Travelling 2,000
Sales returns 20,000 Administrative Expenses:
Non–Operating Incomes: Salaries 27,000
Dividends 9,000 Stationary &
Postage
2,500
Profit on sale of
shares
3,000 Rent 2,700
Non–Operating Expenses
:
Depreciation 9,300
Loss on sale of
assets
4,000 Other Charges 16,500
Provision for tax 40,000
You are required to :
(i) Arrange the above figures in a form suitable for analysis
(ii) Calculate the following ratios
a) Gross Profit ratio b) Operating ratio
c) Operating profit and d) Net Profit ratio
5. a) What are the sources of working capital.
(or)
b) What are the advantages of Holding Inventory.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Finance Function is concerned with allocating funds to specific assets
and obtaining the best mix of financing in relation to the overall
valuation of the firm. Discuss.
7. A company is considering an investment proposal to purchase a machine
costing Rs.2,50,000. The machine has a life expectancy of 5 years and
no salvage value. The company‟s tax rate is 40%. The firm uses straight
line method for providing depreciation. The estimate cash flows before
tax after depreciation (CFBT) from the machine are as follows:
Year CFBT (Rs.)
1 60,000
2 70,000
3 90,000
4 1,00,000
5 1,50,000
Calculate : (a) Pay–back period (b) Average Rate of Return
(c) Net Present Value and Profitabilty Index at 10% discount rate. You
may use the following table:
Year 1 2 3 4 5
P.V. Factor at 10% 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621
8. From the given information you are required to calculate
(i) Degree of Operating Leverage
(ii) Degree of Financial Leverge
(iii) Degree of Combined Leverage
Particulars x y z
Output (in units) 30,00,000 7,50,000 50,00,000
Fixed cost Rs. 35,00,000 70,00,000 7,50,000
Variable Cost Per Unit (Rs.) 1.00 7.50 0.10
Interest Expenses(Rs.) 2,50,000 4,00,000 -
Selling Price Per Unit (Rs.) 3 25 0.50
9. From the following particulars, prepare a statement showing the
proprietors fund as at 31st December 1999 with as many details as
possible.
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2. Qhdj;jhy; ,uhkgpuhd; mikj;jj; jpUf;Nfhapy;---------------
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M) uh[huhkd; M) gpUfjP];tud;
,) Kj;jpUsg;gd; <) rj;jpa%Hj;jp
7. Gypg;gwo; vd;gJ ---------------------
m) kuGj;njhlH M) milnkhopj;njhlH
,) td;njhlH <) ,ilj;njhlH
8. vOthNa nraiyr; nra;tjhff; $WtJ---------------------
m) njhlH thf;fpak; M) jd;tpid thf;fpak;
,) gpwtpid thf;fpak; <) nra;tpid thf;fpak;
9. rptngUkhdpd; rpwg;gpid vLj;Jiuf;Fk; rkak; -----------------
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10. ,];yhk; rkaj;ijj; Njhw;Wtpj;jtH ----------------------------
m) ckWg;GytH M) egpfs; ehafk;
,) Nrfdhg; GytH <) rt;thJg; GytH
gFjp - M
midj;J tpdhf;fSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;f mstpy; tpil jUf.
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nra;jpiaj; njhFj;Jiuf;f.
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vLj;Jiuf;f.
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(my;yJ)
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njhz;Lfs; ahit?
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Ntz;LfpwhH?
17. ,NaRtpd; kiyg; nghoptpidf; fl;Liuf;f.
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Question Code : B11103 Sub Code: U16ELC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BRITISH LITERATURE II (FROM DRYDEN TO GRAY)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL question s, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In the literature of the Johnsonian era ------------- who stands nearest to
Johnson himself.
a) John Dryden b) Oliver Goldsmith
c) John Milton c) James Thomson
2. The author of the Comedy „The Rivals‟ is -------------.
a) Richard Brinsley Sheridan b) David Hume
c) Edward Gibbon d) William Godwin
3. --------------- is a friend of Sir Roger de Coverly.
a) Will wimble b) The Temptar
c) Steele d) Clergyman
4. Sir Andrew Freeport is a -------------- of great eminence in the city of
London.
a) lawyer b) merchant c) member d) priest
5. The Herds provide the speaker with ------------ in the poem “Ode on
Solitude”
a) milk b) water c) honey d) sweets
6. ------------- is the father of music in Jewish Literature in St. Cecilia‟s Day
a) Eliphaz b) Jubel c) Jeremiah d) Ezekiel
7. -------------- is a brother of Joseph Surface.
a) Charles Surface b) Sir Peter Teazle
c) Sir Oliver Surface d) Rowley
8. ------------- is the President of the Scandalous College.
a) Mrs. Candour b) Mr. Crabtree
c) Lady Sneerwell d) Sir Benjamin Backbite
9. The first voyage of Gulliver is to --------------.
a) Lilliput b) Laputa c) Brobdingnag d) Houyhnhnms
10. Who are the only immoral and malicious people in Brobdingnag?
a) Greedy Farmers b) Members of the royal court
c) The deformed and children d) Women and elderly
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11.a) Bring out the elements of drama in the Restoration period.
(or)
b) Discuss the salient features of poetry in the Age of Johnson.
12. a) Who were the members of the Spectator Club.
(or)
b) Sketch the character of Sir Roger.
13. a) Write a critical appreciation of the poem “Song for St. Cecilia‟s Day”.
(or)
b) What is Gray‟s attitude toward the people buried in the cemetery?
14. a) Write a note on the character of Charles Surface.
(or)
b) Examine the plot construction in “The School for Scandal”.
15. a) How Gulliver passed his time in the country of Lilliputs?
(or)
b) How is Gulliver‟s experience at court in Brobdingnag in Gulliver‟s
Travels Part II?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Attempt an essay on the development of drama in the Age of Johnson.
17. Sketch the character of Will Wimble.
18. Write a critical appreciation of the poem “Elegy Written in a Country
Churchyard”.
19. Explain the art of characterization in “The School for Scandal”.
20. How does Gulliver escape from the Lilliputans?
Question Code : B11104 Sub Code: U16ELC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BRITISH LITERATURE III (THE AGE OF WORDSWORTH)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. “If winter comes, can spring be far behind” is the concluding line of the
poem.
a) Ode to a Nightingale b) Ode on a Grecian Urn
c) Solitary Reaper d) Ode to the West wind
2. “Confessions of an English opium Eater” was written by
a) William Hazlitt b) Charles Lamb
c) Peacock d) Thomas De Quincey
3. Pick out the novel written by Jane Austen
a) Pride and Prejudice b) Kenilworth
c) Oliver Twist d) Great Expectations
4. Who is called “Critic‟s Critic”?
a) Wordsworth b) Shelley c) Hazlitt d) Coleridge
5. Lyre is _________
a) a song b) a prayer
c) the name of a person d) a musical instrument
6. Whom did Alice marry in “Dream Children: A Reverie”?
a) Charles Lamb b) John Lamb
c) Bartum d) Barron Field
7. “Behold her single in the field, Yon solitary Highland Lass” is the
opening line of
a) Daffodils b) Lucy Gray
c) Solitary Reaper d) Christobel
8. How many brothers does the Prisoner of Chillon have?
a) two b) three c) five d) six
9. Who is called “the father of historical novel?
a) William Hazlitt b) Sir Walter Scott
c) Dickens d) Jonathan Swift
10. “La Belle dame sans Merci” is a _________
a) Satire b) Ballad c) Drama d) One act play
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the characteristics of Wordsworth‟s poetry.
(or)
b) Discuss the growth of the novel during the Age of Wordsworth.
12. a) How does Lamb portray Mrs Field in his essay “ Dream Children:
A Reverie”
(or)
b) What are Wordsworth‟s view regarding prose and the language of
poetry?
13. a) Describe the effect of the west wind on the land.
(or)
b) Discuss the central theme of Blake‟s “The Tyger”.
14. a) What great qualities do you find in Jane Austen‟s novels?
(or)
b) Estimate Hazlitt as an eminent prose writer.
15. a) Discuss the central theme of “The Prisoner of Chillon”.
(or)
b) “I fall upon the thorns of life, I bleed”. Why does Shelley grieve in his
poem “Ode to the west wind”?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Write a critical appreciation of Wordsworth‟s poem “The Solitary
Reaper”.
17. The west wind is a symbol of force and energy – Justify.
18. Bring out the auto biographical elements in Lamb‟s essays prescribed for
your study.
19. Estimate Wordsworth as an eminent critic based on his theory of poetry.
20. Examine Sir Walter Scott‟s interests in historical narratives with
reference to “Kenilworth”.
Question Code : B11202 Sub Code: U16ELA21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
CLASSICS IN TRANSLATION
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ____________ has a close relationship with the gods.
a) Achilles b) Agamemnon c) Thetis d) Chryses
2. Who sends a plague upon the Greek camp causing the death of many
soldier?
a) Venus b) Aros c) Apollo d) Odysseus
3. Kovalan was beheaded for stealing the queen‟s ____________.
a) Pearl anklet b) Gold ring
c) Diamond ear ring d) Pearl Bangle
4. Vanchikkandam have ____________ cantos.
a) Three b) Ten c) Five d) Seven
5. ________________ is the first literary asset left to posterity by the saga.
a) Cilapathigaram b) Shaguntalam
c) Arabian nights d) Tirukkural
6. ____________loses his divine right to rule Israel, by committing two
religious errors.
a) David b) Soloman c) Saul d) Jacob
7. Esther becomes queen of _________________.
a) Persia b) Arabia c) England d) London
8. The lady buys fresh and _________________.
a) fist b) dried fruits and wax candles
c) vegetables d) meat
9. The play Shakuntala has _________________ Acts.
a) Six b) Five c) Four d) Seven
10. Shakuntala‟s son name is _________________.
a) Dhushyanta b) Bharata c) Kanva d) Dhuriyothana
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a short note on Agamemnon.
(or)
b) What is the role of women in The Iliad?
12. a) Why did Kannaki destroy the entire kingdom?
(or)
b) How does the education chapter from Tirukural helps to improve our
learning?
13. a) Write about the problem of Evil?
(or)
b) Explain : How does the first eleven chapters structuring the world?
14. a) Why did Hunch back swallow the fish bone?
(or)
b) Why did Werdan follow the lady and what he find out?
15. a) Explain the first meeting between the King and Shakuntala.
(or)
b) Why did not the kind Dushyanta recognize shakuntala?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What role does fate play in the emotional and psychological effect of the
Iliad?
17. What are the images used in biblical poetry to depict God, humans and
the conflict between good and Evil?
18. Describe the incidents that take place during the marriage of Kovalan &
Kannaki.
19. What are the adventures of the Butcher with the lady and the bear?
20. How does Shakuntala join her husband with the help of the ring?
Question Code : B23103 Sub Code: U16ZOC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Number of Ootids produced during Oogenesis is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. During Spermatogenesis ---------------develop into acrosome
a) Mitochondria b) Golgi bodies
c) Ribosome d) Lysosome
3. In honey bees----------develops parthegenetically
a) Drone b) Queen c) Worker d) All the above
4. Superficial cleavage is seen in
a) Fishes b) Replies c) Birds d) Insects
5. Extra embryonic membrane which is not related with respiration is
a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Yolksac d) Allantois
6. Syndesmochorial placenta is seen in
a) Pig b) Sheep c) Dog d) Rabbit
7. Chordomesoderm acts as organiser in ----------- of amphibians
a) Fertilized egg b) Blastula
c) Early gastrula d) Late gastrula
8. In which type of regeneration whole body can be regenerated
a) Epimorphis b) Morphallaxis
c) Hetramorphosis d) Super regeneration
9. In menstrual cycle proliferative phase occurs during
a) 6- 14th
day b) 15-28th
day c) 1st -5
th d) None
10. First test tube baby was produced in the year
a) 1958 b) 1968 c) 1978 d) 1988
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a brief account on preformation theory.
(or)
b) Describe the structure of mammalian sperm with sketch.
12. a) Comment on the planes of cleavage. Add examples.
(or)
b) Describe the patterns of Cleavage.
13. a) Discuss allantoids and yolk sac with their significance.
(or)
b) How placenta are classified on the basis of types of tissues involved?
14. a) Write down the physiological changes that occur during amphian
metamorphosis.
(or)
b) Write a brief account on the organizer concept.
15. a) Write short notes on parturition and lactation.
(or)
b) Illustrate the necessity for birth control.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the process of Oogenesis.
17. Elucidate the mechanism of gastrulaion of frog.
18. Illustrate the development of heart in frog.
19. Narrate the morphological changes that occur in amphibian
metamorphosis.
20. Explain the different contraceptive devices.
Question Code : B23104 Sub Code: U16ZOC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
CELL BIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Cell wall is
a) Permeable b) semi-permeable
c) differentially permeable d) impermeable
2. Mitochondria were first observed by
a) Robert Brown b) Altmann c) Robert Hooker d) T. Svedberg
3. Golgi apparatus is absent in
a) Liver cells b) Higher plants
c) Blue green algae d) yeast
4. Lysosomes are known as “suicidal bag” because of
a) Catalytic activity b) hydrolytic activity
c) parasitic activity d) saprophytic activity
5. Major function of Golgi body is
a) secretion b) regulation of cell temperature
c) active transport d) transportation
6. Autonomic genome system is present in
a) Mitochondria and Ribosomes b) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
c) Ribosomes and Chloroplast d) Golgi body and Mitochondria
7. Chromosomes are made up of
a) DNA and RNA b) DNA
c) RNA d) DNA and proteins
8. Lampbrush chromosomes are seen in which typical stage?
a) Mitosis b) Prophase
c) Mitotic metaphase d) meiotic prophase
9. Spindle fibres are made up of
a) Lipids b) cellulose c) pectin d) proteins
10. Chromosomal ends are known as
a) metamere b) centromere
c) telomere d) satellite
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the principle of centrifugation.
(or)
b) Explain the structure of plasma membrane.
12. a) Write an account of functions of Endoplasmic reticulum.
(or)
b) Describe the structure and functions of Ribosome.
13. a) Explain the Giant chromosome.
(or)
b) Give an account of functions of Nucleolus.
14. a) Briefly explain the Meiosis.
(or)
b) Write notes on Mitosis.
15. a) Comment on Oncogenes.
(or)
b) Describe about the types of Stem cells.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the types of fixation and fixatives.
17. Explain the structure and functions of Mitochondria.
18. Describe the structure and functions of Chromosome.
19. Write an essay on Cell cycle.
20. Describe the causes, diagnosis and treatment of Cancer diseases.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. How will you construct a home aquarium?
5. Write an essay on fish food and feeding.
6. Discuss the transport of ornamental fishes.
7. Write an essay on the diseases caused by ectoparasites.
8. Explain the causative agent, symptoms and preventive measures of
fungal and bacterial diseases in ornamental fishes.
Question Code: B23402 Sub Code: U16ZOS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT – ORNAMENTAL FISH CULTURE
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Describe the systematic position and general characters of Gold fish.
(or)
b) Write the biology of Angel fish.
2. a) Discuss the role of ingredients for fish feed formulation.
(or)
b) Define tubifex. Explain the procedure for the culture of tubifex.
3. a) Give an account on the white spot disease in ornamental fishes.
(or)
b) Write a note on dropsy disease.
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Question Code : B30103 Sub Code: U16COC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MS OFFICE
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The first general purpose computer was __________
a) ENIAC b) EDVAC
c) UNIVAC d) None of the above
2. A _________ computer is a computer with a microprocessor as its CPU
a) Mini b) Micro c) IBM d) All of the above
3. If you need an operating system that provides data redundancy, you
should select a _________ operating system.
a) Network b) Linux c) Embedded d) Windows
4. A program that runs in parts on several computer is said to be ________
a) Delegated b) Spread c) Distributed d) Recursive
5. The key F12 opens a ________
a) Save as dialog box b) Open dialog box
c) Save dialog box d) Close dialog box
6. Which option is not available in Insert table Auto fit behaviour ______
a) Fixed column width b) Auto fit to contents
c) Auto fit to window d) Auto fit to column
7. MS – Excel is based on __________
a) WINDOWS b) DOS c) UNIX d) OS /2
8. In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed column or row
__________
a) $ b) % c) * d) &
9. Animation schemes can be applied to ________ in the presentation.
a) All slides b) Select sides
c) current slides d) All of the above
10. To open the existing presentation, press ___________
a) ctrl + I b) ctrl + n c) ctrl + a d) ctrl + o
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the characteristics of a computer.
(or)
b) Explain the various Input devices of a computer.
12. a) Briefly discuss the history of operating system?
(or)
b) How to i) open ii) close iii) delete iv) change the
size of the window?
13. a) Describe the features of Microsoft word 2007?
(or)
b) Describe how to check the spelling and grammar errors in a word
document?
14. a) How to edit a cell in MS Excel? Discuss.
(or)
b) Discuss chart creation in detail. What operations you can perform on
it in MS – Excel?
15. a) Discuss the print option provided in the slides of the presentation
window.
(or)
b) How to create a slide show? Discuss.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Briefly discuss the generations of a computer.
17. Explain the basic concepts of window operating system.
18. Explain how to edit a document in a word?
19. Write a procedure to create MS – Excel functions.
20. Discuss how to
a. Add background
b. Add and Modify animations
c. Add transitions
d. Add sound
Question Code : B30104 / B31104 Sub Code: U16COC22/ U16CAC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING - II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com(CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Statement of affairs is a ________
a) Statement of Income and Expenditure
b) Statement of assets and liability
c) Summary of cash transactions d) None of the above
2. Single entry system is converted into double entry system by _______
a) Profit and loss method b) Statement of affairs method
c) Conversion method d) All of these
3. Income and Expenditure account shows the balance of _________
a) Net profit or loss b) Cash and bank
c) Capital account
d) Excess of revenue over expenditure or vice versa
4. The person to whom the payment is to be mode is called __________
a) Drawer b) Drawee c) Payee d) Debtor
5. A bill is -------
a) A negotiable instrument b) Not Negotiable
c) Not Transferable d) Equivalent to cheque
6. Income and expenditure account is prepared by _________
a) non trading concerns b) business concerns
c) both business and trading concerns d) all the above
1
7. Average due date is also called as
a) negative due b) evaluated date
c) accurate date d) none of these
8. An average Due Date is _________ date on which a single payment
may be made in lieu of several payments due on different dates.
a) a base b) a closing c) a middile d) an equated
9. Sold ledger account is opened in _______
a) Creditors ledger b) Debtors ledger
c) General ledger d) Both
10. Reserve for doubtful debts account is opened in __________
a) Creditors ledger b) Debtors ledger
c) General ledger d) None of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Mr. Ram informs you that he had started a business on 1.1.2004
with a capital of Rs.20,500 and on 31.12.2004 his capital was
Rs.32,800. Further, he informs you that he gave his son Rs.2,000
and he withdraws Rs.500 every month for personal purpose. He had
a Scooter, which had been sold for Rs.5,000 and invested the same
into the business. Further, there is no other information. Calculate
the amount of Profit made by him during the year 2004.
(or)
b) During the year 2004, the following transactions took place and
you are required to find out the amount of credit purchase made
during the year.
Balance of creditors on Jan 2004 16,000
Cash paid to creditors during the year 30,000
Bills payable accepted during the year 8,000
Purchase returns 1,000
Balance od creditors on Dec 2004 17,000
Figures for the year ended 30th
Sept 2004 cash received from customers
Rs.1,60,400.
Rs. Rs.
Discount allowed 4,500 Credit sales 1,85,000
Bad debts 6,000 Purchase Return 1,400
Payment to creditors 95,000 Sales return 2,600
Discount allowed by
Them 2,700 B/R received 7,500
Payments to customers 125 B/R granted 5,000
Credit purchases 1,10,000 Transfer from debtors ledger
to creditors to settle the
accounts 4,000
19. On 1st February, Ram received from Hari three acceptance for Rs. 6,000
Rs.8,000 and Rs.10,000 for two months.
The first bill for Rs.6,000 was endorsed to Mohan; the second
Bill for Rs.8,000 was held till due date and the third Bill for Rs.10,000
was discounted for Rs.50.
At maturity all the bills were dishonoured. Give journal entries in
the books of Ram and the ledger accounts in the books of Hari, in respect
of these transactions.
20. Mr. Mohan opened a current account with the Indian Bank on 1st January
2005 and deposited Rs.7,000. His deposits during the period were:
Jan 25 Rs.1,500; April Rs.2,500;
May 26 Rs.800; June, 20 Rs. 2,000
His wirthdrawals were:
Jan 20, Rs.4,000
Feb 10, Rs.3,000
March 5, Rs.2,000
May 20, Rs.1,800
June 8, Rs. 2,750
Calculate interest @10% p.a, on the customer‟s debit balances
and 6 % p.a. on credit balances and close the account on 30th
June 2005.
2
7
17. Mr. Premlal who is a doctor commenced practise on 1st January 2004
with a cash of Rs. 1,00,000. At the end of the year the following
details of his receipts and payments are available:
Rs. Rs.
To Cash introduced 1,00,000 By Furniture 10,000
To fees received 50,000 By Equipments 25,000
To Receipts from
dispensing 1,20,000 By Drugs 24,000
To Miscellaneous
Receipts 1,000 By Assistants salary 10,000
By Rent 12,000
By Stationery 500
By Electricity 1,000
By Journals 900
By Drawings 36,000
By Cash at Bank 1,50,000
By Cash in Hand 1,600
Other information:
1. Fees Rs.500 are still to be received
2. Salary to assistant unpaid Rs.750
3. Creditors for drugs purchased Rs.10,000
4. Stock of drugs still in hand Rs.10,000.
5. Depreciate furniture and equipment by 10% p.a.
Prepare Receipts and Payments accounts and Balance sheet
as on 31st December 2004.
18. In the absence of self – Balancing system, you are asked to compile
Total debtors and Total creditors accounts from the following
information:
Dr. Cr
Balances (1.10. 2003) Rs. Rs.
Debtors Ledger 35,700 500
Creditors Ledger 300 27,800
12. a) During the year 2004, the expenses actually paid were Rs.3,250. Find
out the actual expenses chargeable to income and expenditure account
for the year ended 2004, if prepaid and outstanding are as follows:
Prepaid expenses on 31.12.2003 300
Prepaid expenses on 31.12.2004 400
Outstanding expenses on 31.12.2003 450
Outstanding expenses on 31.12.2004 500
(or)
b) Calculate the amount of stationery to be debited to income and
expenditure account during 2004.
1. Amount paid for stationery during the year 2004, as per
Receipts and Payments amount Rs.1,750.
2. Stock of stationery on 1.1.2004 Rs.150
3. Paid advance for stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.200.
4. Paid advance for stationery during Dec. 2003 Rs.250 but
received during the year 2004.
5. Creditors for stationery on 1.1.2004 Rs.370
6. Stock of stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.415.
7. Creditors for stationery on 31.12.2004 Rs.300.
13. a) Below are given particulars from the books of a trader for the month
of January.
Rs. Rs.
Jan 1, Opening balance 30,000 Bills dishonoured 1,500
Jan 31, Total sales 90,000 Discount allowed on Drs 400
Sales return 500 Bad debts 350
Cash from debtors 40,000 Transfer from other ledger 750
B/ R 15,000
He wants to maintain his book on self – balancing system. You
are asked to journal the above transactions and raise relevant adjustment
accounts at the back of sales ledger and general ledger.
(or)
3 6
b) Write out the journal entries to correct the following errors when
self – balancing system is in use.
1. Sales book under cast by Rs.1,500.
2. Purchase made from Mr. A Rs.500 was posted Mr.B account
Rs.50.
3. Goods of the value of Rs.1,000 returned by Raju were entered in
sales Day book and posted their form to the credit of his account.
4. Robert company limited returned goods worth Rs.5,000. This
transaction was entered in the sales day book and posted to the
Robert company limited.
14. a) A accepted a four months draft for Rs.1,000 and drawn on him by
B on 15th
April. The bill was discounted with the bankers on the
next day at 12%. On maturity the bill was met. Make journal entries
in the books of A and B.
(or)
b) On 1st January, A sold goods to B for Rs.1,000 and drew upon
him a bill at three months for the amount B accepted the bill and
returned it to A. On 4th
March, B returned bill under rebate of 12%
p.a. Record these transactions in the journal of A and B.
15. a) On 1st January 2005, Mr. Arun owed Rs.3,000 to babu on
account. During the six months ended 30th
June 2005, the following
transactions took place:
Rs.
Jan, 1 Goods sold to Arun 4,000
Feb, 1 Amount received from Arun 3,000
March, 1 Goods sold to Arun 5,000
April, 1 Arun sold goods to babu 3,500
May, 1 Goods sold to Arun 2,500
June, 1 Cash received from Arun 4,000
July 1, Cash received from Arun 1,000
Prepare Account Current to be rendered to Arun on 30th
June 2005,
interest to be calculated at 12% p.a (in months)
(or)
b) Mr. B had the following transactions with A during the year 2005.
Rs.
July, 1 Balance due from A 600
July 15, Sold goods to A 1,900
Aug, 10 Received cash from A 1,100
Aug, 19 Purchased goods from A 700
Sept, 3 Returned goods from A 300
Sept, 16 Received cash from A 500
Prepare account current with Mr.B.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Mr. Gopal started a business with Rs.30,800 on 1.1.2004. The drawings
during the year amounted to Rs.16,400 and further capital of Rs.9,600
was introduced on 1st July 2004. Prepare statement to show profit or loss
made during the year from the following particulars, as on 31st
December 2004. Rs.
Creditors 34,800
Debtors 24,600
Furniture 4,800
Machinery 6,600
Cash 1, 800
Investments 23,600
Bills payable 10,800
Stock 22,200
Bank overdraft 7,600
Write of Rs.1,200 towards bad debts and a further of 5% is to be
made towards doubtful debts. Depreciate furniture by 5% and Machinery
by 10%. Out standing salaries Rs.480 and prepaid rent Rs.320.
5
4
Question Code : B30202 Sub Code: U16ECA21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT OF INDIA
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which one of the following is used to measure the economic
development?
(a) Per capita Income (b) Physical quality of life income
(c) Real Income (d) None
2. Various circle of Poverty is presented by _________
(a) Adam Smith (b) Nurkse (c) Marshall (d) None
3. IADP Means
(a) Integrated agricultural District Programmes
(b) Intensive agricultural District Programmes
(c) Implemented agricultural District Programmes
(d) None
4. Which one of the following is the instrument of price policy
(a) Fiscal Policy (b) Support Price
(c) Monetary Policy (d) None
5. One of the core area of new industrial policy 1991 is
(a) Decrease the Investment (b) Liberalize the license policy
(c) Reduce the private sector investment (d) None
6. The MNCs use their __________ in maximizing their profits.
(a) Political Power (b) Economic Power
(c) Oligopolistic Power (d) None
7. Which one of the following is the cause of poverty?
(a) Lock of Education (b) Poor Development
(c) Lock of Industry (d) None
8. _________is caused by the trade cycle at regular intervals.
(a) Technological unemployment (b) Frictional unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment (d) None
9. The planning commission of India was setup in _______________
(a) April 1950 (b) March 1950 (c) May 1950 (d) None
10. The second five year plan was based on _____________
(a) Harrod – Domar Model (b) Economic Model
(c) Mahalarobis Model (d) None
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. (a) Explain the determinants of economic growth.
(or)
(b) List out the importance of Capital formation.
12. (a) What are the causes of low agricultural productivity?
(or)
(b) Explain the concept of food Security system.
13. (a) Point out the evils of MNCs.
(or)
(b) Explain various problems faced by the small scale Industries in India.
14. (a) Explain the poverty line.
(or)
(b) State the causes of population growth in India.
15. (a) Enumerate the salient features of XII Five Year Plan.
(or)
(b) List out the achievements of planning in India.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Analyse the characteristics of a developing Economy.
17. What measures can be taken to improve agricultural productivity in
India?
18. Give arguments in favor of development of small and cottage industries
in India?
19. Examine the types of unemployment.
20. Evaluate the role of NITI AYOG in Indian Economic Development.
Question Code : B31103 Sub Code: U16CAC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INTRODUCTION TO C PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com(CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. C program can be viewed as a group of building blocks called as
__________
a) Functions b) Data c) Program d) Instructions
2. Single character reading can be done by using the function________
a) Scanf b) Printf c) Getchar d) Putchar
3. The terminology used for finding the field width is ____________
a) % wf b) %s c) %d d) %wd
4. The header file used for the character handling in library function is
__________
a) <math.h> b) <stdio.h> c) <conio.h> d) <ctype.h>
5. A control structure is classified as __________
a) Exit and entry controlled loop b) Control and process
c) For and while d) Setting and initializing
6. Which of the statement transfers the control out of switch statement?
a) Default b) Break c) Switch d) Goto
7. An array elements are always stored in ________ memory locations.
a) Sequential b) Random
c) Sequential and random d) Systematic
8. The default range of subscript is _____________
a) 0 to size -1 b) 1 to n
c) N to n d) N to n-1
9. A Structure that handles a group of ____________
a) Relational items b) Logical items
c) Hierarchical items d) Logical related data items
10. Point out the error in the program.
struct emp {
int ecode;
struct emp*e;}
a) Error in structure declaration b) Linked error
c) No error d) Error in structure name
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain about the C character set.
(or)
b) Write short note on the following:
i) keywords ii) identifiers iii) constants
12. a) Discuss the various types of operators in C?
(or)
b) Discuss the various types of expressions in C.
13. a) Explain while and do – while statements with an example program.
(or)
b) Explain the various types of if statement available in C.
14. a) Discuss about 1 – D and 2 – D array with an example program.
(or)
b) Write a program in C to sort an array of numbers.
15. a) Define user defined function. How the functions are declared and
defined in C?
(or)
b) Write a C program to find the factorial of a given number using
function.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the various data types available in C.
17. Discuss formatted input and output operations with examples.
18. Explain simple and nested for loops.
19. Write short note on the following string functions:
i) strlen ( ) ii) strcat ( ) iii) strcmp ( ) iv) strcpy ( )
20. Explain Structure in C with an example program.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Illustrate the effect of substrate structure on aliphatic nucleophilic
substitution.
17. Write a brief note on the following:
(a) Hydroxylation b) Alhol condensation
18. Discuss the following:
a) Molecular vibrations b) Me lafferty rearrangement
19. a) Elucidate a brief study of starch.
b) Write a note on denaturation of proteins.
20. Give an account for the following:
a) Conformation of mono substituted cyclohexanes.
b) Stereo electronic factors.
Question Code : B62104 Sub Code: P16CHC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY – II
NATURAL PRODUCTS, CONFORMATIONAL ANALYSIS, AND
REACTION MECHANISM – II
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The neutral substrates the rate of SN` reaction ________.
a) Decrease with solvent polarity b) Increase with solvent polarity
c) Does not change with solvent polarity
d) Increase gradually with the polarity of solvent
2. The pour leaving groups in elimination reaction favours ________.
a) Both E1 and E2 b) E1 c) E2 d) E1CB
3. Hydroxylation of double bonds are carried with _______.
a) Pb OAC 4 b) HIO4 c) OSO4 d) NaBH4
4. Ketones reacts with formal dehyde and ammonia to give - amino
ketones _________ reaction.
a) Perkin b) Michael c) Mannich d) Wittig
5. The region of an IR spectrum for C = C stretching frequency is _______
cm–1
.
a) 1250 – 1050 b) 1800 – 2700
c) 1680 – 1600 d) 1780 – 1650
6. Aromatic hydrocarbons fragment at the bond________ to the ring.
a) b) c) d)
7. Lactose on hydrolysis with dil Hcl gives _________.
a) Glucose & Fructose b) Glucose & Mannose
c) Fructose and Mannose d) Glucose and Galactose
8. The Sesquiterepene is ________.
a) - pinene b) Limonene
c) Zingiberene d) Squalene
9. The size conformers of butane are __________.
a) Four staggered and two eclipsed b) All size staggered
c) Two staggered and four eclipsed
d) Three staggered and three eclipsed
10. The boat conformation of cyclohexane the most destabilizing
interaction is _________.
a) Flagpole – Flagpole b) Eclipsing
c) 1, 3 – diaxial d) 1, 3 – diexuitorial
Part B
Answer ALL questions. (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain SN1 mechanism with example.
(or)
b) Discuss the orientation of double bond with example.
12. a) What is Perkin reaction? Explain the mechanism and synthetic use of
the reaction.
(or)
b) Write short notes on the following:
i) Addition of hypohalous acids on olefines.
ii) Darzen‟s reaction.
13. a) Calculate the UV absorption maximum for the following compounds.
a) b) c)
H2N COOH
(or)
b) Discuss the following:
i) meta stable peak ii) fragmentations of amines.
14. a) How will you determine the methods, used for in determination of size
in sugars?
(or)
b) Elucidate the structure of Zingiberene.
15. a) Describe the conformations of 1, 2 – dichloro ethane.
(or)
b) Derive Eliel – Ro – equation.
O
18. Discuss briefly the structure and function of vitaminB12.
19. Describe briefly any five typical reactions in liquid SO2 as a non-
aqueous solvent.
20. (a) What are high temperature superconductors? Explain in details with
suitable example.
(b) What is meant by Hall effect? Explain its importance.
Question Code : B62105 SubCode : P16CHC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY – II
(BIOINORGANIC AND SOLID STATE CHMISTRY II)
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Any non-linear molecular system possessing degenerate electronic state
will be unstable and will undergo distortion to form a system of lower
symmetry and energy and thus will remove degeneracy. It is known as
a) Werner theory b) John-teller theorem
c) CFSE d) VB theory
2. [FeF6]3-
is
a) paramagnetic and high-spin complex
b) paramagnetic and low-spin complex
c) diamagnetic and high-spin complex
d) diamagnetic and low-spin complex
3. The number of pyrrole nuclei present in porphyrin is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4
4. Ferredoxins and rubredoxins are
a) non-heme iron-sulphur proteins b) heme iron-sulphur proteins
c) blue copper proteins d) Carboxypeptidase A
5. In Na+/K
+ pump
a) Na+
goes out and K+ brings in
b) Na
+ brings in and K
+ goes out
c) Both go out d) Both bring in
6. Which of the following is used for cancer therapy?
a) trans-platin b) cis-platin c) sanocrysin d) [Cu-EDTA]2+
7. Which of the following is a Lux-Flood acid?
a) SiO2 b) CaO c) BaO d) Na2O
8. The order of increasing acid-strength is
a) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF b) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < HF
c) HF < H2O< CH4 < NH3 d) CH4 < HF < H2O < NH3
9. The crystal defect which arises due to the shifting of an ion from its
normal position to an interstitial in the crystal lattice is known as
a) Schottky defect b) Hall effect
c) Metal deficiency defect d) Frenkel defect
10. An example for insulator is
a) GaAs b) Cu c) diamond d) CdS
Part B
Answer ALL questions. (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. (a) What is meant by CFSE? Discuss its applications.
(or)
(b) Write a note on spin orbit coupling.
12. (a) What are metalloporphyrins? Explain with suitable example.
(or)
(b) Write short notes on iron-sulphur proteins.
13. (a) Discuss the structure and function of carbonic anhydrase.
(or)
(b) Name any four essential transition elements and explain their role in
biological systems.
14. (a) Explain briefly the Lewis concept of acids and bases? Mention its
limitation.
(or)
(b) Describe the following reactions in liquid ammonia as non-aqueous
solvent:
(i) Solvolysis reactions (ii) precipitation reactions
(iii) Acid-Base neutralization reactions
15. (a) What are crystal defects? Explain the stoichiometric defects in
details.
(or)
(b) What are semiconductors? How are they classified? Explain them.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. (a) Discuss briefly Werner‟s theory of coordination.
(b) Applying VB theory, explain why [NiCl4]2-
is paramagnetic and
[Ni(CN)4]2-
is diamagnetic.
17. What are blue copper proteins? How are they classified? Discuss the
structure of azurin and plastocyanin.
Question Code : B62106 Sub Code: P16CHC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY – II
(QUANTUM, CATALYSIS AND MOLECULAR SPECTROSCOPY)
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The energy expression for the energy of rigid rotator (E) is_________
a) Ihll 21 b) Ihll 22 81
c) Ihll 22/1 d)
)1(
2
ll
Ih
2. The azimuthal quantum number of d orbitals is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
3. The determinantal form of the wave function of a many electron system
is called as __________ determinant.
a) Schrodinger b) Born – Oppenheimer
c) Slater d) None of these
4. The total molecular electronic wave function is a product of
a) elec and nuc
b) elec and elec
c) nuc and nuc
d) nuc and vib
5. Partition function increases with _________ of temperature.
a) decreases b) increases c) no change d) all the above.
6. The internal energy per mole is
a) 5/2 RT b) ½ RT c) 3/2 RT d) RT
7. The inactive forms of enzymes are called as _______
a) Proenzymes b) Coenzymes
c) Apoenzymes d) Active
8. The optimum temperature for enzymatic process is _______
a) 25 c b) 30 c c) 37 c d) 40 c
9. The rotational energy (E) of a classical rotator is
a) 2IW b) 2
2
1IW c) 2
2
3IW d)
22W
I
10. The selection rule for vibrating diatomic molecule is
a) V = 1 b) V = 0
c) V = 2 d) V = 1, 2
Part B
Answer ALL questions. (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Derive the wave function and energy for a particle in one –
dimensional box.
(or)
b) Obtain the expression for energy and wave function particle
moving in a ring.
12. a) Apply the variation theorem to the hydrogen atom.
(or)
b) Discuss the Slater rules.
13. a) Explain the Debye‟s theory of heat capacities.
(or)
b) Compare any five of the Fermi – Dirac and Bose- Einstein statistics.
14. a) Discuss the mechanism of acid – base catalysis.
(or)
b) Explain the Langmuir – Hinshelwood mechanism.
15. a) Write the information derived from rotational spectra.
(or)
b) Discuss about the diatomic vibrating rotator.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the following : i) Radial wave function
ii) Shapes of atomic orbitals.
17. Describe the time – independent perturbation theory.
18. Obtain the thermodynamic properties E, H and S using the partition
functions.
19. Discuss the types, characteristics and theory of catalysis reactions.
20. i) Derive the energy for vibrating diatomic molecule.
ii) Find out the number of normal modes of vibrations for the following
molecules. CO2, and H2O.
Question Code : B62304 Sub Code: P16CHE22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The operating intensity of an apparatus I = ________.
a) IS
VP b) PV
IS c)
PVI
S
d)
PVS
I
2. The Independence of the equilibrium constant, expressed in molar
fraction, on the pressure is given by the equation.
a) KP = KN P– N
b) KN = KP P– N
c) N = KN P–K
P d) KP = N P– K
N
3. The number of operating filters (n) = ________
a) F
fD
4
2
b) 2
4
fD
F c)
2
4
fD
F
d)
24 fDF
4. In calculations of trough – type machines, the length of the chamber
l = _________
a) IL
mS
b)
mS
IL
c)
Im
LS
d) L I S m.
5. Eutropthication is related to ____________ ion.
a) Carbonate b) Chromate c) Borate d) Phosphate
6. The chemical responsible for Bhopal tragedy is __________
a) Radium b) Uranium
c) Polonium d) Methyl isocyanide
7. Choose the standard higher fatty acid.
a) Palmitic acid b) Oleic acid
c) Linoleic acid d) Arachidonic acid
8. Bees wax contain ___________ alcohol.
a) Cetyl b) Ceryl c) Myricyl d) Prophyl
9. The thermosetting plastics is ________
a) P V C b) Bakelite
c) Polythene d) Polyvinylidene chloride
10. Contact insecticide is
a) nicotine b) lead arsenate
c) ethylene oxide d) parathion
Part B
Answer ALL questions. (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write about the new developments in chemical technology.
(or)
b) Describe in classification of technological processes.
12. a) What is Corrosion? Explain the types of corrosion. How is it
prevented?
(or)
b) Explain the following:
i) electromagnetic concentration ii) wet gravity concentration
13. a) Explain the toxic effects caused by pesticides and fertilizers.
(or)
b) Discuss the toxic effects caused by the following metals:
i) Mercury ii) Cadmium iii) Copper
14. a) Explain the theory of electroplating.
(or)
b) How is soap manufactured by batch process?
15. a) How the following are prepared? Mention their uses.
i) DDT ii) Nylon 6.
(or)
b) How is Portland cement manufactured?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. a) Give a brief account on importance of chemical industry.
b) Write notes on Indian chemical industry today.
17. a) Explain the characteristics of raw materials and their resource.
b) Write notes on power and fuels.
18. How is industrial waste water treated?
19. Describe the preparation, properties and uses of Potassium chlorate.
20. a) How are neoprene and terelene manufactured?
b) Write notes on Ceramics.
5. a) Prove: i) If A is Noetherian and S is any multiplicatively closed
subset of A, then S–1
A is Noetherian.
ii) An Artin ring has only a finite number of maximal ideals.
(or)
b) Let A be an Artin local ring. Prove that the following are equivalent.
i) every ideal in A is principal.
ii) the maximal ideal m is principal.
iii) 1/dim 2 mm
k .
Part B
Answer Any FOUR questions (4 x 10 = 40 Marks)
6. How can we select a topic for research in Mathematics?
7. Discuss about the mathematical journals and other uses.
8. Explain the concept of impact factor and citation index.
9. Prove that the tensor product of A – modules exists and unique.
10. Suppose that M has a composition series of length n. Then show that
every composition series of M has length n, and every chain in M can
be extended to a composition series.
11. State and prove Hilbert‟s basis theorem.
12. State and prove the structure theorem for Artin rings.
Question Code: B91101 Sub Code: MP16MA11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part- A
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
1. a) How do we consult the source materials?
(or)
b) Explain the general format of a dissertation.
2. a) Discuss about the different types of proof techniques.
(or)
b) Explain the AMS subject classification.
3. a) Let M, N, P be A – modules. Show that there exists a unique
isomorphism such that
.
(or)
b) Define: i) A – module ii) A – module homomorphism
iii) Sub module iv) Cokernel of an A – module homomorphism
4. a) Prove that M is a Noetherian A – module every sub module of M is
finitely generated.
(or)
b) Define the chain conditions and prove that M has a composition series
if and only if M satisfies both chain conditions.
11. i) Let be a bounded linear functional on A fix x A and define
x 1
)( exf . Then prove that f is holomorphic in
the component of (x) and f ( ) o as .
ii) Prove that for every x A, (x) is compact and not empty.
12. Suppose ,eCef inn
i nC and 0ief for every real
. Then prove that in
nie
ef
1with n .
Question Code: B91102 Sub Code: MP16MA12
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ADVANCES IN ANALYSIS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Mathematics) Max. Marks: 75
Part- A Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
1. a) Prove that Lp ( ) is a complete metric space, for 1 p and for
every positive measure .
(or)
b) If X is a locally compact Hausdorff space, then prove that Co (X) is
the completion of Cc (X) relative to the metric defined by the
supremum norm xfXxfSup
.
2. a) Let {u : A} be an orthonormal set in H. Prove that each of the
following four conditions on {u } implies the other three.
i). {u } is a maximal orthonormal set in H.
ii). The set P of all finite linear combinations of members of
{u } is dense in H.
iii). The equality A
xx 22ˆ holds for every x H.
iv). The equality A
)y,x(yx holds for all x H
and y H.
(or)
b) Prove that every non empty, closed convex set E in a Hilbert space H
contains a unique element of smallest norm.
3. a) Prove that if X is a complete metric space, the intersection of every
countable collection of dense open subsets of X is dense in X.
(or)
b) State and prove The Hahn – Banach theorem.
4. a) If f L1, then prove that oCf and
1ff
(or)
b) If is a complex homomorphism on a Banach Algebra A, then prove
that the norm of is atmost 1.
5. a) Prove that for every x A, xexn nn
1lim.
(or)
b) State and prove Gelfand – Mazur theorem.
Part B
Answer Any FOUR questions (4 x 10 = 40 Marks)
6. a) Let p and q be conjugate exponents , 1 < p < . Let X be a space with
measure . Left f and g be measurable functions on X, with range in
[0, ]. Then prove that X XX
pp
dgdffgd
/1/1
and
pq
pp
pp
dgdfdgfXXX
/1/1/1
)(
7. Let M be a closed subspace of a Hilbert space H. Prove that following.
a) Every x H has a unique decomposition x = Px + Qx ino a sum
of P x M and Q x M .
b) Px and Qx are nearest points to x in M and M respectively.
c) The mappings P : H M and Q : H M are linear.
d) 222
QxPxx .
8. State and prove open mapping theorem.
9. To each f L2 we can associate a function L
2 so that the following
properties hold. Prove
a) If 21 LLf , then f is the previously defined Fourier transform of f.
b) For every f L2,
22
ˆ ff .
c) The mapping ff ˆ is a Hilbert space isomorphism of L2 onto L
2.
d) If )x(dmexft ixtA
A
A and
A
A
A tdmetfx ixt ˆ)( then
0ˆ2
fA and 02
fA as A .
10. i) If f L1 then prove that tdmetf)t(Hxhf ixt .
ii) If g L and g is continuous at a point x, then prove that
xgxhg lim
0 .
Question Code: B91302 Sub Code: MP16MAE12
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ADVANCES IN GRAPH THEORY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (Mathematics) Max. Marks: 75
Part- A
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
1. a) Prove that every regular Sbipartite graph of degree is
1- factorable.
(or)
b) Prove that the cycle is graceful if and only if or
.
2. a) If S is a minimal dominating set of a graph G without isolated vertices,
then prove that V(G)-S is a dominating set of G.
(or)
b) For every bipartite graph G, verify that .
3. a) Define fuzzy forest with an example.
(or)
b) Let be a fuzzy graph such that
is a cycle. Prove that a vertex is a cutvertex of G if and only if w is a
common vertex of two bridges.
4. a) Define eccentric vertex of the graph G with an example.
(or)
b) For each pair a, b of positive integers with a, show that
there exists a connected graph G with and
5. a) Verify that every tree is cordial.
(or)
b) Let be an acyclic graphoidal cover of G.Show that
where denotes the number of vertices exterior to .
Part B
Answer Any FOUR questions (4 x 10 = 40 Marks)
6. Examine: For every graph H without isolated vertices, there exists a
regular H-decomposable graph.
7. Prove that the complete graph is graceful if and only if
8. If G is a graph of order , then show that
i)
ii) ) .
9. Prove that a is a fuzzy forest if and only if any cycle of G, there is an
edge (x,y) such that , where is the
partial fuzzy subgraph obtained by the deletion of the edge (x,y) from G.
10. Verify that the center of every connected graph G is a subgraph of some
block of G.
11. Prove that a nontrivial graph G is the periphery of some graph if and
only if every vertex of G has eccentricity 1 or no vertex of G has
eccentricity 1.
12. For a graph G with , show that .
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midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; tpil jUf
rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;T nra;f : (10 x 1 = 10)
1. fhg;gPL vd;gJ xU ------------------
m) cld;ghL M) xg;ge;jk;
,) gj;jpukhFk; <) mlkhdk;
2. kWfhg;gPL nra;ag;gLtjd; Nehf;fk; ----------------
m) ,lh; Fiwj;jy; M) ,lh; gutyhf;Fjy;
,) fhg;gPL mjpfg;gLjy; <) nghWg;Gfis Fiwj;jy;
3. gj;jpujhuh;fspd; nrhj;jhf tpsq;FtJ?
m) Kidkk; M) MAs; fhg;gPl;L epjp
,) Mz;lspg;G <) midj;Jk;
4. MAs; fhg;gPl;by; xUth; vt;tsT njhiff;F fhg;gPL nra;ayhk;.
m) 1 – 2 ylrk; M) 2 – 10 yl;rk;
,) 10 yl;rj;Jf;F Nky; <) mtuJ epjp trjpf;F Vw;whw; Nghy;
5. Ve;j tho;f;iff;F $Ljy; Kidkk; nrYj;j Ntz;Lk;.
m) juf;Fiwthd tho;T M) jukhd tho;T
,) kpjkhd tho;T <) m kw;Wk; M
6. Kidkj;ij khjk; xUKiw nrYj;Jk; NghJ vj;jid
ehl;fs; rYif ehl;fshf toq;fg;gLfpwJ?
m) 30 ehl;fs; M) 60 ehl;fs;
,) 15 ehl;fs; <) 7 ehl;fs;
7. Kfthpd; ,ufrpa mwpf;ifiaf; $Wk; gbt vz;
m) 380 / 3261 M) 3261/ 380
,) 3251/ 380 <) 380 / 3251
8. ve;j Mz;L MAs; fhg;gPl;L fof rl;lk; ,aw;wg;gl;lJ.
m) [Piy 15, 1956 M) [Piy 1, 1956
,) Mf];l; 15, 1947 <) [dthp 26, 1950
9. fly; fhg;gPl;by; fhg;gPl;L chpik ---------------- Neuj;jpy; ,Ue;jhy;
NghJk;.
m) ,og;G Vw;gLk; M) Kjph;T milAk;
,) fhg;gPL nra;Ak; <) Muk;g
10. jP fhg;gPL Njhd;wpa ehL vJ?
m) ,e;jpah M) ,q;fpyhe;J
,) n[h;kdp <) mnkhpf;fh
gFjp - M
midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tpil jUf.
(5 x 7 = 35)
11. m) kW fhg;gPL vd;why; vd;d? mjd; nray;Kiwfisf; $Wf.
(my;yJ)
M) fhg;gPl;bd; gzpfis tpthpf;f.
12. m) MAs; fhg;gPl;L xg;ge;jj;jpd; mbg;gilf; $Wfs; ahit?
(my;yJ)
M) Mz;Lj; njhif vd;why; vd;d? mjd; jpl;lq;fis
tifg;gLj;Jf.
13. m) MAs; fhg;gPl;Lg; gj;jpuj;jpd; epge;jidfs; ahit?
(my;yJ)
M) Kidkk; fzf;fPl;bd; topKiwfs; njhlh;ghd ruj;Jfis
$Wf.
14. m) ,e;jpahtpy; MAs; fhg;gPl;L tzpfk; jdpahh; kakhf MjuT
fUj;Jf;fis $Wf.
(my;yJ)
M) ,e;jpa MAs; fhg;gPl;Lf; fofj;jpd; Nehf;fq;fis tpthpf;f.
15. m) fly;rhh; fhg;gPl;L epge;jidfis gw;wp tpthpf;f.
(my;yJ)
M) jP fhg;gPl;Lg; gj;jpuq;fspd; tiffis $Wf.
gFjp - ,
vitNaDk; %d;wDf;F ehd;F gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tphpthd
tpil jUf. (3 x 10 = 30)
16. fhg;gPl;bd; mbg;gil nfhs;iffs; gw;wp tpthpf;f.
17. MAs; fhg;gPl;L gj;jpuq;fspd; tiffis njhFj;J vOJf.
18. MAs; fhg;gPL nra;Ak; Kiwfis tphpthf vOJf.
19. MAs; gj;jpuk; vLg;gjw;Fhpa nray;Kiwfis gw;wp tpthp.
20. jP fhg;gPl;bw;Fk; MAs; fhg;gPl;bw;Fk; cs;s NtWghLfs; ahit?
Question Code : A23103 Sub Code: BZOCR21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Number of Ootids produced during Oogenesis is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. During Spermatogenesis ---------------develop into acrosome.
a) Mitochondria b) Golgi bodies
c) Ribosome d) Lysosome
3. In honey bees----------develops parthegenetically
a) Drone b) Queen c) Worker d) All the above
4. Superficial cleavage is seen in
a) Fishes b) Replies c) Birds d) Insects
5. Extra embryonic membrane which is not related with respiration is
a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Yolksac d) Allantois
6. Syndesmochorial placenta is seen in
a) Pig b) Sheep c) Dog d) Rabbit
7. Chordomesoderm acts as organiser in ----------- of amphibians
a) Fertilized egg b) Blastula
c) Early gastrula d) Late gastrula
8. In which type of regeneration whole body can be regenerated
a) Epimorphis b) Morphallaxis
c) Hetramorphosis d) Super regeneration
9. In menstrual cycle proliferative phase occurs during
a) 6- 14th
day b) 15-28th
day c) 1st -5
th d) None
10. First test tube baby was produced in the year
a) 1958 b) 1968 c) 1978 d) 1988
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a brief account on preformation theory.
(or)
b) Describe the structure of mammalian sperm with sketch.
12. a) Comment on the planes of cleavage. Add examples.
(or)
b) Describe the patterns of Cleavage.
13. a) Discuss allantoids and yolk sac with their significance.
(or)
b) How placenta are classified on the basis of types of tissues involved?
14. a) Write down the physiological changes that occur during amphian
metamorphosis.
(or)
b) Write a brief account on the organizer concept.
15. a) Write short notes on parturition and lactation.
(or)
b) Illustrate the necessity for birth control.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the process of Oogenesis.
17. Elucidate the mechanism of gastrulaion of frog.
18. Illustrate the development of heart in frog.
19. Narrate the morphological changes that occur in amphibian
metamorphosis.
20. Explain the different contraceptive devices.
Question Code : B10103 Sub Code: U16HYC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF INDIA (900AD TO 1761AD)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak was the first ruler of __________ Dynasty
a) Slave b) Khilji c) Tughluq d) Sayyid
2. Iltumish was succeeded by
a) Sultana Raziya b) Nasir-ud-din
c) Sikkandar Lodi d) Ramacandra Deva
3. Regulation of prices was introduced by
a) Balban b) Jalaludin
c) Alaud Din Khilji d) Khizer Khan
4. Muhammad Bin Tughluq was succeeded by
a) Alaud Din b) Jalaud din
c) Ferosshah d) Nasiruddin
5. At Battle of Kanwah, Babur defeated
a) RanaSanga b) Ibrahim Lodi
c) Prithiviraj d) Hemu
6. Grand Trunk Roads were built by
a) Babar b) Humayun
c) Akbar d) Sher shah
7. ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ was written by
a) Mubarak Shah b) Ahmad Shah
c) AbulFazl d) Khizar Khan
8. Akbar’s guardian was
a) AbulFazl b) Bairam khan
c) Todarmal d) Tansen
9. Who was Guru of Shivaji?
a) Sambaji b) DadajiKondadev
c) Ramdas d) Jijabai
10. The Mughal emperor who was nicknamed as ‘Alamgir’
a) Aurangazeb b) Akbar
c) Shah Jahan d) Babur
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Briefly discuss the achievements of Qutbud din Aibak.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Sultana Raziya.
12. a) What do you know about Ibrahim Lodi?
(or)
b) Discuss about the sources of Vijayanagar Empire.
13. a) Explain the conquests of Babur.
(or)
b) Write about success and failure of Humayun.
14. a) Sketch out the achievements of Jahangir.
(or)
b) Give a brief account of contributions of ShahJahan to Mughal
architecture.
15. a) Describe Aurangazeb’s Deccan Policy.
(or)
b) What were the results of Third Battle of Panipat?.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the career and achievements of Balban.
17. Describe the achievements of Krishnadevaraya.
18. Explain the administration of Sher Shah.
19. Mark on the outline map provided the extent of Akbar’s Empire and
write note on his religious policy.
20. Trace the growth of Maratha power under Shivaji.
Question Code : B10104 Sub Code: U16HYC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF TAMILNADU (1336AD TO 1800AD)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Name the last ruler of Madurai Nayaks?
a) Chockanathan b) Muthu Virappa
c) Minaxi d) Rani Mangammal
2. Who was given assistance to Viswanatha Nayak for the introduction of
Poligan system?
a) Ramappaian b) Ariya Natha Muthaliar
c) Rayasam d) Ragunatha Sethupathi
3. Who was ‘Dalavay’ in the administrative system of the Nayaks?
a) Finance Officer b) Prime Minister
c) Revenue Officer d) Governor General
4. Who started Chithirai festival at Madurai?
a) Tirumalai Nayak b) Arianatha Mudaliar
c) Rani Mangammal d) Velu Nachiar
5. Who was the last ruler of Tanjore Marathas?
a) Ekoji b) Venkoji
c) Serfoji III d) None
6. Name the court poet of Tanjore Marathas?
a) Sugadev b) Ramabhatra Dikshitar
c) Ramadev d) Pattabi Ayyar
7. Name the founder of Sethupathis of Ramnad?
a) Tirumalan Sethupathy b) Bhavani Sankar
c) Baskara d) Sadaikka Teva
8. During which ruler shifting of the capital to Ramanathapuram?
a) Kilavan Sethupathi b) Baskara Sethupathi
c) Ragunatha Sethupathi d) None
9. When was Kattabomman hanged?
a) 1756 b) 1796 c) 1798 d) 1799
10. Which was the arsenal of the South Indian Rebellion?
a) Madurai b) Dindigul c) Kalayarkoil d) Sivagangai
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write short notes on Madhura Vijayam.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Rani Mangammal.
12. a) Write short notes on Meenakshmi Temple complex.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Christianity in Tamilnad during the Nayaks.
13. a) Write short notes on Saraswathi Mahal library.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Ekoji.
14. a) Explain briefly about the Sultanate of Madurai.
(or)
b) Evaluate the contribution of Sethupathi’s towards art and
architecture.
15. a) Write short notes on Poolithevan.
(or)
b) Write short notes on South Indian confederacy.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain briefly the Nayaks of Tanjore.
17. Evaluate the Nayaks art and architecture.
18. Estimate the contribution of the Marathas of Tanjore towards art and literature.
19. Enumerate the features of Nawab’s administration.
20. Elucidate the Karnatic wars in Tamilnad.
Question Code : A10202 Sub Code: BHYAS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MODERN POLITICAL THOUGHT
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Hobbes borrowed the concept ‘Law of Nature’ from ________
a) Prof. Dunning b) Grotius
c) Prof. Maxcy d) Marsilio
2. Who is considered as the father of Modern Political Philosophy?
a) Thomas Hobbes b) John Locke
c) Jean Jaures d) Karl Marx
3. One of the greatest figure in the history of English political thought was
_________
a) John Locke b) Thomas Hobbes
c) Thomas Davidson d) Arthur Bentley
4. Greatest Happiness of Greatest Numbers advocated by _________
a) Bradb b) Bentham
c) David Hume d) Edmund Burke
5. French Revolution occurred in the year _________
a) 1787 b) 1786 c) 1789 d) 1788
6. Who was the British Philosopher promulgated the Theory of
Individualism?
a) Karl Marx b) Lenin
c) Thomas Hobbes d) Bradley
7. Socialism aims at _________
a) Suppressing working class b) Abolition of capitalism
c) Equal distribution of wealth d) Accumulation of wealth
8. The world Socialism originated from _________.
a) France b) Greece c) Italy d) Germany
9. Founder of Nazism is ________
a) Hitler b) Mussolini c) Nazar d) none of the above
10. ‘Guild Socialism’ has been described as ‘the intellectual child of
English Fabianism and French Syndicalism’ by
a) Barker b) Rockow
c) Alexander Gray d) Hobson
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the ideas Hobbe’s on the State of Nature.
(or)
b) Describe John Lock’s concept of Human Nature.
12. a) Narrate Rousseau’s Social theory.
(or)
b) Bentham’s ideas are different from J.S. Mill - Discuss.
13. a) Examine the essential characteristics of Bradley’s absolute
idealism.
(or)
b) Mention the political ideas of Hebert Spencer.
14. a) What is Lenin’s contribution of Marxism?
(or)
b) What are the basic principles of Socialism?
15. a) Give an account of Fascism.
(or)
b) Give an account of Nazism.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the political philosophy of David Hume.
17. Write an essay on Utilitarianism.
18. Write an essay of Idealist Theory of State.
19. Discuss Karl Marx’s about the Theory of Class War.
20. Bring out the main principles of Imperialism.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Give an account of the origin and development of Brahmi Scripts.
5. Assess the works of Venkayya.
6. Assess the works of Robert Swell.
7. Bring out the importance of Uttiramerur inscriptions.
8. Bring out the importance of Kannanur inscriptions.
Question Code: B10402 Sub Code: U16HYS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT – EPIGRAPHY
Time : 2 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Explain briefly about Phonograph.
(or)
b) Write about Vattelluthu.
2. a) Describe about Copper plates.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Palm leaves.
3. a) Explain – Mahendra Varman Cave Inscriptions
(or)
b) Explain – Thiruparankuntram Inscriptions.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Show that the straight lines whose direction cosines are given by the
equations al + bm + cn = 0, ul2 + vm
2 + wn
2 = 0 are
(i) perpendicular if a2 (v + w) + b
2 (w + u) + c
2 (u + v) = 0 and
(ii) parallel if 0w
c
v
b
u
a 222
.
17. (i) Find the distance between the parallel planes 2x – 2y + z + 3 = 0 and
4x – 4y + 2z + 5 = 0.
(ii) Show that the origin lies in the acute angle between the planes
x + 2y + 2z = 9, 4x – 3y + 12z + 13 = 0. Find the planes bisecting the
angles between them and point out which bisects the obtuse angle.
18. Find the equations of the image of the line2
3z
5
2y
2
1x in the
plane 2x – 3y + 2z + 3 = 0 .
19. The straight lines ;n
z
m
y
l
x and ;
n
z
m
y
l
x
1
1
1
1
1
1
are cut by a third whose direction cosines are , , . Show that the
length intercepted on the third line is given by
111
111
111
nml
nml
nml
nml
and deduce the length of the S.D.
20. The plane ABC, whose equation is 1c
z
b
y
a
x, meets the axes in A,
B, C. Find the equation to the circumcircle of the triangle ABC and
obtain the co-ordinates of its centre and radius.
Question Code : B20103 Sub Code: U16MAC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF THREE DIMENSIONS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The direction cosines of the internal bisector of the angle between the
lines whose direction cosines are )n,m,l( 111 and )n,m,l( 222 are
proportional to ______.
a) l1 – l2, m1 – m2, n1 – n2 b) l1 + l2, m1 + m2, n1 + n2
c) l1l2, m1m2, n1n2 d) l1 / l2, m1 / m2, n1 / n2
2. The distance between the points (5, 3, –2) and (3, 2, 1) is ________
a)15 b) 14 c) 14 d) 23
3. The intercepts on the coordinate axes of the plane ax + by + cz = 1 are
_______ respectively.
a) 1, 1, 1 b) a, b, c c)c
1 ,
b
1 ,
a
1 d) –a, –b, –c
4. The direction cosines of the normal to the plane 4x – 3y + 2z – 1 = 0 are
________.
a) 4, –3, 2 b) 2
1 ,
3
1- ,
4
1 c) 2, – ,
2
31 d)
29
2 ,
29
3- ,
29
4
5. The equation of the line joining the points (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) is
________
a) 12
1
12
1
12
1
zz
zz
yy
yy
xx
xx b)
12
1
12
1
12
1
zz
zz
yy
yy
xx
xx
c) 12
1
12
1
12
1
zz
zz
yy
yy
xx
xx d)
12
1
12
1
12
1
zz
zz
yy
yy
xx
xx
6. The direction ratios of the line 3z2
3y4
3
3x2 are ______.
a) 3, 2, 1 b) 1 ,2
1 ,2
3
c) 1, 2
3 , –3 d) 1, 3, 0
7. The shortest distance between the lines n
zz
m
yy
l
xx 111
and n
zz
m
yy
l
xx 222 is _____.
a) 0 b) 0
nml
nml
zzyyxx
222
111
111
c) 0
nml
nml
zzyyxx
222
111
121212
d) none of these
8. If l1 and l2 be the given two lines, then the shortest distance line is
_________.
a) perpendicular to only l1 b) perpendicular to l2 alone
c) perpendicular to l1 or l2 d) perpendicular to both l1 and l2
9. The centre of the sphere x2 + y
2 + z
2 + 2x – 4y + 6z + 5 = 0 is
______.
a) (–1, 2, –3) b) 3 c) (1, –2, 3) d) (–2, 4, –6)
10. The origin lies outside the sphere
x2 + y
2 + z
2 + 2ux + 2vy + 3wz + d = 0 if d _________.
a) 0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) > 0
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) i) Show that the points (–4, 5, 2), (–3, 4, 1) and (–6, 7, 4) are
collinear.
ii) Show that the points(10, 7, 0), (6, 6, –1) and (6, 9, –4) form an
isosceles right-angled triangle
(or)
b) Show that the four points (3, 2, 2), (–1, 1, 3), (0, 5, 6) and lie
on a sphere whose centre is (1, 3, 4). What is the radius of the sphere?
12. a) Find the equation of the plane passing through the points (2, 2, –1),
(3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6)
(or)
b) Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 1, 2) and
perpendicular to the planes 2x – 2y – 4z = 3 and 3x + y + 6z = 4.
13. a) Find the angle between the plane (given in general form) and the line
(given in symmetrical form). Hence find the condition that the line is
parallel to the plane.
(or)
b) Show that the lines 2x + y + 3z – 7 = 0 = x – 2y + z – 5 and
4x + 4y – 8z = 0 = 10x – 8y + 7z are at right angles.
14. a) Find the shortest distance between the lines ;1
2z
2
4y
1
3x
2
2z
3
7y
1
1x
(or)
b) Prove that the lines ;2
1z
8
10y
3
1x
1
4z
7
1y
4
3x
are coplanar. Find also their point of intersection and the plane through
them
15. a) A plane passes through a fixed point (a, b, c) and cuts the axes in A,
B, C. Show that the locus of the centre of the sphere OABC is
.2z
c
y
b
x
a
(or)
b) Show that the plane 2x – y – 2z = 16 touches the sphere
x2 + y
2 + z
2 – 4x + 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 and find the point of contact.
18. a) Prove that ffgraddivfcurlcurl 2
b) Prove tha div r
= 3 and curl r
= 0, where r is the position
vector of a point (x, y, z) in space.
19. Evaluate s
dsn.f
where f
= (x3 – yz) i
– 2x
2y j
+ 2 k
and S is the
surface of the cube bounded by x = 0, y = 0, z = 0; x = a, y = a,
z = a.
20. Verify stoke’s theorem for f
= (2x – y) i
–yz2
j
– y2z k
where S is
the upper half surface of the sphere x2 + y
2 + z
2 = 1 and C is
boundary.
Question Code : B20104 Sub Code: U16MAC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
TRIGNONOMETRY AND VECTOR CALCULUS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. If x = cosθ + i sinθ, write down the value of n
n
xx
1 is _________
a) nn cos2 b) 2n
in cos
nθ c) 2
nsin
nθ d) 2
n in sin
nθ
2. tanθ in powers of θ is ___________
a) . . .53
53
b) . . . 42
142
c) ...15
2
3
53
d) ...32
32
3. cosh2x = ___________
a)2
sinh1 2 x b)
2
sinh1 2 x
c) 2
2cosh1 x d)
2
2cosh1 x
4. Log i3 = ___________
a) log2 + iπ/6 b) log2 + i(π/6 + 2nπ)
c) log2 – iπ/6 d) log2 – i(π/6 + 2nπ)
5. If f
= (x + 3y) i
+ (y – 2z) j
+ (x + az) k
is solenoidal, then the value of
a is ___________
a) 2 b) –2 c) 1 d) 0
6. If f
= xy i
+ yz j
+ zx k
then curlf is ___________
a) y i
+ z j
+ x k
b) –y i
– z j
– z k
c) x i
+ y j
+ z k
d) y i
+ z j
– x k
7. If C is the straight line joining (0,0,0) and (1,1,1) then
c
dr.r
is___________
a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 3/2 d) 2
8. The value of 1/3 s
dsn.r
= __________
a) 0 b) 1 c) V d) 3V
9. In Qauss divergence theorem S
dsnf
=__________
a) dv)f (V
b) dv f V
c) S
ds f
d) V
dv f
10. Green’s theorem connects
a) line integral and double integral
b) line integral and surface integral
c) double integral and surface integral
d. surface integral and volume integral
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Express cos8θ in terms of sinθ.
(or)
b) If 5046
5045sin , show that θ = 1
058” approximately
12. a) If cos(x + iy) = cosθ + isinθ, prove that cos2x + cosh2y = 2
(or)
b) Reduce (α + iβ) x+iy to form A + iB.
13. a) If kyzx3jzxixyz2 22333
then find φ(x, y, z) if
φ(1, –2, 2) = 4.
(or)
b) Prove that rfr
2rf)r(f 12
.
14. a) If f
= yz i
+ zx j
+ xy k
, find rd.f
where C is given by x = t,
y = t2, z = t
3 from (0, 0, 0) to (2, 4, 8)
(or)
b) If V is the volume enclosed by a closed surface S and
f
= x i
+ 2y j
+ 3z k
show thats
dsn.f
= 6V
15. a) Using Green’s theorem and evaluate for the function
f
= (x2 + y2) i
– 2xy j
and C is the rectangle in the xy-plane bounded
by y = 0, y = b; x = 0 and x = a
(or)
b) Evaluate by using Stoke’s theorem ,xydzzxdyyzdxc
where C is
the curve x2 + y
2 = 1, z = y
2.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Express sin
6sin in terms of cosθ.
17. Separate into real and imaginary parts tan-1(x + iy).
Question Code : A20202 Sub Code: BMAAS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ALLIED SUBJECT – MATHEMATICS – II
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Mdx + Ndy = 0 is said to be exact if____________.
a) = b) = c) = d) = .
2. The complementary function of + 9y = 0 is ___.
a) A B b) (A+Bx)
c) A B d) A B .
3. L ( ) = ________.
a) b) c) d) .
4. L{ } = ________.
a) L(y) sy(0) (0) b) L(y) sy(0) (0)
c) L(y) sy(0) (0) d) L(y) sy(0) (0).
5. In partial differential equation ‘s’ stands for
a) x
z b)
x
z c)
yx
z2
d) 2
2
y
z
6. Which of the following method is used to solve a partial differential
equation?
a) Lagrange b) Leibnitz c) Bernoulli d) Charpit
7. Which of the following is not a group?
a) (Z, +) b) (N, +) c) (Q, +) d) (R, +)
8. Which of the following is not a subgroup?
a) { e } G b) union of subgroups
c) (n , +) d) H = { an | n } where a
9. If = and = then = ____.
a) b)
c) d)
10. The group formed by set of all permutations under composition of
functions is called ________ group.
a) abelian b) permutation c) symmetric d) cyclic
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Solve : (yexy
2y3)dx + (xe
xy6xy
22y)dy = 0.
(or)
b) Solve : (D2
2D )y = cos 2x.
12. a) Evaluate : L .
(or)
b) Evaluate :
13. a) Form the partial differential equation by eliminating a, b, c from
+ + = 1.
(or)
b) Solve: yzp + zxq = xy.
14. a) Show that the set G = {a+b / a, b Q} is a group with respect to
addition.
(or)
b) Show that H1 = {0, 2, 4, 6} and H2 = {0, 4} are subgroups of ( , )
15. a) Express the following permutations as a product of disjoint cycles.
i. ii.
iii.
(or)
b) Define the following: i. symmetric group ii. Transposition
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Solve : (x3
– 3xy2)dx – (y
3 – 3x
2y)dy = 0.
17. Using Laplace transforms, solve ;tsinydy
dxtcosx
dt
dy given
x(0) = 2 and y(0) = 0.
18. Solve : (x2
yz)p + (y2
zx)q = (z2
xy).
19. a) Let G be a group. Let H = { a | a G and ax = xa for all x G}.
Show that H is a subgroup of G.
b) Prove that intersection of two subgroups is again a subgroup.
20. a) Define generator of a cyclic group. Prove that G = { 1, i. –1, –i} under
multiplication is a cyclic group and find all the generators of G.
b) Prove that any cyclic group is abelian.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Use the graphical method to solve the following LPP:
Minimize
.
17. Use the Simplex method to solve the following L.P.P:
Maximise Subject to the constraints:
4 .
18. Solve by dual Simplex Method Minimize z = 10 + 6 + 2
Subject to - + + 1; 3 + -
, , ≥ 0
19. Determine optimum solution the following TP schedule so that the
cost is minimized.
D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 Supply
S1 20 28 32 55 70 50
S2 48 36 40 44 25 100
S3 35 55 22 45 48 150
Required 100 70 50 40 40
20. Find the optimal solution for the assignment problem with following
cost matrix
Area
W X Y Z
A 42 35 28 21
Salesman B 30 25 20 15
C 30 25 20 15
D 24 20 16 12
Question Code : B20203 Sub Code: U16MAA22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ALLIED SUBJECT - MATHEMATICS - III
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. A feasible solution to an LPP
a) must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously.
b) must be a corner point of the feasible region.
c) need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
d) must optimize the value of the objective function.
2. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph,
then
a) one of the constraint is redundant.
b) the solution is infeasible.
c) the solution is unbounded
d) none of these
3. To convert maximization problem into minimization we use
a) min z = – max(–z) b) min z = – max(z)
c) min z = max(z) d) min z = max(–z)
4. If an optimim solution is degenerate, then
a) the solution is infeasible
b) there are alternative optimim solutions
c) the solution is of no use to the decision maker
d) none of the above
5. The dual of the dual is
a) Dual b) Primal
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
6. Dual simplex method is applicable to the LPP’s that start with
a) an infeasible solution b) an infeasible but optimum solution
c) a feasible solution d) a feasible and optimum solution
7. The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-
destinations is feasible, if the number of allocations are,
a) m + n –1 b) m + n + 1 c) m + n d) m x n
8. If we were to use opportunity cost ( ) value for non-basic
cell to test optimality, it should be
a) most negative number b) most positive number
c) equal to zero d) any value.
9. An assignment problem can be solved by
a) transportation method b) simplex method
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
10. The minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a reduced cost
matrix of order n can be
a) at the most n b) at the least n
c) n – 1 d) n + 1
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) A company makes two kinds of leather belts. Belt A is high
quality belt, and belt B is of lower quality. The respective profits
are Rs.4.00 and Rs 3.00 per belt. Each belt of type A requires twice
as much time as a belt of type B, and if all belts were of type B, then
company could make 1000 belts per day. The supply of leather is
sufficient for only 800 belts per day (Both A and B combined). Belt
A requires fancy buckle and only 400 buckles per day are available.
There are only 700 buckles a day available for belt B. Determine the
optimal product mix.
(or)
b) Explain about the unbound solution cases of LPP.
12. a) Write the role of pivot element in simplex table.
(or)
b) Find the maximum value of subject to the
constraints. ;
13. a) Write the dual of the following linear programming problem.
Minimize subject to the constraints
;
(or)
b) Obtain the dual of the following L.P.P.
Maximize subject to the constraints:
14. a) Explain about degenerate Transportation Problem.
(or)
b) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to be the following T.P. using
NWC rule
D1 D2 D3 Capacity
O1 5 4 2 6
O2 4 7 6 8
O3 2 5 8 12
O4 8 6 7 4
Demand 8 10 12
where Oi and Dj denote ith and jth destination respectively
15. a) Explain unbalanced Assignment problem.
(or)
b) Find the optimal solution for the assignment problem with the
following cost matrix.
Salesman/ jobs J1 J2 J3 J4
C1 15 27 35 20
C2 21 28 33 17
C3 17 25 37 15
C4 14 31 39 21
i) The total number of marks obtained in February 2002 is
what percent of the total marks obtained in April 2001?
ii) What are the average marks obtained by the student in all
the periodical exams during the session?
iii) What is the percentage of marks obtained by the student
in the periodical exams of August 2001 and October
2001 taken together?
iv) In which periodical exams did the student obtain the
highest percentage increase in marks over the previous
periodical exams?
8. The line-graph gives the annual percent profit earned by a company
during the period 1995 – 2000. Study the graph then answer the
question.
%Profit = eExpenditur
eExpenditurIncomex 100
i) If the income in 1998 was Rs.264 crores, what was
the expenditure in 1998?
ii) During which the following years was the ratio of
income to expenditure the minimum?
iii) What is the average profit earned for the given years?
iv) During which year the ratio of percentage profit
earned to that in the previous year in the minimum?
Question Code: B20402 Sub Code: U16MAS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT – DATA INTERPRETATION
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) The table gives the sales of batteries manufactured by a company of the
years. Study the table and answer the questions.
Number of different types of batteries sold by a company over the years
(Number in Thousands)
Year Types of Batteries
4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total
1992 75 144 114 102 108 543
1993 90 126 102 84 126 528
1994 96 114 75 105 135 525
1995 105 90 150 90 75 510
1996 90 75 135 75 90 465
1997 105 60 165 45 120 495
1998 115 85 160 100 145 605
i) The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for
which battery?
ii) What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold
in 1993 and 1997?
iii) In the case of which battery there was a continuous decrease
in sales from 1992 to 1997?
iv) What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of
55AH batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992?
(or)
b) The table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states
P, Q, R, S, T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.
Study the table and answer the questions:
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Per
cen
t P
rofi
t
1 8
1
45
40
45
30
45
35
50
40 40
50
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
M N P Q R
X Y
Z
State Percentage of
population below
poverty line
Proportion of Males and Females
Below
poverty line
M : F
Above
poverty line
M : F
P 35 5 : 6 6 : 7
Q 25 3 : 5 4 : 5
R 24 1 : 2 2 : 3
S 19 3 : 2 4 : 3
T 15 5 : 3 3 : 2
i) What will be the number of females above poverty line in the
state S if it is known that the population of state S is 7
million?
ii) If the male population above poverty line for state R is 1.9
million, then find the total population of state R.
If the population of males below poverty line for state Q is
2.4 million and that for state T is 6 million, then find the total
population of states Q and T are in the ratio?
2. a) The graph gives the data of the production of paper by three different
companies X, Y and Z over the years. Study the graph and then answer.
i) What is the difference between the production of
company Z in 1998 and company Y in 1996?
i. Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year
2001?
ii. The companies M and N together had a percentage profit/loss of:
iii. In 2001 what was the approximate percentage of profit/loss of all
five companies taken together?
7. In a school the periodical examinations are held every second month. In
a section during Apr 2001 – Mar 2002, a student of class IX appeared for
each of the periodical exams. The aggregate marks obtained by him in
each periodical exam are represented the line graph.
Maximum total marks in each periodical exam = 500
360 365370
385
400405
330340350360370380390400410
Quan
tity
in L
akh t
ons
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
2 7
Expenditure
Income
Periodical Exams
1
5. A soft drink company prepares drinks of three different flavour – X,
Y and Z. The production of the three flavours over a period of six
years has been expressed in the bar graph. Study the graph then
answer the questions.
i. For which of the following years the percentage of rise / fall in
production from the previous year is maximum for the flavour Y?
ii. For which flavour was the average annual production maximum in
the given period?
iii. To total production of flavour Z in 1997 and 1998 is what
percentage of the total production of flavours X in 1995 and 1996?
iv. What is the difference between the average production of flavour X
in 1995, 1996 and 1997 and the average production of flavour Y in
1998, 1999 and 2000?
6. The bar graph shows the Income and expenditures
(in million US $) of five companies in the year 2001. The percent
profit or loss of a company is given by (Profit / loss ) % =
100eExpenditur
eExpenditurIncome. Study the graph and answer the
questions
ii) What is the ratio of the average production of company X in
the period 1998 – 2000 to the average production of company
Y in the same period?
iii) What is the percentage increase in the production of company
Y from 1996 to 1999?
iv) For which company the average production for five years is
maximum?
(or)
b) A cosmetic company produces five different products. The sales of
these five products (in lakh number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are
shown in the bar-graph. Study the graph and then answer for the
questions.
i) In which case the sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to
2000?
ii) In which case the minimum rate of increase in sales during 1995 –
2000? iii) The sales of Lipsticks is 2000 was by what percent more than the
sales of nail enamels in 2000? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
iv) The sales of conditioners in 1995 was by what percent less than the
sales of Shampoos in 1995? (rounded off to the nearest integer)
3. a) The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure
incurred in publishing a book. Study the chart and answer the questions.
50
40
55
45
60
50
5560
50
55
50
55
4550
60 60
4540
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
20.15
5.93
14.91
7.885.01
48.17
37.16
29.14
12.2110.19
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
Lipst icks Nail Enamels Talcum Shampoo Condit ioners
1995
2000
6
3
3
X Y Z
i) What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to
the expenditure incurred on Royalty?
ii) Which two expenditures together have a central angle of
108 ?
iii) If for an edition of the book, the cost of paper is
Rs. 56250, then find the promotion cost for this edition?
iv) Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by?
(or)
b) The line graph gives the percent profit earned by two companies
X and Y during the period 1996 – 2001. Study the graph then
answer the questions.
% Profit / loss = 100eExpenditur
eExpenditurIncome
i) If the expenditure of company Y in 1997 was Rs. 220 crores,
what was its income in 1997?
ii) If the incomes of the two companies were equal in 1999,
then what was the ratio of expenditure of company X to that
company Y in 1999?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. The table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in
six different subjects in an examination. Study the table and answer the
questions.
Subject
(max
marks)
Maths
(150)
Chem
(130)
Phy
(120)
Geography
(100)
History
(60)
Comp.
Sci
(40)
Students
Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80
Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70
Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90
Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80
i. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six
subjects
ii. What is the overall percentage of Tarun?
iii. Find the number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in
all subjects.
iv. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
Royalty15%
Transportation cost10%
Promotion cost10%
Binding20%
Printing cost20%
Peper cost25%
45
35
50
60
50
55
40
45
55
50
65
50
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
X
Y
4 5
Question Code : B25103 Sub Code: U16NDC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FOOD SCIENCE – I
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Raw papaya contains an enzyme called
a) Ripening b) Browning c) Papain d) All of these
2. Acids are formed by the _________ of the plant.
a) stem b) respiratory c) plant d) during cooking
3. Hydrogenated and saturated fatty acids are resistant to________
a) changes in odour b) colour
c) oxidation d) flavour
4. Antioxidants naturally present in the food is _______
a) Betacarotene b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin C d) All of these
5. Food additives used to __________
a) Increase selflife b) reduce waste
c) enhance appearance d) all of these
6. Volatie flavour components of onion is _________
a) disulphides b) dimethyl sulphide
c) butanoic acid d) hexanoic acid
7. A good example for nutraceuticals is
a) Isoflavours b) Lutcin
c) a & b d) Tomato
8. Omega-3 fatty acids present in __________ foods.
a) salmon b) tea c) cocoa d) apples
9. Probiotics are _________ intended to have health benefits.
a) non-digestible fibre b) line microorganisms
c) dietary supplements d) all of these
10. Foods that are high in prebiotic fibre is
a) Legumes b) Oats c) Berries d) All of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Discuss the classification of pigments.
(or)
b) Write the notes on non enzymatic browning reaction.
12. a) How will you prevent the rancidity during storage?
(or)
b) Explain the fortification. How will you improve the nutrient
content?
13. a) Discuss the flavour components occurring in foods.
(or)
b) Explain the benefits and ill effects of flavour.
14. a) Write notes on health benefits of functional foods.
(or)
b) Explain the functional foods of fruits and vegetables.
15. a) Discuss the difference between functional foods and
nutraceuticals.
(or)
b) Explain the importance of probiotics. Give examples.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the enzymatic browning reactions and how will you prevent the
enzymatic browning reaction.
17. Write the difference between enriched and fortified foods.
18. Discuss on the classification of food additives.
19. Explain the plant source of functional foods.
20. Explain the role of probiotics and health benefits.
Question Code : B25104 Sub Code: U16NDC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FOOD MICROBIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Mycotoxin is a toxic substance produced by__________
a) Algae b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Molds
2. Microbial growth in a food reduces______
a) PH b) Water activity
c) Redox potential d) None of these
3. The common black bread mould which forms branching stolons is _____
a) Rhizopus b) Mucor
c) Pencillium d) Aspergilus
4. Canned fruits are normally treated with low heat because of__________
a) High pH b) Low pH
c) Neutral d) None of the above
5. ________ are responsible for the spoilage of Ultra high temperature
processed milk.
a) Virus b) Bacillius subtilis
c) Moulds d) Pseudomonas
6. Spoilage of vacuum packed meat develops _________ odor
a) Sour acid b) Sour alkaline
c) Bitter acid d) None of the above
7. Spoilage of water is caused by__________
a) B. alli b) B. cinerea
c) Saprophytes d) None of the above
8. Which one of the following micro organisms involved in
fermentation Process?
a) Yeast b) Hyphae
c) Bacteria d) None of these
9. Food poisoning is a term applied to diseases caused by ________
a) Chemical b) Insects c) Microbes d) All of the above
10. Common organism responsible for enteritis is _________
a) Pseudomonas b) Salmonella
c) Micrococci d) Lactobacilli
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the chemical agents used in the control of micro
organisms?
(or)
b) Describe the structure of a bacterial cell.
12. a) Write about the factors that cause spoilage of fruits and
vegetables.
(or)
b) Explain the chemical agents that prevent the food spoilage.
13. a) What are the factors influencing the growth of micro organisms in
meat?
(or)
b) Give an account of micro organisms associated with egg.
14. a) Explain the microbial analysis of milk.
(or)
b) Write about food intoxication.
15. a) What are the signs and symptoms associated with food borne disease?
(or)
b) Write short note on Botulism.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain in detail about the chemical agents that preserve food spoilage.
17. Discuss the organisms spoiling fruits and vegetables and state its
preventive measures.
18. Enumerate the spoilage of milk and milk products.
19. Describe in detail the bacteriological analysis of drinking water.
20. Elaborate any three water borne diseases with suitable examples.
Question Code : A25202 Sub Code: BNDAS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OFFICE AUTOMATION – I
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which items are placed at the end of a document
a) Footer b) Foot Note c) End Note d) Header
2. The space left between the margin and the start of a paragraph is called
a) Spacing b) Gutter c) Indentation d) Alignment
3. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal
template?
a) 9 pt b) 12 pt c) 14 pt d) None of Above
4. AutoCorrect was originally designed to replace _________ words as you
type.
a) Grammatically incorrect b) Short, repetitive
c) Misspelled d) None of the above
5. DropCap means
a) Small Caps b) Title case
c) All Caps d) None of the above
6. It is possible to _______ a data source before performing a merge.
a) Modify b) Sort c) Create d) all of the above
7. You can activate a cell by
a) Pressing the Tab key b) Clicking the cell
c) Pressing an arrow key d) All of above
8. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet
called ?
a) Column b) Value c) Address d) Cell
9. When you use the fill effects in the format data series dialog box,
you can not
a) rotate text on the chart b) select a fore ground color
c) select a pattern d) select a background color
10. Which function in Excel tells how many numeric entries are there?
a) NUM b) COUNT c) SUM d) CHKNUM
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) How to use find and replace options in word? Explain in detail.
(or)
b) What is the purpose of cut, copy and paste in Word? Explain
briefly.
12. a) How to made Text Formatting in word? Explain.
(or)
b) Give the steps to insert bullets in word document.
13. a) What are the various options in spell checking in word?
(or)
b) Explain Mail-Merge techniques in word.
14. a) How to enter formulas in worksheet cells? Explain.
(or)
b) How to working with fonts in Excel?
15. a) How to enhance excel sheet using various functions?
(or)
b) Write down the Steps to Print Worksheet.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. How to create new documents in ms-word? Explain.
17. What are the formatting features in word? Explain
18. Give the various methods to introduce tables in word
19. Explain Editing Features in Excel
20. Write down the options to customizing charts in excel.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Elaborate the various methods used to test the flour.
5. Mention the external bread faults. State its causes and remedies.
6. Explain the process of bread making.
7. Analyse the characteristics of cake.
8. How do you prepare the following
a. Fatless sponge cake
b. Christmas cake
c. Plain biscuit
Question Code: B25402 Sub Code: U16NDS21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT – BAKERY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Explain the different types of fat and write its functions in baking.
(or)
b) State the types, functions and uses of yeast in baking.
2. a) Explain the following methods of bread making.
i) Straight dough method
ii) Salt delayed method
iii) No dough time method
(or)
b) Examine the internal bread faults. State its causes and remedies.
3. a) Write about the fondant icing and gum paste.
(or)
b) Write the role of the ingredients used in biscuits
Question Code : B50105/ B51104 Sub Code: P16COC21/
P16MCC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Operations Research is a __________ science.
a) pure b) problem solving
c) decision making d) problem solving & decision making
2. LLP has __________ important features in common.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
3. In transportation problem, which method gives the best result?
a) NWC b) LCM c) VAM d) All the above
4. _________ method is used to solve an assignment problem.
a) Stepping Stone b) MODI
c) Hungarian d) All the above
5. _________ is a strategy, a player plays all the time.
a) Negotiable b) Strategy
c) Pure strategy d) Mixed strategy
6. A game in which bargaining coalitions threats between players are
allowed is called:
a) negotiable b) strategy
c) pure strategy d) mixed strategy
1
7. ________ is customers deciding not to join the queue if it is too
long.
a) Jockeying b) Balking
c) Reneging d) Patient
8. In queuing theory the distribution is used to describe service times
as________.
a) binomial b) normal c) exponential d) none of these
9. In the network diagram, an event is represented by ________
a) an arrow b) a circle
c) an arrow and a circle d) none
10. When more than one activity leaves an event, the event is known as
_________
a) merge b) burst c) merge & burst d) none
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What do you mean by Model in Operations Research? State the
classification of Operations Research.
(or)
b) Explain the scope of Operations Research.
12. a) The following transportation problem involving three sources and
four destinations. The cell entries represent the cost of transportation
per unit.
Source
Destination
1 2 3 4 Supply
1
2
3
3
2
8
1
6
3
7
5
3
4
9
2
300
400
500
Demand 250 350 400 200 1200
2
19. The rate of arrival of customers at a public telephone booth follows
Poisson distribution, with an average time of 10 minutes between
one customer and the next. The duration of a phone call is assumed
to follow exponential Distribution, with mean time of 3 minutes.
i. What is the probability that a person arriving at the booth will
have to wait?
ii. What is the average length of the non-empty queues that form
from time to time?
iii. The Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. will install a second
booth when it is convinced that the customers would expect
waiting for at least 3 minutes for their turn to make a call. By
how much time should the flow of customers increase in order to
justify a second booth?
iv. Estimate the fraction of a day that the phone will be in use.
20. A Project has the following data:
Activity 1,2 1,3 1,4 2,5 2,6 3,6 4,7 5,7 6,7
Task A B C D E F G H I
Optimistic time 3 2 6 2 5 3 3 1 2
Pessimistic time 15 14 30 8 17 15 27 7 8
Most likely time 6 5 12 5 11 6 9 4 5
Determine:
i. Expected task times and their variance.
ii. The earliest and latest expected times to reach each event.
iii. The critical path.
iv. The probability of an event occurring at the proposed completion
date if the original contract time of completing the project is 27
days.
Obtain the initial basic feasible solution using the following methods:
i. Northwest corner method
ii. Least cost method
(or)
b) Assign four sales persons to four different sales regions as shown in
the following table such that the total sales is maximized.
salesman
Sales region
1 2 3 4
1 10 22 12 14
2 16 18 22 10
3 24 20 12 18
4 16 14 24 20
The cell entries represent annual sales figures in lakhs of rupees.
Find the optimal allocation of the sales persons in different regions.
13. a) What is ‘Game theory’? Discuss its importance in business decisions.
(or)
b) Consider pay-off matrix with respect to Player A and solve it
optimally.
Player B
1 2
Player A 1 6 9
2 8 4
14. a) The mean rate of arrival of planes at an airport during the peak period
is 20 per hour, and the actual number of arrivals in any hour follows a
Poisson distribution. The airport can land 60 planes per hour on an
average in good weather and 30 planes per hour in bad weather, but the
actual number landed in any hour follows a Poisson distribution with
these respective averages. When there is congestion, the planes are
forced to fly over the field in the stack awaiting for the landing of other
planes that arrived earlier;
i) How many planes would be flying over the field in the stack on an
average in good weather and in bad weather?
(ii) How long a plane would be in the stack and in the process of landing
in good and in bad weather?
6 3
(or)
b) An airlines organization has one reservation clerk on duty in its
local branch at any given time. The clerk handles information
regarding passenger reservation and flight timings. Assume that the
number of customers arriving during any given period is Poisson
distributed with an arrival rate of eight per hour and that the
reservation clerk can serve a customer in six minutes on an average,
with an exponentially distributed service time.
i. What is the probability that the system is busy?
ii. What is the average time a customer spends in the system?
iii. What is the average length of the queue and what is the
number of customers in the system?
15. a) A small maintenance project consists of the following twelve jobs
whose precedence relations are identified with their node numbers:
Job (i,j) (1,2) (1,3) (1,4) (2,3) (2,5) (2,6) (3,7) (4,5) (5,6) (6,7) (6,8) (7,8)
Duration
(in days) 10 4 6 5 12 9 12 15 6 5 4 7
i. Draw an arrow diagram representing the project.
ii. Calculate earliest start, earliest finish, latest start and latest
finish time for all the jobs.
iii. Find the critical path and project duration.
(or)
b) From the following information find the critical path:
Activity time (days) Preceding
activities
Activity time
(days)
Preceding
activities
A 2 - I 10 H
B 2 - J 7 I
C 4 - K 6 C,D
D 6 B L 2 C,D
E 1 B M 2 C,D
F 1 A,E N 1 J
G 3 C,D O 2 M
H 45 G
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Maximize Z= 6x1 + 4x2
Subject to the constraints x1 + 2x2 720 ; 2x1 + x2 780;
x1 320; x1 0, and x2 0
17. A company has four factories F1, F2, F3 and F4 manufacturing the same
product. Production and raw material costs differ from factory to factory
and are given in the following table in the first two rows. The
transportation costs from the factories to the sales depots, S1, S2, S3 are
also given. The last two columns in the table give the sales price and the
total requirement at each depot. The production capacity of each factory
is given in the last row.
F1 F2 F3 F4 Sales
per unit
Requir
ement
Production cost
/ unit
Raw material
cost / unit
Transportation
cost / unit
Supply
S1
S2
S3
15
10
3
1
5
10
18
9
9
7
8
150
14
12
5
4
3
50
13
9
4
5
6
100
34
32
31
80
120
150
Determine the most profitable production and distribution schedule and
the corresponding profit.
18. Consider 4 X 4 game played by players A and B and solve it optimally.
Player B
1 2 3 4
1 6 2 4 8
Player A 2 2 –1 1 12
3 2 3 3 9
4 5 2 6 10
4 5
20. The following is a summary of the trading and profit and loss
account of Messrs Alpha Manufacturing Co. Ltd for the year ended
31st March 2017.
Rs. Rs.
To material
consumed
27,40,000 By sales (1,20,000
units)
60,00,000
To wages 15,10,000 By finished stock
(4,000 units)
1,60,000
To factory expenses 8,30,000 By work in progress
To administration
expenses
3,82,400 Materials 64,000
To selling and
distribution expenses
4,50,000 Wages 36,000
To preliminary
expenses (written
off)
40,000 Factory
expenses
20,000
To goodwill (written
off)
20,000 1,20,000
To Net profit 3,25,600 By dividend
received
18,000
62,98,000 62,98,000
The company manufactures a standard unit. In the cost accounts
i) Factory expenses have been recovered from production at
20 percent on prime cost.
ii) Administration expenses at Rs.3 per unit on units
produced.
iii) Selling and distribution expenses at Rs.4 per unit on units
sold.
You are required to prepare a statement of cost and profit in cost
books of the company and to reconcile the profit disclosed with that
shown in the financial accounts.
Question Code : B50106 / B51105 Sub Code:P16COC22/
P16MCC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COST ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Basic objective of cost accounting is
a) Tax compliance b) Financial audit
c) Cost Ascertainment d) none of these
2. Warehouse rent is a part of
a) Prime cost b) Distribution overhead
c) Selling overhead d) Factory overhead
3. ABC analysis is
a) Always Better Control b) Advantage of Better Control
c) At Best Control d) None of the above
4. Time wages are paid on the basis of
a) Standard time b) Time saved
c) Output produced d) Actual time
5. Overhead is also known as
a) On cost b) Basic cost c) Extra cost d) Chargeable expenses
6. Appropriate basis for apportionment of material handling charges is
a) Material purchased b) Material in stock
c) Material consumed d) Material wasted
7. Job costing is the most suitable method for
a) Oil processing units b) Transport companies
c) Sugar industry d) Repair shops
1
1 8
8. Scrap value of normal loss is
a) Credited to P & L a/c b) Show in Balance sheet
c) Credited to Process a/c d) Debited to Process account
9. Reconciliation is usually done between
a) Gross profit and net profit
b) Previous year’s profit and current year’s profit
c) Costing profit and Financial accounts profit
d) none of the above
10. Over valuation of opening stock in financial accounts
a) Decreases costing profit b) Increases Financial accounts profit
c) Decreases Financial accounts profit
d) None of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Define cost accounting. What are its objectives?
(or)
b) M/s Indhu Industries Ltd are the manufacturers of moon light
torches. The following data relate to manufacture of torches during
the month of March 2017.
Raw materials consumed Rs. 20,000
Direct wages Rs. 12,000
Machine hours worked 9,500 hours
Machine hour rate Rs. 2
Office overheads 20% of works cost
Selling overheads 50 paise per unit
Units produced 20,000 units
Units sold 18,000 @ Rs.5 per unit
Prepare cost sheet showing the cost and the profit per unit
and the total profit earned.
H.P. Machines 60 30 50 10 -
Light points 10 15 20 10 5
Floor space (sq. ft) 2,000 2,500 3,000 2,000 500
The following figures extracted from the accounting records are relevant.
Rent and rates Rs.5,000 General Lighting Rs.600, Indirect wages
Rs.1,939; Power Rs.1,500; Depreciation on Machine Rs.10,000 and
Sundries Rs.9,695
The expenses of the Service departments are allocated as under:
P1 P2 P3 S1 S2
S1 20% 30% 40% - 10%
S2 40% 20% 30% 10% -
Find out the total cost of product ‘X’ which is processed for
manufacture in Department P1, P2 and P3 for 4, 5 and 3 hours respectively,
given that its Direct material cost is Rs.50 and Direct Labour cost Rs.30.
19. Bengal Chemical Co. Ltd produced three chemicals during the month of
July 2017 by three consecutive processes. In each process 2% of the total
weight put in is lost and 10% is scrap which from processes (1) and (2)
realizes Rs.100 a ton and from process (3) Rs.20 a ton.
The products of three processes are dealt with as follows:
Process 1 Process 2 Process 3
Passed on to the
next process
75% 50% -
Sent to warehouse
for sale
25% 50% 100%
Expenses incurred
Process 1 Process 2 Process 3
Rs. Tons Rs. Tons Rs. Tons
Raw materials 1,20,000 1,000 28,000 140 1,07,840 1348
Manufacturing
wages
20,500 - 18,520 - 15,000 -
General expenses 10,300 - 7,240 - 3,100 -
Prepare process cost accounts showing the cost per ton of each
product.
7 2
d) Interest charged but not considered in financial accounts –
Rs.6,000
e) Preliminary expenses written off – Rs.13,000
f) Overhead expenses charged in financial accounts are
Rs.1,21,200 but overheads recovered in cost accounts are
Rs.1,26,000
Find out the profit as per financial accounts by drawing up a
reconciliation statement.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. State and explain the main differences between financial accounting
and cost accounting.
17. Show the stores ledger entries as they would appear when using:
a) The weighted average method
b) The simple average method of pricing issues, in connection with
the following transactions.
Unit Price Rs.
April 1 Balance in hand b/f 300 2.00
2 Purchased 200 2.20
4 Issued 150
6 Purchased 200 2.30
11 Issued 150
19 Issued 200
22 Purchased 200 2.40
27 Issued 150
In a period of rising prices such as the above, what are the
effects of each method?
18. Modern Manufacturers Ltd., have three production departments P1,
P2, P3 and two service departments S1 and S2 the details pertaining to
which are as under.
P1 P2 P3 S1 S2
Direct wages (Rs.) 3,000 2,000 3,000 1,500 195
Working hours 3070 4475 2419 - -
Value of
Machines(Rs.)
60,000 80,000 1,00,000 5,000 5,000
12. a) Find out the economic ordering quantity(E.O.Q) from the following
particulars and also show a graph identifying economic ordering
quantity.
Annual usage : 6,000 units
Cost of material per unit : Rs. 20
Cost of placing and receiving one order : Rs. 60
Annual carrying cost of one unit : 10% of inventory value
(or)
b) From the particulars given below, prepare labour cost per man-day of
8 hours
a) Basic Salary Rs. 2 per day
b) Dearness allowance 25 paise per every point over
100 cost of living index for
working class. Current cost of
living index is 700 points.
c) Leave Salary 10% of (a) and (b)
d) Employer’s contribution to
provident fund
8% of (a), (b) and (c)
e) Employer’s contribution to
state insurance
2.5% of (a) , (b) and (c)
f) Expenditure on amenities
to labour
Rs. 20 per head per mensem
h) Number of working days
in a month
25 days of 8 hours each
13. a) A company has three production departments and two service
departments their respective expenditures are given below.
Production Departments Service Departments
A – Rs. 800 X – Rs. 234
B – Rs. 700 Y – Rs. 300
C – Rs. 500
Service departments give service in the following manner to
various departments.
Service departments A B C X Y
X 20% 40% 30% - 10%
Y 40% 20% 20% 20% -
6 3
You are required to show the distribution of service
department overheads under simultaneous equation method.
(or)
b) Calculate Machine hour rate from the following:
i. Cost of machine Rs. 19, 200
ii. Estimated scrap value Rs.1,200
iii. Average repairs and maintenance charges per month Rs.150
iv. Standing charges allocated to machine per month Rs. 50
v. Effective working life of machine 10,000 hours.
vi. Running time per month 166 hours
vii. Power used by machine : 5 units per hour @ 19 paise per
unit.
14. a) Distinguish between Job costing and contract costing.
(or)
b) A newly appointed cost accountant, you find that the selling price
of Job No. 1234 has been calculated on the following basis:
Rs.
Materials 12.08
Direct wages – 22 hours at 25 paise per
hour
5.50
(Department A = 10 hours, B = 4 hours and
C = 8 hours)
17.58
Plus 33 31 % on prime cost 5.86
23.44
An analysis of the previous year’s profit and loss account
shows the following:
Rs. Rs.
Materials used 77,500 Factory overheads
Direct wages A 2,500
A 5,000 B 4,000
B 6,000 C 1,000
C 4,000 Selling costs 30,000
You are required to (a) draw up a job cost sheet (b) calculate
and enter the revised costs using the previous years figures as basis:
(c) add to the total job cost 10% for profit and give the final selling price.
15. a) Profit disclosed by a Company’s cost accounts for the year was
Rs.50,000, whereas the net profit as disclosed by the financial accounts
was Rs.29,750. Following information is available.
a) Overheads as per cost accounts were estimated at Rs.8,500.
The charge for the year shown by the financial accounts
was Rs.7,000
b) Director’s fees shown in the financial accounts only for
Rs.2,000
c) The company allowed Rs.5,000 as prevision for doubtful
debts
d) Work was commenced during the year on a new factory
and expenditure of Rs.30,000 was made. Depreciation at 5
percent p.a. was provided for in the financial accounts for 6
months
e) Share – transfer fees received during the year were
Rs.1,000
f) Provision for income tax was Rs.15,000
From the above, prepare a statement reconciling the figures
shown by the cost and financial accounts.
(or)
b) The profit as per cost accounts is Rs.1,65,300. The following details
are ascertained on comparison of cost financial accounts.
Cost accounts
Rs.
Financial
accounts Rs.
a) Opening stocks
Materials 32,600 33,000
Work-in-progress 20,000 21,000
b) Closing stocks
Materials 36,000 34,400
Work-in-progress 16,000 15,200
c) Interest remitted but ignored in cost accounts – Rs. 800
4 5
Question Code : B50107 Sub Code: P16COC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPANY LAW
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Neyveli Lignite Corporation is an example of
a) Registered Company b) Statutory Company
c) Chartered Company d) Government Company
2. A Company limited by shares
a) has unlimited liability b) has a perpetual succession
c) comes to an end on the death of all the members
d) none of the above
3. The Charter of a Company is its
a) Articles of Association b) Prospectus
c) Statement in lieu of prospectus d) Memorandum of Association
4. The Articles of Association of a Company can be altered by passing
a) a special resolution b) an ordinary resolution
c) a resolution with special notice d) no resolution is required
5. The secretary of a company may be
a) any individual, firm or body corporate
b) only an individual
c) only a body corporate and
d) only a firm
6. Unless the Articles provide for the retirement of all directors at
every annual general Meeting, atleast
a) two thirds b) one third
c) one half of the total number of directors are liable to retire by
rotation
d) three fourth
7. The notice for a general meeting of a company must be given atleast
a) 7 days b) 14 days
c) 21 days d) 30 days before the meeting
8. A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar for registration
within
a) 14 days b) 21 days
c) 30 days d) 45 days of its passing
9. A company may be wound up by the court
a) by passing an ordinary resolution
b) by passing special resolution
c) If the Memorandum permits such winding up
d) none of the above
10. An official Liquidator is appointed by the
a) Central Government b) Registrar of Companies
c) Court d) Creditors
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Define a Company. What are its features?
(or)
b) What is a Private Company? What are its Privileges?
12. a) What is Memorandum of Association? What are its contents?
(or)
b) Enumerate the contents of Articles of Association.
13. a) State the Qualification and Disqualification of a Director in a
Company.
(or)
b) State the Provisions of the Companies Act regarding the appointment
of an Auditor in a company.
14. a) Briefly explain the Provisions relating to the conduct of Annual
General Meeting in a company?
(or)
b) Write a short notes on:
a) Agenda b) Quorum c) Minutes
15. a) State the provisions of the Companies Act with regard to winding up
of the company by Court.
(or)
b) State the consequences of Winding up order.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Briefly describe the documents to be filled with the Registrar of
Companies prior to incorporation.
17. Explain the Liabilities for misstatement in the Prospectus.
18. Discuss the powers and duties of a Director of a company under the
companies Act.
19. Explain the various types of resolutions which may be passed in a
meeting of the shareholders.
20. State the Duties and Powers of the Official Liquidator in case of winding
up.
Question Code : B50108 Sub Code: P16COC24
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPUTER AND OFFICE AUTOMATION
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which characteristic is used to measuring the computing power of the
computer?
a) Speed b) Storage c) Word Length d) Accuracy
2. What is the second generation computer?
a) Vacuum Tubes b) IC
c) Microprocessor d) Transistor
3. Line spacing option is available in which dialog box?
a) Font b) Paragraph
c) Table Properties d) Page Setup
4. _________ option is used the text in rows and columns wise in MS
Word.
a) Table b) Chart
c) Columns d) None of these
5. =Average() is the function of __________
a) Financial b) Statistical
c) Math and Trig d) Text
6. One of the calculated graphical representation of data in MS Excel is
a) Chart b) Flowchart
c) Object d) Picture
7. PowerPoint is an _________ based application.
a) Document b) Database c) Table d) Slide
8. Continuous movement of slide content is called as
a) Imagination b) Animation
c) Slide Show d) None of these
9. ___________ provides the tools for creating fields in a table?
a) Design view b) Drawing view
c) Table view d) Both a and b
10. How many data types are available in table design view of MS-
Access?
a) 20 b) 8 c) 6 d) 10
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the characteristics of computers.
(or)
b) Define the following earlier computers.
i) ENIAC ii) EDSAC iii) UNIVAC.
12. a) How do you find and replacing the text in MS-Word?
(or)
b) How do we check the spelling errors in MS-Word?
13. a) Discuss about the moving and copying worksheets in MS-Excel.
(or)
b) Write notes on inserting and deleting rows and columns in MS-
Excel.
14. a) Explain the steps for creating the new slide.
(or)
b) What are the steps to inserting pictures and clip arts in slide?
15. a) Give the notes for creating forms using wizard.
(or)
b) Write shortly about creating reports using wizard.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss about the Computer Architecture and Organization.
17. How to Format the document in MS-Word?
18. Explain about functions of Excel in detail.
19. Write short notes on creating the presentation.
20. Discuss about creating the tables in design view with figure.
Question Code : B50303/ B51303 Sub Code: P16COE21 /
P16MCE21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
RESEARCH METHODS IN COMMERCE
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ________ study is for assessing the effectiveness of social programmes
implemented on the development of the project area.
a) Descriptive b) Analytical
c) Evaluation d) Exploratory
2. Developing the ideas through discussion is known as _________
a) experience survey b) secondary data
c) primary data d) analytical survey
3. _________ sample is not a probability sample design.
a) cluster b) convenience c) stratified d) quota
4. _________ is suitable method of collecting data in cases where the
informants are literate and spread over a vast area.
a) Mailed questionnaire b) Information through agencies
c) Schedules d) Interview
5. The degree of contingency table is on the basis of __________
a) n –1 b) c – 1 c) r – 1 d) (c – 1) (r – 1)
6. In two tailed test, the acceptance region is represented as ________
a) Z = 1 b) Z = 0 c) Z 0 d) Z > 0
7. _________ scale is also known as summated scale
a) Judgement b) Arbitrary c) Social distance d) Likert’s
8. _________ attribute statements are asked to the respondents to agree
or disagree to test the attributes.
a) 10 to 15 b) 5 to 25 c) 1 to 5 d) 25 to 30
9. In chronological classification data are classified on the basis of
__________
a) attributes b) class interval
c) time d) location
10. _________ report is prepared for the consumption of the lay
audience
a) Summary b) Interim
c) Popular d) Research article
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Define research. What are its characteristics?
(or)
b) Write short note on a) Descriptive Research
b) Action Research
12. a) Distinguish between Questionnaire and schedule.
(or)
b) What are the factors determining non-sampling errors?
13. a) Point out the limitations of hypothesis.
(or)
b) What are the characteristics of hypothesis?
14. a) What are the categories for measurement of scales?
(or)
b) Explain the classification of scales.
15. a) What are the techniques of Interpretation of data?
(or)
b) Define a research report and explain its purposes.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Enumerate the elements of research design.
17. Describe about the types of non-probability sampling.
18. Explain about the procedure for testing of hypothesis.
19. Explain in detail about the Likert five point scaling technique.
20. Discuss the contents of a research report.
Question Code : B51106 Sub Code: P16MCC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
JAVA PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10
marks
1. The Java compiler
a) create executable b) creates classes
c) translates java source code to byte code
d) produces java interpreter
2. Modulus (%) operator can be applied to
a) integers b) floats c) chars d) both a & b
3. The _____ is an exit-controlled loop statement
a) if b) while c) do-while d) for
4. The _____ statement is also known as multi way decision statement.
a) Switch b) while c) do..while d) for
5. _____ is used when objects are required to perform similar tasks but
using different input parameters.
a) Constructors b) Destructors
c) Overloading d) Recursion.
6. Objects in Java are created using the _____ operator.
a) new b) dot c) * d) none
7. _____ method gives substring starting from nth
character upto mth
.
a) s1.chartAt(n) b) s1.substring(n,m)
c) s1.length d) s1.substring(m,n)
8. The _____ method is the heart and soul of any thread.
a) run() b) stop() c) start() d) wait().
9. The applet code uses the services of two _____.
a) classes b) objects c) modules d) methods
10. Applets are small java programs that are primarily used in _____
computing.
a) distributed b) internet c) parallel d) hybrid
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain about the Java tokens.
OR
b) Discuss various data types in java with examples.
12. a) Explain switch statement with example.
OR
b) Write a java program to count the even and odd numbers from the
given list
13. a) Describe Constructor with example.
OR
b) Briefly write about Visibility controls.
14. a) How will you extend thread class? Explain.
OR
b) What are the commonly used string methods? Explain..
15. a) How will you build applet code? Explain.
OR
b) Explain the attributes of APPLET tag.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the different operators used in java.
17. With sample java code explain different looping statements in Java.
18. Illustrate the concept of Inheritance in java.
19. Explain about single dimensional and multi dimensional arrays in java
with example.
20. Explain applet life cycle with example.
Question Code: B63105 Sub Code: P16CSC21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
RELATIONAL DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. DML is a language that enables users to________
a) Access and manipulate data b) To access data
c) To manipulate data d) None of the above
2. Data about data is normally termed as________
a) Directory b) Data bank
c) Metadata d) Operating system
3. The E-R data model represents________
a) Overall structure of table b) Overall structure of database
c) Mapping structure d) Entity relationship
4. A set of possible data values called________
a) Attributes b) Tuple c) Degree d) Domain
5. A transaction that is inserting a new tuple into database is given an________
a) Shared lock b) Mutual lock
c) Exclusive lock d) No lock
6. A time stamp-ordering scheme ensures________
a) Serializability b) Cascading
c) Atomicity d) Consistency
7. ________ query is a type of DDL
a) Insert b) Update c) Delete d) Create
8. WHERE clause can be used in ________ statements
a) Select b) Delete c) Update d) All of the above
9. The concept of joining multiple tables is called
a) Cross join b) Outer join
c) Equal join d) Inner join
10. How many types of indexes are there in sql server?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the major advantages and disadvantages of Database
systems.
(or)
b) List the main functions of database administration.
12. a) Explain the distinction among the terms primary key, candidate key
and super key.
(or)
b) Write short notes about Decomposition using multivalued.
13. a) Write short notes about Deadlock handling.
(or)
b) Explain the categories of Failure classification.
14. a) Explain modifying data in a table with an example.
(or)
b) Explain about removing a record from a table with an example.
15. a) What is an index? How various types of indexes are created? Explain the
syntax with example.
(or)
b) Explain about subqueries with an example.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the following :
a. Tuple relational calculus
b. Domain relational calculus
17. Briefly explain about ER diagram with an example.
18. Explain about transactions and concurrency control.
19. Create a table with an example. Explain how to insert and view a data from a
table.
20. Explain the structure of PL/SQL block, and create a simple program with
PL/SQL.
Question Code: B63106 Sub Code: P16CSC22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DATA COMMUNICATIONS AND NETWORKING
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ___________ is a set of rules that govern data communication.
a) Protocol b) Medium c) Semantic d) Datagram
2. Which layer is concerned with the syntax and semantics of the information
exchanged between two systems?
a) Physical b) Presentation
c) Application d) Session
3. Which transmission mechanism requires only one communication channel?
a) Serial b) Parallel c) Universal d) Multiple
4. ___________multiplexing is a technique used when the data rate of an input
line is a multiple of other.
a) Slot b) Allocation c) Stuffing d) Multilevel
5. In __________ propagation, very high frequency signals are transmitted in
straight lines directly from antenna to antenna.
a) ground b) sky
c) line of straight d) tropical
6. Datagram switching is normally done at the __________
a) network layer b) physical layer
c) data link layer d) session layer
7. ___________refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of
data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgement.
a) Error control b) Flow control
c) Data control d) Line control
8. ____________technique is used to improve the efficiency of the
bidirectional protocol.
a) polling b) piggybacking c) stuffing d) framing
9. ____________is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the
same flow.
a) Jitter b) Delay c) Error flow d) Flow control
10. In__________ queueing, packets wait in a buffer until the node is ready
to process them.
a) LIFO b) FIFO c) sequence d) synchronous
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write about the key elements of a protocol.
(or)
b) Write about presentation layer and application layer.
12. a) Write about the serial transmission.
(or)
b) Write about delta modulation.
13. a) Write about coaxial cable.
(or)
b) Write about Block coding.
14. a) Write about bit oriented framing.
(or)
b) Write about channelization.
15. a) Write about closed loop congestion control.
(or)
b) Write about the four types of characteristics that are attributed to the flow
related to quality of service.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain periodic analog signals.
17. Explain digital to analog conversion.
18. Explain cyclic redundancy check.
19. Explain framing.
20. Explain integrated services related to quality of service.
Question Code: B63107 Sub Code: P16CSC23
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SYSTEM SOFTWARE
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In SIC/XE machine instructions are stored in _________format.
a) 48 bit b) 8 bit c)16 bit d) 24 bit
2. __________register contains the address of the next instruction to be
fetched for execution.
a) A b) X c) SW d) PC
3. Translator for low level language into machine level language is termed as
_________
a) Assembler b) Compiler c) Linker d) Loader
4. The assembler stores all the names and their corresponding values
in________.
a) Special purpose Register b) registers
c) Value map Set d) Symbol Table
5. The utility program used to bring the object code into memory for execution
called as __________.
a) Loader b) Fetcher c) Extractor d) Linker
6. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always?
a) Text editor b) Assembler c) Linker d) Loader
7. A macro calls on another macro is called ________macro call.
a) nested b) repeat
c) overloading d) recursive
8. A macro within a macro is called________
a) macro-within-macro b) nested macro
c) macro-in-macro d) recursive
9. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is
called_________.
a) Ambiguous b) Unambiguous
c) Regular d) Recursive
10. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
a) Parser b) Code optimization
c) Code generator d) Lexical analyser
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Give the description about the registers, data formats, instruction
formats, Instruction set and addressing modes of a SIC machine.
(or)
b) Write about RISC machines.
12. a) Describe how Multipass Assembler performs assembling process.
(or)
b) Explain the various design options of an assembler other than two
pass assembler.
13. a) What are the functions of Linkage Editor?
(or)
b) What are the functions of an Absolute Loader? Explain.
14. a) Give description about Conditional Macro Expansion in Macros.
(or)
b) What are Keyword Macro parameters? Discuss with examples.
15. a) Discuss about the code optimization phases of a compiler.
(or)
b) Write about the Machine Independent Compiler features.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Give the Architecture of SIC/XE machine.
17. Explain the functions of Two Pass Assembler Algorithm.
18. Explain about the working principles of a Loader.
19. Write in detail about the Macro processor algorithms.
20. What are the various types of Code Optimization techniques available?
Discuss.
Question Code: B63302 Sub Code: P16CSE22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
UNIX AND SHELL PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Unix Operating System is an __________.
a) Time Sharing Operating System b) Multi-tasking Operating System
c) Multi-User Operating System d) All of the Above
2. How do you get help about the command "cp"?
a) help cp b) cp ? c) man cp d) cat cp
3. dev/null ________.
a) is a file b) has write permission for all
c) is the UNIX built-in dustbin d) all of these
4. The command to change the file permissions and allow the owner to execute
the file is ________.
a) chmod b) chown c) chgrp d) None
5. Which command is used with vi editor to move the cursor one row up?
a) i b) h c) j d) k
6. Full form of sed is ________.
a) Sequential Data b) Stream Editor
c) Sequence Editor d) None of these
7. _________ command display the status of a process.
a) ls b) ps c) grep d) cat
8. The______command is used to control background process dispatch
priority.
a) nice b) nohup c) wait d) talk
9. case statement ends with ______.
a) end b) end case c) esac d) None of these
10. Which of the following results in error?
a) expr 4 + 5 b) expr 4 – 5 c) expr 4 * 5 d) expr 4 / 5
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the history and components of UNIX.
(or)
b) Explain the File system and Organizing the UNIX Files.
12. a) Explain the different File Attributes in UNIX.
(or)
b) Write short notes on handling of Databases in UNIX.
13. a) Discuss the following with the vi Editor.
i) Pattern Searching ii) Joining Lines.
(or)
b) Discuss configuring of vi Environment.
14. a) Write short notes on i) nohup command ii) time command.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Electronic Mail.
15. a) Discuss control structures of Shell Programming.
(or)
b) Explain the eval and exec command.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the following. i) Commands in UNIX ii) Categories of Files
iii) Directory Commands
17. Explain chmod and chown commands of UNIX.
18. Discuss in detail about Regular Expressions.
19. Write short notes on i) ps command ii) mesg command
20. Explain i) Positional Parameters ii) Sleep Command
iii) Script Command
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 =45 marks
6. Define Plagiarism and its consequences.
7. Write an essay on the use of quotations, ellipsis and other alteration
of sources.
8. Write about Format of research.
9. Write an essay on the organizations of materials.
10. Discuss what is Abbreviation and its ways to be used in a
documentation with example
Question Code: B93101 Sub Code: MP17EL11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) What is Web source? Methods to collect Web sources.
(or)
b) How to overcome Plagiarism in a research?
2. a) Methods to use Punctuations in a document.
(or)
b) Describe the ways of writing title with the use of Mechanics of
writing. Give some examples.
3. a) What are the ways to arrange the chapters according to the format of
research?
(or)
b) How to write the Quotations in the research paper?
4. a) What are procedures to list out the work cited?
(or)
b) What is called as Sample reference with few examples?
5. a) Name some Style manuals.
(or)
b) When and where to use Abbreviation?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 =45 marks
6. The resistance to theory is the resistance to the rhetorical or
topological dimension of the language. Discuss.
7. Examine Hillis Miller’s views on the critic as host.
8. Why does Terry Eagleton consider that the utopian desire for fusion
of art and social praxis has become a dystopian reality?
9. How does Elaine Showalter analyse the nexus between gynocritics
and women’s texts?
10. Why does Fish feel that the normative meaning of an utterance will
no longer be the same in another situation?
Question Code: B93102 Sub Code: MP17EL12
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
CRITICAL THEORIES
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) What according to Paul de Man are the ‘reading functions’?
(or)
b) How does Gerard Genette view the role of a critic?
2. a) Differentiate ‘Differing’ from ‘Deferring’.
(or)
b) Examine Miller’s views on ‘Deconstruction’ and ‘Deconstructive
reading’.
3. a) What according to Terry Eagleton are the mistakes of the
Postmodernism?
(or)
b) Discuss Said’s charge on ‘falsity in the textual attitude’.
4. a) Discuss Elaine Showalter’s idea on the relation between Women’s
writing and Women’s culture.
(or)
b) Write a note on Hirsch’s analysis on the three realistic fallacies.
5. a) Why does Stanley Fish consider that determinacy and decidability of
the textual meaning can change?
(or)
b) How does Abrams justify his stance that language is implicitly
mimetic?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Discuss in detail all the characters of The Black Mate.
7. Discuss about the Miseries in the life of Martha.
8. Bring out the reasons for Mithilda’s problems and how it is solved?
9. Why is Pahour always worried and unsettled?
10. How does Jumpha Lahiri brief out the Indianness in Mrs. Sen.
Question Code: B93102 Sub Code: MP17ELE11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SHORT STORIES
Time : 3 Hrs M.Phil (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. a) Discuss various characters in ‘The Black Mate’.
(or)
b) Why was Martha always worried?
2. a) Discuss the conditions how the boy realises his true love in The Lost
Child.
(or)
b) What is the real misery in the life of Edna?
3. a) Why Matilda had to suffer so much depict her peaceful life?
(or)
b) Why was there a change of Behaviours in his wife in the house of
Darrow?
4. a) Discuss about the greed in the character of Pahour.
(or)
b) Discuss Johanka’s weekness and the result of her weakness.
5. a) Why does Mrs. Sen not about to come to terms with the American
culture?
(or)
b) What was the true intensions of the brothers?
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 10 = 50 marks
9. a) Discuss the different generations of computers.
OR
b) List out and explain various I/O devices in brief.
10. a) Discuss the concepts of Data processing with example.
OR
b) Illustrate the features of windows.
11. a) Write about the find option in the start button.
OR
b) How to create a folder? Write the procedure to copy and delete a
file in a folder.
12. a) What is Internet? Discuss the basic uses of internet.
OR
b) Write a note on Domain Name System and how to register our
own domain name.
13. a) What is URL? Explain its different types.
OR
b) Explain File transfer system.
Sub Code: PDCA16C1
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
FUNDAMENTALS OF COMPUTERS AND INTERNET
TECHNOLOGIES
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max.
Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any 5 questions 5 x 5 = 25 marks
1. How to classify computers? Describe in detail.
2. What are compilers and interpreters? Discuss.
3. Enumerate the features seen in the windows desktop.
4. Give an account on sub menus of START button.
5. Write a note on system tools.
6. Discuss the architecture of Web server and clients.
7. What is protocol? Explain.
8. Write a note on Gopher pace.
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 10 = 50 marks
9. a) Discuss the basic concepts of windows operating systems.
OR
b) How to create, store, remove and print files in windows?
10. a) How to format a text and paragraph in word.
OR
b) Explain mail merge concept with example.
11. a) Discuss the usage of formulas and data formatting in excel.
OR
b) Write a procedure to create a chart in Excel. Explain different
types of charts.
12. a) Write a procedure to include object and slide animations? Explain
with example.
OR
b) What is sorter view? How to use sorter view and spell check in
PowerPoint?
13. a) Write the procedure to create table and to access it.
OR
b) Write a procedure to create reports in MS Access.
Sub Code: PDCA16C2
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
OFFICE AUTOMATION
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any 5 questions 5 x 5 = 25 marks
1. What is an operating system?
2. Describe basic file manipulation operations in word.
3. How to create table in MS word? Explain.
4. Discuss how to create excel functions and fill cells.
5. Write a procedure to create a PowerPoint presentation.
6. Discuss the usage of outline and slide tabs in PowerPoint.
7. How to create an Access Databases?
8. With example explain how to sort and filter records in Access.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
9. Examine the role of Transport in the promotion of Tourism.
10. Enumerate the various forms of Tourism.
11. Estimate the impact of Tourism on Indian Economy.
12. Evaluate the functions of Indian Tourism Development
Corporation.
13. Elucidate the origin and growth of PATA
Sub Code: CCTTM11
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
FUNDAMENTALS OF TOURISM
Time : 3 Hrs CCTTM Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. Define Tourism.
2. State the features of International Tourism.
3. Explain the present condition of Tourism in India.
4. Write a note on IRCTC.
5. Summarize the functions of World Tourism Organization.
6. Narrate the significance of Tourism Industry.
7. Mention the role of Archaeological Survey of India in the growth of
Tourism.
8. Bring out the works of International Air Transport Association.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
9. Explain the duties and responsibilities of Tourist Guide.
10. Enumerate the works of Guides in the preparation of a Tour.
11. Estimate the role of Guide in conducting various types of Tours.
12. Evaluate the factors responsible for the personality development for
Tourist Guide.
13. Elucidate the personality grooming and physical fitness for Tourist
Guide
Sub Code: CCTTM12
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
GUIDING SKILL & PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT
Time : 3 Hrs CCTTM Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. Describe the meaning and concepts of Guides.
2. State the method of interpreting in historical sites.
3. Explain the abilities of Guide to deliver information.
4. Write a note on meaning of Personality.
5. Summarise the etiquettes of Tourist Guide.
6. Narrate the procedure for selection of Guide in Tourism Industry.
7. Mention the role of Guide in the establishment of security measures for
Tourist.
8. Bring out the importance of communicative skills for Tourist Guides.
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 10 = 50 marks
9. a) With example, illustrate the use of various operators in C++.
OR
b) List out the control structures used in C++ and explain with
example.
10. a) i) What is function? How to declare and define a function?
ii) Write a function program to find the factorial of the given
number.
OR
b) Define function overloading? Write a program to find the area of
different shapes using function overloading.
11. a) What is constructor? List out and explain each type with sample
code.
OR
b) i) How to overload a binary operator using friend function.
ii) Write a program to overload an operator ‘+’ to add two
complex numbers.
12. a) Explain in detail about multiple and multilevel inheritances.
OR
b) How to assign pointers to objects? Explain ‘THIS’ pointer.
13. a) Explain unformatted I/O operations with example.
OR
b) Write in detail about C++ manipulators.
Sub Code: PGDCA13
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING IN C++
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any 5 questions 5 x 5 = 25 marks
1. Discuss the basic concepts of Object Oriented programming.
2. What do you mean by call by value and call by reference? Explain with
example.
3. Discuss different ways to define member functions in class.
4. With sample C++ code explain in detail about parameterized constructors.
5. What is Operator overloading? Discuss the rules for overloading.
6. With sample C++ code, explain the concept of single inheritance.
7. Write a note on I/O stream classes.
8. Explain i) inline functions ii) friend function
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
9. Write an essay on Definition of Hotel and Hotel Operation
10. Discuss the organization of the House Keeping Department
11. Enumerate the major Hotel chains in India
12. Describe about the International Hotels
13. Estimate the conditions and Guidelines for the approval of Hotel
Projects.
Sub Code: DITTM21
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
HOTEL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs DITTM Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. Write about the National Hotel Association and their operation.
2. Describe the organization chart of a Hotel.
3. Write a note on Resort Hotels
4. Give a brief note on Residential Hotels
5. Discuss the need and significance of Accommodation
6. Explain the basic elements of a Resort Complex
7. Describe the characteristics of Resort Management
8. Write about the Tools of Marketing in Hotel Management.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
9. Write an essay on Travel Formalities.
10. Discuss the difference between Travel Agency and Tour Operators.
11. Enumerate the characters of Tour Operators.
12. Describe the various types of Package Tour
13. Estimate the role of ITDA in developing Tourism.
Sub Code: DITTM22
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2017
TRAVEL AGENCY MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs DITTM Max.
Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 6 = 30 marks
1. What are the features of Travel Agency?
2. Trace the Rules for Travel Agencies.
3. Explain the meanings and Functions of Tour Operator.
4. Write about the types of Tour Operators
5. Discuss the various functions of a Travel agents.
6. Give a brief note on Tour Packaging.
7. Describe the functions of Travel Agency.
8. Give an account of TAAI.
Question Code: B21103 / A21103 Sub Code: U16PHC21/BPHCR21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
THERMAL PHYSICS AND SOUND
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics ) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases
at a given temperature?
a) mass b) speed
c) momentum d) kinetic energy
2. The critical temperature of a gas is c31 . The room temperature is 27
c. Then the gas in the room is ______.
a) can be liquefied b) can not be liquefied
c) will be solidified d) will break into electrons
3. If heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.
a) the internal energy of the gas will increase
b) the gas will do positive work
c) the gas will do negative work
d) the said process is not possible.
4. The entropy of a system in an irreversible process.
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains constant d) none of the above
5. Under steady state, the temperature of body
a) increase with time b) decrease with time
c) does not change with time and in same at all points of the body
d) does not change with time and can be different at different points of
the body
6. Average energy of a planck‟s oscillator is
a) E= h b) E = nh
c) E =
1kTh
C
h d) E = mc 2
7. Viscosity of a gas in due to transport of
a) momentum b) energy
c) mass d) none of these
8. The S. I unit of thermal conductivity is
a) 11 cmJS b) 111 cmJS
c)
cmJS 11 d) 11 cmJS
9. The reverbration time depends on
a) speed of sound b) volume of the hall
c) number of reflections d) wavelength of the sound wave
10. Ultrasonic waves are
a) electromagnetic waves b) 0 1A wavelength
c) not penetrating the liquid d) high energy content
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Derive ideal gas equation and also calculate the number of molecule in
each cubic metre of a gas at l atm and 27 c.
(or)
b) Explain in detail about Jonle – Thomson effect with neat diagram.
12. a) Explain the specific heat capacities of a gas.
(or)
b) Discuss Nernst‟s heat theorem.
13. a) Briefly explain Searle‟s method to determine thermal conductivity.
(or)
b) State and explain Stefan – Bolttz mann law and derive it from
Newton‟s law of cooling.
14. a) Derive clausius‟ expression fer mean freepath.
(or)
b) Explain in detail about self diffusion and the effect of torpresation
and pressure.
15. a) Define and explain the determination of Absorption coefficient.
(or)
b) Explain Briefly about SONAR.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe Linde‟s method to liquify the air with a neat diagram.
17. a) Explain about Diesel engine.
b) Deduce an expression for entropy of a steam.
18. Describe Forbe‟s method to determine thermal conductivity of a good
conduct.
19. Derive an expression for thermal conductivity (k) of a gas on the bases
of Transport of thermal energy and show the effect of temperature on it.
20. Describe piezo electric method to produce ultrasonic waves with neat
diagram.
*******
Question Code: B21202/ A21202 Sub Code: U16PHA21/ BPHAS21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
ALLIED PHYSICS - II
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The refractive index n of the material of a prism is given by
a)
2sin
sin
A
AD b)
2sin
DA
c)
2sin
2/sin
A
DA d) sin
2A
2. Spherical aberration can be removed by using
a) convex lens b) plano – convex lenses
c) concave lens d) cylindrical lens
3. The phenomenon used in grating is _____of light.
a) interference b) diffraction
c) polarisation d) scattering
4. Dextro – rotatory substance rotates the plane of polarisation in the
_____direction.
a) vertical b) horizontal
c) clockwise d) anticlockwise
5. 1 a.m.u is equal to
a) 931 MeV b) 9 31 MeV
c) 931 KeV d) 9 31 KeV
6. The expression for half life period is______.
a) 1 b) 0 6931
c) 0 6931/ d)
7. Atom bomb works under the principle of ______.
a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion
c) Nuclear reaction d) Radio Activity
8. In a transistor, the resistance in emitter –base junction is
a) high b) zero
c) low d) none
9. The boolean expression BAY is an output representation of which
logic function?
a) AND b) OR
c) NAND d) NOR
10. LSI stands for
a) Low Scale Integration b) Large Scale Integration
c) Limited Scale Integration d) Linear Scale Integration
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Obtain the condition to produce dispersion without deviation for a
combination of two narrow angled prisms.
(or)
b) Obtain the condition to produce deviation without dispersion for a
combination of two narrow angled prisms.
12. a) Differentiate between interference and diffraction.
(or)
b) Describe the construction, measurement and uses of Laurent‟s half
shade polarimeter to determine the specific rotatory power of sugarcane
solution.
13. a) State and explain the Weizacker‟s formula for the binding energy of a
nucleus.
(or)
b) What is meant life period? Derive an expression for mean life of a
radioactive element.
14. a) Explain the theory, construction and uses of LED.
(or)
b) Explain the biasing of transistors for active region.
15. a) Explain in detail the truth table of AND gate.
(or)
b) State and prove De Morgan‟s theorems.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Find the condition for the achromatism of two thin lenses mounted
coaxially when
i) they are in contact
ii) they are separated by a distance.
17. Give the theory of a plane transmission grating and describe how it is
used to determine the wavelength of light.
18. What is nuclear reactor? Explain the components, working, merits and
demerits of a nuclear reactor.
19. Describe an experiment to measure the IV characteristics of a zener
diode. Explain the functioning of zener diode as a voltage regulator.
20. Explain NAND and NOR as universal building blocks of AND, OR and
NOT gates.
*******
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Explain the principle, construction and operation of a cathode ray
oscilloscope.
5. What are the various types of microphones? Describe about carbon
microphone.
6. Explain about Magnetic Tape Recorders.
7. Illustrate Inductive pressure transducer and capacitive pressure transducer
with diagrams.
8. What do you mean by Direct Recording? Mention its advantages and
disadvantages.
******
Question Code: B21401 Sub Code: U16PHS21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
FUNDAMENTALS OF INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics ) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )
1. a) How do you use multimeter as ammeter?
(or)
b) Mention the applications of multimeter. Write notes on its sensitivity.
2. a) Describe the working of Resistive Position transducer with necessary
diagrams.
(or)
b) Illustrate the working of crystal microphone with diagram.
3. a) Describe about Stripchart recorders.
(or)
b) Describe about Pulse Duration Modulation (PDM) recording.
-1-
Question Code: B40103 Sub Code: U16BNC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A. Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Under ____concept, both debit and credit aspects of the transactions are
recorded.
a) Business entity b) Going concern
c) Dual aspect d) Match
2. _____means explanation entry of the journal.
a) Narration b) Ledger Folio
c) Journal Folio d) Goods in transit
3. Accounting errors that affect either debit or credit side of an account is
called _____.
a) Two sided errors b) Balancing errors
c) One sided errors d) Posting errors
4. _____is a book in which the monetary transactions of a business are
posted in the form of debit and credit.
a) Journal b) Ledger
c) Trading a/c d) Trail balance
5. ______is a statement of account of the customer maintained by the
bank.
a) Voucher b) Pass book
c) Cash book d) Sales book
6. _____gives a concise idea about the profitability and financial position
of a business.
a) Journal b) Trail balance
c) Cash book d) Final accounts
7. Depreciation is _____ from the fixed assets in the asset side of the
balance sheet.
a) multiplied b) divided
c) added d) subtracted
8. ____ is a non cash transaction.
a) Depreciation b) Rent
c) Salary d) Commission
9. ______is an expenditure which arises out of and in the course of regular
business transactions of a business.
a) Revenue loss b) Capital loss
c) Capital expenditure d) Revenue expenditure
10. Under income and expenditure account, the excess of expenditure over
income is known as _____.
a) deficit b) revenue
c) profit d) loss
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) State the major functions of accounting.
(or)
b) Classify the types of accounts in detail.
12. a) Point out the objectives of preparing trial balance.
(or)
b) Prepare Trial Balance for the following data.
-2-
books of account every year on 31st March. Prepare machinery account
for four years from 2008 to 2011.
20. From the following, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the
year ended 31st March 1991.
Receipt Rs. Payment Rs.
To balance
Cash at bank
Cash in hand
4,550
550
By Salaries 36,000
To Subscription (including
Rs.2000 for 1991 -1992)
30,000 By Rent 6,000
To Interest on investment 15,000 By Printing and
Stationery
1,450
To Bank interest 100 By Postage and
Telegrams
250
To Sale proceeds of car 2,500 By Purchase of Bicycle 950
By Purchase of Govt.
Bonds
6,800
By Balance c/d
Cash in hand
Cash at bank
120
1,130
52,700 52,700
*******
Rs.
Capital 50,000
Debtors 60,000
Bank overdraft 5,000
Purchase return 2,000
Purchases 20,000
Creditors 50,000
Drawings 25,000
Sales return 3,000
Sales 30,000
Machinery 20,000
Salary 10,000
Loan from Raj 1,000
13. a) Write short notes about Capital expenditure and Revenue expenditure.
(or)
b) From the following particulars of Banu & Co, prepare Bank
Reconciliation statement as on 31st December 2016.
Cash at bank as per cash book Rs.10,500
i) Cheque Rs.1000 was deposited on 30th
December but is not yet
collected on 31st December 2016.
ii) Cheque issued for Rs.1339 is not encashed on 31st December
2016.
iii) Bank collected a bill for Rs.1500 on 31st December 2016 but the
intimation was received by Banu on 1st January 2017.
iv) The bank allowed interest Rs.203 and a commission was charged
Rs.92 on 31st December 2016.
14. a) Describe the importance of depreciation.
(or)
b) X & Co purchased a machinery on 01.01.2013 for Rs.3,85,000 and
spent Rs.15,000 for its erection. It charged depreciation 10% under
diminishing balance method. The accounts are closed on 31st December
-3-
-6-
every year. Prepare machinery account for 3 years from 01.01.2013 to
31.12.2015.
15. a) Write short notes about Income and Expenditure account.
(or)
b) From the following particulars, calculate the amount to be shown in
Income and Expenditure account during the year 2017.
Rs.
Subscription received during the year 30,000
Subscription outstanding on 1.1.2017 5,000
Subscription outstanding on 31.12.2017 7,000
Subscription received in advance on 1.1.2017 2,000
Subscription received in advance on 31.12.2017 6,000
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the steps involved in accounting.
17. From the following prepare final accounts for the year ended 31st
December 2016.
Rs.
Capital 30,000
Drawings 5,000
Furniture 2,600
Bank overdraft 4,200
Creditors 13,300
Premises 20,000
Opening stock 22,000
Debtors 18,600
Salary 9,000
Rent (Dr) 1,000
Purchases 1,10,000
Sales 1,50,000
Sales return 2,000
Discount (Dr) 1,100
Discount (Cr) 2,000
Tax & Insurance 2,000
General expenses 4,000
Commission (Dr) 2,200
Carriage on purchase 1,800
Reserve for bad debts 600
Bad debts 800
Adjustments: i) closing stock Rs.20,000 ii) Rent to be paid Rs.300
iii) Write off bad debts Rs.600 iv) Depreciate premises at 5%
v) Prepaid insurance Rs.700
18. Rectify the following accounting errors through suspense account by
making Journal entries.
a) Purchase of goods from Mohit for Rs.2,500 was entered in the sales
book, however Mohit‟s account was correctly credited.
b) Cash received from Anil, a debtor Rs.3,200 was correctly entered in
the cash book but was omitted to be posted in his account.
c) Sales book was overcast by Rs.1,500.
d) Cash of Rs.4,000 paid to Hanif was credited to Rafique a/c Rs.1,400.
e) The total of purchase returns book of Rs.3,150 was carried forward
as Rs.1,530
19. On 1st July 2008, a company purchase a machine for Rs.3,90,000 and
spent Rs.10,000 on its installation. It decided to provide depreciation at
15% per annum, using written down value method. On 30th
November
2011, the machine was dismantled at a cost of Rs.5,000 and then sold
for Rs.1,00,000. On 1st December 2011, the company acquired and put
into operation a new machine at a total cost of Rs.7,60,000.
Depreciation was provided on the new machine on the same basis as had
been used in the case of the earlier machine. The company closes its
-4-
Question Code: B40202 Sub Code: U16BNA21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April– 2018
ELEMENTS OF BANKING AND INSURANCE
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which of the following is not a public sector bank in India?
a) Andhra Bank b) Federal bank
c) IDBI bank d) Vijaya Bank
2. Who among the following is the primary regulator of banking business?
a) Central Government b) RBI
c) State Government d) Parliament
3. Which of the following is not an asset held by commercial banks?
a) Bills of exchange
b) Current account deposits
c) Money lent at short notice
d) Credit balances with the Reserve Bank
4. What is the expanded form of the term ALM used in banking sector?
a) Asset Liability Maintenance
b) Asset Liability Management
c) Asset Liability Manipulation
d) Asset Liability Maximization
5. IRDA has the power to frame the regulations under --------- of the
Insurance Act, 1938.
a) Section 112A b) Section 114A
c) Section 114B d) Section 112B
-5-
6. If an organization wishes to venture into insurance business it has to
obtain a license first from which of the following?
a) IRDAI b) SEBI
c) TAC d) IBA
7. When was life insurance sector nationalized?
a) 1834 b) 1907 c) 1938 d) 1956
8. The Central office of the LIC is located at
a) Kolkata b) New Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Chennai
9. The main feature of the National Agriculture Insurance Scheme is to
insure which of the following?
a) Life of the farmer
b) Crop of the farmer
c) Animals who are used in agricultural activities
d) Land of the farmer
10. Which of the following is largest Non-life insurance company in India?
a) ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Ltd
b) United Insurance Company Ltd
c) General Insurance Company Ltd
d) New India Assurance Company Ltd
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Describe the General Relationship between banker and customer.
(or)
b) Write down the objectives of Monetary Policy of India.
12. a) Classify Non-banking financial intermediaries.
(or)
b) Sketch out the balance sheet of a commercial bank.
13. a) Why do we need insurance?
(or)
b) Discuss the importance of Insurance.
14. a) Write down the essential features of Life Insurance.
(or)
b) Define Underwriting. State its purposes.
15. a) Discuss the kinds of Motor Vehicle Insurance policies.
(or)
b) Give your understanding on (i) Fidelity Guarantee
(ii) Crop Insurance
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Give the differences between Public Sector Banks and Private
Banks.
17. Name and explain the products and services of Corporate Banking.
18. Enumerate the types of Insurance Contracts.
19. List and explain the principles of Underwriting.
20. Give the steps in Fire Insurance Claim Procedure.
*******
Question Code: B81105 Sub Code: P16HYC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April– 2018
SOCIO – CULTURAL HISTORY OF TAMILNADU
(From 1565 A.D to 2011 A. D.)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. During whose period Robert – De-Nobili came to Tamilnadu?
a) Tirumalai Nayak b) Muthukrishnappa Nayak
b) Virappa Nayak d) Muthuvirappa Nayak
2. Name the German wriest who came to Tamilnadu during the period of
Tulaji.
a) Schienbalg b) Scwartz
c) Plutaza d) Robert –de - Nobili
3. Who started Temple entry movement?
a) Brahmine b) Nadars
c) Vellalar d) Vaisyas
4. Where was the first self respect conference held?
a) salem b) Virudhunagar
c) Chengalpattu d) Erode
5. When was justice party founded?
a) 1914 b) 1915 c) 1916 d) 1917
6. Who founded the first Trade Union in India?
a) Maraimalai Adigal b) Thiru. Vi. ka
c) Ayotidasa Pandithar d) Singaravelar
7. Which plan is considered as “Magna Carta of English Education”?
a) Charter Act, 1813 b) Macaulay Minute
c) Woodi Despatch d) Hunter Commission
8. When was Annamalai University established?
a) 1929 b) 1939 c) 1949 d) 1959
9. Who introduced “Samacheer Kalvi Scheme” in Tamilnadu?
a) Rajaji b) Annadurai
c) Karunanidhi d) Jayalalitha
10. Which of the following district is having highest population in
Tamilnadu?
a) Kanyakumari b) Coimbatore
c) Dharmapuri d) Tuticorin
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Describe the society under the Nayak.
(or)
b) Trace the development of Education during the period of Marathan.
12. a) Evaluate the contribution of Christian Missionaries.
(or)
b) Write a note on Muthulakshmi Reddy.
13. a) Discuss about upper Garment Movement.
(or)
b) Give an account of Singaravelar.
14. a) Bring out the importance of Macaulay‟s Minutes.
(or)
b) Analyse the report of Kothari Commission.
15. a) Trace the origin of Press in Tamilnadu.
(or)
b) Mention the growth of small scale industries in Tamilnadu.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the socio – religions condition under the Marathas.
17. Discuss the Socio – religious reform movements of 19th
century.
18. Write an essay on subaltern movement.
19. Trace the growth of Education under British Rule.
20. Explain the development of Agriculture since 1947.
******
18. If A x =
31,2
3
11,2
1
3 and 1,0
xx
xx
xx
and
B x =
532
5
312
1
5 and 10
xx
xx
xx
find (A +B) (x), (A –B ) x, (A B) (x) and (A / B) (x).
19. Let be a fuzzy subset of G such that card Im < . Define fuzzy subgroups
Gi of G by oG = < } sup zxGxGz
; and
1G = kizxGxGGiGz
i 1, sup ,1 ~
1, where
k card Im and k is such that Gk = G. Then prove that the fuzzy subset of
G defined by
(x) = kiGGxSup
ifz
iiGiGz
z
1 ,~ if z
,G x sup
11~
0G
is the fuzzy subgroup generated by in G.
20. For a fuzzy subgroup of G, prove the following are equivalent :
i) is a fuzzy characteristic subgroup of G,
ii) Each level subgroup of is a characteristic subgroup of G.
******
Question Code: B60304/ A60304 Sub Code: P16MAE22/ P14MAE22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April– 2018
FUZZY ALGEBRA
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The support of a fuzzy set A is the set of all X x such that xA ______.
a) > 0 b) < 0 c) = 0 d) none
2. If A = 21 , aa , B = 21 , bb are fuzzy intervals then the condition for which
A + X = B has a solution if
a) 2211 a bba b) 2211 b aab
c) 2211 b aba d) none
3. Given any n – ary fuzzy relation, the number of different projections of the
relation is
a) n! b) n2
c) 2n
– 2 d) 2n
4. If is any fuzzy subgroup of G and if yx for some x, y G then
xx ____y .
a) b) c) = d) none
5. If is a fuzzy sylow p – subgroup of G then card Im ______ .
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none
6. If A = xywv
3524 find 0 2 cut of A .
7. Define fuzzy number.
8. Define fuzzy similarity relation.
9. Define fuzzy sub groupoid.
10. When do you say that two fuzzy subgroups and to be equivalent?
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) If A and B are fuzzy sets in X prove that A ( A B ) = A and
A ( A B ) = A.
(or)
b) State and prove third decomposition theorem.
12. a) Prove that every fuzzy complement has at most one equilibrium.
(or)
b) Explain fuzzy representation of linguistic variables.
13. a) If the fuzzy relation R =
0800
0040
1000
0057
defined on { a, b, c, d }. Is
R transitive?. If not find the smallest fuzzy relation on X which is
transitive.
(or)
b) If the fuzzy relation is
a b c d
a 1 7 0 1
b 0 1 0 9
c 5 7 1 1
d 0 0 0 1
and if A = { a, b } find the fuzzy upper bound of A.
14. a) Let be any fuzzy subset of a set S. Then prove that kxkx |sup
where x S.
(or)
b) Let be any fuzzy subgroup of G such that Im = {0, t }, where t ] 0, 1 ].
If = , for some fuzzy subgroups and of G, then Prove that
either or .
15. a) If 1 is a fuzzy subgroup of
1G then prove that 1f (
1) is a fuzzy subgroup
of G where G and G1 are multiplicative groups.
(or)
b) Let and be any two fuzzy sylow p – subgroups of G. If is
fuzzy normal, then prove that ~ .
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Define extension principle. If f : X Y is an arbitrary crisp function and for
XF iA and YF iB , i I prove that AifAifAiIi
and
Ii
IiAifAif
17. If the fuzzy relation is R =
100000000
010070000
001455000
004177000
075718800
005781100
000081100
000000018
000000081
verify that R is a compatibility relation. Find all complete - covers for
the compatibility relation.
R=
20. Prove that i) If I is the identity operator on nR , then det [ I ] =
det .1)...,( 1 nee
ii) det is a linear function of each of the column vectors jx , if the others are
held fixed.
iii) If [ A ]1 is obtained from [ A ] by interchanging two columns, then
det [ A ]1 = – det [ A ] .
iv) If [ A ] has two equal columns, then det [ A ] = 0.
******
Question Code: B60106 Sub Code: P16MAC22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL ANALYSIS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The partition *P is said to be the common refinement of two partition
21 and PP if *P = ______.
a) 1P b) 2P c) 21 PP d) 21 PP
2. If then 2..., 1, ,10 , 1 22 nxxxnxfn
n xf nnlim
_____ for 0 1x .
a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) e
3. xn
xx -e lim ____, for every n.
a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) n
4. If a vector space X is spanned by a set of r rectors where r is a positive
integer, then dim X _____.
a) r b) r c) 0 d) infinite
5. If [ A ]1 is obtained from [ A ] by interchanging two columns, then det
[ A ]1 = _____.
a) det [ A ] b) – det [ A ] c) 0 d) none
6. State the fundamental theorem of calculus of integration.
7. Define an equicontinuous family of functions.
8. Define the beta function.
9. Define a basis of a vector space X.
10. Define the department of a matrix [ A ] of a linear operator A on nR .
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) If f is monotonic on [ a, b ] and if is continuous on [ a, b ], then
show that f .
(or)
b) Let f on [a, b] . For a bx , put F dt
x
a
tfx . Then prove
that F is continuous on [a, b], furthermore, if f is continuous at a point
0x of [a, b], then show that F is differentiable at 0x and 00 xfxF .
12. a) Suppose nf f uniformly on a set E in a metric space. Let x be a
limit point of E and suppose that nnxt
Atflim , n = 1, 2, …, Then
show that nA converges and nnxt
Atf limlim .
(or)
b) Prove that there exists a real continuous function on the real line
which is nowhere differentiable.
13. a) Suppose nc converges. Put 11 ,0
xxcxfn
n
n . Then show
that 0
1lim
n
nx
cxf .
(or)
b) If f is a positive function on (0, ) such that i) f (x + 1 ) = xf (x),
ii) f (1) = 1, iii) log f is convex, then show that f (x) = (x).
14. a) i) If A L ( n , m ), then prove that ||A|| < ∞ and A is a uniformly
continuous mapping of n into m .
ii) If A, B L ( n , m ) and C is a scalar, then prove that
|| A+B || A CA and CBA .
(or)
b) Suppose f maps a convex open set E nR into mR , f is differentiable
in E and there is a real number M such that Mxf for every
x E. Then show that abMafbf for all a E, b E.
15. a) If [ A ] and [ B ] are n by n matrices, then prove that det
( [ B ] [ A ] ) = det ( [ B ] det [ A ] ) .
(or)
b) Show that a linear operator A on nR is invertible if and only if
det [ A ] 0.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. If is continuous on [a, b], then show that is rectifiable and
( ) = dtt
b
a
| | .
17. State and prove Weierstrass theorem.
18. State and prove Parseval‟s theorem.
19. Suppose f is a – mapping of an open set E C nR into nR , af is
invertible for some a E and b = f (a). Then prove that
a) there exist open sets U and V in nR such that a U, b V, f is one to
one on U and f (U) = V.
b) if g is the inverse of f, defined in V by g (f (x) ) = x, x U, then
g (V).
Question Code: B81106 Sub Code: P16HYC22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
SOCIO – ECONOMIC AND CULTURAL HISTORY OF INDIA
(From 1206 AD to 1757 AD)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Dharmapala constructed ______.
a) Viharas b) Monasteries
c) Stupas d) Temples
2. Who was the founder of the sena dynasty?
a) Vijaya sena b) Hemanta sena
c) Ballala sena d) Lakshmana sena
3. Burrakatha was a very popular folk lore art of ______.
a) Vijayanagar b) Sultanate
c) Rajputs d) Mughals
4. The Jahir system was introduced by _____.
a) Mauryas b) Guptas
c) Rajputs d) Sultans
5. The founder of Sikh religion was ______.
a) Gurunanak b) Kabir
c) Chaitanya d) Gobindsingh
6. Who were important disciples of Ramananda?
a) Sena b) Ravidas and Dhana
c) Kabir d) All the above
7. Ayakkara system was introduced by _____.
a) Cholas b) Pandyas
c) Vijayanagar d) British
8. In Vijayanagar empire, who looked after duties of police?
a) Kotwal b) Ayagar
c) Kavalkara d) Poligar
9. What position did Nana Phadnavis occupy in the Maratha
administration?
a) Peshwa b) Pratinidhi
c) Chief accountant d) Senathipathi
10. Which god was worshipped dearly by Chatrapathi Shivaji?
a) Kali b) Bhavani
c) Lakshmi d) Rudra
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss about the Palas.
(or)
b) Narrate the cultural aspects of Prathiharas.
12. a) Write a note on the social system beat existed during the Sultanate.
(or)
b) Explain the educational system under the Delhi sultanate.
13. a) Write a note on Sufism.
(or)
b) Narrate the impact of Islam on Indian Society and culture.
14. a) Discuss about the Guild system during Vijaya nagar.
(or)
b) Write briefly about the society under Vijayanagar.
15. a) Explain the revenue settlement during the Mughals.
(or)
b) Describe the Social customs and manners of the people during the
Mughal period.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Examine the architectural features of Rastrakutas.
17. Write an essay on the Market Policy of Alauddin Khilji.
18. Give an account on the Bhakti Movement.
19. Elucidate the economic condition of Vijayanagar.
20. Estimate the social condition under the Mughal period.
********
Question Code: B81108 Sub Code: P16HYC24
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
HISTORY OF EUROPE (From 1453 To 1919 A.D)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The author of Social Contract was ______.
a) Voltaire b) Rousseau
c) Montesquieu d) Danton
2. The Revolution of 1830 was called as ________.
a) July b) August
c) September d) October
3. Who is known as the child of French Revolution who killed the
mother?
a) Napoleon Bonaparte b) Louis XVI
c) Voltaire d) Rousseau
4. Who became the King of France at the end of Revolution of
1830 .
a) Napoleon III b) Charles X
c) Louis Philippe d) Rousseau
5. Who was called as “The Emperor of the Workers”.
a) Napoleon III b) Charles X
c) Tsar Nicolas d) Napoleon Bonaparte
6. Name the English King during the revolution of 1830.
a) George II b) George IV
c) James III d) William III
7. Who was the empress of Napoleon III?
a) Maria Theresa b) Engenie
c) Josephine d) Hortense
8. Cavour was the Prime Minister of _______.
a) Mazzini b) Charles Albert
c) Garibaldi d) Emmanuel
9. The Balkan Wars consisted of two conflicts that took place in the
year______.
a) 1912 & 1913 b) 1913 & 1914
c) 1914 & 1915 d) 1915 & 1916
10. A Serbian soldier murdered ___________ Austrian Prince.
a) Peter Ferdinand b) Frederick Ferdinand
c) Archduke Ferdinand d) Louis Ferdinand
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a note on Renaissance.
(or)
b) Explain the consequences of the geographical discoveries.
12. a) Write a short note on Louis XIV.
(or)
b) Discuss about the partition of Poland.
13. a) Explain Napoleonic Wars.
(or)
b) Describe about the causes and courses of the French
Revolution.
14. a) Assess the sacrifices of Garibaldi.
(or)
b) Define the policy of “Blood and Iron”.
15. a) Write a note on Balkan Crises.
(or)
b) Describe about Treaty of Versailles.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the role of Martin Luther in the Reformation Movement in
Germany.
17. Discuss the work of Peter, the Great of Russia.
18. Bring out the causes and results of the revolution of 1848.
19. Describe the Unification of Italy.
20. Narrate the causes and results of Russian Revolution.
******
19. If n..., ,2 ,1,,,...,, 21 iCzxxxUini are independent solutions of
the equations R
dz
p
dx
p
dx
p
dx
n
n...2
2
1
1 then prove that the relation
0,...,, 21 nuuu in which the function is arbitrary is a general solution
of the linear partial differential equation Rx
zP
x
zP
x
zP
n
n...2
2
1
1 .
20. Explain Charpit‟s method and hence solve the equation .22 qzyqP
*****
Question Code: B60107/ A60107 Sub Code: P16MAC23/ P14MAC23
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. xP2 = _____.
a) 1 b) x c) 2
1
2
3 2x d) 12
1 2x
2. For the equation 0yyxyx , the indicial polynomial is ______ .
a) 22r b) r ( r – 1 ) c) 12r d) 12r
3. The real valued solution of xyy is
a) cxy 22 b) cxy 2 c) cxy 2 d) none
4. 221 , then ,sin ,cos Wxx = _____
a) –1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
1
5. The envelope of the one parameter system f (x, y, z, a , (a) ) = 0 is got by
eliminating a between this equation and _____.
a) 0a
f b) 0
x
f c) 0
y
f d) 0
z
f
6. When a function g is said to be analytic at a point 0x ?
7. Define indicial polynomial.
8. Define Lipschitz condition.
9. Define complete integral.
10. Define envelope.
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) If n, ,... , 21 are n solutions of L (y) = 0 on an interval I, then prove that
they are linearly independent if and only if 0)( ),..., ( 1 xW n for all Ix
.
(or)
b) Prove that n
nnn xdxn
xP 1d
! 2
1 2n
.
12. a) Solve 0353 2 xyyxyx in the form 0
0 , k
k
k
rxxcxx .
(or)
b) Show that xKxxJx 1
1
01
1
0 K and J .
13. a) Let M and N be two real valued functions which have continuous first
partial derivatives on some rectangle R : byyaxx 00 , . Prove
that the equations 0,, yyxNyxM is exact in R if and only if
x
N
y
M.
(or)
b) Prove that the kth
successive approximation k to the solution of the
initial value problem 00 ,, yxyyxfy satisfies
xx k
K
K
ek
k
k
M
! 1
1
.
14. a) Find the general solution of . z
22 zyxy
zy
xx
(or)
b) Find the integral surface of the linear partial differential equation
z q p 2222 yxzxyzyx which contains the straight line
x + y = 0 and z = 1.
15. a) Show that the equations 22 and xqpxxqyxp are compatible and
hence solve them.
(or)
b) Find the complete integral of 22222222 yxqxyxqp .
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Show that if xPxP nm and are Legendre polynomials then
.,0
1
1
mnxPxP mn
17. Show that i)
2
1
2
2
12
1
xJx sin x . ii) xxJx cos
2
1
2
2
12
1
.
18. Explain the method of successive approximation and hence solve
10 ,1 yxyy .
5. a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of TCP-F and
TCP-ELFN?
(or)
b) Explain the issues and challenges in security provisioning.
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Briefly describe the different steps involved in a research process.
7. Explain the different categories of research design.
8. Discuss interview as a technique of data collection.
9. Describe the significance of a research report and narrate the various
steps involved in writing such a report.
10. Discuss the applications of Ad Hoc wireless networks.
11. Explain briefly about on-demand routing protocols.
12. Discuss the issues in designing a transport layer protocol for Ad Hoc
Wireless network.
*******
Question Code: B92101 Sub Code: MP16CS11
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY AND AD HOC NETWORKS
Time : 3 Hrs M. Phil (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions (5 x 6 = 30 marks)
1. a) How do you define a research problem? Describe the techniques of
defining a research problem.
(or)
b) Explain the meaning and significance of a Research design.
2. a) Examine the merits and limitations of the observation method in
collecting material. Illustrate your answer with suitable examples.
(or)
b) What points will you keep in mind while preparing a research report?
Explain.
3. a) What are the types of WLANS? Explain.
(or)
b) Explain about the routing in Mobile IP.
4. a) Describe the issues in designing a routing protocol for Ad Hoc wireless
networks.
(or)
b) What are the classifications of multicast routing protocols? Explain
briefly.
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Explain about the fundamental steps involved in Digital Image
Processing.
7. Discuss about Intensity transformation functions.
8. Briefly explain about color models.
9. Explain in detail about arithmetic coding.
10. Discuss various Thresholding Techniques.
*******
Question Code: B92301 Sub Code: MP16CSE11
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING
Time : 3 Hrs M. Phil (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions (5 x 6 = 30 marks)
1. a) Explain the components of an Image Processing System.
(or)
b) Explain arithmetic and logic operations.
2. a) Discuss about Histogram Matching.
(or)
b) Explain about Sharpening Spatial Filters.
3. a) Explain about Noise Models.
(or)
b) Discuss about the Wiener Filter.
4. a) Explain about Huffman Coding.
(or)
b) Discuss the concept of water marking.
5. a) Explain about various morphological operations.
(or)
b) Write about Region Growing algorithm.
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Discuss data visualization.
7. Explain about data transformation and data discretization.
8. Discuss the concept of association rule mining.
9. Discuss in detail about the types of cluster analysis method.
10. Discuss about the concept of data mining and society.
*****
Question Code: B92102 Sub Code: MP16CS12
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
DATA MINING AND DATA WAREHOUSING
Time : 3 Hrs M. Phil (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions (5 x 6 = 30 marks)
1. a) What is data mining? What kind of pattern can be mined?
(or)
b) Discuss various technologies used in data mining.
2. a) Describe about data integration.
(or)
b) Explain Data cleaning and reduction.
3. a) Explain the concept of OLAP.
(or)
b) How can we improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?
4. a) Write a note on the nearest neighbour classifier.
(or)
b) Briefly explain about the concept of cluster analysis.
5. a) Summarize the concept of web content mining.
(or)
b) Explain about web usage mining and its importance.
Question Code: B21104 / A21104 Sub Code: U16PHC22/BPHCR22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
ELECTROMAGNETISM
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics ) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Most sensitive galvanometer is _____.
a) elastic galvanometer b) vibration galvanometer
c) ballistic galvanometer d) Dvd galvanometer
2. The ampere law is based on which theorem?
a) Green‟s theorem b) Gauges divergence
c) stokes theorem d) Maxwell theorem
3. In majority of instruments, damping is provided by ______.
a) fluid friction b) spring
c) eddy currents d) all of the above
4. Direction of induced emf in a Circuit is in accordance with law of
_____.
a) Conservation of mass b) Conservation of charge
c) Conservation of energy d) Conservation of momentum
5. What is the time Constant of an inductive Circuit?
a) LR b) R / L c) 1 / LR d) L / R
6. Alternating Current is measured by ______.
a) induction ammeter b) permanent magnet type ammeter
c) electrostatic ammeter d) moving iNn repulsion type ammeter
7. The materials having very small susceptibility at all temperatures are
______.
a) Antiferro magnetic b) Diamagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic d) Paramagnetic
8. B – H Curve is used for the determination of ______.
a) Hysteresis loses b) iNn loss
c) Eddy Current loss d) both A and B
9. What is the unit for displacement current?
a) No unit b) Ampere
c) Coulomb d) Ampere / Coulomb
10. Poynting Vector gives the_______.
a) direction of polarization b) rate of energy low
c) intensity of electric field d) intensity of magnetic field
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) State and explain Biot- Savant‟s law.
(or)
b) Discuss the experimental methods of comparison of Capacitance
using B. G.
12. a) State and explain Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction.
(or)
b) Determination of self inductance by Anderson‟s bride method.
13. a) Explain Maxwell‟s bridge.
(or)
b) Explain Owen‟s bridge.
14. a) Write short notes on :
i) Magnetic susceptibility and ii) Permeability
(or)
b) Discuss about the importance of hysteresis Curve.
15. a) Write the significance of displacement Current.
(or)
b) State and explain Poynting Vector.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the Construction, working principle of Ballistic Galvanometer.
17. Explain Lenz‟s law.
18. i) Derive the derivation of Growth and decay charge in LR and CR
Circuits.
ii) Explain power and power factor in ac Circuits.
19. Explain the experiments of M – H Curve and B – H Curve.
20. Explain Hertz experiment.
*******
Worker
Machine 1 2 3 4
1 41 42 40 35
2 35 42 43 36
3 42 39 44 47
Test whether there are significant differences between the machines and the
workers.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Let X be 2
22
2
1 , be &, nYn . If n = w, m = 7, X = 4.2,
,32,49,4.3 2
2
2
1 SSY find 90% confidence interval for 21 and .
17. State and Prove Neyman factorization Theorem.
18. Let X have a Gamma distribution with 0,4 . Find the Fisher
information.
19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem. (For continuous type).
20. An investigator for a consumer cooperative organized a study of the
mileages obtainable from three different brands of gasoline. Using 15
identical motors set to run at the same speed, the investigator randomly
assigned each brand of gasoline to 5 of the motors. Each of the motors was
then run on 10 gallons of gasoline, with the total mileages obtained as
follows.
Gas 1 Gas 2 Gas 3
220 240 252
251 235 272
226 232 250
246 242 238
260 225 256
Test the hypothesis that the average mileage obtained is the same for all
three types of gasoline. Use the 5 percent level of significance.
Question Code: B60108 Sub Code:
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. In Bayesian statistics, the probability density function h( ) is called _____.
a) prior p.d.f. of b) posterior p.d.f. of
c) subjective probability d) A Bayes‟ solution
2. Let C be the subset of the sample space which leads to the rejection of the
hypothesis under consideration. Then C is called _____to the test.
a) events b) critical region
c) simple hypothesis d) statistical hypothesis
3. Any statistic whose mathematical expectation is equal to the parameter is
called _____.
a) random sample b) unbiased estimator
c) parameter space d) family of distributions
4. The decision function given by y0 is such that, for all
yRyR ,max ,max 0 for every other decision function
y , then y0 is called _____.
a) maxmini decision function b) minimax decision function
c) minimum mean – square –error estimator d) square – error loss function
5. Let a random experiment be repeated n independent times and under
identical conditions. Then the random variables n21 X,...,X ,X (each of
which assigns a numerical value to an outcome) constitute the observations
of a ________.
a) random sample b) events
c) parameter space d) family of distributions
6. What is meant by best critical region of size .
7. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote independent random variables that are
N 2 ,i, i = 1, 2, …n and Y = i
X
i
n
i
0let and 2
1
2
. Find the
moment generating function of Y.
8. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.
fotherwise0
1 ,01
1x xx
x
,
where 0 1, Find the likelihood function.
9. Define unbiased minimum variance.
10. A Bayes‟ solution is a decision function that minimizes _____if is a
random variable of the continuous type.
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Given that .225 %,9511 2xxP Find n.
(OR)
b) Let 222111 ,nb be and ,nb be pYpY , where 1p is the mean of
1
1
nY
and 2p is the mean of 2
2
nY
. Determine a confidence interval for
1p - 2p .
12. a) Show that a die was cast n = 120 independent time & following data
resulted
Spots up 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency b 20 20 20 20 40-b
If we use a chi – sequence test, for what values of b would the hypothesis
that the die is unbiased, be rejected at the 0.025 significance level.
(OR)
b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution that has
probability density function
0
101 ,01 ;
1
elsewhere
xxf
xx
.
Prove that 1Y = n21 X...X X is a sufficient statistic for .
13. a) If 0.35, 0.92. 0.56 & 0.71 are the 4 observed values of a random sample from
13. the distribution having pdf.
elsewhere
xxxf
0
10 ;
1
find the maximum likelyhood estimate.
(OR)
b) State and prove Rao- Cramer inequality.
14. a) Let X be n , , 2 is known. Find the fisher information.
(OR)
b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from 21,n . Find the variance
covariance matrix.
15. a) To determine whether accidents are more likely to occur on certain days of
the week, data have been collected on all the accidents requiring medical
attention that occurred over the last 12 months at an automobile plant in
northern California. The data yielded a total of 250 accidents, with the number
occurring on each day of the week being as follows.
Monday 62 Tuesday 47
Wednesday 44 Thursday 45
Friday 52
(OR)
b) The following are the numbers of defective items produced by four
workers using, in turn, at three different machines.
18. If T A(V) has all its characteristic roots in F, then prove that there
is a basis of V in which the matrix of T is triangular.
19. Let F be a field of characteristic 0 and T AF (V) be such that tr Ti = 0
for all i 1. Prove that T is nilpotent.
20. Let A, B Fn . Prove that det (AB) = det (A) det (B).
******
Question Code: B60105 Sub Code: P16MAC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
LINEAR ALGEBRA
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. If dimF V = n then dimF Hom (V, V) is ______
a) 2n b) n2 c) n / 2 d) n
2. If T A(V) and if S A (V) is regular, then r (T) = _____.
a) r (TST–1
) b) r (STS–1
) c) r (S) d) r (S–1
)
3. k is called the index of nilpotence of T A(V) if ______.
a) 0 and 0 1kk TT b) 0 and 0 1kk TT
c) 0 and 0 1kk TT d) 0 and 0 1kk TT
4. Every linear transformation T A(V) satisfies its characteristic
polynomial is ______.
a) Cayley Hamilton theorem
b) Lagrange‟s theorem
c) Sylow‟s theorem
d) Fundamental theorem of homomorphism
5. If A is invertible then for all B, det (ABA–1
) = ______.
a) det A b) det B c) det A–1
d) det B–1
6. Define annihilator.
7. Define characteristic root.
8. Let T = 3F
000
000
110
. With respect to the standard basis find the
invariants of T.
9. Write the properties of trace function.
10. Define Unitary.
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Let V be a finite-dimensional space. Prove that is an isomorphism
of V intoVˆ
.
(or)
b) i) Define inner product space.
ii) State and prove the Schwartz inequality.
12. a) Let V be a finite dimensional over F. Prove that T A(V) is
invertible if and only if the constant term of the minimal polynomial
for T is not 0.
(or)
b) Let V be a finite dimensional over F and S, T A (V) . Prove the
following i) r (ST) r (T) ii) r (TS) r (T)
iii) r (ST) = r (TS) = r (T) for S is regular in A(V)
13. a) Let V be n–dimensional over F and T A(V) has all its
characteristic roots in F. Prove that T satisfies a polynomial of degree
n over F.
(or)
b) i) If M, of dimension m is cyclic with respect to T, then prove that the
dimension of MTk is m – k for all k m.
ii) Let V = 21 VV , where 1V and 2V are subspaces of V invariant
under T. Let 21 and TT be the linear transformations induced by T
on 21 VandV respectively. If the minimal polynomial of 1T over F
is xp1 while that of 2T is xp2 , prove that the minimal
polynomial for T over F is the least common multiple of xp1 and
xp2 .
14. a) Let be a vector space isomorphism of V onto W. If S AF (V) and
T AF (W) are such that for any v V, (vS) = (v ) T. Prove that S
and T have the same elementary divisors.
(or)
b) i) If A is invertible, then prove that tr (ACA–1
) = tr C.
ii) IF T A(V ), then prove that tr T is the sum of the characteristic
roots of T.
15. a) Prove that if two rows of a matrix A are equal, then det A = 0.
(or)
b) Prove that the linear transformation T on V is unitary if and only if it
takes an orthonormal basis of V into an orthonormal basis of V.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. i) Let V be a finite dimensional inner product space and W be a
subspace of V. Prove that V = W + W .
ii) Let V be a finite dimensional inner product space and W be a
subspace of V. Prove that )(W = W.
17. i) If F is a characteristic root of T A(V), then prove that is the
root of the minimal polynomial of T.
ii) Let T, S A(V) and S be regular. Prove that T and STS–1
have the
same minimal polynomial.
Question Code: B81107 Sub Code: P16HYC23
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
HISTORY OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
(from Reconstruction to Second World War)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A. ( History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Who found the American Federation of Labour?
a) James Weaver b) Samuel Gompers
c) Donelly d) Jerry Simpson
2. Who emerged as the leader of consolidation of oil industry?
a) Cornelous Vanderbilt b) Andrew Carnegie
c) John D. Rock feller d) Herbert Spencer
3. Who signed the Sherman Anti Trust Act?
a) Lincoln b) Johnson
c) Cleveland d) Benjamin Harrison
4. Which Amendment defined the relation between America and Cuba?
a) Teller Amendment b) Platt Amendment
c) Factory Amendment d) People Amendment
5. Who introduced Open Door Policy?
a) Mc Kinly b) Truman
c) William Taft d) John Hay
6. When was Land lease Act passed?
a) 1940 b) 1941 c) 1942 d) 1943
7. Who was elected as the president of America for four times?
a) Theodore Roosevelt b) Franklin D. Roosevelt
c) Woodrow unison d) William Taft
8. Mention the reforms of F. D. Roosevelt.
a) Progressive Legislation b) Ten Percent Plan
c) Fair Deal d) New Deal
9. Who passed the Civilian Corporation Act to solve the unemployment
problem?
a) Lincoln b) Johnson
c) F. D. Roosevelt d) Reagon
10. When was UNO formed?
a) 25 April 1945 b) 6 August 1945
c) 9 August 1945 d) 24 October 1945
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Give an account of Congressional plan of Reconstruction.
(or)
b) Write a note on Ku Klux clan.
12. a) Describe the internal policy of Theodore Roosevelt.
(or)
b) What is Dollar Diplomacy? Explain.
13. a) Explain the importance of Pairs Peace conference.
(or)
b) Critically analyse the Fourteen points of Wilson.
14. a) Examine the foreign policy of Hoover.
(or)
b) Write a note on National Recovery Act.
15. a) Bring out the significance of Pearl Harbour attack.
(or)
b) Discuss about the San Francisco conference.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Examine the factors that led to the rise of Big Business and Giant Trust.
17. Describe the causes of the Spanish American War of 1898.
18. Why America entered into the First World War? Explain.
19. Evaluate the causes and results of Great Depression.
20. Explain the role of USA in the formation of UNO.
********
Question Code: B40104 Sub Code: U16BNC22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2018
COMPUTER AWARENESS –II (HTML and Web Design)
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The Network that usually takes the form of a small office network
are called as _____.
a) LAN b) MAN c) WAN d) None of the above
2. Expansion of DNS
a) Domain Naming Server b) Domain Naming System
c) Domain Number System d) Domain Number Server
3. HTML stands for
a) Hyper Text Markup Language
b) High Text Markup Language
c) Hyper Tabular Markup Language
d) None of these
4. HTML is what type of language?
a) Scripting language b) Markup language
c) Programming language d) Network protocol
5. _____ is the command and control protocol sets up communication
between a client and a server and passes commands between the two
systems.
a) HTTP b) FTP c) UDP d) URL
6. _____specifies the exact location of a resource on the internet.
a) URL b) USB c) HTML d) FTP
7. How many types of bullets supported by HTML?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One
8. The tags essential for an ordered list are _____.
a) < OL > < / OL >
b) < UL > < / UL >
c) < Ordered List > < / Ordered List >
d) None of the above
9. Forms are constructed in the HTML documents by using
____element.
a) < Form > b) < Html >
c) < format > d) < Head >
10. Any text within the _____tag scroll sideways.
a) < MARQUEE > … < / MARQUEE >
b) < scroll > … < / scroll >
c) < side way > … < / sideway >
d) < End > < / End >
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is ISDN ? Explain its types.
(or)
b) Describe about web server and clients.
12. a) Write short notes on HTML.
(or)
b) How will you format the HTML text?
13. a) How will you link page inside the same document in HTML?
(or)
b) Explain briefly about font tag enhancements.
14. a) Discuss ordered lists in HTML with example.
(or)
b) Describe briefly about directory lists.
15. a) Explain images and hyperlink anchors.
(or)
b) Describe about how to align the table in HTML.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain briefly about DNS.
17. Describe about basic components of HTML.
18. How will you create the scrolling text in HTML?
19. Explain briefly about Lists in HTML. Give an example.
20. How will you create a Table in HTML and describe about row and
column spanning?
*******
Question Code: B81303 Sub Code: P16HYE21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to which one of the following?
a) Fold mountains b) Volcanic mountains
c) Block mountains d) None of these
2. The oldest mountains in India according to geographical history
are_______.
a) Satpuras b) Nilgiris
c) Vindhyas d) Aravallis
3. The formation of laterite soil is mainly due to ______.
a) weathering b) erosion
c) leaching d) deposition
4. Which of the following is not a tropical type of soil?
a) Red soil b) Desert soil
c) Black soil d) Brown soil
5. Approximately what fraction of India‟s Gross Geographical area comes
under the Protected Areas?
a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5%
6. India possesses Haematite, a very high-grade iron ore in _______.
a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala
c) Rajastan d) Madhya Pradesh
7. Mostly wheat is grown in_________.
a) Punjab b) Bihar
c) Gujarat d) West Bengal
8. Which is the lowest poverty state in India?
a) Delhi b) Andhra
c) Karnataka d) Gujarath
9. Planning Commission said _______ billion people live below the
poverty line in India.
a) 1.01 b) 1.11 c) 1.21 d) 1.31
10. Disaster Management Act enacted by the Government of India in
________
a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is Physical geography? Explain in detail.
(or)
b) Describe about Island.
12. a) Name the agencies involved in exploration of minerals.
(or)
b) How does the deforestation happen?
13. a) Mention the difference between the Intensive and Extensive Farming.
(or)
b) Explain how far Climate effect on farming systems in India.
14. a) Distinguish between population growth and population change.
(or)
b) What are the significant features of the National Population Policy
2000?
15. a) What is Medvedev–Sponheuer–Karnik scale?
(or)
b) Describe about Tsunami.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. State the various seasons of India.
17. Give an account of the Tropical Deciduous Forests.
18. Enumerate various types of Farming.
19. Write about India‟s demographic achievements.
20. What is the need for Disaster Management in India?
********
01.09.04 31.09.2004
Raw materials 1,00,000 1,23,500
Finished Goods 71,500 42,000
Work –in-progress 31,000 34,500
Transactions during the month of
Sept-2004
Purchase of Raw materials 88,000
Direct wages 70,000
Work expenses 39,500
Administration Expenses 13,000
Selling and Distribution expenses 15,000
Sales 2,84,000
Prepare a statement of cost and profit.
18. Two components A and B are used as follows;
Minimum usage – 50 units per week each
Maximum usage – 150 units per week each
Ordering quantities – A – 700 units
B – 1050 units
Delivery period - A - 4 to 6 weeks
B – 2 to 4 weeks
Maximum Re-order period for emergency purchases
2 weeks both for A and B
Calculate a) Re – order level b) Maximum level
c) Minimum level d) Danger level
19. From the following particulars, calculate the earnings of workers A and B
under Taylor‟s differential piece rate system.
Standard time per piece – 30 seconds
Normal rate per hour Rs.2.40
80% of piece rate below standard
120% of piece rate at or above standard
Worker A produces 1000 units per day
Worker B produces 900 units per day
20. Enumerate the various classifications of overheads.
Question Code: A40103 Sub: Code: BBNCR21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2015
COST ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs B. B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Cost centre refers to
a) An output b) A location c) Raw material d) a Segment
2. In cost Accounting, the stock is valued at _____.
a) cost price b) Market price
c) cost price or market price whichever is less
d) cost price or market price whichever is higher
-1-
3. Unit costing is also called
a) Process costing b) Job costing
c) Multiple costing d) single or output costing
4. The result shown in contract a/c refers to
a) Notional profit b) Net profit
c) Gross profit d) Net operating profit
5. In FIFO, closing stock reflects
a) Earlier rates b) Latest rates
c) Replacement rates d) Material rates
6. Danger level is ______.
a) Above the Re order Level b) Below the minimum level
c) Above the EOQ d) Below the maximum level
7. In Taylor‟s differential piece wage system, there are ______.
a) three wage rates b) Two wage rates
c) Four wage rates d) Multiple wage rates
8. What is considered under Gantt task and Bonus scheme?
a) time b) piece rate c) bonus d) all the above
9. „Recreation expenses‟ in factory are apportioned on the basis of
a) Material cost b) Wages c) Prime cost d) Number of employees
10. The expenses incurred over and above the prime cost are known
as_______.
a) direct expenses b) office expenses
c) total expenses d)overhead expenses
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Point out the differences between Financial Accounting and Cost
Accounting.
(OR)
b) Explain the different types of cost centre.
12. a) State the features of contract costing
(OR)
b) Define Job costing. What are its advantages?
13. a) Prepare a stores Ledger on FIFIO method
Date Receipts Issues
2001.Mar. 1 600 units at Rs.5 per unit -
16 400 units at Rs.6 per unit -
20 - 500 units
22 400 units at Rs. 7 per unit -
23 - 600 units
25 200 units at Rs. 8 per unit
31 - 200 units
(OR)
b) From the figures given below, calculate EOQ and number of
orders to be placed per year.
Total consumption of materials per year -10000 kg
Buying cost per order - Rs.50
Unit cost of materials - Rs.2 per kg
Carrying and storage cost - 8% on average inventory
14. a) Calculate the earnings of a worker under Halsey plan and Rowan
plan
Time allowed - 40 hours
Time taken - 50 hours
Rate - Rs. 3 per hour
(OR)
b) What are the various methods of wage payment?
15. a) Calculate machine Hour Rate to cover the overhead expenses
indicated below.
Per hour per Annum
Electric power 85 p Repairs Rs.530
Steam 10 p Rent Rs.270
Water 5 p Running hours 2000
Original cost of machine is Rs.12000. Book value Rs.2870 .
Present replacement value is Rs.11500. Depreciation being10% p.a.
(OR)
b) The following details pertain to the production department of a
factory
Material consumed Rs.60,000
Direct wages Rs.40,000
Machine hours 50,000
Labour hours worked 25000
Factory overhead relating to department Rs.50000
Calculate a) Direct material rate
b) Direct wages rate
c) Direct labour hour rate
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks) 16. What are the advantages and Limitations of Cost Accounting?
17. X Ltd. Submits the following information on 30-09-2004.
Question Code: A40104 Sub: Code: BBNCR22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2015
COMPUTER AWARENESS – I (HTML and Web design)
Time : 3 Hrs B. B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Network that covers a city or large physical distance can be called
___________.
a) LAN b) MAN c) Internetwork d) None.
2. _______ is a collection of two or more distinct networks.
a) LAN b) MAN c) Internet d) None.
3. HTML is a ________ language.
a) Low level b) High level
c) structured d) None
4. All end tags are specified with ________ symbol in HTML.
a) < / > b) < \ > c) < end > d) None
5. Expand FTP _______.
a) Find Transfer Protocol b) File Transfer Protocol
c) File Transmission Protocol d) None
6. Expand TCP ________.
a) Transfer Control Protocol b)Transmission Control Protocol
c) Transaction Control Protocol d) None
7. ______ is an ordered list tag.
a) <ul> b) <li> c) < ol > d) None
8. List within list is called.
a) nested list b) continuous list
c) list within list d) None.
9. JPEG ________.
a) Joint Photographic Experts Group
b) Joint Picture Experts Group
c) Joint Photographic Extension Group d) None
10. <TR> means _______.
a) Table row b) Table column c) Table data d) None
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) List out the advantages of network.
(OR)
b) What do you mean by URL ? Give example.
12. a) What do you mean by web page? Discuss.
(OR)
b) What are the specific HTML Extensions is supported by the
largest Software Company ?
13. a) Explain the concept of protocol.
(OR)
b) Explain the concept of Gopher.
14. a) Design a web page using different type of bullets.
(OR)
b) List the attribute of numbering system.
15. a) List and explain the classification of Hyper Link. Give Example.
(OR)
b) Define ROWSPAN and COLSPAN. Give example.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail the concepts of Dial-up connection.
17. Design a HTML Tag to the following
* Bold * Italic * Underline * Strike
* Big * Small * Sub * Sup
18. How do you link other html documents? Explain.
19. Design a web page for your college course details.
20. Design your Class Time Table using HTML table.
*******
Question Code: A63301 Sub Code: P14CSE21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2016
VB . NET PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. ------------ is the module that actually runs VB.NET applications.
a) CLR b) .NET c) IL d) MSIL
2. Import statement imports --------- into your code.
a) Keywords b) Namespaces c) Controls d) Properties
3. The checkbox control will have a shaded appearance when it is in -------
state
a) Checked b) Unchecked
c) Indeterminate d) All of the above
4. Which of the following method is used to add items to the list part of a
combo box.
a) Items.Insert b) Items.Add
c) Items.AddRange d) All of the above
5. ------- are controls that allow the user to make selections and also hide
when they are not needed.
a) Menus b) Item c) Box d) Tool
6. Accessibility of an element is indicated by ---------
a) Block b) Module c) Scope d) Namespace
7. -------- binding allows object variables to be used in a typeless way.
a) Late binding b) Early binding
c) Object binding d) Class binding
8. Now is an example of -------- function.
a) Mathematical b) Financial
c) Date & Time d) String
9. To do text file operations, which of the following classes can be used?
a) StreamWriter b) StreamReader
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
10. ------- are used to organize related files.
a) File name b) File group
c) Scope d) Directory
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a note on radio buttons with example and how it differs
from checkboxes?
(OR)
b) Write about the use of MsgBox() function and MsgBox constants
12. a) Write the syntax and uses of the four types of DO loop statement.
(OR)
b) Write the procedure to add Timer control.
13. a) Create your own simple menu application.
(OR)
b) Explain subroutines and functions in structured programming.
14. a) Explain the concept of inheritance with example.
(OR)
b) What is the necessity of data type conversion and write about type
conversion function?
15. a) How to handle files and folder using functions?
(OR)
b) Write a note on directory classes.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the following: a) Input Box() function
b) Select case statement
17. Briefly explain how to add Picture Box control and Group Box control.
18. Explain the steps to assign and remove shortcut keys to the menu.
19. List out the uses of various mathematical and string handling functions.
20. Describe the generic procedure of processing files.
*******
Question Code: A63105 Sub Code: P14CSC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2016
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The graphics tablet works on same principle as
a) Light pen b) monitor
c) projector d) mouse
2. An area fill approach, in which we start from an interior point and paint
outward from this point till we reach the boundary.
a) Scan-line fill b) Boundary-fill
c) Flood-fill d) Area-fill
3. The anti aliasing technique which allow shift if 1/4 , 1/2 and 3/4 of a pixel
diameter enabling a closer path of a line is
a) pixel phasing b) filtering
c) intensity compensation d) sampling technique
4. If the angle between 2 connected line segments is very small then _____can
generate a long spike that distorts the appearance of the polyline.
a) Mitter join b) Round join
c) Bevel join d) None
5. The process of extracting a portion of a database or a picture inside or
outside a specified region are called ______
a) Transformation b) Viewing
c) Clipping d) Projection
6. Which is used to connect a line to already drawn line?
a) Rubber band method b) Gravity field
c) Dragging d) Grid
7. In parallel projection, _____co-ordinate in discarded
a) z b) x
c) y d) xy
8. For 3-D rotation we have to specify
a) angle of rotation b) angle of axis
c) axis of rotation d) angle of rotation and axis of rotation
9. All the following hidden surface algorithms employ image space approach
except.
a) back face removal b) depth differ method
c) scan-line method d) depth sort
10. The objects within _____ will appear in the generated display.
a) view port b) view window
c) view volume d) window volume
Part B
Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 Marks)
11. a) Write about Raster Scan system in detail.
(OR)
b) Discuss mid-point circle generating algorithm with example.
12. a) Explain Area –fill attributes.
(OR)
b) What is composite transformation? Derive a composite transformation
matrix to rotate an object about an arbitrary point.
13. a) What is viewing pipeline? Derive window to viewport co-ordinate
transformation.
(OR)
b) Discuss in detail about interactive picture construction techniques.
14. a) Write about 3-D Graphics packages.
(OR)
b) Explain 3-D rotation.
15. a) Describe Back face Detection.
(OR)
b) Write a note on Raster animations.
Part C
Answer Any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 Marks)
16. Describe Ellipse Generating algorithm.
17. Discuss in detail about antialiasing techniques.
18. What is Line clipping? Discuss various Line clipping algorithms.
19. Describe 3 –D display methods.
20. Illustrate different types of 3 –D projections.
******
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Detail on types of flour and its role in baking.
5. Explain in detail the causes for bread faults.
6. Detail on the process of dough making.
7. Discuss on types of cookies and the role of ingredients in preparation.
8. Enumerate the characteristics of cakes in detail.
******
Question Code: B25402 Sub Code: U16NDS21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
BAKERY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. ( N & D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )
1. a) Discuss on types and functions of yeast.
(OR)
b) Explain the types and role of sugar in baking.
2. a) Write notes on dough mixing, moulding and baking?
(OR)
b) Short notes on sponge dough method and fermented dough method in
bread making.
3. a) Discuss on types of icing sugar.
(OR)
b) Explain the types of biscuits.
Question Code: A30103 /A31103 Sub Code: BCOCR21 / BCACR21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2016
M. S. OFFICE
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The process of LSI and VLSI technologies led to the development of
a) Vacuum tubes b) transistors
c) microprocessor d) integrated circuit
2. The process of copying files from secondary storage to the RAM before
execution is called
a) Memory unit b) Swapping
c) Register d) Accumulator
3. The function that allow to concentrate on one application by making its
window to cover the entire screen is ______
a) minimize b) maximize
c) resize d) close
4. ______ can be used to temporarily store information to move around
documents and windows.
a) Icon b) Desktop
c) Window d) Dialog box
5. Which of the following line spacing is invalid?
a) Single b) Multiple
c) Double d) Triple
6. _____function key is used to initiate spelling and grammar check.
a) F7 b) F12 c) F5 d) F2
7. The number of worksheets present in a workbook is ______
a) 225 b) 245 c) 235 d) 255
8. Excel displays the current cell address in the ______
a) Title bar b) Name bar
c) Formula bar d) Status bar
9. ______ is a computer software package used to display information in the
form of slide show.
a) Simulation program b) Animation program
c) Microsoft program d) Presentation program
10. Effects can be applied for the slides in powerpoint using ______menu.
a) Design b) Animation c) Review d) Insert
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Illustrate the Generations of Computers
(OR)
b) Describe Central Processing Unit.
12. a) Explain Start Menu.
(OR)
b) Discuss on Power control and Help Option.
13. a) Explain the Basic file manipulation.
(OR)
b) Describe Tables in MS Word.
14. a) How header and footer is created in Excel.
(OR)
b) Write the procedure to perform mathematical and Automatic
calculation in excel.
15. a) Characterize the features of Powerpoint Window.
(OR)
b) Illustrate how Outline, Slider Tabs and Sorter View are used in
powerpoint.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. List down all the Input devices.
17. Explain about Storing, Removing and Printing files.
18. Summarize the features for Editing a document.
19. Explain Chart in Excel.
20. Describe Spell Check and Print options in Powerpoint.
********
Question Code: A50303 / A51303 Sub: Code: P14COE21/ P14MCE21
/ MCOME21 / MCCME21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2015
RESEARCH METHODS IN COMMERCE
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. ______research uses descriptions, classifications, measurements and
comparisons to describe various phenomena.
a) Pure b) Applied
c) Descriptive d) Historical
2. ______is the blue print of the proposed study.
a) Scientific Research b) Research Design
c) Research Report d) Hypothesis
3. ______is filled by the interviewer at the time of interview.
a) Schedule b) Questionnaire
c) Interview d) Sampling
4. ______is filled by the interviewee.
a) Sampling b) Schedule
c) Questionnaire d) Pretest
5. Hypothesis means_______.
a) to suppose b) clear
c) Simplicity d) Research Gap
6. ______hypothesis is more frequently used in statistics.
a) Null b) Alternate
c) Null & Alternate d) Parametric
7. In _____scale, respondent is asked to tick his preference on a graph.
a) Likert b) Rank order
c) Graphic rating d) Paired comparison
8. ______scale is a five –point scale.
a) Likert b) Rank order
c) Graphic rating d) paired comparison
9. ______reports are not formally structured and are generally short.
a) Detailed b) Brief
c) Survey d) Basic
10. ______reports are more formal.
a) Detailed b) Brief
c) Survey d) Basic
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the steps involved in formulation of a Research problem.
(OR)
b) State the steps involved in Research.
12. a) Discuss the merits & demerits of secondary data.
(OR)
b) State the difference between questionnaire and schedule.
13. a) Write a note on Hypothesis.
(OR)
b) Bring out the difference between Null Hypothesis and Alternate
Hypothesis.
14. a) Write a note on Rank order scaling
(OR)
b) Write a note on Thurstone scale
15. a) State the different types of Analysis of data.
(OR)
b) Write a note on Editing of data.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain briefly the contents of Research Design.
17. State the various types of sampling.
18. Discuss the procedure for hypothesis testing.
19. Write a note on Likert scale.
20. Determine the steps involved in drafting Reports.
*********
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Write short notes on
i) Sugar Industries in India. ii) Cane sugar and Beet sugar.
iii) Pre – preparation before the extraction of juice from Sugarcane.
5. Explain the following
i) Manufacture of CELOTEX.
ii) Testing and Estimation of sugar.
6. i) Describe the separation, drying and refining processes of sugar
manufacturing.
ii) Give the conditions favourable for fermentation.
7. i) Give an account on double Sulphitation process.
ii) Discuss the applications of bagasse.
8. How does we get power alcohol from molasses? Give its importance as
a fuel.
******
Question Code: A22402 Sub: Code: BCHSB21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2016
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
SUGAR TECHNOLOGY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )
1. i) Name the steps involved in the manufacture of Cane Sugar.
ii) Explain the defection process of manufacturing Cane Sugar.
2. Describe the process of extraction of juice from Sugar Cane.
3. Discuss about the concentration and Crystallization process in the
manufacturing of Cane Sugar.
4. How will you manufacture Sucrose from Beet root?
5. Write about the characteristics of enzymes.
-1-
Question Code: A30104/ A31104 Sub Code: BCOCR22 / BCACR22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2016
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING - II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. A bill of exchange is an acknowledgement of _______
a) Debt b) goods
c) credit extended d) purchase
2. When a bill is discharged, the acceptor debits ______
a) creditors a/c b) cash a/c
c) bills payable a/c d) bank a/c
3. When the due date of transactions falls on a public holiday, the due date
will be ____.
a) the same day b) one day after that holiday
c) one day before that holiday d) two days after the holiday
4. The method of account current usually employed by the banker is
known as ______
a) Daily balance method b) Red Ink interest
c) current a/c d) Epoque method
5. Bills receivable from A will be taken to ______
a) General ledger b) Debtors ledger
c) Creditors ledger d) Bills a / c
6. Creditors ledger is also known as _____
a) Sales ledger b) General ledger
c) Purchase ledger d) none of these
7. Receipts and Payment a/c is a _____
-2- -7-
a) Nominal a/c b) real a/c
c) Personal a/c d) Cash a/c
8. Subscription received in advance is ______.
a) an asset b) an income
c) a receipt d) a liability
9. Closing capital + Drawings – opening capital is ____
a) Profit / loss b) Capital
c) Creditors d) Debtors
10. Under single entry system, the following are recorded _____
a) Personal a/cs only b) cash book transactions only
c) both (a+b) d) either a (or) b
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the features of Bill of exchange?
(OR)
b) On 1.1.2011, A draws a bill on B at four months for Rs.1000 and
B draws on A for similar amount and term. Both the bills are
accepted and discounted at 6% p.a. A meets his own acceptance
at maturity but B‟s acceptance is dishonoured. B then accepts
new bill at 3 months for the amount due by him plus interest at
8% p.a which is duly met at maturity.
Give Journal entries in the books of both the parties.
12. a) Rs.40,000 lent by Sundaram to chatterjee on 1.1.2009 is repayable in
4 equal half yearly installments commencing from 1.1.2010. Calculate
average due date and interest at 15% p.a.
19. Briefly explain about the Receipt and Payment and Income and Expenditure
a/c.
20. Following balances are extracted from the books of Joseph, who keeps
incomplete records of his transactions:-
Items 1.1.2012
Rs.
31.12.2012
Rs.
Stock 2,400 3,000
Debtors 4,000 3,200
Creditors 1,700 3,900
Cash in hand 2,000 3,800
Bank overdraft 2,400 -
Furniture and fittings 800 1,000
Motor Bike 9,500 9,500
Bills Receivable 2,000 4,300
Drawings during the year amounted to Rs.2,800. Depreciate
Furniture and Fittings at 5% and write off Rs.500 on motor Bike. Rs.100
is irrecoverable and a further provisions of 5% for Doubtful debts are to
be provided. Further a provision of Rs.200 in respect of bills are also to
be provided.
Ascertain the profit (or) loss for the year ended 31st Dec.2012 and
prepare a statement of affairs as on that date
*****
-3-
-6-
17. Balaji had the following transactions with Ganesan
Rs.
Jan 20, 2011 Sold goods to Ganesan 400
Mar 2, 2011 Purchased goods from Ganesan 250
Mar 3, 2011 Accepted Ganesan‟s draft at 1 month due 200
April 11, 2011 cash paid to Ganesan 400
April 30, 2011 goods sold to Ganesan due end of May 100
May 11, 2011 Bought goods from Ganesan 300
June 11, 2011 Balaji drew a bill on Ganesan this day
Payable two months after date, and this
was duly accepted by Ganesan 300
Prepare an Account current to be rendered by Balaji to Ganesan as at 30th
June, bringing interest into account at 20% p.a.
18. Prepare the Bought Ledger Adjustment and the Sales Ledger Adjustment a/c
as would appear in the General Ledger of M/s. Hindustan Trader for the year
ended 31.12.2014 from the following information.
Opening Balance (1.1.2014)
Bought Ledger (Dr) – Rs.2,610, (Cr) – Rs.35,820
Sales Ledger (Dr) – Rs.43,860, (Cr) – Rs.720
Transactions during the year
Rs. Rs.
Purchases 1,98,540 Bills receivable received 12,360
Purchase Return 7,680 Bills payable issued 6,750
Sales 2,62,470 B/R dishonoured 750
Sales Returns 3,510 Transfer from Bought to
sales ledger
100
Cash received from
Drs
2,28,630 Transfer from sales to
Bought ledger
40
Discount allowed 8,460 Closing Balance
(31.12.2014)
Cash paid to the Crs 1,75,290 Sales ledger (Cr) 1,360
Discount received 4,980 Bought ledger (Dr) 2,310
Cash refunded to Drs 520
b) X owes Y the following sums of money due on the dates stated:-
Rs.400 due on 05.01.2009
Rs.200 due on 20.01.2009
Rs.800 due on 04.02.2009
Rs.100 due on 26.02.2009
Rs.50 due on 10.03.2009
Calculate a date when payment made by X in one instalment resulting in
no loss of interest to any one.
13. a) What are the Self – balancing ledger.
(OR)
b) From the following prepare a creditors ledger Adjustment a/c
Rs.
1.1.2013 Creditors Balance (Cr.) 12,000
Creditors Balance (Dr.) 150
31.12.2013 Total purchases 40,000
Cash purchases 4,000
Cash paid 20,000
Bills accepted 15,000
Returns outwards 2,000
Returns Inwards 1,000
Bills Receivable dishonoured 1,000
Bills Payable dishonoured 500
Discount earned 600
Discount allowed 200
Bills endorsed 800
Bills discounted 200
Creditors Balance (Dr.) 140
-5- -4-
14. a) From the following particulars, prepare Income and Expenditure a/c.
Rs.
Stock of stationery on 1.4.2010 250
Stock of stationery on 31.03.2011 100
Purchase of stationery during the year 2010 -11 2,800
Stationery bills o/s for 1.4.2010 120
Stationery bill o/s for 31.03.2011 200
Stationery paid in advance on 31.03.2010 140
Stationery paid in advance on 31.03.2011 180
(OR)
b) From the following information of Mohamadan sports club of Calcutta,
you are required to prepare the Receipts and Payment a/c for the year
ended 31.03.2013.
Balance on 01.04.2012 :- Cash 5,000, Bank 3,000
Transaction during the year:
Rs. Rs.
Entrance fee 4,500 Honorarium paid 8,000
Donation 27,000 Billiard Table
Purchased
40,000
Legacy 16,000 Sports meet collection 18,000
Life membership
fee
6,080 Sports expenses 12,000
Rent paid 9,000 Interest paid 5,600
Stationery
purchased
1,800 Purchase of News
paper
1,000
Subscription
2011 - 12
2012 - 13
2013 - 14
5,800
37,000
3,200
Sale of news papers
Balance on
31.03.2013
Cash
600
2,500
15. a) What are the differences between Balance sheet and statement of affairs?
(OR)
b) Mohan, a retail merchant commenced business with a capital of
Rs.12,000. on1.1.2009; Subsequently on 1.5.2009 he invested further
capital of Rs.5000. During the year, he has withdrawn Rs.2000 for his
personal use. On 31.12.2009, his assets and liabilities were as follows.
Rs.
Cash at Bank 3,000
Debtors 4,000
Stock 16,000
Furniture 2,000
Creditors 5,000
Calculate the Profit / loss made during the year 2009.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. A sold goods to B on 30th
October, 2012 for Rs.14,000 and received three
bills for Rs.2000, Rs.4000 and Rs.8000 at 2, 3 and 4 months duration
respectively. He kept the first bill till maturity, endorsed the second bill in
favour of his creditor C and discounted the third bill on 3rd
December, 2012 at
6% p.a. The first and second bills were duly met on maturity but the third bill
was dishonoured, the bank paying Rs.40 as noting charges. On 10th
April,
2012 „B‟ paid Rs.4,000 and the noting charges in cash and accepted a new bill
at 2 months after date for the balance plus Rs.80 as interest. The new bill was
met on maturity. Give journal entries in the books of A and B both.
Question Code: A10202 Sub Code: BHYAS21 / UHYAS21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2016
MODERN POLITICAL THOUGHT
Time : 3 Hrs B.A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Popular Sovereignty is a doctrine of ______
a) John Austin b) Prof Laski
c) Thomas Hobbes d) Rousseau
2. Glorious Revolution took place in ______
a) England b) France
c) Germany d) Italy
3. Who wrote the Frag on Government?
a) Bentham b) Montesquieu
c) James mill d) Stuart mill
4. ______ is the important work of Bradley
a) Das capital b) Social contract
c) Ethical values d) The Logic
5. Immanuvel kant was a _____ political thinker.
a) England b) French
c) Italy d) German
6. The objective of communism during 19th
century was ______
a) Classless Society b) Casteless Society
c) Plutocracy d) none of these
7. The term Scientific Socialism is associated with _____
a) Lenin b) Karl Marx
c) Hitler d) Spencer
8. The theory “Dialectic Materialism” was first adopted by_____.
a) The French b) The Romans
c) The Greeks d) The Indians
9. Nazi party was founded in _____.
a) 1917 b) 1918
c) 1919 d) 1929
10. Facism was developed in _____
a) Germany b) England
c) France d) Italy
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Social Contract theory of John Locke.
(OR)
b) Theory of Separation of Power by Montesquieu.
12. a) Define Utilitarianism.
(OR)
b) Bentham‟s view on Sovereignty.
13. a) Bradley
(OR)
b) Ethical philosophy of Kant.
14. a) Define communism.
(OR)
b) Communist Manifesto.
15. a) Define Imperialism.
(OR)
b) Emergence of Nazi principle.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Evaluate various political theories of Thomas Hobbes.
17. Describe John Stuart mill‟s view on Liberty.
18. Explain individualistic views of Spencer.
19. Describe the importance of Leninism.
20. Trace the causes for the emergence of facism and its doctrines.
********
Question Code: A80105 Sub: Code: P14ELC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2015
BRITISH LITERATURE -III
Time : 3 Hrs M. A. -English Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. „Children in the wood‟ is a famous ballad in _____ “ Reliques on Ancient
Poetry”.
a) Lamb‟s b) Percy‟s c) John‟s d) Kelly‟s
2. ________inspired Lamb to write „A‟ Dissertation Upon Roast Pig‟.
a) Blake b) Alice c) Manning d) Wordsworth
3. The tiger is praised for its ______.
a) System b) Symmetry
c) Meekness d) gentle nature
4. The ancient mariner undertakes the voyage with ______companion‟s.
a) 800 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
5. „To A Skylark‟ was composed by Shelley during his stay at ______.
a) Leghorn b) Lethe
c) London d) China
6. In „When We Two Parted‟, the split between the lovers was
accompanied by
a) nature b) silence and tears
c) happiness d) laughter
7. Prometheus is bound to ______.
a) Jupiter b) Panthea
c) Precipice d) Asia
8. Whom does Prometheus refer to as “Monarchs of Gods”?
a) Demogorgon b) Jupiter
c) Precipice d) Apollo
9. Who is the nephew of Giles Gosling?
a) Varney b) Tressilian
c) Lambourne d) Alasco
10. Mrs. Philp is ______
a) sister of Bingley b) sister of Darcy
c) Nephew of Mr. Bennet d) sister of Mrs. Bennet
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a note on the autobiographical element in „A Dissertation
upon roast Pig‟.
(OR)
b) Narrate the story of the „Children in the Woods‟ and its relevance to
the essay „Dream children‟.
12. a) Write a critical appreciation of „The Tyger‟.
(OR)
b) Write a note on the ancient mariners irresponsible act of killing.
13. a) What is the theme of “When We Two Parted”?
(OR)
b) Write a note on the themes discussed in „Ode to Nightingale‟.
14. a) Write a critical note on Shelley‟s symbolism in „Prometheus
Unbounded‟.
(OR)
b) The Last Speech of Demogorgon.
15. a) Why did Amy Robsart secretly marry Earl of Leicester?
(OR)
b) Sketch the character of Jane Bennet.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Consider Charles Lamb as an essayist.
17. Discuss the supernatural element in „The Rime Of the Ancient Mariner‟.
18. Comment on the aptness of the title “To A Skylark”.
19. Consider „Prometheus Unbound‟ as a Lyrical Drama.
20. Jane Austen‟s portrayal of Mr. Collins has become immortal –
Substantiate.
*********
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mYtyf Nkyhz;ik Neuk;: 3 kzp B. B. A. kjpg;ngz;fs; : 75
gFjp – m
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2. _______ %yk; mYtyf mikg;G jpl;lj;ij Njitf;Nfw;g
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4. _______ vd;gJ ifnaOj;J my;yJ jl;nlOj;jpd; %yk;
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7. Kd; ml;il my;yJ Kd; gf;fj;jpy;______ ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;. m) Kfthp M) jiyg;G
,) nghUslf;fk; <) ifnaOj;J
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10. ______ vd;gJ XU Fwpg;gpl;l nghUs; gw;wpa cz;ikfs; xd;W
Nrh;f;fg;gl;l gl;bayhFk;. m) mwpf;if M) mwptpg;G ,) mikg;G <) Mw;wy;
gFjp - M
midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tpil jUf (5 x 7 = 35)
11. m) mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; gzpfs; ahit? (my;yJ)
M) mjpfhu xg;gilg;G nfhs;iffs; ahit?
12. m) njhlh;; vOJnghUspd; tiffs; ahit? (my;yJ)
M) fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;ij jhahhpg;gjpy; cs;s epiyfis tpsf;Ff.
13. m) ey;y Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwapd; mk;rq;fs; ahit? (my;yJ) M) Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwfis tpsf;Ff.
14. m) mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fspd; tiffs; ahit? (my;yJ)
M) fzpg;nghwpapd; mq;fq;fs; ahit?
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gFjp - ,
vitNaDk; %d;wDf;F ehd;F gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tphpthd tpil jUf (3 x 10 = 30)
16. mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; mbg;gilf; $Wfs; ahit?
17. fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;jpd; tiffis tpthp.
18. Nfhg;gPl;bd; ed;ikfs; ahit?
19. mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fis Njh;e;njLg;gjw;fhd Nfhl;ghLfis tpthp.
20. mwpf;ifapd; mikg;G gw;wp tpthp.
**********
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. a) State and explain various C++ tokens.
(OR)
b) Illustrate various control structures in C++.
10. a) Explain Function overloading with example.
(OR)
b) i) What is friend function? What are the merits and demerits of using
friend function.
ii) Write a program to implement the concept of friend function.
11. a) With sample program explain dynamic and copy constructors.
(OR)
b) Write a program to add and subtract two complex numbers using operator
overloading.
12. a) What is inheritance? List its different types and explain any two with
sample code.
(OR)
b) Explain virtual function.
13. a) With sample programs explain how to read and display line of text.
(OR)
b) Discuss the features of C++ used for formatting the output.
*******
Sub Code: PGDCA13
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, June – 2016
OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH C++
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Discuss the basic concepts of object oriented programming.
2. Explain call by reference and return by reference with example.
3. How to define member functions in a class. Give examples.
4. Define constructor? Explain parameterized constructor with sample code.
5. State the rules for overloading an operator.
6. Explain THIS pointer.
7. Write a note on C++ stream classes.
8. How to manage output with manipulators in C++.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. Describe phased development process.
10. Explain any two types of Software Development process models.
11. List out the Metrics. Discuss with examples.
12. Elucidate Risk Management.
13. Illustrate Design Notation and Specification in detail.
14. Describe Static Analysis.
15. What is white –Box testing. Explain with examples.
16. Discuss Defect Analysis and how to prevent the defects.
*****
Sub Code: PGDCA14
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2016
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Discuss in detail about Quality and productivity.
2. State the need for S.R.S.
3. Explain CoCoMo model.
4. Write about project monitoring plan.
5. Write short notes on : Coupling and Cohesion.
6. Briefly describe about PDL.
7. Illustrate Test plan and Test case Execution and Analysis.
8. Write short notes on Pair –wise testing.
The value of stock on 31.12.2005 was estimated at Rs.5,960 you are
required to make necessary closing the Trading & Profit & Loss a/c.
Balance sheet on 31.12.2005.
*******
Sub: Code: CCACS12
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, JUNE – 2015
BASIC PRINCIPLE OF ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs CCACS Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. What is accounting?
2. What are the Business Transactions?
3. What is meant by single entry system?
4. Give a list of Accounting.
5. What is Journal?
6. Write a Basic Rule of Accounting.
7. What is Purchase Return? How to handle the Purchases Returns and
Journal entries?
8. Journalise the following transaction and post them ledger in the book of
Mr. Marimuthu.
2003 April
1
Started Business with cash
Rs.
50,000
2 Bank Deposit 50,000
5 Purchases goods for cash 20,000
8 Sales goods 30,000
10 Purchases from Raj & Co. 25,000
15 Goods sold on Krish @ Co. 35,000
18 Telephone Rent 5,000
20 Cash paid to Raj & Co. 25,000
25 Cash Received from Krish @ Co. 35,000
30 Rent Rs.5,000, Salaries Rs.2,000 paid to cash .
Part – B
Answer any five questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. What are the importance of Accounting?
10. Distinguish between Double Entry System / Single Entry System.
11. Explain the Trade Discount and Cash Discount.
12. Write short note on:- a) Contra Entry b) Purchases Return
c) Sales Return d) Direct Expenses
13. Journalise the following transaction in the Book of Mr. Senthil Raja
Post Ledger and prepare the Trail Balance.
2006 Jan.
1
Started Business
Rs.
25,000
2 Deposit into Bank 23,000
10 Purchases Furniture by cash 2,000
15 Cash Purchases 5,000
20 Sold goods 10,000
22 Paid Rent 2,000
25 Telephone Bill 1,000
30 Salaries paid 5,000
14. Explain the Subsidiary Books.
15. What is Bank Reconciliation Statement? Explain the Pass Book and
Cash Book.
16. The following is the Trail Balance of SANKR of Chennai as on 31st
December 2005.
Debit Balance Amount Credit Balance Amount
Opening stock 6,200 Sales 82,920
Building 34,000 Capital 24,000
Furniture 2,000 Bank Loan 6,000
Purchases 42,200 Sundry Creditors 9,840
Salaries 4,400 Return Outwards 840
Rent 1,200 Interest 260
Miscellaneous Expenses 1,000 Dividend 220
Postage 560
Stationery 520
Wages 10,400
Freight on purchases 1,120
Carriage on sales 1,600
Repairs 1,800
Sundry Debtors 12,000
Bad debts 240
Cash in hand 2,600
Return Inwards 2,040
Total 1,24,080 1,24,080
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
17. Discuss about the components of computer system.
18. How would you manipulate windows?
19. Discuss about mail merge in MS Word.
20. How would you check spelling and grammatical errors in Word?
21. Discuss various Input Output devices in detail.
22. Explain how to create charts in Excel.
23. Discuss the various views of a slide.
24. Discuss in detail about the Microsoft Power Point window.
********
Sub Code:
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, JUNE – 2015
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND OFFICE AUTOMATION
Time : 3 Hrs CCMET Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions: (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Brief about the characteristics of computers.
2. Write about basic concepts of Internet.
3. Write about the history of operating systems.
4. What are the basic concepts of Windows Operating System?
5. What are the features of help option in MS Word?
6. How would you format text in Word?
7. Give any five formulas in Excel.
8. How would you create your first Power Point presentation?
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. Discuss in detail about the structure of vertebral column with suitable
diagram.
10. Enlist the functions of cell.
11. Give an account of the structure of heart.
12. Write an essay on the types of muscle.
13. Describe in detail about the organs of respiration.
14. Comment on the various types of endocrine glands.
15. Give an elaborate account on the structure of digestive system.
16. Explain the structure of female reproductive system with suitable
diagram.
********
Sub: Code: CCMET12
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, JUNE – 2015
BASIC ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs CCMET Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions: (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Describe the structure of a cell.
2. Give an account of classification of bones.
3. Explain the composition of blood.
4. Write short notes on cardiac muscle.
5. Enlist the functions of respiratory system.
6. Give an account of the structure of kidney.
7. What are the functions of hormones?
8. Explain the structure of nerve cell.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. State the importance of ledger and explain the methods for preparation of
ledger in tally.
10. Explain the procedure of balancing of trading account and profit and loss
account.
11. Explain the procedure for applications of compound interest and how it is
used in tally.
12. State the methods for creating discount transactions.
13. State the ways to install Bill of materials in tally.
14. Explain the print outstanding statement.
15. Describe the stock category movement analysis in primary cost centre.
16. State the ways to prepare Budget controls in tally.
**********
Sub Code: DIACS21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, June – 2016
COMPUTERIZED ACCOUNTING WITH TALLY
Time : 3 Hrs DACS Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Analyze the method for using Trail balance and Balance sheet.
2. Discuss the objectives of balance sheet and why it is prepared?
3. Write a note on procedure to setup compound interest and its
calculations in tally.
4. Explain the nominal rate and effective rate of interest.
5. What are the purposes of receivables? Explain.
6. How to control receivables? And how it will use in tally.
7. Explain the procedure for cost centre in tally.
8. What are the essentials of Budget? Explain.
Sub Code: DIACS22
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, June – 2016
BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Time : 3 Hrs DACS Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. i)
3
2
3
b
a ii)
5
2
23
y
x iii) 25 77 iv)
252 43
v) 3223 ba
2. Find the sum of the series 3 + 7 + 11 + …... to 40 terms.
3. Divide 81 in the ratio of 2 : 7.
4. 20 men can do a job in 90 days. How many days are needed for 30 men to do
the same job?
5. Find compound interest on Rs.10,000 for 4 years. The rates of interest for the
successive years being 4% , 2
14 % , 5% and
4
14 %.
6. A bill of Rs.5,000 was drawn on 10th
April at 3 months and discounted on
May 1st at 12% p.a. For what sum the bill was discounted? How much did
the banker gain?
7. Solve the following transportation problem using the North – West Corner
method.
A B C D Available
I 11 13 17 14 250
II 16 18 14 10 300
III 21 24 13 10 400
Requirement 200 225 275 250
8. Solve the following assignment problem.
A B C D
18 26 17 11
13 28 14 26
38 19 18 15
19 26 24 10
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. Find the value of 64
53
510
432
53
57
34
53
51
41
31
21
.
10. A contractor under took to build a road in 200 days. He employed 140 men.
After 60 days, he found that only ¼ of the road could be built. How many
additional men should be employed to complete the work in time?
11. The ratio of the prices of 2 bicycles was 16:23. Five years later when the
price of the first had increased by 20% and that of the second by Rs.617 the
ratio of their prices became 13:22. What was the original price of the
bicycles?
12. If the 3rd
and 6th
terms of an A.P are 7 and 13 respectively. Find the first term
and the common difference and hence find the sum of first 30 terms.
13. Find the compound interest in following cases
a) On Rs.10,000 for 2years at 10% p.a paid annually.
b) On Rs.6,000 for 2½ years at 10% p.a paid annually.
c) On Rs.5,000 for 1½ years at 5% p.a CI is paid half yearly.
d) Rs. 1,000 for one year at 10% p.a CI is paid quarterly.
14. Find the present worth of Rs.8175 due 5 months hence at 5¼ %.
15. Solve the following transportation problem using the Vogel‟s Approximation
method.
D E F G Available
A 11 13 17 14 250
B 16 18 14 10 300
C 21 24 13 10 400
Demand 200 225 275 250
16. Explain the nature of a travelling salesman problem.
********
Part – B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x15 = 45 marks)
9. Examine the duties and responsibilities of tourist guides.
10. Interpreting the tourism centers to the tourists is very needful – Discuss.
11. Examine the role of travel agencies in co-ordination in organizing tours.
12. Write an essay on communication channels.
13. Personality development is not an automatic process- Discuss.
******
Sub Code: CCTTM12
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, June – 2016
GUIDING SKILL & PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT
Time : 3 Hrs CCTTM Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 6 = 30 marks)
1. Define the tem tourist guide
2. What are the qualifications of a Tourist guide?
3. What are the key point to remember in planning an Itinerary?
4. Write a note on the General Instruction given to the participants at
monuments.
5. Classify the various types of tourism
6. What are the needs of the clients on tour?
7. Define the term personality development
8. Write a note on the skill of behavior with male and female clients.
Class Frequency
0-10 10
10-20 20
20-30 ?
30-40 40
40-50 ?
50-60 25
60-70 15
Total 170
The median is 35. Find the missing frequencies.
17. The scores of two cricketers A and B in 10 innings are given below.
Find who is a better run getter and who is more consistent player?
A scores ix 40 25 19 80 38 8 67 121 66 76
B scores iy 28 70 31 0 14 111 66 31 25 4
18. The following data relate to the marks of 10 students in the internal test and the
university examination for the maximum of 50 in each.
Internal marks 25 28 30 32 35 36 38 39 42 45
University marks 20 26 29 30 25 18 26 35 35 46
Obtain the two regression equations.
19. Use the method of least squares and fit a straight line trend to the following
data given from 82 to 92. Hence estimate the trend value for 1993.
Year 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92
Production
In quintals
45 46 44 47 42 41 39 42 45 40 48
20. One factory 1F produces 1000 articles 20 of them being defective, second
factory 2F produces 4000 articles 40 of them being defective and third
factory, 3F produces 5000 articles 50 of them being defective. All these
articles are put in one stock file. One of them in chosen and is found to be
defective. What is the probability that it is from the factory 1F ?
*****
Question Code: B24202 Sub Code: U16CSA21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2017
PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. ( Computer Science ) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks) 1. In a symmetrical distribution if mean is 24.6 and mode is 26. 1 then the median
is
a) 25.1 b) 25. 2 c) 25 d) none
2. The algebraic sum of the deviation of a set of n values from their arithmetic
mean is
a) zero b) > 0 c) < 0 d) none
3. If ix = 99 , n = 9 and 2
10ix = 79 then 2
ix is
a) 1059 b) 1080 c) 1159 d) none
4. The most popular method for curve fitting is
a) The principle of least squares b) Newton‟s method
c) Lagrange‟s method d) none
5. If x and y are independent then is
a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) 1/ 2
6. The equation of the regression line of y on x is 8x – 10y + 66 = 0 and the
equation of the regression line of x on y is 40 x – 18 y = 214. The correlation
coefficient between x and y is
a) 5
2 b)
5
3 c)
5
4 d)
5
1
7. In a cyclical variation the period of oscillation for the periodic movements in a
time series is
a) greater than one year b) greater than two years
c) within a year d) none
8. Seasonal index for thi month is
a) 100ix
x b) 100
x
xi c) 100x
xi d) x
xi
9. If P (A) = 0.4, P (B) = x and BAP = 0.7 where A and B are two mutually
disjoint events, then the value of x is
a) 0.3 b) 1. 3 c) -0.3 d) 0.28
10. If A and B are independent events then
a) APBAP b) BPAPBAP
c) APBAP 1 d) BPAPBAP
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Calculate the mean for the following frequency distribution.
class
interval
0-8 8-16 16-24 24-32 32-40 40-48
frequency 8 7 16 24 15 7
(OR)
b) The four parts of a distribution as follows
Frequency Mean
Part -1 50 61
Part -2 100 70
Part -3 120 80
Part -4 30 83
Find the mean of the entire distribution.
12. a) Find arithmetic mean x and standard deviation of the following frequency
distribution.
Marks 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Frequency 1 5 11 15 12 7 3 3 0 1
(OR)
b) Fit a straight line to the following data
X 0 1 2 3 4
Y 2.1 3.5 5.4 7.3 8.2
13. a) Prove that the rank correlation coefficient
1
6
12
1
2
nn
dn
i
.
(OR)
b) Calculate the correlation coefficient for the heights (in inches) of father
(x) and their sons (y)
x 65 66 67 67 68 69 70 72
y 67 68 65 68 72 72 69 71
14. a) Compute the seasonal indices for the following data by simple average
method.
Season 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994
Summer 68 70 68 65 60
Monsoon 60 58 63 56 55
Autumn 61 56 68 56 55
Winter 63 60 67 55 58
(OR)
b) Explain the measurement of trends in a time series.
15. a) If A and B are independent events prove that BA and are also independent
events.
(OR)
b) The chances that 4 students A, B, C, D can solve a problem are 2
1,
3
1 ,
4
1,
4
1 respectively. If all of them try to solve the problem, what is the
probability that the problem is solved.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. An incomplete distribution is given below
Question Code: B80105 Sub Code: P16ELC21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
BRITISH LITERATURE –III
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. _______organized an annual banquet for young chimney-sweepers in
Smithfield.
a) James White b) Elia c) Bo bo d) Mary Poppins
2. _____ lived in a great house in Norfolk.
a) John b) Field c) Lamb d) Alice
3. The Mariner sees ______ standing next to the bodies of all his crewmates.
a) guests b) angels c) ghosts d) hermit
4. Grecian urn is written by ______.
a) John Keats b) William Wordsworth
c) Browning d) Tennyson
5. _______ sketched the pen portrait of the last Duchess.
a) Ferrara b) King
c) Duke d) Fra Pandolf
6. The __________ is the speaker of the poem “My Last Duchess”.
a) Duke of Ferrara b) Keats
c) Browning d) Duchess
7. Mr.Bingley lived at ________.
a) Long bourn b) Nethufield Park
c) Meryton. d) London
8. _________ is in love with Ivanhoe.
a) Rebecca b) Rowena
c) Lydia d) Charlotte
9. ________was the cousin of Clym Yeobright.
a) Amy Dorrit b) Eustacia
c) Vye d) Thomasin
10. _______ is a trusted and resourceful member of Fagin's gang.
a) Mrs. Sowerberry b) Nancy
c) Agnes Fleming d) Charlotte
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) How does Charles Lamb bring out the fatal working conditions?
(OR)
b) Charles Lamb‟s “A Dissertation upon Roast Pig” is packed with
fun and humour.- Discuss.
12. a) Give a short account on the loneliness and hopelessness suffered
by the mariner.
(OR)
b) Write a critical appreciation of Keats‟ “Ode on a Grecian Urn”.
13. a) Write a brief note on the character of the last Duchess in “My Last
Duchess”.
(OR)
b) “Matthew Arnold uses the means of 'pathetic fallacy', when he
projects the human feeling of sadness” – Elucidate.
14. a) Sketch the character of Wilfred of Ivanhoe.
(OR)
b) Comment on the theme of Pride and Prejudice.
15. a) “Eustacia isn't all that bad; she's more flawed than anything
else” – Explain.
(OR)
b) Explain the role played by Oliver.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Write an essay on the autobiographical elements present in
Charles Lamb‟s “Dream Children: A Reverie”.
17. Write an essay on „The Rime of the Ancient Mariner‟ as a
myth of crime and punishment.
18. Evaluate the thoughts expressed in Tennyson‟s Ulysses.
19. Discuss Pride and Prejudice as a domestic comedy.
20. Justify the significance of the title The Return of the Native.
******
Question Code: B80107 Sub Code: P16ELC23
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
SHAKESPEARE
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Olivia marries __________.
a) Cesario b) Orsino
c) Sebastian d) Malvolio
2. Twelfth Night has __________.
a) Two heroines b) no heroines
c) three heroines d) one heroine
3. Julius Caesar returns to Rome after conquering the sons of _______.
a) Lepidus b) Octavius
c) Pompey d) Casca
4. Caesar suffers from _______.
a) Hysterical fits b) Epileptic fits
c) Lunatic fits d) none of these
5. Cassio describes Desdemona as ______.
a) heavenly b) celestial
c) godly d) divine
6. Desdemona‟s handkerchief was picked up by_______.
a) Emilia b) Othello
c) Iago d) Cassio
7. Ariel is thirsting for ______.
a) Miranda b) money
c) his liberty d) power
8. ______ was the first to jump out of the burning ship.
a) Gonzalo b) Antonio
c) Sebastian d) Ferdinand
9. „Twelfth Night‟ is a ______ comedy.
a) romantic b) pastoral
c) dark d) tragic
10. The first scene of „Julius Ceasar‟ opens in ______.
a) Roman Court b) Senate
c) a street in Rome d) King‟s palace
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Sketch the character of Viola in „Twelfth Night‟.
(OR)
b) Discuss the different kinds of love in the play „Twelfth Night‟.
12. a) What effect has Antony‟s brilliant oration on the Roman mob?
(OR)
b) Write briefly about the assassination of Caesar.
13. a) Describe the circumstances leading to Othello‟s dismissal of Cassio.
(OR)
b) Write a paragraph on Iago‟s grudge against Othello.
14. a) Write a note on Prospero‟s treatment of Caliban.
(OR)
b) True freedom lies in service – Substantiate.
15. a) Comment on the importance of the opening scene of Shakespeare‟s plays.
(OR)
b) Shakespeare‟s tragedies evoke pity and terror. – Justify.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Consider „Twelfth Night‟ as a romantic comedy.
17. Describe the plot construction of „Julius Caesar‟.
18. Discuss the tragic flaw in the character of Othello.
19. Write an essay on the autobiogrphical note in „The Tempest‟.
20. Attempt an essay on the characteristic features of Shakespeare‟s sonnets.
******
Question Code: B80303/ A80302 Sub Code: P16ELE21/ P14ELE21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
COMPUTER FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. ______is the process of entering data and programs into the computer
system.
a) output b) input c) typing d) inserting
2. One nano second is equal to _____second.
a) 1 x 10 3 b) 1 x 10 6 c) 1 x 10 9 d) 1 x 10 12
3. Which operation you will perform if you need to move a block of text?
a) copy & paste b) cut & paste
c) paste & delete d) paste & cut
4. Bold, Italic and Regular are known as ______.
a) font styles b) font effects
c) word art d) text effects
5. A file which contains readymade styles that can be used for a
presentation is called
a) auto style b) template c) wizard d) preformatting
6. Which is the shortcut key to jump to the first slide of the presentation?
a) Home b) Ctrl + Home
c) Alt + Home d) shift + Home
7. HTML stands for ______.
a) Hyperlink markup language b) Hypertext markup language
c) Hypertext madeup language d) Hyperlink madeup language
8. ______will make finding things on the internet easier.
a) CPU b) key board c) mouse d) search engines
9. To get started blogging we can click the _____.
a) start b) open c) start blogging d) blog
10. The parent term of cyberspace is _____derived from the ancient Greek.
a) cybertics b) cyberical
c) cybernetics d) cybernatical
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write an essay on the types of computer.
(OR)
b) Write a note on second generation computer.
12. a) What is meant by formatting the text? How is it done?
(OR)
b) Write a brief note on checking spelling and grammatical errors.
13. a) Explain what are the operations to be performed on the slides?
(OR)
b) Discuss how to add and modify animations to the slides.
14. a) What is internet? How information travels on the internet?
(OR)
b) Explain how to connect to the internet.
15. a) Write a note on blogger.
(OR)
b) Define cyberspace with examples.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What is a computer? Define the different categories of computer.
17. Define mail merge with various steps involved in it.
18. Discuss the procedure to create a power point presentation.
19. Write down the procedure to create a Gmail account.
20. Explain how a blog can be created.
******
-8-
-1-
( Number of
vehicles in
thousands )
1. What is the difference between the total productions of the two
companies in the given years?
2. What is the difference between the number of vehicles manufactured
by company Y in 2008 and 2009?
3. What is the average numbers of vehicles manufactured by company
X over the given period.
4. What is the difference between the productions of companies X and
Y was the maximum among the given years?
5. The production of company Y in 2008 was approximately what
percent of the production of company X in the same year?
*******
Question Code: B20402/ A20402 Sub Code: U16MAS21/ BMASB21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
DATA INTERPRETATION
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks ) 1. a) The following table gives the sales of batteries manufactured by a
company over the years
Year Types of Batteries
4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total
1992 75 144 114 102 108 543
1993 90 126 102 84 126 528
1994 96 114 75 105 135 525
1995 105 90 150 90 75 510
1996 90 75 135 75 90 465
1997 105 60 165 45 120 495
1998 115 85 160 100 145 605
a) The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum for which battery?
b) What is the difference in the number of 35AH batteries sold in 1993 and
1997?
c) In the case of which battery there was a continuous decrease in sales from
1992 to 1997?
d) What was the approximate percentage increase in the sales of 55AH
batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992?
(OR)
b) The following table gives the expenditures of a company (in Lakh
Rupees) per annum over the given years.
Item of
Expenditure
Year
Salary Fuel
&
Transport
Bonus Interest
on
Loans
Taxes
2005 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
2006 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
2007 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
2008 336 133 3.68 36.4 88
2009 420 142 3.96 49.4 98
Production in
(10,000
tonnnes)
Years
s
-7-
-2-
a) What is the ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the
years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years.
b) What is the total expenditure of the company over these items during
the year 2007?
c) What is the average amount of interest per year which the company
had to pay during this period?
d) Total expenditure on all these items in 2005 was approximately what
percent of the total expenditure in 2009.
e) The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given
period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary
paid during this period?
2. a) The following bar – graph is the production of fertilizers by a company (in 10000
tonnes) over the years.
1. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers
more than the average production of the given years?
2. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers
From 2007 to 2008?
3. What was the percentage increase in production of fertilizers in
2012 compared to that in 2005?
(OR)
b) The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of total
expenditure of a company under various expense heads during 2015.
7. The pie graph shows the spendings of a country on various spots during a
particular year.
1. What percent of the total spendings is spent on Tennis?
2. How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?
3. How much percent less is spent on football than that on cricket?
4. What is the amount spent on cricket and Hockey together if the total
amount spent on sports during the year was Rs.2 crores?
5. What is the amount spent on basketball exceeds that on tennis, if the
total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs.1,80,00,000.
8. Two componies are manufactured the veticles (in thousands) study the
following line graph & answer the questions.
Hockey,
63°
Football, 54°
Golf, 36°
Basket
Ball, 50°
Cricket ,
81°
Market
Borrow ing
29952
External
Assitance 11486
Annuity
600
0Tol
l 491
0
SP
VS
5252
Sales in
(1000)
-6-
-3-
1. The foreign exchange reserves in 2007 -2008 was how manny times that in 2004 -05?
2. What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 2007 -08 over
2003 -04?
3. For which year the percent increase of foreign exchange reserves over the previous year
is the highest?
4. The foreign exchange reserves in 2006 -07 were approximately what percent of the
average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review?
6. The bar graph gives the sales of books (in thousand numbers) from six branches of a
publishing company during two consecutive 2010 and 2011.
1. What is the total sales of branches B1, B3, & B5 together for both the years ?
(in thousand numbers).
2. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of
branch B3 for both the years?
3. What is the average sale of all the branches for the year 2010?
4. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales
of branch B4 for both years?
5. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2011 is the
average sales of branches B1, B3 & B6 in 2010?
Present
spent
1. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the
total expenditure on taxes and inteest on loans?
2. If the expenditure on advertisement is Rs.2.10 crores. What is the difference
between the expenditures on transport and taxes?
3. The total amount of expenditures of the company is how many times the
expenditure on research and development?
3. a) The following pie chart shows the sources of funds to be collected by the National
Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its projects. Total funds to be arranged for
projects is 57600 corers
1. What is the central angle corresponding to market Borrowing?
2. What is the approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through
Toll and that through market Borrowing?
3. If NHAI could receive a total of Rs.9695 crores as External Assistance,
Projects in crores
2010
2011
Years
(in Million US $)
percentage
-4- -5-
by what percent should it increase the market Borrowings to arrange for
the shortage of funds?
(OR)
b) The following line graph gives the percentage of the number of candidates who
qualified an examination out of the total number of candidates who appeared for the
examination over a period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.
1. If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what was the
number of candidates appeared in 1998.
2. The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was
33500 and the number of candidates appeared in 1999 was 26,500. What was
the number of candidates appeared in 2000.
3. The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to appeared
was maximum in which of the following pairs of years. 1994 & 95, 1997 and
98, 1999 & 2000, 1994 & 1997.
PART –B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven
students in six different subjects in an examination.
Subjects
(Max.
marks)
Student
Maths
(150)
Chem.
(130)
Phy.
(120)
Geogra
(100)
Hist
(60)
C.S
(40)
Ayush 90 50 90 60 70 80
Aman 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sajal 90 60 70 70 90 70
Rohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Muskan 80 65 85 95 50 90
Tanvi 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarun 65 35 50 77 80 80
1. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all six subjects?
2. What is the overall percentage of Tarun?
3. How many students who obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjets.
4. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven studens in physics?
5. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
5. The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a company
(in million US $) from 2001 -02 to 2008 -09.
i) Who were playing in the garden?
ii) Describe the garden?
iii) How many peach trees are there in the garden?
iv) “How happy we are there!” – Who told this?
12. Dialogue writing ( 3 x 1 = 3)
Sugavarna : Are you coming from the library?
Varnesh : _______
Sugavarna : What book are you having?
Varnesh : _______
Sugavarna : Are you a member of the library?
Varnesh : ______
Sugavarna : Ok. See you. Bye.
Varnesh : Bye
13. Hints Development (1 x 5 = 5)
A rich woman – blind – doctor promises to recover her vision
– demands Rs.5,000/- the women agrees to pay after the cure –
doctor takes away costly things everyday – woman gets cured –
but refuses to pay – doctor goes to court she says not cured – can‟t
see any of her costly things in the room.
******
Question Code: Sub Code: BLAEN21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April - 2017
Prose, Short stories, Remedial Grammar and Composition
Time : 3 Hrs B.A / B.Sc./ B.Com / B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Section – A (Proso 25 marks)
1 . Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
them in a sentence or two each. Attempt any TWO out of three.
( 2 x 3 = 6 )
a) I was born into a middle – class Tamil family in the island town of
Rameshwaram in the erstwhile Madras state. My father Jainulabdeen,
had neither much formal education nor much wealth; despite these
disadvantages, he possessed great innate wisdom and a true generosity of
spirit.
1. Here „I‟ refers to whom?
2. Who is Jainulabdeen?
3. What did he possess?
b) Galileo‟s full name was Galileo Galilei, but as he grew to manhood he
preferred to be known only by his first name. The baby Galileo was born
in Pisa, 1562.
1. What was Galileo‟s full name?
2. Where did he born?
3. In which year he was born?
c) On a London bus you will never hear the conductor cry, „Ticket, Ticket ;
He approaches the passenger and says „Thank you‟ and on receiving the
fare says again. Thank you, sir‟. A man who wants to pass you always
says „Excuse me‟.?
1. Where the conductor will never cry?
2. Who will say thank you on receiving the fare?
3. Who will say „Excuse me‟?
2. Answer any THREE of the following four questions in
about 100 wards each. ( 3 x 3 = 9 )
a) Sketch the character of the doctor.
b) How did Galileo‟s father influence his son‟s education?
c) What is author‟s attitude in the essay “Toasted English”?
d) Sketch the biography of Dr. Abdulkalam.
3. Write an essay on any ONE of the following two questions in about 250
words ( 1 x 10 = 10 )
a) How did the good Sanaritations help in the resurrection of the
forborn young man in „The Best investment I ever made‟?
b) What did Dr. Kalam learn from his father about the power of prayer?
Section – B (Short stories 15 marks)
4. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two ( 5 x 1 = 5 )
a) At what time the astrologer opened his bag?
b) Who wrote „The Tiger in the Tunnel‟?
c) What was the art which the second son learnt?
d) What do you mean by Burgundy?
e) Who is the author of „The Judgments of Paris‟?
5. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about
250 words (1 x 10 = 10)
a) Narrate briefly the story of Guru Nayak and the astrologer.
b) Bring out the heroism of Baldeo, the Khalasi.
Section – C (Remedial Grammar 20 marks)
6. Fill in the blanks with correct modals (5 x 1 = 5)
i) ______you lift this box?
ii) It _____rain today.
iii) _____ I help you?
iv) We _____meet tomorrow.
v) We _____eat to live.
7. Write question tags for the following (5 x 1 = 5)
i) you aren‟t going out.
ii) you do not know the answer.
iii) She can‟t speak.
iv) She can Swim well.
v) Your sister is tall.
8. Change into Passive voice (5 x 1 = 5)
i) I opened the door.
ii) Children love animals.
iii) The hunter killed the bird.
iv) They enjoy bathing
v) I gave the baby a doll.
9. Change into Active voice (5 x 1 = 5)
i) The diagrams are being drawn by her.
ii) Thirukural was being recited by the child.
iii) The pots were being molded by the potters.
iv) The queen is called by the king.
v) A pen was given by Ram.
Section – D (Composition 15 marks)
10. Expansion of proverbs: Attempt any ONE out of three in about 100
wards (1 x 3 = 3)
i) The face is the index of the mind.
ii) Too much of anything is good for nothing.
iii) Look before you leap.
11. Read the following passage and answer the questions below. (4 x 1 = 4)
Every afternoon, as they were corning from school, the children used to
go and play in the Giant‟s garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft
green grass. Here and there over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars,
and there were twelve peach – trees that in the spring time broke out into
delicate blossoms of pink and pearl, and in the autumn bone rice fruit. The
birds sat on the trees and sang so sweetly that the children used to stop their
games in order to listen to them “ How happy we are here!” the children
cried to each other.
Worker
Machine 1 2 3 4
1 41 42 40 35
2 35 42 43 36
3 42 39 44 47
Test whether there are significant differences between the machines and the
workers.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Let X be 2
22
2
1 , be &, nYn . If n = w, m = 7, X = 4.2,
,32,49,4.3 2
2
2
1 SSY find 90% confidence interval for 21 and .
17. State and Prove Neyman factorization Theorem.
18. Let X have a Gamma distribution with 0,4 . Find the Fisher
information.
19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem. (For continuous type).
20. An investigator for a consumer cooperative organized a study of the
mileages obtainable from three different brands of gasoline. Using 15
identical motors set to run at the same speed, the investigator randomly
assigned each brand of gasoline to 5 of the motors. Each of the motors was
then run on 10 gallons of gasoline, with the total mileages obtained as
follows.
Gas 1 Gas 2 Gas 3
220 240 252
251 235 272
226 232 250
246 242 238
260 225 256
Test the hypothesis that the average mileage obtained is the same for all
three types of gasoline. Use the 5 percent level of significance.
Question Code: B60108 Sub Code:
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2017
ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. In Bayesian statistics, the probability density function h( ) is called _____.
a) prior p.d.f. of b) posterior p.d.f. of
c) subjective probability d) A Bayes‟ solution
2. Let C be the subset of the sample space which leads to the rejection of the
hypothesis under consideration. Then C is called _____to the test.
a) events b) critical region
c) simple hypothesis d) statistical hypothesis
3. Any statistic whose mathematical expectation is equal to the parameter is
called _____.
a) random sample b) unbiased estimator
c) parameter space d) family of distributions
4. The decision function given by y0 is such that, for all
yRyR ,max ,max 0 for every other decision function
y , then y0 is called _____.
a) maxmini decision function b) minimax decision function
c) minimum mean – square –error estimator d) square – error loss function
5. Let a random experiment be repeated n independent times and under
identical conditions. Then the random variables n21 X,...,X ,X (each of
which assigns a numerical value to an outcome) constitute the observations
of a ________.
a) random sample b) events
c) parameter space d) family of distributions
6. What is meant by best critical region of size .
7. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote independent random variables that are
N 2 ,i, i = 1, 2, …n and Y = i
X
i
n
i
0let and 2
1
2
. Find the
moment generating function of Y.
8. Let n21 X,...,X ,X , denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.
fotherwise0
1 ,01
1x xx
x
,
where 0 1, Find the likelihood function.
9. Define unbiased minimum variance.
10. A Bayes‟ solution is a decision function that minimizes _____if is a
random variable of the continuous type.
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Given that .225 %,9511 2xxP Find n.
(OR)
b) Let 222111 ,nb be and ,nb be pYpY , where 1p is the mean of
1
1
nY
and 2p is the mean of 2
2
nY
. Determine a confidence interval for
1p - 2p .
12. a) Show that a die was cast n = 120 independent time & following data
resulted
Spots up 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency b 20 20 20 20 40-b
If we use a chi – sequence test, for what values of b would the hypothesis
that the die is unbiased, be rejected at the 0.025 significance level.
(OR)
b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution that has
probability density function
0
101 ,01 ;
1
elsewhere
xxf
xx
.
Prove that 1Y = n21 X...X X is a sufficient statistic for .
13. a) If 0.35, 0.92. 0.56 & 0.71 are the 4 observed values of a random sample from
13. the distribution having pdf.
elsewhere
xxxf
0
10 ;
1
find the maximum likelyhood estimate.
(OR)
b) State and prove Rao- Cramer inequality.
14. a) Let X be n , , 2 is known. Find the fisher information.
(OR)
b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from 21,n . Find the variance
covariance matrix.
15. a) To determine whether accidents are more likely to occur on certain days of
the week, data have been collected on all the accidents requiring medical
attention that occurred over the last 12 months at an automobile plant in
northern California. The data yielded a total of 250 accidents, with the number
occurring on each day of the week being as follows.
Monday 62 Tuesday 47
Wednesday 44 Thursday 45
Friday 52
(OR)
b) The following are the numbers of defective items produced by four
workers using, in turn, at three different machines.
ab S2
= 2
2
11
XXbXX i
b
j
iij
a
i
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Find the confidence interval for difference of means.
17. State and Prove the factorization theorem of Neyman.
18. Derive Rao – Cramer inequality.
19. State and prove Neyman – Pearson Theorem.
20. Discuss about a test of the Equality of several means.
*****
Question Code: B60108 Sub Code: P16MAC24
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Any statistic that converges in probability to a parameter is called
_____estimator of that parameter .
a) a biased b) an unbiased
c) a consistent d) an inconsistant
2. Define a test of a statistical hypothesis.
3. Define a sufficient statistic for .
4. The square – error loss function is , L = ____.
a) | – | b) – c) ( – )2 d) | – |
2 + b
5. What is a Bayes‟ solution ?
6. The statistic Y is called an efficient estimator of if and only if the variance
of Y attains the ______lower bound.
a) Rao – Cramer b) efficient
c) estimator d) statistic
7. What do you mean by a best critical region?
8. Let W be N ( , 1 ) and V be 2 ( r ). Suppose W and V are independent.
Then _____is said to have a non central t – distribution with r – degrees of
freedom and non centrality parameter .
a) T = r
VW b) T =
rV
W
c) W =
rV
T d) W =
r
VT .
9. The symbol 0 ,2 r is equivalent to ______.
a) 02 b) r2
c) 12 d) rr ,2
10. If 2
22
21
nS then , , ison that distributi a from are ,... , NXXX n is _____.
PART –B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Let nXXX ,... , 21 denote a random sample from a distribution that is
221 0 , , , ,N . Find the maximum likely hood
estimators of 21 and .
(or)
b) Let 21 Y and Y be two independent random variables with binomial
distributions b ),( 11 pn and b ) ,( 22 pn respectively. Find a 95 4 percent
confidence interval for the difference 1p - 2p of the means 1
1
nY
and
2
2
nY
when 1n and 2n are known.
12. a) Let nXXX ,... , 21 be a random sample of size n > 1 from a distribution that
is N ( , 1 ). Prove that U 1X is an unbiased estimator of
cxc Pr
(or)
b) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from the distribution with p.d.f.
, 0
10, ;
1
elswhere
xxxf
Prove that n21 ....X ,X X is a sufficient statistic for .
13. a) Let the random sample n21 ....X ,X X arise from N ),( 21 . Find the
approximate variance – covariance matrix of the maximum likelihood
estimators.
(or)
b) Let 2S denote the variance of a random sample of size n > 1 from a
distribution that is N( , ) , 0 < < ∞, where is known. Find the
efficiency of the estimator 1
2
n
nS.
14. a) Let n21 X,...,X ,X denote a random sample from a distribution which has
p.d.f. f(x) that is positive on and only on the nonnegative integers. Test the
simple hypothesis
elsewhere, 0
,...2 ,1 ,0,!)(:
1
0
xx
exfH is known against the
alternative hypothesis
, 0
,...2 ,1 ,0,2
1 :
1
1
elsewhere
xxfH
x
(or)
b) Suppose n21 X,...,X ,X and n21 Y,...,Y ,Y are the independent random
samples from the distributions 31 ,N and N 42 , respectively. Test
the hypothesis 430 :H unspecified with 21 and also unspecified
against all alternatives.
15. a) Discuss the non – central F –distribution
(or)
b) Let 2S be the variance of the random sample of size n = ab. Prove that
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. Discuss about the Generation of computers.
10. Discuss in detail about Basic computer organisation.
11. How would you store, remove and print files.
12. Write the procedure to create a Table in Microsoft word and explain with
example.
13. Discuss about bulleting and numbering list in Microsoft word.
14. Discuss in detail about the Microsoft Excel window.
15. How would you manipulate functions in Excel?
16. How would you create slide animations?
********
Sub Code: CCMET11
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, May – 2017
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND OFFICE AUTOMATION
Time : 3 Hrs CCMET Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions: (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Write about the History of computers.
2. What are the types of computers? Brief on them.
3. Give the objectives of operating system.
4. How would you open and close an application? Explain.
5. How would you edit a document?
6. What are the steps in formatting a paragraph?
7. How would you fill the cells and print them in Excel?
8. Write about the spell check option available in power point.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. Discuss in detail about the structure of a cell with suitable diagram.
10. Describe the parts of vertebral column.
11. Write an essay on the structure of heart.
12. Describe the organs of digestive system.
13. Explain the structure of lungs.
14. Give an elaborate account on the structure and functions of kidney.
15. Explain the structure of nerve cell with labeled diagram.
16. Enlist the functions of endocrine glands.
********
Sub Code: CCMET12
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, May – 2017
BASIC ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs CCMET Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions: (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. What are the functions of a cell?
2. Describe the structure of skull.
3. Give an account of skeletal muscle.
4. Enumerate the functions of respiratory system.
5. Discuss the glands associated with digestive system.
6. Comment on the role of thyroid gland.
7. Describe the various parts of brain.
8. Explain the structure of male reproductive system.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. a) With a sample program, describe the basic structure of a C program.
(OR)
b) Define variable: How to declare variable and assign values to variables?
Give examples.
10. a) Explain i) Bitwise ii) Relational & iii) Logical operators.
(OR)
b) Explain formatted input / output operations.
11. a) With sample program explain IF – Else statement and Else If ladder.
(OR)
b) With sample program explain switch statement.
12. a) Explain FOR loop in detail.
(OR)
b) Write a program to multiply two matrices.
13. a) What is function? How to define functions? Describe the elements of a
function.
(OR)
b) i) What is Recursion? Discuss.
ii) Write a program to find the factorial of a given member using
recursion.
*******
Sub Code: PDCA16C3
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, May – 2017
PROGRAMMING IN C
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Write a program to calculate the simple and compound interest.
2. With example explain conditional operator.
3. How to read and write a character in C? Give example.
4. Explain simple IF statement with example.
5. Describe the syntax of WHILE statement.
6. What is an array? How to initialize an array?
7. Write a function program to generate the first n fibonacci numbers.
8. With sample code explain the category of functions that return multiple
values.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 10 = 50 marks)
9. a) Explain in detail about WWW.
(OR)
b) Explain the Netscape Navigator window and its menu bar.
10. a) Discuss how to create colorful web page.
(OR)
b) How to insert pictures and images in a HTML document? Give sample
HTML code.
11. a) What is an ordered list? Explain its various attributes and develop a
HTML document using this list.
(OR)
b) How to create table in HTML? Write about cell alignment.
12. a) Write a set of frames to show your bio - data in a colorful form with
suitable links.
(OR)
b) Develop a webpage to describe your skills in various area.
13. a) With example explain the attributes of Drop down list.
(OR)
b) Write notes on i) Check boxes ii) Radio buttons
iii) Submit & Reset buttons
*****
Sub Code: PDCA16C4
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, May – 2017
WEB DESIGNING USING HTML
Time : 3 Hrs PGDCA Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 5 = 25 marks)
1. Discuss the role of computers in Business.
2. Write a short note on Favorites menu.
3. Illustrate the use of < title > tag in HTML documents.
4. Write about Horizontal rule.
5. Give an account on Nested list.
6. How to prefer cell spanning in multiple rows / columns.
7. Define Frameset.
8. Explain different form attributes.
2. prevention is better than cure
3. A friend inneed is a friend indeed.
XI. Read the following passage and answer the questions below. (4 x1 = 4 )
Books are the greatest treasure of mankind and the habit of reading them is the
source of pleasure. He who is in the habit of reading books should buy books
for himself. He should start collecting books in his youth. The books collected
and arranged properly in a room not only decorate the room, but also make
the presence of their authors felt. Books contain in them are eternal truths and are
better friends than those of flesh and blood as they not only entertain but also guide
us.
1. What are the treasures and what gives pleasure?
2. When should one start collecting books?
3. What do books contain in them?
4. Mention any two uses of books.
XII Dialogue writing (3 x 1 = 3)
Book seller : Hello sir ! What do you want sir?
Customer : Sir, would you allow me to exchange this book with another
book?
Book seller : ____________?
Customer : A few pages are missing in this book.
Book seller : ____________?
Customer : I bought the book this morning.
Book seller : ____________?
Customer : Here is the bill, can I have another book?
XIII. Hints Development (5 marks)
An ant – to drink water – went to a river – fell in to it – cried for help – a
dove sitting on the tree – threw a leaf – ant climbed – reached the share –its life
saved – days passed –a hunter came there –tried to shoot the dove – dove did
not see the man – ant saw him – ran and bit his leg – man cried – dove noticed
him – flew away safely.
Question Code: B02102 Sub Code: U16LAE21/U17LAE21
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, April – 2018
B. A. / B.Sc. / B. Com (PA) - Part II – English
PROSE , SHORT STORY, REMEDIAL GRAMMAR AND COMPOSITION
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks : 75
Section – A (prose - 25 Marks)
I . Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below
them in a sentence or two, Attempt any TWO out of three: (2 x 3 = 6)
a. Excuse me, Doctor, I wonder if I might introduce myself. If you could
spare a few minutes _____my wife and I would so like to have a word
with you‟
1. Whom does the „Doctor‟ refer to?
2. Who is referred as „my wife‟?
3. Explain the context.
b. Galileo passed away at the age of seventy eight and was buried without a
monument because he died a prisoner‟.
1. Who is Galileo?
2. Where do you come across this passage?
3. Galileo died as a ______.
c. “One noticeable result of this toasting is that most of the formalism
surrounding the use of English has been abandoned”.
1. Who says this and where?
2. What does he mean by „toasting‟?
3. Where has much of formal English been abandoned?
II. Answer any THREE of the following questions in about 100 words each:
(3 x 3 = 9)
a. Give a short note on „looking –tube‟ by Galileo?
b. How did the fellow traveller serve the society in A.J cronin‟s The Best
Investment I Ever made‟?
c. Define “mongrelisation‟?
d. What has Abdulkalam achieved in his work from “Wings of Fire”?
III. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about
250 words (1 x 10= 10 marks)
a. „Galileo is honoured as a great benefactor to mankind and his discoveries
are held in grateful memory‟: - Explain.
b. Write an essay on the childhood experiences of Dr. A.P. J. Abdulkalam.
SECTION –B (Short stories - 15 marks)
IV. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two (5 x 1 = 5 marks)
a. Who came to drop the blind girl to the compartments in the story
“The Eyes are not Here”?
b. What is the name of Cabuliwallah?
c. How many years Loisel worked hard to buy the Diamond Necklace?
d. Who was the Minister of culture?
e. Who wrote the short story „The Eyes are not Here‟?
V. Write an essay on any one of the following two questions in about
250 wards: (1 x 10 = 10 marks)
a. Critically comment on „The voter‟ by Chinua Achebe?
b. How did Tagore portray the relationship between a father and
his daughter in his short story „The Cabuliwallah‟.
Section – C ( Remedial Grammar )
VI. Fill in the blanks with correct Auxiliary verbs (5 x 1 = 5 marks)
i. We ____ cross the river.
ii. We _____ to obey the elders.
iii. I _____like to be with you.
iv. We ____help you.
v. _____ you join us to sing?
VII. Write Question Tags for the following : (5 x 1 = 5 marks)
i) She can solve the problem easily ______.
ii) She did not love me _____.
iii) I am not interested in watching cricket _____.
iv) Please treat him immediately _____.
v) He seldom goes to cinema______.
VIII. Change into passive voice : (5 x 1 = 5 marks)
i) She is writing a book.
ii) I finished my work yesterday.
iii) He will have written a letter.
iv) When did you buy the car?
v) Do not tell him about this.
IX. Change into Active voice: (5 x 1 = 5 marks)
i) Gitanjali was written by Tagore.
ii) English is spoken by our students.
iii) The poor should be helped by us and we will be praised by them.
iv) The portions were completed and a test was conducted by the
teacher.
v) I will be visited and given a watch by my uncle on my birthday.
SECTION –D (Composition -15 Marks)
X. Expansion of proverbs
Attempt any one out of three in about 100 words (3 x 1=3 marks)
1. Slow and steady wins the race.
tpdhj;jhs; vz;: A01302 ghlf; FwpaPL : BLAOT21
= v]; ,uhkrhkp ehAL Qhgfhh;j;jf; fy;Y}hp> rhj;J}h;
gUt ,Wjpj;Njh;T> Vg;uy; - 2018
mYtyf Nkyhz;ik Neuk;: 3 kzp B. B. A. kjpg;ngz;fs; : 75
gFjp – m
midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; tpil jUf rhpahd tpiliaj; Njh;T nra;f : (10 x 1 = 10)
1. mYtyfk; ,Uf;fpd;w ,lj;jpw;Fs; kidJizg; nghUl;fisAk; rhjdq;fisAk; xOq;FgLj;jp itj;jNy_______ MFk; m) mYtyf Nkyhz;ik M) mYty fl;blk; ,) mYtyf mikg;Gj;jpl;lk; <) mYtyfk;
2. _______ %yk; mYtyf mikg;G jpl;lj;ij Njitf;Nfw;g
khw;wpf;nfhs;syhk;. m) jLg;Gfs; M) tiuNtw;giw ,) Jiwfs; <) Rth;fs;
3. jftyhs; my;yJ mQ;ryj;jpd; %yk; vOj;J %ykhd jfty;
njhlh;G nfhs;Sjy; _______vdg;gLk;. m) jfty; M) jghy; ,) mwpf;if <) mwptpg;G
4. _______ vd;gJ ifnaOj;J my;yJ jl;nlOj;jpd; %yk;
gjpTfisr; nra;tjw;fhd jiyg;GfSld; $ba mr;rbf;fg;gl;l jhs; my;yJ ml;ilahFk; . m) mYtyfk; M) gbtk; ,) njhlh;G <) mYtyfg; gbtk;
5. mfu vOj;Jf;fs; xt;nthd;Wk; ntspNa njhpAk;gb FwpaPL cs;s Gj;jfj;jpd; gf;fq;fs; mikf;fg;gLkhdhy;, mjw;F_______ FwpaPL vd;W ngah;. m) Nfhl;L M) ml;il ,) jd; <) rf;fuk;
6. $h;Kid topahf jhs;fs; Jisaplg;gl;L fk;gpf;Fs; nrhUfg;gLk; Kiwf;F _______ Nfhg;Gfs; vd;W ngah;. m) $h;Kid M) Gwhf;$l;LKiw ,) ngl;b <) mr;Rg;gpujp
7. Kd; ml;il my;yJ Kd; gf;fj;jpy;______ ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;. m) Kfthp M) jiyg;G
,) nghUslf;fk; <) ifnaOj;J
8. ______ fzpg;Gg; nghwp kpd;rhuj;jpdhy; ,af;fg;gLfpwJ. m) Row; M) jhdpaq;fp ,) kpd;dpaf;f <) (m) kw;Wk; (M)
9. $l;lj;jpy; eilngWk; Ngr;R thh;j;ijfspd; Kf;fpa tpguq;fis kl;Lk; njhFj;J mwpf;ifapy; Nrh;j;jhy; mt;twpf;if_____ mwpf;if vdg;gLk;. m) njhopy;El;g M) rl;lg;G+h;t ,) Kiwrhuh <) RUf;fkhd
10. ______ vd;gJ XU Fwpg;gpl;l nghUs; gw;wpa cz;ikfs; xd;W
Nrh;f;fg;gl;l gl;bayhFk;. m) mwpf;if M) mwptpg;G ,) mikg;G <) Mw;wy;
gFjp - M
midj;Jf; Nfs;tpfSf;Fk; ,uz;L gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tpil jUf (5 x 7 = 35)
11. m) mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; gzpfs; ahit? (my;yJ)
M) mjpfhu xg;gilg;G nfhs;iffs; ahit?
12. m) njhlh;; vOJnghUspd; tiffs; ahit?
(my;yJ) M) fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;ij jhahhpg;gjpy; cs;s epiyfis tpsf;Ff.
13. m) ey;y Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwapd; mk;rq;fs; ahit? (my;yJ) M) Nfhg;gPl;L Kiwfis tpsf;Ff.
14. m) mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fspd; tiffs; ahit? (my;yJ)
M) fzpg;nghwpapd; mq;fq;fs; ahit?
15. m) xU ey;y mwpf;ifapd; Kf;fpa mk;rq;fs; ahit? (my;yJ) M) mwpf;iffspd; tiffs; ahit?
gFjp - ,
vitNaDk; %d;wDf;F ehd;F gf;fq;fSf;F kpfhky; tphpthd tpil jUf (3 x 10 = 30)
16. mYtyf Nkyhz;ikapd; mbg;gilf; $Wfs; ahit?
17. fbjg; Nghf;Ftuj;jpd; tiffis tpthp.
18. Nfhg;gPl;bd; ed;ikfs; ahit?
19. mYtyf ,ae;jpuq;fis Njh;e;njLg;gjw;fhd Nfhl;ghLfis tpthp.
20. mwpf;ifapd; mikg;G gw;wp tpthp.
**********
Question Code : B10106 Sub Code: U16HYC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
CONTEMPORARY HISTORY OF INDIA (1947 to 2000)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. When did congress pass Quit India Resolution?
a) 17 August 1942 b) 8 August 1942
c) 20 October 1942 d) 23 September 1942
2. The National Integration Day is observed on
a) 14th
November b) 19th
November
b) 1st November d) None
3. Which of the following Article is related to Panchayat Raj?
a) Article 243 b) Article 324
c) Article 124 d) Article 73
4. Which sector is the backbone of Indian Economy?
a) Service sector b) Financial sector
c) Tourism sector d) Agricultural sector
5. Telegraph was invented in the year ________
a) 1844 b) 1855 c) 1866 d) 1837
6. ICT stands for __________
a) Inter Connected Terminals b) Intera Common Terminology
c) International Communicational Tech
d) Information and Communicational Tech
7. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for SCs?
a) K.G. Balakrishnan b) Dilip Singh Bhuria
c) P. L. Punia d) D. Suraj Bhan
8. Which educational institution was named after India‟s first PM?
a) JNU b) BHU c) DU d) CISR
9. India has signed Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
(CEPA) with ________
a) USA b) Singapore c) Russia d) Canada
10. India has Kalapani and Susta Territorial dispute with ________
a) Bangladesh b) Bhutan c) Nepal d) Myanmar.
Part B
Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain about Rehabilitation in India after Independence.
(or)
b) Define Nehru‟s opposing communalism.
12. a) Write the objectives of the planning commission of India.
(or)
b) Explain about 3rd
Five year plan of India.
13. a) Explain about the developments of Transport and communication
methods in India after Independence.
(or)
b) Briefly explain about the development of Information Technology
in India.
14. a) Explain about Untouchability in India.
(or)
b) Discuss about women‟s development in freedom India.
15. a) Explain about the basic principles of non – alignment.
(or)
b) Discuss about India‟s relationship with USSR.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Sketch the causes and results of the Indo – China war 1962.
17. Analyse about Panchayat Raj System in India.
18. Analyse about Civil Aviation in India.
19. Discuss about women‟s Education in India after Independence.
20. Explain about various foreign policies of India.
Question Code : B10303 Sub Code: U16HYE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF USA (1776 to 1964 A.D)
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which one was the 13th
colony of America?
a) Virginia b) Texas c) Massachssets d) Jamestown
2. Who was the first Chief Justice of USA?
a) John Jay b) Hamilton c) Tecumsch d) George Washington
3. Who founded the town Tippecanoe on the river Wabash?
a) Tecumseh b) Monroe c) Madison d) Rufus
4. In which year the Monroe Doctrine was signed?
a) 1823 b) 1822 c) 1820 d) 1821
5. In which year the American Colonization Society was formed?
a) 1815 b) 1816 c) 1818 d) 1819
6. In which place Abraham Lincoln was born?
a) Kenteky b) Lousiana c) Illinois d) Virginia
7. In which year the League of nations was formed?
a) 1920 b) 1919 c) 1918 d) 1916
8. Which date was called as the „Black Tuesday‟ in the history of USA?
a) October 24, 1929 b) April 10, 1928
c) January 11, 1930 d) February 16, 1927
9. Which nation was termed as Arsenal of Democracy?
a) America b) Russia c) France d) Britain
10. In which year the Yalta conference was held?
a) 1945 b) 1943 c) 1942 d) 1941
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a note on the treaty of Paris.
(or)
b) Give an account about the articles of confederation.
12. a) Analyse the election of 1811.
(or)
b) How the violation of Neutral rights took place in USA.
13. a) Write a note on Wade – Davis Bill 1864.
(or)
b) Mention the achievements of Andrew Carnegie.
14. a) Write the importance of Big Stick Policy.
(or)
b) Give an account about the Atlantic Charter.
15. a) What do you know about the historical importance of Yalta
conference?
(or)
b) Mention the significance of Berlin Crisis.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Analyse the role of George Washington in the history of United States of
America.
17. Write the historical significance of Monroe Doctrine?
18. What do you know about the Era of Reconstruction?
19. Sketch the historical significance of the great Depression.
20. Write an essay about the role of USA in the Second World War.
Question Code : B10204 Sub Code: U16HYA41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
GENERAL ECONOMICS-II
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The personal income after deducting direct taxes is called as
a) Per capita income b) Disposable personal income
c) National income d) Personal income
2. The measurement of social accounting method (National Income)
introduced by
a) Richard Stone b) JM Keynes
c) Chamberlin d) Joan Robinson
3. The demand for labour is _________
a) effective demand b) direct demand
c) derived demand d) elastic demand
4. “Wages depend upon the proportion between population and capital”
This theory known as the
a) Standard of living theory of wages b) Wages fund theory
c) Bargaining theory of wages d) Market theory of wages
5. The purchasing power of money income is called
a) Real income b) Per capita income
c) National income d) Disposable personal income
6. The role played by modern a commercial banks in the promotion of
regional development of the country is
a) Static b) Dynamic c) Insignificant d) Moderate
7. Which of the following is debit item in balance of payments?
a) Export of services b) Investment income from abroad
c) Receipt of transfer payments d) Import of goods
8. Bertil Ohlin‟s theory of international trade is also known ________
a) Classical theory of international trade
b) Modern theory of international trade
c) Inter – regional theory of trade
d) Opportunity cost analysis of international trade
9. Who classified public expenditure on the basis of function?
a) Dalton b) Adam Smith c) Nicholson d) Ricardo
10. Funded debt is sometimes referred to as ________
a) Floating debt b) Short – term debt
c) Forced debt d) Non – redeemable debt
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Bring out the importance of national income.
(or)
b) What are the factors determining national income?
12. a) Write a short note of Uncertainty – Bearing theory of profit.
(or)
b) Point out the assumptions of Ricaridian theory of rent.
13. a) State the quantity theory of money.
(or)
b) Point out the functions of Reserve bank of India.
14. a) What are the causes of disequilibrium in the balance of payments?
(or)
b) Bring out the arguments in favour and against free trade.
15. a) What are the advantages of direct taxes?
(or)
b) What are the disadvantages of indirect taxes?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the methods of estimating national income.
17. Explain the modern theory of wages.
18. Discuss the role of commercial banks in economic development of
India.
19. Critically examine the theory of comparative costs.
20. What causes are responsible for the recent increase in public
expenditure in India?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Explain the forms of Government.
5. Enumerate the powers of Prime Minister.
6. Bring out the principles of Cabinet System.
7. “Indian Judiciary is powerful and independent” – Analyse.
8. Elucidate the composition and powers of High court.
Question Code : B10502 Sub Code: U16HYN41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
WORKING ON INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions (3 x10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Write a note on Framing of Indian Constitution.
(or)
b) Give an account on Drafting Committee.
2. a) Describe the election and qualification of Indian President.
(or)
b) State the role of Speaker in Lok Sabha.
3. a) Narrate the Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
(or)
b) Illustrate the procedure of Appointment of Judges.
Question Code : A03502 Sub Code: BNCNE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE – NATIONAL CADET CORPS- II
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x10 = 30 marks
1. Write short notes on types of grounds.
2. Write a short note on section formation.
3. What are the social service organizations in India?
4. Write a short note on Family planning.
5. Write some important diseases which affect human beings.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Write an essay on Patrolling.
7. Write an essay an anti-dowry drive.
8. Write about the aims and types of social services.
9. Write an essay on antimalaria drive.
10. Write an essay on Personal hygiene.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Give detail explanation of all the four quantum numbers.
17. Explain the following:
i) ionic crystals ii) Defects in solid state
18. Draw the phase diagram for water system explain in details.
19. Explain the influence of ionic strength on reaction rate.
20. Derive an expression for the kinetics of photochemical formation of
HCl.
Question Code : B22106 Sub Code: U16CHC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The total values of magnetic quantum number for a given value of
azimuthal quantum number is
(a) 2L (b) 2L+1 (c) 2L-1 (d) 2L-2
2. In Schrodinger‟s wave equation, the symbol represents
(a) wavelength of the spherical wave
(b) amplitude of the spherical wave
(c) frequency of the spherical wave
(d) none of these
3. In frenkel defect
(a) some of the lattice sites are vacant
(b) an ion occupies interstial positions
(c) some of the cations are replaced by foreign ions
(d) none of these
4. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess
negative electrons are called
(a) n-type conductor (b) p-type conductor
(c) good conductor (d) none of these
5. The phase rule was first discovered by
(a) Nernst (b) Arrhenius (c) Gibbs (d) Lech atelier
6. The reduced phase rule for a condensed system is
(a) F‟ = C– P + 2 (b) F‟ = C – P
(c) F‟ = C – P + 1 (d) F = C – P + 3
7. Reaction rates can change with
(a) temperature (b) the addition of a catalyst
(c) reactant concentration (d) all of these
8. Which concentration plot is linear for a first-order equation?
(A is one of the reactant)
(a) [A] versus time (b) square root of [A] versus time
(c) ln [A] versus time (d) [A]2 versus time
9. “It is only the absorbed light radiations that are effective in producing a
chemical reaction” This is the statement of
(a) Lambert law (b) Lambert-Beer law
(c) Grothus-Drapper law (d) Stark-Einstein law
10. The glow of fireflies is due to the aerial oxidation of luciferin. It is an
example of
(a) phosphorescence (b) chemiluscence
(c) fluorescence (d) none of these
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write down postulates of quantum theory.
(or)
b) Write a short note on the following:
i) Photoelectric effect ii) Zeeman effect
12. a) Describe covalent crystals with suitable examples.
(or)
b) Discuss rotating crystal method of crystal analysis.
13. a) Explain the phase – diagram of Pb – Ag system.
(or)
b) What is steam distillation? Give the experimental details of the
process.
14. a) Write notes on bimolecular collision theory.
(or)
b) The activation energy of a reaction is 225 kcal mol–1
and the value
of rate constant at 40 C is 1.8 x 10–5
sec–1
. Calculate the frequency
factor A.
15. a) What is quantum yield / How will you determine experimental?
(or)
b) Write note on the following:
i) Photosensitization ii) Chemiluminescence
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. a) What are the components of blood? Explain their importance.
b) What is ELISA? Give its applications.
17. What are synthetic narcotics? Discuss briefly the structure and
functions of pethidine and methadone.
18. Describe briefly the Phase – I chemical pathways of metabolism of
drugs.
19. Discuss the synthesis and therapeutic applications sulphanilamide and
barbitone.
20. a) Discuss the structure and functions of thyroxin.
b) Mention the sources, deficiency and uses of vitamin K.
Question Code : B22303 Sub Code: U16CHE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The concentration of blood glucose levels determined by 0 – toluidine
method varies from _____________
a) 65 – 110 mg / 100 ml blood b) 80 – 120 mg/ 100ml blood
c) 60 -95mg/ 100ml blood d) none of these
2. ELISA is used for determining ________ antibody concentrations.
a) Serum b) Plasma c) Platelet d) Lipid
3. _________- is a natural narcotic analgesic.
a) Morphine b) Naloxone c) Fentanyl d) Meperidine
4. Local anesthetics inhibits the ability of the phospholipid to bind
__________
a) Cu+ 2
ions b) Ca+ 2
ions c) K+ ions d) Fe
+ 2 ions
5. The drugs used to decrease the activity of specialized cells by causing
depression is _______________
a) Histamine b) PABA c) Morphine d) Barbiturates
6. The iodine is present as a trace element in the human body as _____
a) Constituent of glutathione peroxidase
b) Constituent of thyroid hormones
c) Constituent of vitamin B12 d) Carbohydrate metabolite
7. Ibuprofen is ___________
a) Anesthetic b) Antipyretic
c) Anti – inflammatory d) Analgesic
8. Aspirin is derivation of _______
a) Salicyclic acid b) Para - aminophenol
c) Pyrazole d) Indoly acetic acid
9. Vitamin C deficiency causes ____________
a) Anaemia b) Ricket c) Scurvy d) Pellagra
10. The release of which of the following is inhibited by thyroxin?
a) LH b) TSH c) PRL d) FSH
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss briefly the storage and preservation of blood samples.
(or)
b) How is blood urea estimated? Explain its clinical interpretation.
12. a) Distinguish between general anesthetics and local anesthetics.
Name any two anesthetics and explain their advantages and
disadvantages.
(or)
b) What is meant by drug? Distinguish between drug and medicine
with suitable examples.
13. a) Name any four macro elements and microelements. Point out their
functions.
(or)
b) Write a note on mechanism of drug action.
14. a) How is ciprofloxacin synthesised? Give its therapeutic
applications.
(or)
b) Discuss the synthesis and therapeutic applications of naproxen.
15. a) What are the sources of vitamin – C? List out its uses. Explain its
structure.
(or)
b) Discuss the structure and functions of Oxytoxin.
Part B
Answers any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Explain briefly about the uses of Potash fertilizers.
5. Describe about the various common air borne diseases.
6. Write a brief account of Water borne diseases.
7. Differentiate between thermoplastics and thermo setting polymers.
8. Write brief notes on homo polymers.
Question Code : B22502 Sub Code: U16CHN41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE – II
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. a) What are phosphatic fertilizers? Mention their uses.
(or)
b) Discuss briefly about the uses of
i) Urea ii) Calcium ammonium nitrate
iii) Ammonium sulphate
2. a) Write an about the symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Jaundice.
(or)
b) Name any two common insect borne diseases. Discuss their causes
and treatment.
3. a) Give the classification of polymers based on their occurance with
examples.
(or)
b) Discuss the applications of i) Starch ii) Terylene
iii) Polyethylene
Question Code : B40108 Sub Code: U16BNC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Financial decision involves __________
a) Investment, financing and dividend decision
b) Investment, financing and sales decision
c) Financing, dividend and cash decision
d) Financing and working capital investment
2. Bank credit is __________
a) Short term sources b) Long term sources
c) Medium – term sources d) Both a and b
3. _________ is called revolving or circulating capital.
a) Equity share capital b) Working capital
c) Preference capital d) Debt capital
4. The use of long – term fixed interest bearing debt and preference
share capital along with equity shares is called ______
a) Operating leverage b) Combined leverage
c) Financial leverage or trading on equity
d) Cost of capital
11 1
5. Receivables constitute a significant portion of ________
a) Fixed assets b) Current assets
c) Share holders fund d) Reserve and surplus
6. Lock box system a method for
a) Accelerating cash out flow b) Accelerating cash inflow
c) Both a & b d) Managing fund flow
7. Cost of capital refers to
a) Maximum rate of return expected by its supplier
b) Minimum rate of return expected by its investors
c) Moderate rate of return expected by its investors
d) Maximum rate of return expected by firm
8. Cost of retained earning can be computed with the help of the following
formula
a) K = D1 / NP + G b) K = D/ MP
c) K = D / P d) K = NP / D + G
9. Which one of the following dividend bears interest and accepted as a
collateral security?
a) Liquidation dividends b) Profit dividend
c) Stock dividend d) Scrip dividend
10. Which one of the following is traditional method of capital budgeting?
a) Net Present Value b) Internal Rate of Return
c) Profitability Index d) Average Rate of Return
20. Electronics Co. Ltd is considering the purchase of a machine. Two
machines A and B are available, each costing Rs.50,000. In
comparing the profitability of these machines a discount rate of 15%
is to be used. Net cash flows are expected to be as follows:
Year Cash inflow (Rs.)
Machine A
Cash inflow (Rs.)
Machine B
P.V Factor at
15%
1. 15,000 5,000 0.870
2. 20,000 15,000 0.756
3. 25,000 20,000 0.658
4. 15,000 30,000 0.572
5. 10,000 20,000 0.497
Calculate :
(a) The Net present value at 15%.
(b) The Profitability index.
11 7 2
2
Additional information:
1. The customers are allowed a credit period of 2 months.
2. A dividend of Ra.10,000 is payable in April.
3. Capital expenditure to be incurred: Plant purchased on 15th
January
for Rs.5,000: a building has been purchased on 1st March and the
payments are to be made in monthly instalments of Rs.2,000 each.
4. The creditors are allowing a credit of 2 months.
5. Wages are paid on the 1st of the next month.
6. Lag in payment of other expenses is one month.
7. Balance of cash in hand on 1st January, 2009 is Rs.15,000.
19. From the following capital structure of a company, calculate the
overall cost of capital, using book value weights:
Sources of funds Amt (Rs.) Proportion
(%)
After – tax cost (%)
Equity share capital
(Rs.10 shares)
45,000 45 14
Retained earnings 15,0000 15 13
Preference share
capital
10,000 10 10
Debentures 30,000 30 5
Total 1,00,000 100
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Define financial management and explain its approaches.
(or)
b) Difference between debentures and shares.
12. a) Raju brothers private limited sells goods on a gross profit of 25%.
Depreciation is taken into account as a part of cost of production.
The following are the annual figures given to you:
Rs.
Sales (Two months credit) 18,00,000
Material consumed (One month credit) 4,50,000
Wages (one month lag in payment) 3,60,000
Cash manufacturing expenses (one month lag in payment) 4,80,000
Administration expenses (one month lag in payment) 1,20,000
Sales promotion expenses (paid currently in advance) 60,000
Income tax payable in 4 instalments of which one lies in
next year
1,50,000
The company keeps one month stock of raw material and finished
goods. It also keeps Rs.1,00,000 in cash. You required to estimate the
working capital requirements of the company assuming 15% safety
margin.
(or)
February 30,000 20,000 3,000 1,050 1,150 620
March 35,000 22,500 2,400 1,100 1,220 570
April 40,000 25,000 2,600 1,200 1,180 710
11 3 2
6
b) Give a critical appraisal of the traditional approach and Modigliani –
Miller approach to the problem of capital structure.
13. a) Explain the factors influencing the size of the receivables.
(or)
b) Write short note on: a) Decentralised collections
b) Lock box system
14. a) A company issues 10,000 10% preference shares of Rs.100 each cost
issue is Rs.2 per share. Calculate cost of preference capital if these shares
are issued (a) at par, (b) at a premium of 10% & (c) at a discount of 5%.
(or)
b) Enumerate the problems in determination of cost of capital.
15. a) Explain various types of dividend policy.
(or)
b) A project requires an investment of Rs.5,00,000 and has a scrap
value of Rs.20,000 after 5 years. It is expected to yield profits after
depreciation and taxes during the 5 years amounting to Rs.40,000,
Rs.60,000, Rs.70,000 Rs.50,000 & Rs.20,000. Calculate the average rate of
return on the investment.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the scope of financial management and explain how it is related
to other business function.
17. ABC Company has currently an all equity capital structure consisting of
15,000 equity shares of Rs.100 each. The management is planning to raise
another 25 lakhs to finance a major programme of expansion and is
considering three alternative methods of financing:
i) To issue 25,000, equity shares of Rs.100 each.
ii) To issue 25,000, 8% debentures of Rs. 100 each.
iii) To issue 25,000, 8% Preference shares of Rs.100 each
The company‟s expected earnings before interest and taxes
will be 8 lakhs. Assuming a corporate tax rate of 50 percent,
determine the earnings per share (EPS) in each alternative and
comment which alternative is best and why?
18. From the following forecast of income and expenditure, prepare a cash
budget for the month January to April 2009.
Year
and
month
Sales
(credit)
Rs.
Purchase
(Credit)
Rs.
Wages
Rs.
Manufacture
expenses Rs.
Administrative
expenses
Selling
Expense
Rs.
2008,
Nov
30,000 15,000 3,000 1,150 1,060 500
Dec 35,000 20,000 3,200 1,225 1,040 550
2009,
Jan,
25,000 15,000 2,500 990 1,100 600
11 5
2
4
Question Code : B40109/ A40109 Sub Code: U16BNC42/ BBNCR42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FUNDAMENTALS OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. _____________ refers to the increase in the temperature of the earth‟s
atmosphere.
a) Emission b) global warming c) flood d) tsunami
2. A ___________ is a wave train or series of wave generated in a body
of water.
a) Tsunami b) landslide c) volcanic d) mining
3. __________ is the acquisition of information via aerial or satellite
sensors.
a) Satellite b) frequency c) remote sensing d) data
4. _________ provides the capability to remotely observe surface areas
regardless of weather or availability of sunlight.
a) Aerial b) radar c) electro optical d) server
5. _________ is the probability of a harmful occurrence with a specific
force at a specific location and at a specific time.
a) Vulnerability b) risk c) preplanning d) eliminating
6. _________report should build on earlier reports providing
additional and more precise information.
a) Flash b) Initial c) Interim d) Damage
7. _________ deputy collectors will make up the staff on call.
a) 3 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2
8. Small scale disaster can be managed through ___________ without
comprehensive desk arrangement.
a) Collectors office b) disaster manager
c) relief camps d) feeding centers
9. Vibrational energy transmitted through the earth‟s surface from
depth is called ___________.
a) Flood b) earthquake c) landslide d) tsunami
10. _______________ efforts are focused on maintaining and
implementing agreements reached, often with monitoring functions.
a) Peace-making b) Peace-keeping
c) Peace-building d) Rehabilitation
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. (a) Write the risk resettlement to people affected by disaster.
(or)
(b) Narrate the process of earthquake.
12. (a) Explain the fundamental of remote sensing.
(or)
(b) Write the steps involved in area map preparation.
13. (a) Write the requirements need to prevent health problem caused by
environmental hazards.
(or)
(b)What are the existing environmental characteristics of project area?
14. (a) Elucidate the components of relief camps.
(or)
(b) Write the categories of staff suggested for the DCR.
15. (a) Explain the types of rehabilitation measures.
(or)
(b) What do you mean by community based disaster management?
Write down the essential features.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the process of disaster.
17. Write the history of geodetic survey and the utilization of GPS.
18. Explain the main steps involved in cost benefit analysis.
19. Write the institutional arrangements at the district level in disaster
management.
20. Government of India have adopted mitigation and prevention as
essential components of the development strategy. Discuss.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the different approaches to the study of OB.
17. Describe the various techniques of group decision making.
18. Explain the Maslow's need hierarchical theory.
19. Explain and discuss the various stages in conflict in an organisation.
20. Define organizational development. Explain its process.
Question Code : B40110 Sub Code: U16BNC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1=10 marks)
1. __________requires a formal structure of authority & responsibility.
a) Planning b) Organizing
c) Directing d) Controlling
2. Organisation Behaviour is not a /an___________
a) Separate field of study b) Applied science
c) Normative science d) Pessimistic approach
3. __________ is the attractiveness of the members towards the group or
resistance to leave it
a) Group norms b) Group behaviour
c) Group cohesiveness d) Group structure
4. Believes, attitudes, traditions and expectations which are shared by
group members is called_________
a) Group norms b) Group communication
c) Group cohesiveness d) Group structure
5. ERG theory of motivation was proposed by __________
a) Maslow b) F.Herzberg c) Alderfer d) McGregor
6. _________ exists when employee attitudes are favourable to the total
situation of a group and to the attainment of its objectives.
a) Low morale b) High Morale c) Group morale d) morale
7. _________is a state of discord caused by the actual or perceived
opposition of needs, values and interests between people working
together.
a) Organizational conflict b) personal conflict
c) Intra group conflict d) Intergroup conflict
8 __________ is “the reactions of individuals to new or threatening
factors in their work environments”.
a) Attitude b) Stress
c) Dissonance d) Disappointment
9. Reviewing and modifying management structures and business
processes. Small businesses must adapt to survive against bigger
competitors and grow
a) Organizational change b) Organizational spirit
c) Organizational culture d) Organizational effectiveness
10. The sets of structured/planned activities adopted by groups or
individuals in an organization as a part of the organization development
program are known as _____________
a) organization development b) OD techniques
c) Sensitivity Training d) Inter group Development
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the role of organizational behaviour in an organization.
(or)
b) Explain the process of human behaviour.
12. a) Explain the types of groups.
(or)
b) Discuss the advantages of group decision making.
13. a) Discuss the process of motivation.
(or)
b) What are the causes of low morale of the employee?
14. a) Explain the features of conflict management.
(or)
b) Briefly explain the consequences of stress.
15. a) Explain the various types of organizational change.
(or)
b) Explain the benefits of Organizational Development.
Question Code : B40303 / A40302 Sub Code: U16BNE41/ BBNME41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which of the following is not a marketing objective?
a) positioning b) volume sales
c) cash flow d) none of the above
2. Selling warm coats to Icelanders is an example of:
a) Geographic segmentation b) Behavioural segmentation
c) Demographic segmentation d) None of the above
3. A product has ________ levels and each level adds more customer value.
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
4. ___________ is done for the purpose of delivering the articles to the
consumer or for the purpose of transport.
a) Labelling b) Branding c) Packaging d) Positioning
5. In ________ pricing the response of consumers to the price is analysed
and, later a price is fixed.
a) Negotiated pricing b) Expected pricing
c) Dual pricing d) Monopoly pricing
6. Converters and assemblers are comes under which classification?
a) manufacturer‟s agent b) selling agents
c) speciality wholesalers d) commission merchants.
7. In DAGMAR “M” stands for
a) Maintain b) Machinery
c) Measured d) None of the above
8. In _________ the advertisement should have lasting impression on the
reader‟s mind.
a) Attention value b) Suggestive value
c) Memorising value d) Conviction value
9. _________may or may not involve face – to face contact with the
buyer.
a) Advertising b) Personal selling
c) Sales promotion d) Publicity
10. ________means something offered either free or at low cost as an
incentive to buy a product.
a) Price – off offer b) Coupons c) Samples d) Premium
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the nature of marketing.
(or)
b) What are the benefits of market segmentation?
12. a) Explain the significance of product planning.
(or)
b) What is meant by product life cycle? Explain its stages.
13. a) What are the factors influencing the price of a product?
(or)
b) Briefly explain about the objectives of pricing.
14. a) Explain the choice of advertising media.
(or)
b) What are the objectives of advertising?
15. a) Explain the reasons for increasing use of sales promotion.
(or)
b) What are the major stages in the consumer buying decision process?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the functions of marketing.
17. Explain in detail about the steps in new product development.
18. Discuss about the various kinds of pricing decisions.
19. Examine the various kinds of advertising.
20. Explain about the methods or levels of sales promotion.
18. Find the differential co – efficient of
3
234 108879
xxxxx .
19. Evaluate dxx
xxx4
237 534.
20. Explain the types of Matrices.
Question Code : B40204 / A40204 Sub Code: U16BNA41/ BBNAS41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x1=10 marks)
1. Set of all even prime numbers is
a) singleton set b) null set c) infinite set d) finite set
2. Set of fixed collection of all elements needed for the analysis
a) Universal set b) Finite set c) Empty set d) Infinite set
3. In what ratio, does the point (2, 14) divide the line segment (11, –16) and
(5, 4) externally?
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 4
4. A circle with centre P (–2, 2) has one end of a diameter at Q(4, 6).
Determine the coordinates R (x, y) of the other end.
a) (–1, 2) b) (–2, 2) c) (–8, –2) d) (8, 2)
5. The derivative of Y = 70 is
a) 7 b) 70 c) 700 d) 0
6. The derivative Y = X10
is
a) 10 X b) X10
c) 10 X9 d) 100 X
9
7. Integration with limit is called
a) Definite Integral b) Indefinite integral
c) Integral d) None of the above
8. The value of dx is
a) x + c b) 1 + c c) cx
1
d) 2 + c
9. A matrix that consists of only one column is called
a) row matrix b) column matrix
c) square matrix d) null matrix
10. Number of elements in a matrix of order 2 x 3 is
a) 5 b) 2 c) 6 d) 10
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) If A = {a, b, d, f}, B = {b, c, e, h} C = {b, c, d, f, i}. Find A (B C).
(or)
b) If A = {1, 2}, B = {2, 3} and U = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Find (A B) and
(A B) .
12. a) Show that the points (4, 2), (7, 5) and (9, 7) are collinear,
(or)
b) Prove that the lines 3x – 4y + 5 = 0, 7x – 8y + 5 = 0 and 4x + 5y = 45
are concurrent.
13. a) Differentiate 1
12x
with respect to x.
(or)
b) Differentiate (2x + 5)3 with respect to x.
14. a) Evaluate dxx
x1
.
(or)
b) Evaluate dxxxx 8343 21 .
15. a) If A = 521
243 and B =
35
02
14
find A x B.
(or)
b) If A = 41
32 then find A
2.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. If A = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}, B = {1, 5, 8, 10, 11}
find A – B and B – A.
17. Find the equation of the line through the intersection of 2x + y = 8 and
3x + 7 = 2y and parallel to 4x + y = 11.
Part - B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Enumerate the various types of Hospitals and the significance of
Hospital Management.
5. Explain the role of Medical services in Hospital Management and the
different categories of Personnel needed for hospitals.
6. Discuss the universal characteristics and the La Guardia Model of
Leadership.
7. Describe the Types of Records and state the various Dimensions of
Record Management.
8. Elucidate the different sections of Medical Records and the internal
audit in Hospital Management.
Question Code : B40502 Sub Code: U16BNN41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
CONCEPTS OF HOSPITAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Explain the relationship of Hospital Personnel with the Patients.
(or)
b) Describe the essential attributes of an ideal Hospital Manager.
2. a) Elucidate the role of Auxiliary services in Hospital Management.
(or)
b) What are the factors to be considered while formulating a product
plan for the Hospital?
3. a) State the various Internal sources of Hospital Financing.
(or)
b) Discuss the different forms of Hospital record.
Question Code : B81113 Sub Code: P16HYC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF CONTEMPORARY INDIA (Since 1947 AD)
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Constitution of India was accepted by the constituent assembly in
a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1950
2. The chairman of the Drafting committee was ________
a) K.M. Munshi b) Rajendra Prasad
c) Madhava Rao d) Ambedkar
3. Name of the author of the book “Planned Economy”?
a) Dadabai Naoroji b) Nahru
c) Visweswarayya d) Pasavaiyya
4. How many states were formed as per Fazl Ali Commission?
a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 17
5. In which year Mrs. Gandhi nationalised 14 private banks?
a) 1966 b) 1967 c) 1968 d) 1969
6. How many days Charan Singh served as Prime Minister of India?
a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23
7. When the supreme court of India delivered judgement in the Shah Banu
case?
a) 1985 b) 1986 c) 1987 d) 1988
8. Name the Education Minister who was associated with the New
Education Policy of 1986?
a) Abul Kalam Azad b) Nurul Hassan
c) K.C. Pant d) Arjun Singh
9. When the Mandal commission Report was implemented?
a) 1990 b) 1991 c) 1992 d) 1993
10. Who conducted Rath Yatra in connection with Ayodhya Issue?
a) Vajpayee b) Jaswant Singh
c) Advani d) Uma Bharathi
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write an account on the framing of Indian Constitution?
(or)
b) Narrate the accession of Junagadh and Hyderabad with the Indian
Union.
12. a) The second five year plan is considered as a “Great Leap forward” –
Justify this statement?
(or)
b) Define the Kamaraj plan and discuss its results.
13. a) Trace the features of the Twenty Points Programme of Mrs. Indira
Gandhi.
(or)
b) What were the circumstances that led to teh declaration of internal
emergency in 1975?
14. a) Bring out the significance of the mid – term poll of 1980.
(or)
b) List out the various provisions of Anandapur Sahib Resolution?
15. a) Estimate the achievements of Dr. Manmohan Singh Govt?
(or)
b) Assess the role of India in combating terrorism?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Why Jawaharlal Nehru is called Nation Builder?
17. How the Indian States were reorganised on the basis of language?
18. Estimate the services of Lal Bahadur Sastri as the Prime Minister of
India.
19. Describe the Salient features of the domestic policy of Prime Minister
Rajiv Gandhi?
20. Analyse the Indo – Sri Lankan Relations since 1947.
Question Code : B81114 Sub Code: P16HYC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (Since 1453 A.D)
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. In 1609 the telescope was invented by ___________.
a) Galileo b) Kepler c) Francis Bacon d) Issac Newton
2. The Scientist who defined the law of Universal gravitation.
a) Torricelli b) Rene Descarte
c) Immanuval Kant d) Issac Newton
3. Who invented the Water frame?
a) Samuel Crompton b) Richard Arkwright‟s
c) Joseph Marie d) John Kays
4. Who invented the vaccination?
a) John Hunter b) Edward Jenner
c) Carilinnaevs d) Countde Buffon
5. The inventor of cycle is ________
a) Rudolf b) Macmillan
c) Herbert d) George Stephenson
6. Louis Pasteur is a scientist of ____________
a) England b) France c) Russia d) Holland
7. Which is the significant study of Sigmund Freud?
a) Physiology b) Sociology
c) Mental disorders d) Electricity
8. X – Ray was invented by __________
a) Roentgen b) Marconi c) Robert Watson d) Edison
9. Hargobind Khurana got the Nobel prize for
a) Peace b) Literature c) Medicine d) Physics
10. J.C. Bose received in 1917 __________
a) Knight b) Ph.D c) D. Phil d) Sir
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What do you know about the scientific ideas of Leonardo Davinci?
(or)
b) Examine the contribution made by Gutenberg in the field of printing
technology.
12. a) Estimate the achievements of Henry Cavendish.
(or)
b) Discuss the achievements of Antoine Lavoisier.
13. a) Describe the role of Petrol Engine car in the modern world.
(or)
b) What are the uses of Telegraphs and Telephones in the modern world?
14. a) Narrate the invention of X – ray.
(or)
b) Explain the findings of Sigmund Freud.
15. a) Write a note on Atomic Energy commission of India.
(or)
b) Mention the contributions of Ramanujam.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Bring out the contributions of William Harvey in the growth of Medical
Science.
17. Explain the reforms of James watt in the invention of Steam engine.
18. Examine the important inventions of John Dalton.
19. Estimate the services of Marconi.
20. Examine the services of P.C. Roy to the progress of Chemistry.
Question Code : B81115 Sub Code: P16HYC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HISTORY OF MODERN CHINA (1842 TO 2000 A.D)
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The last dynasty which ruled China was ___________
a) Hun b) Tang c) Manchu d) Chin
2. “Taiping” means __________
a) Fortunate b) Perfect Peace
c) Sons of soil d) God is supreme
3. Who was called as “Father of Modern China”?
a) Mao Tse Tung b) Chou En Lai
c) Dr. SunYatSen d) Yuan Shi Kai
4. May Fourth Movement was took place in _________
a) 1919 A.D b) 1929 A.D c) 1939 A.D d) 1949 A.D
5. The Chinese Communist Party was started in ____________
a) 1920 A.D b) 1921 A.D c) 1930 A.D d) 1945 A.D
6. Chiang Kai Shek was the leader of _________
a) Communist Party b) Taiping Party
c) Chinese Republican Party d) The Kuomingtang Party
7. Who was the author of magazine “New Youth”?
a) Chen TuHsiu b) Yuan Shi Kai
c) Chou En Lai d) Chiang Kai Shek
8. Who formulated his ideas of “New Democracy”?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Mao Tse Tung
c) Chu Tch d) Chou En Lai
9. The Long March was undertaken by __________
a) Yuan Shi Kai b) Dr. SunYatSen
c) Chiang Kai Shek d) Mao Tse Tung
10. Who was the Prime Minister of China in the year 1949?
a) Chiang Kai Shek b) Mao Tse Tung
c) Yuan d) Chou En Lai
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the circumstances that led to Boxer Rebellion.
(or)
b) Describe the three principles of Dr. SunYat Sen.
12. a) Explain about the Twenty one Demands of Japan.
(or)
b) Write about the May Fourth Movement.
13. a) Discuss about the origin of Chinese Communist Party.
(or)
b) Write about the internal administration of Chiang Kai Shek.
14. a) Write about the Long March in the history of China.
(or)
b) Point out the importance of First Five Year Plan.
15. a) Explain about the Cultural Revolution.
(or)
b) Describe the Sino – Soviet Relation under Mao Tse Tung.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Why did the First Sino-Japanese War take place?
17. Assess the role of Yuan Shi Kai in the history of China.
18. Examine the origin and growth of Kuomingtang Party.
19. Discuss the growth of Chinese Communist Party.
20. Trace out Economic Reformations of China in Post Mao Period.
Question Code : B81308 Sub Code: P16HYE42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
WOMEN STUDIES IN INDIA
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The world feminism is derived from _________ language.
a) Greek b) Latin c) English d) Spanish
2. The International women‟s year was celebrated in _______
a) 1970 A.D b) 1975 A.D c) 1980 A.D d) 1985 A.D.
3. The poet Avvaiyar belonged the period of ________
a) Sangam Age b) Vedic Age c) Epic Age d) Age of Manu.
4. The Newspaper “New India” was started by _______
a) Annie Besant b) Rajaram Mohan Roy
c) Sarojini Naidu d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit.
5. _________ was the first women Chief Minister in India.
a) Janaki Ramachandran b) Lakshmi Segeal
c) Sucheta Kirupalani d) Kiran Bedi
6. The National Commission for women was set up in _______
a) 1992 A.D b) 1982 A.D c) 1929 A.D d) 1991 A.D
7. __________ was the first women freedom fighter against the colonial
rule.
a) Jansi Rani Lakshmi Bai b) Velu Nachiar
c) Mangammal d) meenakshi
8. The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act was passed in _________
a) 1967 A.D b) 1956 A.D c) 1856 A.D d) 1857 A.D
9. The first home for widows started by
a) Ramabai Saraswathi b) Annie Besant
c) Rajaram Mohan Rai d) Sarojini Naidu
10. Theosophical society in Calcutta formed by __________
a) Annie Besant b) Swarnakumari Devi
c) Ramabai Saraswathi d) Lakshmi Bai
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
Write short notes on the following:
11. a) Marxist Feminism.
(or)
b) Muslim period women.
12. a) Factors responsible for women education.
(or)
b) Educational status of women.
13. a) The Dowry Prohibition Act.
(or)
b) Sexual Harassment.
14. a) Green Belt Movement.
(or)
b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy.
15. a) Self Employed Women‟s Association.
(or)
b) National Commission for women.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the main objectives of women‟s studies.
17. Discuss the condition of women during the epic age.
18. Narrate the role of Indian women in freedom struggle.
19. What are the general problems faced by working women?
20. Elaborate the legal protection of women.
To day we hear a lot about drug abuse. This is the misuse
of drugs – drugs obtained illegally and taken for the purpose of getting
pleasure and thrills. The practice can ruin a person‟s life and even
lead to death as has happened to many young people. Knowing the
dangers of drug abuse, the governments of many countries have often
taken various steps to deal with the problem.
Questions
1. What is drug abuse ?
2. Why do people take drugs illegally?
3. What is the danger of misusing drugs?
4. Which of these medicines can be taken orally?
( creams, solutions, tablets, pills, capsules )
ii. Prepare a resume‟ for the post of a clerk in a concern. ( 4 marks )
iii. Write a newspaper report on the fire accident at Meenakshi Amman
temple , Madurai. ( 2 marks )
iv. Prepare a memorandum for an employee who has the habit of taking
frequent breaks during the working hours. ( 2 marks )
v. Prepare the minutes of your department‟s HOD retirement party.
( 3 marks )
Question Code : B02104 Sub Code: U16LAE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
B.A / B.Sc - Part II - English
FICTION AND CAREER ENGLISH
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Section – A (Fiction) 30 marks
1) Write an essay on any ONE of the following (1 x 10 = 10)
a) What is the role played by Captain Smollet?
b) Describe the preparations for voyage.
2) Write an essay on any TWO of the following: (2 x 10 = 20)
a) Antony knows the mob psychology. Elucidate this with reference to
his funeral speech on the occasion of Julius Caesar‟s death.
b) How does Macbeth murder Duncan ?
c) The Trial scene of Shakespeare‟s play “ The Merchant of Venice”
is called the real climax of the play. Do you agree?
Section – B (Vocabulary) 20 marks
3) A) Write sentences of your own to distinguish the meaning (3 x 2 = 6)
i) later – latter
ii) Illusion – allusion
iii) beside - besides
B) Fill in the blanks choosing the right pair of words ( 3 x 1 = 3)
i) Doctor can ------------ disease before it has --------- itself by
studying the Person‟s ill
a) Locate – affected b) Find out – come
c) Identity – occurred d) Diagnose – manifested
ii) An --------------- irritated voice --------------- the telephone.
a) Obvious – spoke b) Obviously – answered
c) Aptly – spoke d) Accurately – attended
iii) The speaker has quoted --------- to ---------- his argument.
a) A lot – support b) Liberally – defend
c) Massively – emphasize d) Extensively – substantiate
C. Choose the right pair that best expresses a relationship that is
similar to the original pair ( 3 x 1 = 3 )
i) actor - act
a) Flower – blossom b) Trees – leaves
c) House – wall d) Dogs – sit
ii) sweet – sour
a) Serious - light b) Old - age
c) Ugly - untidy d) Strong – bold
iii) winter – cold
a) Boys - - run b) Women – dance
c) Emptiness – full d) Summer – hot
D. Write suitable single word for the following expressions ( 5 x 1 = 5)
i) one of two possibilities
ii) very big
iii) ancient times
iv) hundreds of years
v) the gradual development.
E. Write sentences using the following Idioms. ( 3 x 1 = 3)
i) To kill two birds with one stone.
ii) to hit nail on the hand.
iii) you can‟t judge a book by its cover.
Section – C (Grammar) 10 marks
4. Rewrite the sentences after correcting the errors
i) Columbus has discovered America.
ii) He will reach home before the sun will set.
iii) A new theatre has been started last Monday.
iv) My sister, along with her children have arrived.
v) Twenty kilometers were a long distance.
vi) Each participant have to pay twenty rupees.
vii) Ramesh did not write the test well, didn‟t he?
viii) We visited the zoo last week, do we?
ix) He entered into the building.
x) This is different to that.
Section – D (Composition) 15 marks
5. i. Read the passage and answer the following questions ( 4 marks)
Modern drugs can heal a wide range of diseases including those
once thought to be incurable. These drugs come in the form of pills,
tablets, capsules and creams. Some are taken orally. Others are
injected into the blood stream or applied over the diseased part of the
body. Different diseases require treatment with different drugs.
Usually, it is the doctor who prescribes the drug and the dosage to be
taken.
Question Code : B21106 Sub Code: U16PHC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Proton-electron hypothesis explains
a) - decay b) - decay
c) - decay d) - decay and - decay
2. Another name of shell model is
a) independent particle model b) particle model
c) pauli‟s model d) newtons model
3. Betatron works on the principle of
a) laser b) diode c) transformer d) transistor
4. Hadrons are
a) combination of baryons and mesons
b) baryons
c) mesons
d) leptons
5. Geiger-NuHal law is
a) log = B log R b) log = A + B log R
c) log = A d) log = A – B log R
6. In - decay, linear momentum is
a) conserved b) not conserved
c) partly conserved d) zero
7. In ( , p) reaction
a) protons are injected b) protons are ejected
c) electrons are injected d) electrons are emitted
8. The source of stellar energy is
a) fission b) thermonuclear fission
c) fusion d) thermonuclear fusion
9. The level of exposure to ionizing radiation is detected by
a) dosimeter b) ammeter c) voltmeter d) multimeter
10. In boiling water reactor, the fuel is
a) Thorium b) Irridium c) Polonium d) Uranium
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain proton-electron hypothesis.
(or)
b) Explain briefly nuclear forces.
12. a) Give the principle and working of synchrocyclotron.
(or)
b) What are elementary particles? Explain briefly.
13. a) Explain the half life period and mean life.
(or)
b) Explain the internal conversion related with radioactivity.
14. a) Explain Photo disintegration.
(or)
b) Explain thermonuclear reactions.
15. a) Give the principle and constructing of atom bomb.
(or)
b) Explain briefly the working of pressurized water reactor.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the shell model of nucleus.
17. Explain the photographic emulsion technique of nuclear detection.
18. Give the neutrino theory of beta decay.
19. Bring out the origin of cosmic rays.
20. Explain the principle and working of fast breeder reactor.
Question Code : B21303 Sub Code: U16PHE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MATERIALS SCIENCE
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The number of types of lattices in the crystal system is
a) 7 b) 14 c) 3 d) 10
2. Type of chemical bond formed by shasing unequal number of
electrons is
a) metallic bond b) ionic bond
c) co-valent bond d) Van der wall‟s bond
3. According to classical theory, the value of specific heat capacity of
solids at high temperature is
a) R b) 2R c) 3R d)
4. Momentum of phonons is equal to
a) mv b) k c) hk d) h
5. The value of magnetic susceptibility in paramagnetic substance is
a) > 1 b) < 1 c) negative value d) zero
6. Current flow in the super conductor is
a) maximum b) zero c) infinity d) minimum
7. The value of local field depends upon
a) Polarisation b) current
c) permittivity d) strength of dielectric
8. Types of electric polarization in dielectric material is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7
9. Which material is used in semi conductor laser?
a) Ga As P b) Ga As c) Zn Se d) Silicon
10. In spontaneous emission, the number of atoms in the ground state is
a) more than excited b) greater
c) less than excited d) zero
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) List out the properties of co-valent bond.
(or)
b) Explain about the face entered cubical structure of crystals with
an example.
12. a) What are super conductors? Explain about the effect of magnetic
field on them.
(or)
b) Describe the Einstein‟s theory of lattice heat capacity in solids.
13. a) Explain about the different types of magnetic materials.
(or)
b) Give the Langevin‟s theory of diamagnetism and obtain an
expression for diamagnetic susceptibility.
14. a) Explain about the frequency and temperature effects on
polarization.
(or)
b) Derive the Clausius–Mosotti relation in dielectrics.
15. a) Explain about the principle and characteristics of Laser.
(or)
b) Explain the Nd-YAG Laser in detail.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain about the different types of chemical bonds.
17. Describe the Debye‟s theory of Lattice heat capacity and obtain an
expression for the same.
18. Give the Langevin‟s theory of Paramagnetism and obtain an
expression for magnetic susceptibility.
19. Explain about the different types of electric polarization in detail.
20. Explain the construction and working of semi conductor laser with a
neat diagram.
18. Explain the principle of demodulation. Draw the circuit diagram of
an AM diode detector and explain its function.
19. Using block diagram, explain the function of television transmitting
system and receiving system.
20. Draw the block diagram and explain the fibre optic communication
system
Question Code : B21205/ A21205 Sub Code: U16AEA41
/ BAEAS41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
APPLIED ELECTRONICS – II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. A second order band pass filter can be obtained by cascading a low-
pass second order section having cut off frequency, fOH with a high
pass second order section having cut-off frequency, fOL provided
a) fOH > fOL b) fOH < fOL c) fOH = fOL d) fOH ½ fOL
2. In an phase locked loop, lock occurs when the
a) input frequency and the vco frequency are the same
b) phase error is 180
c) vco frequency is double the input frequency
d) phase error is 90
3. A SCR is a semi conductor device which is made up of
a) Two layers and one junction b) Three layers and two junction
c) Four layers and three junction d) None of the above
4. The triac is a device which conducts during
a) +ve half cycle of the input voltage
b) –ve half cycle of the input voltage
c) both +ve and –ve half cycles of the input voltage
d) none of the above
5. Modulation is done in
a) Transmitter b) Radio receiver
c) between transmitter and radio receiver d) amplifier
6. AM is used for broadcasting because
a) it is more noise immune than other modulation systems
b) it requires less transmitting power compare with other system
c) its use avoids receiver complexity
d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth
faithful transmission.
7. Television signals are
a) Frequency modulated b) Amplitude modulated
c) both frequency and amplitude modulated
d) phase modulated
8. The maximum range, dmax of radar is
a) proportional to the cube root of the peak transmitted power
b) proportional to the fourth root of the peak transmitted power
c) proportional to the square root of the peak transmitted power
d) not related to the peak transmitted power at all
9. In an optical fibre, the diameter of the core is nearly
a) 10-2
m b) 10-4
m c) 10-8
m d) 1A
10. The attenuation in optical fibre is mainly due to
a) absorption b) scattering
c) neither absorption not scattering d) both (a) and (b)
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain Low pass filter with the help of gain versus frequency
response graph.
(or)
b) Discuss the difference between a low-pass and a high-pass filters.
12. a) Explain the V-I characteristics of an SCR. What do you infer from
them?
(or)
b) Write short notes on the following
i) UJT relaxation oscillator ii) Triac as an a.c. switch
13. a) Discuss the limitations of amplitude modulation.
(or)
b) Explain the advantages of frequency modulation.
14. a) Explain the function of a Vidicon camera tube.
(or)
b) Define scanning. Discuss interlaced scanning.
15. a) Define numerical aperture. Explain briefly about the two types of
optical fibres.
(or)
b) Explain briefly abart fibre (optical) construction and discuss the
light propagation in fibres.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Describe the various units in phase-locked loop and explain its
working.
17. Draw the circuit diagram of
i) SCR Half wave rectifier
ii) SCR Full wave rectifier. Also explain their working
Question Code : A21206 Sub Code: BPHAS41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ALLIED PHYSICS - II
Time : 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. When a white light undergo dispersion, violet ray
a) deviates less b) deviates more
c) violet ray is not formed
d) does not deviate from the straight line path
2. For thin prism, the refracting angle is
a) < 10° b) > 10° c) 60° d) 0°
3. If the path difference between two waves interfering with each other
is 2 , then the interference is
a) constructive b) destructive
c) both d) none of the above
4. The transverse nature of light waves is demonstrated by the
phenomenon
a) interference b) diffraction
c) polarization d) reflection
5. The half period of a certain radioactive element with disintegration
constant 0.06931 per day
a) 10 days b) 14 days c)140 days d) 1.4 day
6. The explosion of atom bomb is based on the principle of
a) uncontrolled fission reaction b) controlled fission reaction
c) fusion reaction d) thermonuclear reaction
7. The P region of a PN junction diode has_______ as majority charge
carriers
a) electrons b) neutral atom
c) alpha particles d) holes
8. Current gain in common emitter mode is _________ common base
mode
a) less than b) equal to
c) more than d) zero compared to
9. The logic gate whose output is „1‟, if any or all the inputs are in „1‟
state is
a) NOT gate b) OR gate
c) NAND gate d) AND gate
10. According to Boolean algebra A ?BA
a) A + B b) A – B c) A B d) A/B
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe how would you combine two prisms to produce
dispersion without deviation.
(or)
b) Derive an expression for minimum spherical aberration of two
thin lenses separated by a distance.
12. a) How will you determine wavelength of light using transmission
grating?
(or)
b) Describe an experiment to demonstrate double refraction.
13. a) What are thermonuclear reactions? Give an account of proton-
proton cycle releasing solar energy.
(or)
b) State and explain the law of radioactive disintegration with a graph.
14. a) Explain the working of PN junction diode under forward and
reverse bias.
(or)
b) Explain the principle of working of a common emitter transistor
amplifier.
15. a) Explain the action of two input OR gate with an electrical circuit.
(or)
b) Explain the action of NOT gate with an electrical circuit.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Describe how would you combine two prisms to produce deviation
without dispersion
17. Explain Michelson‟s method of determination of velocity of light
18. Give an account of Semi-empirical mass formula by explaining
various terms in it.
19. Draw the circuit diagram to study and explain the characteristics of a
transistor in common base mode.
20. Is NAND gate universal gate? If so, construct AND, OR, NOT gates
using it
5. Explain the working of an AC generator with a neat diagram
6. Derive an expression for the power in A.C circuit and RMS value of
alternating voltage.
7. Discuss the A.C circuit with inductance only and also write a note on
P type and N type semiconductor.
8. i) Discuss the A.C circuit with resistor only.
ii) Explain the action of forward and reverse biased PN junction
diode with neat diagram
Question Code : B21502/ A21502 Sub Code: U16PHN41
/ BPHNE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
BASIC PHYSICS – II
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x10 = 30 marks
1. a) State Ohm‟s law and Kirchhoff‟s laws in electricity. Also define the
term resistivity and temperature coefficient of resistance.
(or)
b) What are primary and secondary cells? Describe the construction and
working of a lead acid accumulator
2. a) Write a note on choke and wattles current
(or)
b) Write a note on power production in hydro and RMS value of AC
current.
3. a) Explain the working of a bridge rectifier with neat diagram.
(or)
b) Discuss the A.C circuit with capacitance only
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Obtain the expressions for the resultant resistance of three resistances
connected in series and parallel.
Question Code : B24104/ A24104 Sub Code: U16CSC41 /
BCSCR41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH JAVA
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. What is the numerical range of a char in Java?
a) -128 to 127 b) 0 to 256
c) 0 to 32767 d) 0 to 65535
2. What is the output of relational operators?
a) Integer b) Boolean c) Characters d) Double
3. Which of the following is a method having same name as that of it‟s
class?
a) finalize b) delete c) class d) constructor
4. Which of these keywords can be used to prevent inheritance of a class?
a) super b) constant c) class d) final
5. Which of these keywords is used to define packages in Java?
a) pkg b) Pkg c) package d) Package
6. Which of these interface is implemented by Thread class?
a) Runnable b) Connections
c) Set d) MapConnections
7. Which of these keywords must be used to monitor for exceptions?
a) try b) finally c) throw d) catch
8. Which of these methods can be used to output a string in an applet?
a) display( ) b) print( ) c) drawString( ) d) transient( )
9. What does AWT stands for?
a) All Window Tools b) All Writing Tools
c) Abstract Window Toolkit d) Abstract Writing Toolkit
10. Which of these methods can be used to writing console output?
a) print() b)println() c) write() d) All of the mention
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Discuss about Java Runtime Environment.
(or)
b) Discuss about various operators in Java.
12. a) Write a program to check whether the given number is prime or not. ( Note : Use constructor).
(or)
b) Discuss about declaring and intialising arrays in Java with suitable
illustration.
13. a) Write a program in Java to perform arithmetic operations using
package concept.
(or)
b) How will you create threads using Runnable interface. Explain.
14. a) Write a Java program to handle the following built in exception
i) ArithmeticException
ii) NumberFormatException
(or)
b) How will you design a web page using Applet tag ? Explain.
15. a) Discuss about different Methods of the Graphics class.
(or)
b) Discuss Byte Stream Classes in Java.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain about Java features.
17. How multiple inheritance concept is implemented in Java. Explain.
18. Explain the life cycle of a thread.
19. Explain the life cycle of Applet.
20. Discuss I/O Stream classes in Java.
Question Code : B24204 Sub Code: U16CSA41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In Graphical method, if there is no common region, then the problem
has _________.
a) feasible solution b) infeasible solution
c) unbounded solution d) no solution
2. Any feasible solution which optimize the LPP is called ________
solution.
a) optimum b) bounded c) infeasible d) none of these
3. In Big-M method if atleast one artificial variable is present in the
basis, then the LPP have _____________ solution.
a) pseudo optimum b) unbounded
c) infeasible d) none of these
4. In simplex method if all yir 0 ( i = 1, 2, ... m), then there is _______
solution.
a) a bounded b) an unbounded
c) no d) an infeasible
5. A basic feasible solution for the general transportation problem must
consist of __________ occupied cells.
a) m + n –1 b) m + n + 1 c) m + n d) m – n + 1
1
6. The transportation problem is balanced if
a) Total demand and total supply are equal and the number of
sources equals the number of destinations
b) Total demand equals total supply irrespective of the number of
sources and destinations
c) number of sources matches with the number of destinations
d) none of the above
7. The assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem
in which number of origins
a) equals the number of destinations
b) is greater than the number of destinations
c) is less than the number of destination
d) is less than or equal to the number of destination
8. Which of the following is correct?
a) an assignment problem cannot be of maximization type
b) an assignment problem can be solved only if the number of rows
and columns are equal
c) the transportation method can be used to solve an assignment
problem
d) unbalance assignment problem cannot be solved
9. The shortest path between only one pair of nodes can be determined
using a ________.
a) Dijkstra‟s algorithm b) Floyd‟s algorithm
c) Kraskal‟s algorithm d) none of these
10. A tree that links all the nodes of the network with no cycles is called
_________.
a) directed path b) spanning tree
c) link capacity d) none of these
19. A salesman estimates that the following would be the cost on his
route, visiting the six cities as shown in the following table below:
To City
From
City
1 2 3 4 5 6
1 20 23 27 29 34
2 21 19 26 31 24
3 26 28 15 36 26
4 25 16 25 23 18
5 23 40 23 31 10
6 27 18 12 35 16
The salesman can visit each of the cities once and only once.
Determine the optimum sequence he should follow to minimize the
total distance travelled. What is the total distance travelled?
20. Use Dijkstra‟s algorithm to determine a shortest path from A to C for
the following network:
1 3 6
4 7
5 2
A
B
C
D
E
7 2
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Solve the following LPP by using graphical method:
Minimize Z = 20x1 + 40x2
subject to the constraints 36x1 + 6x2 108,
3x1 + 12x2 36,
20x1 + 10x2 100
x2 700,
x1, x2 0.
17. Solve the following LPP by using simplex method:
Maximize Z = 4x1 + 10x2
Subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 50,
2x1 + 5x2 100,
2x1 + 3x2 90,
x1, x2 0.
18. Given x13 = 50, x14 = 20, x21 = 55, x31 = 30, x32 = 35 and x34 = 25. Is
it an optimal solution to the transportation problem
Available
6 1 9 3 70
11 5 2 8 55
10 12 4 7 90
Requirement 85 35 50 45
If not, modify it to obtain a better feasible solution.
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) i) The manager of an oil refinery must decide on the optimum mix
of two possible blending processes of which the input and output
production runs are as follows.
Process Input Output
Crude A Crude B Gasoline X Gasoline Y
1 6 4 6 9
2 5 6 5 5
The maximum amounts available of crudes A and B are 250
units and 200 units respectively. Market demand shows that
atleast 150 units of Gasoline X and 130 units of Gasoline Y must
be produced. The profits per production run from process 1 and 2
are Rs 4 and Rs 5 respectively. Formulate the problem for
maximizing the profit
(or)
b) Use graphical method to solve the following LPP:
Mazimize Z = 6x1 + x2
subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 3,
x1 – x2 0,
x1, x2 0
12. a) Give the algorithm of Two phase method.
(or)
b) Solve the following LPP by using Big-M method:
Maximize Z = 3x1 + 2x2
subject to the constraints 2x1 + x2 2,
3x1 + 4x2 12,
x1, x2 0
3 6
13. a) Use Vogel‟s Approximation method to obtain an initial basic
feasible solution of the transportation problem.
D1 D2 D3 D4 Supply
S1 3 7 6 4 5
S2 2 4 3 2 2
S3 4 3 8 5 3
Demand 3 3 2 2
(or)
b) Use North West corner method to obtain an initial basic feasible
solution of the transportation problem
D E F G Available
A 11 13 17 14 250
B 16 18 14 10 300
C 21 24 13 10 400
Requirement 200 225 275 250
14. a) A department has four subordinates and four tasks to be
performed. The subordinates differ in efficiency and the task differ
in their intrinsic difficulty. His estimate of the time each man would
take to perform each task is given in the matrix below.
Subordinates
Tasks
E F G H
A 18 26 17 11
B 13 28 14 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
How should the task be allocated one to a man, so as to
minimize the total man hours?
(or)
b) The following is the cost matrix of assigning 4 clerks to 4 key
punching jobs. Find the optimal assignment if clerk 1 cannot be
assigned to job 1
Job
Clerk
1 2 3 4
1 - 5 2 0
2 4 7 5 6
3 5 8 4 3
4 3 6 6 2
What is the total minimum cost?
15. a) Determine (i) two paths (ii) a cycle (iii) two directed cycles (iv) a
tree and (v) a spanning tree for the following network
(or)
b) Write some applications of the minimal spanning tree problem and
give the algorithm for solving minimal spanning tree problem
1
2
3 4
5
5
4
Question Code : A24403 Sub Code: BCSSB41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
COMPUTER ALGORITHMS
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x10 = 30 marks
5. Discuss on the complexity of algorithms.
6. Explain priority queue with its applications.
7. Analyze the binary search algorithm.
8. How would you apply Greedy method to solve Knapsack problem?
9. Give a brief note on the basic traversal methods for binary trees.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
10. Give a detail account on the Heap data structure.
11. Explain and analyze the algorithms for finding the maximum and
minimum using divide and conquer method.
12. Discuss the working of Prim‟s algorithm and Kruskal‟s algorithm to
obtain the minimum spanning tree.
13. Explain the techniques used for searching and traversal in graphs.
14. Give an account on Connected components and spanning tree.
Question Code : B24502 / A24502 Sub Code: U16CSN41/
BCSNE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE - OFFICE AUTOMATION
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Describe the features of MS-Word.
(or)
b) How will you format the text in MS-Word? Give an Example.
2. a) Explain Bulleting and Numbering feature in MS-Word.
(or)
b) How will you perform spell check and grammatical errors
operation in MS-Word?
3. a) How will you create chart in MS-Excel? Explain with an example.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Microsoft Excel Window.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Explain about the various editing features available in MS-Word.
5. How will you create a Table in MS-Word? Explain with an example.
6. Explain mail-merge concept in with an example.
7. Explain any five mathematical functions in MS-Excel.
8. How will you create a powerpoint presentation? Give an example.
18. Suppose that (s) is continuous on the arc . Then prove that the
function Fn(z) = ds)zs(
)s(n
is analytic in each of the regions
determined by , and its derivative is Fn (z) = nFn+1(z).
19. State and prove Taylor‟s theorem.
20. State and prove Schwartz‟s theorem.
Question Code: B60113/ A60113 Sub Code: P16MAC41 /
P14MAC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPLEX ANALYSIS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc ( Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A Answer all questions, choose the correct answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The quotient )x(g
)x(fof two continuous functions f(x) and g(x) is defined
and continuous at „a‟ if
a) g(x) 0 b) g(a) 0 c) f(x) 0 d) f(a) 0
2. If a linear fractional transformation = kz, |k| = 1, then the
transformation is
a) parallel b) homothetic c) rotation d) inversion
3. Cauchy‟s integral formula f(z) = dszs
)s(f
i2
1is valid only when
a) n( , s) = 0 b) n( , s) = 0
c) n( , z) = 1 d) n( , z) = 0
4. The residue of 2
z
)az(
e at z = a is
a) ea b) 1 c) 0 d) none of these
5. Laplace‟s equation u =
a) y
u
x
u b)
y
u
x
u
c) 2
2
2
2
y
u
x
u d)
2
2
2
2
y
u
x
u
6. State Luca‟s theorem.
7. Define Symmetric.
8. State Cauchy‟s theorem for a rectangle.
9. Define meromorphic function.
10. Write Poisson‟s formula.
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) Show that u = x2 – y
2 is harmonic and find its conjugate harmonic.
(or)
b) State and prove Abel‟s Limit theorem.
12. a) State and prove the Symmetric principle.
(or)
b) An analytic function in a region whose derivative vanishes
identically must reduce to a constant. Prove that the same is true if
either the real part, imaginary part, the modulus or the argument is
constant.
13. a) If the piecewise differentiable closed curve does not pass through the
point a prove that the value of the integral 0z
dzis a multiple of 2 i
(or)
b) State and prove Cauchy‟s theorem in a disk.
14. a) State and prove Rouche‟s theorem.
(or)
b) State and prove the maximum principle for analytic function.
15. a) If u1 and u2 are harmonic in a region , then prove that
0duuduu 1221 for every cycle which is homologous to zero in
.
(or)
b) If the function fn(z) are analytic and 0 in a region , and if fn(z)
converges to f(z), uniformly on every compact subset of , then prove
that f(z) is either identically zero or never equal to zero on ,
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks )
16. State and prove Abel‟s theorem on radius of convergence of a power
series.
17. Prove that the cross ratio (z1, z2, z3, z4) is real iff the four points lie on a
circle or on a straight line.
19. State and prove Riesz representation theorem.
20. Let A BL (H). Then prove the following:
i) Let A be self adjoint. If 0x , )x(A for all x H then A = 0.
ii) Let K = C then A is self adjoint if Rx , )x(A for all x H.
Let K = R then A is self adjoint if x , )y(Ay , )x(A x, y H.
iii) A is unitary if and only if ||A(x)|| = || x || for all x H and A is onto.
iv) A is normal if and only if ||A(x)|| = || A*(x)|| for all x H.
Question Code: B60114/ A60114 Sub Code: P16MAC42/
P14MAC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FUNCTIONAL ANALYSIS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc ( Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A Answer all questions, choose the correct answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Let X and Y be normed linear spaces over K. They are said to be
________ if there exists a linear map F: X Y which is homomorphism
onto
a) linearly homeomorphic b) linearly isometric
c) equivalent d) unequal
2. A normed linear space is _________ if 12
yxwhenever x, y X, || x
|| = 1 = || y || and x y
a) bounded b) strictly convex c) greater d) unequal
3. Let X be a normed linear space over K and E be a convex subset of X
with non empty interior. If b E then there exists a nonzero f X such
that Re f(x) Re f(b) for all x E. Then the functional f is called
a) support b) even c) real d) imaginary
4. If y,x = 0 for x, y X an inner product space then X and Y are said to
be ________
a) parallel b) equal c) orthogonal d) unequal
5. Let A BL (H). A is called self adjoint if __________
a) AA* = I b) A* = A c) A* = A–1
d) A*A=AA*
6. Define a normed linear space.
7. Define Banach space.
8. State Uniform boundedness principle.
9. Define inner product space on a linear space over K.
10. Define Unitary of A BL(H)
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) Let X be a normed linear space and Y a closed subspace of X with
Y X. Let 0 < r < 1 be a real number. Then prove that there exists
xr X such that || xr || = 1, and r d(xr, Y) 1.
(or)
b) Prove that two nls X and Y over K are linearly homeomorphic if and
only if there exists a linear map F : X Y which is onto and satisfies
|| x || || F(x)|| || x || for all x X and some , > 0.
12. a) Let X be a normed linear space over K and E1, E2 nonempty disjoint
convex subsets of X with E1 open. Then prove that there exists f X
and R such that Re f(x1) Re f(x2) for all x1 E1 and x2 E2.
(or)
b) Prove that a normed linear space X is banach space if and only if
every absolutely summable series of elements in X is summable in X.
13. a) State and prove closed graph theorem.
(or)
b) Let X be a Banach space over C, D an open subset of C and
F : D X. Prove that F is analytic in D if and only if x F is analytic
on D for every x X .
14. a) Prove the following:
i) Let { x1, . . . xn }be an orthogonal set in an inner product space X.
Then || x1 + . . . + xn||2 = || x1||
2 + . . . + || xn ||
2
ii) If E is an orthogonal subset of nonzero elements of an inner product
space X, then E is linearly independent.
iii) If E is an orthonormal subset of an inner product space then
|| u – v || = 2 for any u v E.
(or)
b) Let F be a non empty closed subspace of a Hilbert Space H. If F
denotes the set of all elements of H which are orthogonal to F then
prove that H = F + F , F
is a closed subspace of H with
F F = { 0 } and F = F
15. a) Let A, B BL (H) and k K. Then prove that
i) (A + B)* = A* + B*, (kA)* = kA*, (AB)* = B*A* and **A =A.
ii) || A* || = || A || and || A*A|| = || A ||2
(or)
b) Let K = C and A BL(H) then prove that there are unique self-adjoint
B, C BL (H) such that A = B + iC; Prove that A is normal if and
only if BC = CB and A is unitary if and only if BC = CB as well B2 +
C2 = I.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Let X be a normed linear space. Then prove that the closed unit ball in X
is compact if and only if X is finite dimensional.
17. Prove that if X be a normed linear space and Y a closed subspace of X
then Y with the induced norm and X/Y with the quotient norm are
Banach if and only if X is Banach.
18. State and prove Open mapping theorem.
Question Code: B60115/ A60115 Sub Code: P16MAC43/
P14MAC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OPERATION RESEARCH
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc ( Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A Answer all questions, choose the correct answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. A network consists of a set of ________ linked by arcs.
a) nodes b) flow c) model d) dual
2. SIRO expands
a) Service In Route Out b) Service In Random Order
c) Service Out d) Service In Risk Area
3. In single server models, the general formula for Pn = _________
a) 1 + b) 1– c) (1– ) n d)
01
4. L (x , ) = f(x) – g(x) the function L is called ________
a) Lagrangean function b) Poisson function
c) Queue size d) Floid model
5. A function f(x1, x2, . . . xn) is ________ if it can be expressed as the sum
of n-single variable functions f1(x1), f2(x2). . . fn(xn).
a) separable b) minimal c) network d) CPM
6. Expand CPM and PERT.
7. In the following situation identify the customer and the server: Planes
arriving at an airport.
8. State Little‟s formula.
9. Define bordered Hessian matrix.
1
10. Define Polynomial.
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) For each network in figure determine (i) a path ii) a loop
iii) a directed loop or circuit iv) a tree and v) a spanning tree
(or)
b) Determine the critical path for the project network in following
figure
12. a) A service machine always has a standby unit for immediate
replacement on failure. The time to failure of the machine is
exponential and occurs every 45 minutes, on the average. The machine
2
5 1
3 4
2
3
2
3
2
11
1
3
2
2
2 4
5
6 7
2
5 7
6
2 3
Job arrive of Keenco according to a Poisson distribution with a mean of
four jobs per 24 hour day. Job size is random but averages about
10,000 sheets per job. Contracts with the customers specify a
penalty cost for late delivery at the rate of $80 per jobs per day.
Which copier should Keenco purchase?
19. Consider the problem Maximize f(x) = 21
2
3
2
2
2
1 xx5x10x2x
subject to g1(x) = x1 + 2
2x + 3x2x3 – 5 = 0
g2(x) = 2
1x + 5x1x2 + 2
3x – 7 = 0
Apply the Jacobian method to find f(x) in the feasible
neighbourhood of the feasible point (1, 1, 1). Assume that this feasible
neighbourhood is specified by g1 = –0.01, g2 = 0.02 and x1 = 0.01.
20. Consider the problem Maximize z = 6x1 + 3x2 – 4x1 x2 – 2 2
2
2
1 x3x
subject to x1 + x2 1;
2x1 + 3x2 4
x1 , x2 0
Show that z is strictly concave and then solve the problem using
the quadratic programming algorithm
operator claims that the machine „has the habit‟ of breaking down every
night around 8.30P.M. Analyse the operator‟s claim.
(or)
b) The springdale public library receives books according to a Poisson
distribution with mean 25 books per day. Each shelf in the stacks
holds 100 books. Determine the following
i) The average number of shelves that will be stacked with new books
each (30 day) month.
ii) The probability that more than 10 book cases will be needed each
month, given that a book case has 5 shelves
13. a) A fast-food restaurant has one drive-in-window. Cars arrive according
to a Poisson distribution at the rate of 2 cars every 5 minutes. The space
in front of the window can accommodate at most 10 cars, including the
one being served. Other cars can wait outside this space if necessary. The
service time per customer is exponential, with a mean of 1.5 minutes.
Determine the following:
i) The probability that the facility is idle.
ii) The expected number of customer waiting to be
served.
(or)
b) An investor invests $1000 a month in one type of stock marked
security. Because the investor must wait for good „buy‟ opportunity,
the actual time at which the purchase is made is totally random. The
investor usually keeps the securities for about 3 years on the average
but will sell them at random times when „sell‟ opportunity presents
itself. Although the investor is generally recognised as a shrewed
stock market player, past experience indicates that about 25% of the
securities decline at about 20% a year. The remaining 75% appreciate
3 6
at the rate of about 12% a year. Estimate the investors average
equity in the stock market.
14. a) Consider the problem Minimize f(x) = 2
3
2
2
2
1 xxx
subject to g1(x) = x1 + x2 + 3x3 – 2 = 0
g2(x) = 5x1 + 2x2 + x3 – 5 = 0
determine the constrained extreme points
(or)
b) Develop the Kuhn-Tucker condition for the following problem
Minimize f(x) = 2
3
2
2
2
1 xxx
subject to g1(x) = 2x1 + x2 – 5 0
g2(x) = x1 + x3 – 2 0
g3(x) = 1 - x1 0
g4(x) = 2 – x2 0
g5(x) = - x3 0
15. a) Consider Maximizing the function f(x1, x2) = 4x1 + 6x2 2x12 –
2x1x2– 2x22 . f(x1, x2) is a quadratic function where absolute optimum
occurs at 21 x,x = 3
4;
3
1. Solve by the steepest ascent method.
(or)
b) Solve by restricted basis method maximize z = x1 + 4
2x subject to
3x1 + 2
2x2 9; x1, x2 0
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. For the network in figure, find the shortest routes between every two
nodes. The distance (in miles) are given on the arcs. Arc (3,5) is
directional so that no traffic is allowed from node 5 to node 3. All the
other arcs allow traffic in both directions.
17. B & K groceries operators with three check out counters. The sign by the
check-out area advises the customers that an additional counter will be
opened any time the number of customers in any lane exceeds three. This
means that for fewer than four customers, only one counter will be in
operation. For four to six customers, two counters will be opened. For
more than six customers, all three counters will be opened. The customers
arrive at the counters area according to a Poisson distribution, with a
mean of 10 customers per hour. The average check-out time per customer
is exponential with mean 12 minutes. Determine the steady-state
probability Pn of n customers in the check out area.
18. Keen Co publishing is in the process of purchasing a high speed
commercial copier. Four models whose specifications are summarized
below have been proposed by vendors.
Copier
model
Operating cost
($/hr)
Speed
(sheets/min)
1 15 30
2 20 36
3 24 50
4 27 66
·
2
5
6
10
3
5
1
2
2
2
3
5
4
4
4
15
4 5
.
Question Code: B60308 / A60308 Sub Code: P16MAE42/
P14MAE42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NUMBER THEOREY AND CRYPTOGRAPHY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc ( Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A Answer all questions, choose the correct answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. If (a,b) = 1 then (a+b, a2
– ab + b2 ) is
a) either 2 or 3 b) either 1 or 2
c) either 1 or 3 d) either 1 or 4
2. The inverse of Euler‟s function -1
=
a) u * N b) u * c) u * N d) u * N
3. The number of solutions of the linear congruence 2x 3 (mod 4) has
a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3
4. We represent the situation schematically by the diagram
Pf
C1f
P. Any such set-up is called
a) crypto system b) encryption
c) decryption d) plain text
5. One of the most important parts of a message in the authentication is
________
a) single matter b) signature c) name d) date
6. Define the Mobius function (^).
7. Define the divisor functions (^).
8. Write the Wilson‟s theorem.
9. Define deciphering or decryption.
10. Define private key cryptosystem.
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) State and prove the Euclidean algorithm.
(or)
b) Prove that if n 1 then n | d
.n)d(
12. a) Let f be multiplicative. Then prove that f is completely multiplicative
if and only if f -1
(n) = (n) f(n) for all n 1.
(or)
b) Prove that for every n 1 prove that n | d otherwise 0
square a isn if 1)d(
also prove that for|)n(| )n(1 all n.
13. a) i) Assume (a, m) = 1. Then prove that the linear congruence
ax b (mod m) has exactly one solution.
ii) State and prove Euler-Fermat theorem.
(or)
b) State and prove the Lagrange‟s theorem.
14. a) Solve the following systems of simultaneous congruences.
i) 2x + 3y 1 mod 26, 7x + 8y 2 mod 26
ii) x + 3y 1 mod 26, 7x + 9y 2 mode 26
(or)
b) Suppose we know that our adversary is using an enciphering matrix
A in the 26 – letter alphabet. We intercept the ciphertext
„WKNCCHSSJH‟, and we know that the first word is „GIVE‟. Find
the deciphering matrix A-1
and read the message.
15. a) Write about algorithms for finding discrete logs in finite fields.
(or)
b) Write the Knapsack problem and solve the superincreasing knapsack
problem.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions: ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. i) Prove that the infinite series 1n
np
1diverges.
ii) Prove that for n 1, (n) = n p
11
n | p
17. i) Prove that if f is multiplicative then f(1) = 1.
ii) Prove that if f and g are multiplicative, so is their Dirichlet product
f g.
iii) Prove that if both g and f g are multiplicative then f is also
multiplicative.
18. i) Prove that for any prime p all the coefficients of the polynomial
f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) . . . (x – p +1) – xp-1
+1 are divisible by p.
ii) State and prove the Chinese remainder theorem.
19. Working in the 26 letter alphabet, use the matrix A = 87
32to encipher
the message unit „NO‟. Also encipher the plain text „NO ANSWER‟. In
the above situation decipher the ciphertext “FWMDIQ”.
20. Find the discrete log of 28 to the base 2 in *
37F using the Silver-Pohlig-
Hellman algorithm ( 2 is a generator of *
37F ).
·
2
5
Question Code: B80113 Sub Code: P16ELC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
WORLD CLASSICS IN TRANSLATION
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Who is the judge for the contest called by Pluto in „The Frogs‟?
a) Dionysus b) Aeschylus c) Xanthias d) Heracles
2. Dionysus dressed up as _________.
a) Xanthias b) Heracles c) Demeter d) Jupiter
3. Who is the god of winds in „The Aeneid‟?
a) Neptune b) Aeolus c) Juno d) Cupid
4. _______ is the god of desire in „The Aeneid‟.
a) Cupid b) Dido c) Venus d) Neptune
5. ________ is the husband of Anna.
a) Vronsky b) Karenin c) Levin d) Kitty
6. Who struggles with her role as a wife and mistress in the novel „Anna
Karenina‟?
a) Anna b) Kitty c) Dolly d) None of these
7. Who is the owner of the Bridge Inn?
a) Hans b) Barnabas c) Arthur d) Jeremiah
8. Who does help Josef K to find ways to go to the castle?
a) Olga b) Amalia
c) Hans, the student d) Arthur
9. _________ is a beautiful boy who comes in „Death in Venice‟.
a) Tadzio b) Jashu
c) Gustav Von Aschen Bach d) none of these
10. ________ is the theme of „Death in Venice‟.
a) lust b) love c) death d) frustration
Part – B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) „The Frogs‟ is the best example of Old Attic comedy – Discuss.
(or)
b) Analyse the main themes of „The Frogs‟.
12. a) Critically analyse the Women characters in „The Aeneid‟.
(or)
b) Write an essay on the character of Aeneas.
13. a) Is „Anna Karenina‟ a love story? Explain.
(or)
b) What is the main theme of „Anna Karenina?
14. a) Is „The Castle‟ a story of alienation, frustration and bureaucracy?
– Discuss
(or)
b) Why does Josef K feel isolated in „The Castle‟?
15. a) How is the conflict between rationality and irrationality developed
in „Death in Venice‟?
(or)
b) Write an essay on the character of Tadzio.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What is the irony discussed by Aristophanes in „The Frogs‟.
17. Critically examine the character of Turnus in „The Aeneid‟.
18. Write the critical appreciation of Tolstoy‟s „Anna Karenina‟
19. Is „The Castle‟ an allegorical novel? Explain.
20. Symbolism and irony on „Death in Venice‟
Question Code: A80114 Sub Code: P14ELC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE LITERATURE
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The term „General Literature‟ was coined by _________
a) Paul Van Tieghem b) Harry Levin
c) Weisstein d) Prawer
2. In Tamil, comparative literature is generally called ________.
a) Oppilakkiam b) Oppiyal Ilakkium
c) Oppumai Ilakkium d) Oppittu Ilakkiam
3. In the French sense, comparative literature is nothing but a statement of
________
a) French Literary Theory b) French Literary History
c) French Literary Criticism d) French Literary Genre
4. Harry Levin is ________.
a) a French comparatist b) a Russian comparatist
c) a Britist comparatist d) an American comparatist
5. The noun „theme‟ points to the _______
a) style b) meaning c) structure d) technique
6. _________ is a compilation of 50 scholars belonging to different
languages but concentrating on a single theme, the meeting of lovers at
dawn.
a) Eros b) Eos c) Echoes d) Erose
7. Northrop Frye‟s approach to genres is called _______
a) meta criticism b) intric criticism
c) intrinsic criticism d) extrinsic criticism
8. „Simple Forms‟ is a work on genres written by _________.
a) Andre Jolles b) Ulrich Weisstein
c) Allan Rodway d) Paul Van Tieghem
9. According to Freud, „Id‟ refers to _________
a) the conscious b) the unconscious
c) the pre-conscious d) the post-conscious
10. Marxism is associated with _______
a) Inductive materialism b) inductive spiritualism
c) dialectical materialism d) dialectical spiritualism
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) Give a brief account of National literature.
(or)
b) Write a note on General literature.
12. a) Write a short note on Russian school of comparative literature.
(or)
b) Why is French school considered narrow in its approach to
comparative literature?
13. a) Discuss briefly the views of Wellek and Warren on genre studies.
(or)
b) Mention any five difficulties observed by Weisstein in genre studies.
14. a) Summarize Trousson‟s views on themes and types.
(or)
b) Give a brief account of the following terms as discussed by Weisstein:
i) motif ii) situation iii) trait
iv) image v) leitmotif vi) topos
15. a) Discuss the theory of Collective Unconscious.
(or)
b) Explain the relationship between ideology and literature.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Write an essay on definition and scope of comparative literature.
17. Discuss in detail the role of different schools of comparative literature for
the growth of comparative literature.
18. What are S.S.Prawer‟s views on Thematology?
19. Write an essay on Freud‟s contribution to the study of literature.
20. Discuss elaborately the relevance of sociology in the study of literature.
Question Code: B80115 Sub Code: P16ELC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
LITERARY CRITICISM AND THEORY
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Whose work Abrams cite for pragmatic criticism?
a) Johnson b) Wordsworth c) Dryden d) Pope
2. Whom does T.S.Eliot answer in the essay The Functions of criticism?
a) F.R. Leavis b) I.A. Richard c) Murry d) W.B.Yeats
3. According to Ransom the best critics of poetry are the __________
a) poets b) dramatists c) essayists d) novelists
4. The study of the principles of literature, its categories and criteria is
known as________
a) literary study b) literary theory
c) literary history d) philology
5. What is the first thing to be said of Restoration drama according to
L.C.Knight is _________
a) dull b) interesting c) tragic d) comic
6. Apart from Politics, yet another cause for the decline of language is
__________
a) nouns b) verbs
c) phrases d) economic cause
7. Jung calls psychology as a study of the _________ process.
a) thinking b) scientific c) psychic d) mind
8. Archetypal criticism owes its origin to James G. Frazer‟s __________.
a) The Golden Bough b) The Golden gate
c) The Golden Bowl d) The Golden Arrow
9. In many psychological novels, the hero is described from __________
a) outside b) within c) outdoors d) indoors
10. Freud revealed through psychoanalysis that a creative writer was not a
__________
a) ghost b) neurotic c) mere artist d) critic
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) How does Abrams analyse the four coordinates of literary theories.
(or)
b) What is the function of criticism according to T.S.Eliot?
12. a) Who do have the competence of critics according to John Crow
Ransom?
(or)
b) Bring out Wellesk‟s definition of literary theory.
13. a) How does L.C.Knight‟s judge Restoration comedies?
(or)
b) Why does Orwell criticise English as ugly an inaccurate during his
time?
14. a) Bring out the examples given by Jung for the visionary mode of
writing.
(or)
b) Enumerate the importance of myth.
15. a) Explain the relationship between fantasies and Day Dreams.
(or)
b) Cite Freud‟s influence on other writers.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Summarize Abram‟s orientation of critical theories.
17. How does John Crow Ransom view the critical enterprise?
18. What set of conventions are appropriated in Restoration comedies?
19. What is Yung‟s contribution to literature?
20. How does Trilling trace the legacy of Sigmund Freud?
Question Code: B80307 Sub Code: P16ELE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEACHING
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. English Language Teaching is a branch of ________.
a) Applied Linguistics b) Anatomy
c) Archaeology d) Applied Physics
2. ________ function conveys information to the listeners.
a) Phatic b) Creative c) Referential d) Educative
3. ________ refers to an unconscious process that involves the naturalistic
development of language proficiency through using language for
meaningful communication.
a) Learning b) Development
c) Teaching d) Acquisition
4. The _________ hypothesis states that learners acquire language only
when they are willing to acquire and when they are not suffering from any
mental worries.
a) Input b) Affective Filter
c) Natural Order d) Monitor
5. In the __________ method the language to be taught is viewed as a
system of rules seen in the text and the rules are mentioned and
followed by practice.
a) Grammar-Translation b) Direct
c) Dr. Michael West d) The Silent Way
6. The Language learner must master the sound system of the language,
inflections of words, word order, and use of structural words in the
________ Approach.
a) Situational b) Dr. Michael West
c) Structural d) Notional
7. Understanding the relationship of words in a passage is a micro skill
under the macro skill _________.
a) Writing b) Speaking c) Listening d) Reading
8. Note- taking and Note- making from the reference books is an activity
for developing ________ skill.
a) Speaking b) Writing c) Reading d) Listening
9. _________ Grammar is application – oriented.
a) Formal b) Advanced c) Basic d) Functional
10. ________ tests are used to measure the degree of success of the
instructional programme.
a) Achievement b) Aptitude c) Diagnostic d) Proficiency
Part – B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11. a) What is the aim of teaching English as a Second Language?
(or)
b) Discuss some of the problems faced by the teachers of English
language.
12. a) Write a note on the attitudes of errors in English.
(or)
b) How is language learning different from language acquisition?
13. a) Explain the salient features of the Direct Method of Language
Learning.
(or)
b) Discuss the factors that contribute to Communicative Language
Learning.
14. a) List out some of the activities for developing reading comprehension.
(or)
b) How can we develop speaking skills in students?
15. a) Explain the Objectives and Methods of Teaching Prose Lessons.
(or)
b) Write briefly on the characteristics of a Good Test.
Part – C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the aims and objectives of English teaching in India.
17. Explain the various theories of Language Learning.
18. Discuss the principles and procedures of Situational Approach.
19. Why should we teach language skills integratively?
20. Write in detail on the different ways of teaching grammar
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Question Code : B20106 Sub Code: U16MAC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SEQUENCES AND SERIES
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. nn 2
1lim
= ________.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
2. The sequence 0, –1, 0, –2, 0, .... is
a) convergent b) divergent
c) bounded below but not bounded above
d) bounded above but not bounded below
3. ._______ !
lim nn n
n
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
4. 0 _______ log
lim
pifn
npn
a) – b) –1 c) 0 d) 1
5. The series ._____ 5
4
5
2
5
4
5
2432
a) 7 b) 12
7 c)
7
12 d) 12
6. _______ 14
12n
a) 1 b) 2 c) 2
1 d)
4
1
7. By ratio test the series na converges if ______.
a) 1 lim1
n
n
n a
a b) 1 lim
1
n
n
n a
a
c) 1 lim1
n
n
n a
a d) 1 lim
1
n
n
n a
a
8. The series n
xn
diverges if ______.
a) 1 x b) 1 x c) 1 x d) 1 x
9. The series 2 3
)1( 1
n
nn _______
a) converges b) diverges
c) oscillates d) none
10. The series n
n)1( is _______.
a) conditionally convergent b) absolutely convergent
c) oscillates d) none
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) If aan )( and 0 na for all n then prove .0 a
(or)
b) Prove : A sequence cannot converge to two different limits.
12. a) Prove : A sequence )( na converges to l )( naiff is bounded and l
is the only limit point of the sequence.
(or)
b) Show that the sequence
n
n
1 1 converges.
13. a) Apply cauchy's general principle of convergence prove that
1
)1( 3
1
2
1 1
n
n is convergent.
(or)
b) Prove : The series pn
1 converges if p > 1 and diverges if 1 p .
14. a) Test the convergence of the series nxn
n
1where x is any positive
real number.
(or)
b) State and prove Cauchy's root test.
15. a) State and prove Dirichlets test.
(or)
b) Show that the cauchy product of two convergent series need not be
convergent.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Show that (i) 1 lim1
n
na where a > 0 is any real number.
(ii) 1 lim1
n
nn
17. State and prove cauchys second limit theorem.
18. State and prove the cauchy's general principle of convergence of series.
19. State and prove Kummer's test.
20. State and prove Merten's Theorem.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. A particle is projected so as to graze the tops of two parallel walls,
the first of height „a‟ at a distance b from the point of projection and
the second of height b at a distance „a‟ from the point of projection.
If the path of particle lies in a plane perpendicular to both the walls,
find the range on the horizontal plane and show that the angle of
projection exceeds tan–1
3.
17. Show that for a given velocity of projection the maximum range
down an inclined plane of inclination α bears to the maximum range
up the inclined plane the ratio sin 1
sin 1.
18. Two equal marble balls A, B lie in a horizontal circular groove at
the opposite ends of a diameter, A is projected along the groove and
after time t, impinges on B. Show that a second impact takes place
after a further intervale
t 2.
19. Define SHM and show that the energy of a system executing S.H.M
is proportional to the square of the amplitude and of the frequency.
20. The velocities of a particle along and perpendicular to a radius
vector from a fixed origin are 2 r and 2 where and λ are
constants. Show that the equation to the path of the particle is
2 2
rC . Where C is a constant. Show also that the
accelerations along and perpendicular to the radius vector are
rrand
rr
32
4232 2
2 .
Question Code : B20303 / A20302 Sub Code: U16MAE41 / BMAME41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DYNAMICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Time taken by a projectile to reach the greatest height
a) g
u sin b)
g
u 22 sin c)
g
u
2
sin d)
g
u
2
sin 22
2. A bomb was released from an aeroplane when it was at a height of
1900m above a point A on the ground and was moving horizontally with
a speed of 100m per sec. The time from A of the point where the bomb
strikes the ground
a) 10 secs b) 20 secs c) 15 secs d) None
3. Time to reach the greatest distance of the projectile from the inclined
plane is
a) cos
)( sin
g
u b)
cos 2
)( sin
g
u
c) in 2
)( sin
sg
u b)
cos
)( sin
g
u
4. The loss in kinetic energy due to the direct impact of two smooth
spheres of masses m1 and m2 moving with velocities u and 2u is
a) 21
22
21 ) 1( )2(
2
1
mm
euumm b)
21
22
21 )1 ( )2(
2
1
mm
euumm
c) 21
22
21 )1( )2(
2
1
mm
euumm d)
21
22
21 )1 ( )2(
2
1
mm
euumm
5. The inelastic sphere slides along the plane with velocity
a) u sin α b) u cos β c) u sin β d) u cos α
6. If u1 , u2 are the velocities of two smooth spheres before direct
impact and v1, v2 are the velocities after impact then the value of
v1–v2 is
a) ) ( 21 uue b) ) ( 12 uue
c) ) ( 21 uue d) ) ( 21 uue
7. The periodic time of a simple pendulum is
a) g
2 b)
g 2
c)
g 2 d)
g
2
8. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is
a) xnx 2 b) xnx 2
c) xnx 2 d) xnx 2
9. The areal velocity of a particle moving in a central orbit is
a) r b) 0 c) 2r d) 2
1 2r
10. The magnitude of the radial component of acceleration along radius
vector is
a) 2 rr b) 2 rr c) 2 rr d) 22 rr
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Show that the path of a projectile is a parabola.
(or)
b) If the greatest height attained by the particle is a quarter of its
range on the horizontal plane through the point of projection, find
the angle of projection.
12. a) If a projectile is projected with an initial velocity u at an angle α to the
horizontal plane, find the range on the inclined plane.
(or)
b) A smooth sphere whose mass is „m‟ and coefficient of elasticity is „e‟
impinges obliquely on a smooth fixed plane. Find its velocity and
direction of motion after impact.
13. a) A ball of mass 8gm moving with a velocity of 10 cm per sec.
Impinges directly on another of mass 24 gm, moving at 2 cm per sec; in
the same direction. If 2
1 e , then find the velocities after impact. Also
calculate the loss in kinetic energy.
(or)
b) A smooth sphere of mass m1 impinges obliquely with velocity u1 on
another smooth sphere of mass m2 moving with velocity u2. If the
directions of motion before impact make angles α1 and α2 respectively
with the line joining the centres of the spheres and if the coefficient of
restitution be e, then find the velocities and directions of motion after
impact.
14. a) A particle is moving with SHM and while making an oscillation from
one extreme position to the other, its distances from the centre of
oscillation at 3 consecutive seconds are 321 ,, xxx . Prove that the period
of oscillation is
2
311
2 cos
2
x
xx.
(or)
b) Find the resultant of two SHM‟s of the same period and in the same
straight line.
15. a) Derive the differential equation of central orbits in polar coordinates.
(or)
b) Show that the path of a point p which possesses two constant
velocities u and v, the first of which is in fixed direction and the second
of which is perpendicular to the radius op drawn from a fixed point O, is
a conic whose focus is O and whose eccentricity is u/v.
Question Code : B20205 Sub Code: U16MAA41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING WITH C++
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Dynamic binding also known as _______.
a) Box object b) Triangle objects
c) Late binding d) Early binding
2. An exit – controlled loop is ______.
a) for b) if c) switch d) do–while
3. Function Prototype is a _______ statement in the calling program.
a) template b) inherits
c) declaration d) prototyping
4. The prototyping in C++ is ______.
a) essential b) inspired
c) variables d) argument–list
5. The class declaration is similar to a ________ declaration.
a) data b) struct c) private d) public
6. Which one of the following is the format for calling a member function?
a) object–name.function–name (actual–arguments);
b) object name–function name (actual– arguments);
c) object – name*function name ; (actual–arguments);
d) object – name*function–name; (actual–arguments);
7. The membership operator is ______.
a) b) c) ? d) <
8. The scope resolution operator is _________.
a) << b) >> c) : : d) =
9. An abstract class is one that is not used to create _______.
a) Datas b) Objects
c) Virtual base d) Ancestor class
10. A stream is a sequence of _______.
a) input device b) output device
c) input stream d) bytes
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain Data Abstraction and Encapsulation.
(or)
b) Write a program to print even numbers from 2 to 50 using While
statement.
12. a) Write a program to check whether a given numbers is even or odd
using if and else statement.
(or)
b) Discuss about the Return by Reference.
13. a) Write the special characteristics of friend function.
(or)
b) Give some special characteristics of Constructor functions.
14. a) Write a program to get a Complex representation for given any
two numbers using overloading + operator.
(or)
b) Explain the conversion from Class to Basic type.
15. a) Write a program to find the product of two numbers using multiple
inheritance.
(or)
b) Give some manipulations and their meanings.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain Expressions and their types.
17. Discuss about the function overloading in OOP.
18. Write a program using member function to check whether a given
number is even or odd.
19. Give the rules for overloading operators.
20. Explain Hierarchical Inheritance.
8. A company wishes to assign 3 jobs to 3 machines in such a way that
each job is assigned to some machine and no machine works on
more than one job. The cost of assigning job i to machine j is given
by the matrix below:
786
875
678
Draw the associated network, formulate the network LPP
and find the minimum cost of making the assignment.
Question Code : B20502 Sub Code: U16MAN41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES
Time : 2 Hrs Part A Max. Marks : 75
Answer ALL questions, 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Consider the following problem faced by a production planner in a
soft drink plant. He has two bottling machines A and B. A is designed
for 8 – ounce bottles and B for 16 – ounce bottles. However, each can be
used on both types with some loss of efficiency. The following are the
data available:
Machine 8 – ounce bottles 16 – ounce bottles
A 100/minute 40/minute
B 60/minute 75/minute
Each machine can be run 8 – hours per day, 5 days per week. Profit
on a 8 – ounce bottle is 25 paise and on a 16 – ounce bottle is 35 paise.
Weekly production of the drink cannot exceed 3,00,000 ounces and the
market can absorb 25,000 8 – ounce bottles and 7,000 16 – ounce
bottles per week. The planner wishes to maximize his profit subject, of
course, to all the production and marketing restrictions. Formulate this as
a linear programming problem.
(or)
b) Use the graphical method to solve the following LPP:
Minimize 21 2 xxz subject to the constraints :
10 3 21 xx ; 6 21 xx ; 2 21 xx , 0 , 21 xx .
2. a) Find the maximum value of 321 2 107 xxxz subject to the
constraints
0 3 ; 56 16 ; 736 14 3213214321 xxxxxxxxxx
0 , , , 4321 xxxx .
(or)
b) Use simplex method to maximize 21 35 xxz subject to the
constraints 3 ,4 21 xx , 18 2 21 xx ; 921 xx ; 0 , 21 xx
3. a) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P.
Using the matrix minima method:
D1 D2 D3 D4 Capacity
O1 1 2 3 4 6
O2 4 3 2 0 8
O3 0 2 2 1 10
Demand 4 6 8 6
(or)
b) Find the initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P. Using
VAM, given the cost matrix.
D1 D2 D3 D4 Supply
S1 20 25 28 31 200
S2 32 28 32 41 180
S3 18 35 24 32 110
Demand 150 40 180 170
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Let us assume that you have inherited Rs.1,00,000 from your
father–in–law that can be invested in a combination of only two stock
portfolios, with the maximum investment allowed in either portfolio set
at Rs.75,000. The first portfolio has an average rate of return of 10%,
whereas the second has 20%. In terms of risk factors associated with
these portfolios, the first has a sick rating of A (on a scale from 0 to 10) ,
and the second has 9. Since you wish to maximize your return, you will
not accept an average rate of return below 12% or a risk factor above 6.
Hence, you then face the important question. How much should you
invest in each portfolio?
Formulate this as a Linear programming Problem and Solve it by
Graphical Method.
5. Use Simplex method to solve the L.P.P :
21 10 4 xxzMax subject to the constraints :
50 2 21 xx ; 100 5 2 21 xx ; 90 3 2 21 xx ; 0 , 21 xx .
6. Use Simplex method to solve the L.P.P :
21 3 2 xxzMax subject to the constraints :
4 21 xx ; 1 21 xx ; 5 2 21 xx ; 0 , 21 xx
7. A departmental head has four subordinates and four tasks to be
performed. How should the tasks be allocated, one to a man, so as to
minimize the total man – hours ?
E F G H
A 18 26 17 11
B 13 28 14 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
Men
Tasks
Question Code : B25106 / A25106 Sub Code: U16NDC41 BNDCR41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NUTRITION SCIENCE
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N&D with CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. __________ is known as milk sugar.
a) Maltose b) Lactose c) Galactose d) Sucrose
2. Which of the following is soluble fibre?
a) Hemicellulose b) Gums
c) Pectin d) All of these
3. ________ in the blood can serve as buffers.
a) Amino acids b) Proteins c) Fat d) None of these
4. ________ is an example for incomplete protein
a) Wheat protein b) Milk casein
c) Rice protein d) Gelatin
5. Benedict oxy calorimeter is used to determine __________
a) BMR b) REE
c) Energy expenditure d) Energy value of food
6. Bile is stored and released from _____.
a) Liver b) gallbladder
c) Pancreas d) None of the above
7. Peculiar smoky appearance of the conjunctiva are the symptoms of
________.
a) Conjunctival xerosis b) Keratomalacia
c) Corneal xerosis d) Bitot‟s spot
8. Thiamin deficiency can lead to _________.
a) Beri beri b) Pellagra
c) Blindness d) Angular somatitis
9. Goitre is the deficiency of _______.
a) Calcium b) Iodine c) Iron d) Zinc
10. Which of the following is symptom of iron deficiency?
a) Lassitude b) Insomia
c) Palpitation d) All the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What is carbohydrate? Explain the digestion and absorption
process.
(or)
b) Write short notes on classification of carbohydrate.
12. a) Give an account on protein deficiency.
(or)
b) Briefly Explain about the function of protein.
13. a) Write a short note on the factors which are affecting BMR.
(or)
b) Write a short note on various classification of fat.
14. a) What are water soluble vitamins? Explain the function of vitamin
C.
(or)
b) Give an account on the functions of vitamin K.
15. a) Write short note on the functions of potassium.
(or)
b) How water is distributed in the body? Explain.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. What is dietary fibre? Explain the role of dietary in the prevention of
disease.
17. Elaborate on the classification, function, digestion and absorption of
protein.
18. Explain bomb calorimeter with suitable diagram.
19. Discuss in detail the function, deficiency and food sources of vitamin A.
20. Explain the function, deficiency and food sources of phosphorus.
Question Code : B25303 Sub Code: U16NDE41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FAMILY RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N&D with CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Human resources are ______.
a) Time b) Money
c) Knowledge d) Goods
2. Which one of the following reduces fatigue?
a) Level of motivation b) Setting immediate goals
c) Rest period d) All the above
3. ______ is the first step in decision making.
a) Recognizing b) Identification
c) Indication d) Formulating
4. Which one of the following is the kind of income?
a) Money income b) Realized income
c) Psychic income d) All the above
5. The movement of torso are termed as _______.
a) Pedal effort b) Torsal effort
c) Crusel effort d) Cling effort
6. The other name for relaxing the time is called as _______.
a) Freeing b) Engaged
c) Leisure d) None
7. An organized movement in the principles of design is _______.
a) Balance b) Rhythm
c) Harmony d) Proportion
8. Name of the colour is _______.
a) Hue b) Value
c) Intensity d) Dullness
9. Low shallow arrangements are called as _______.
a) Moribana b) Ikebana
c) Nagaire d) Japanese
10. A center of interest should be created to focuses _______.
a) Center point b) Corners
c) Horizontal view d) Focal point
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain group discussion in a family.
(or)
b) Classify the various resources of a family.
12. a) Describe the formal techniques in work simplification.
(or)
b) Write down the Mundel‟s classes of changes.
13. a) Explain the importance of time management.
(or)
b) List down the various steps in managing the budget of a family.
14. a) Explain with suitable examples about the harmony, emphasis and
rhythm of a design.
(or)
b) Describe the quality and types of colour used in a design.
15. a) Draw the furniture arrangement in a bed room and study room.
(or)
b) Explain Japanese arrangement with suitable examples.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain Value, Goals and Standards of a house.
17. Describe the work simplification and explain the informal techniques.
18. Illustrate the Time management of a house with suitable examples.
19. Explain in detail about the elements of design.
20. Mention the basic principles of flower arrangement along with used
accessories.
Question Code : B25204 / A25204 Sub Code: U16NDA41 / BNDAS41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
WEB TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (N&D with CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?
a) <head> b) <title> c) <html> d) <document>
2. The body tag used after ______.
a) Title tag b) HEAD tag
c) EM tag d) FORM tag
3. There are ______ ways of labelling destination using Anchor.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
4. Which of the following tag is used to mark a beginning of paragraph?
a) <TD> b) <br> c) <P> d) <TR>
5. _______ is used to indicate a list items as contained in ordered, or non
ordered list styles.
a) <fn> b) <LI> c) <link> d) None
6. Which of these tags are all <table> tags?
a) <table><head><tfoot> b) <table><tr><td>
c) <table><tr><tt> d) <thread><body><tr>
7. Which of the following is not an attribute of the FRAME tag?
a) SCROLLING b) AUTO
c) MARGINWIDTH d) FRAMEBORDER
8. Which of the following best indicates the standard attributes
specified when defining a FRAME?
a) SRC and NAME b) SRC, NAME and ROW
c) NAME and FRAMESET d) BODY, SRC and TITLE
9. When form data contains sensitive or personal information then
which method is more preferable?
a) Get method b) Post method
c) Host method d) Put method
10. XHTML stands for?
a) Extensible HyperText Markup Language
b) Extended HyperText Markup Language
c) Extensible HighText Markup Language
d) None
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What is Anchor? Explain.
(or)
b) Write short notes on generation of HTML.
12. a) Write short notes on the different level of heading supported by
HTML.
(or)
b) Write short notes on paragraph tag.
13. a) What are the attributes of Table Tag? Explain.
(or)
b) Explain nested list.
14. a) What is Frame? Explain.
(or)
b) What is nested framesets? Explain.
15. a) Write short notes on forms.
(or)
b) Write short notes on drop down list.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. What is HTML? Explain the structure of HTML program with example.
17. How to include the Image and pictures in web page? Explain with
example.
18. What is Ordered and Unordered List? Explain.
19. Explain web page design project with example.
20. Explain :
a) Action attribute
b) Method attribute
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
4. Bring out the RDA value for pregnant and lactating women.
5. Give the RDA value for an adolescent girl and boy.
6. What are the nutritional problems of an adolescent?
7. Describe about the diabetes mellitus.
8. Write an essay on cardio vascular diseases.
Question Code : B25502 Sub Code: U16NDN41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
NON MAJOR ELECTIVE
NUTRITION AND HEALTH - II
Time : 2 Hrs Part A Max. Marks : 75
Answer ALL questions, 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) Give the ICMR RDA for an adult man doing sedentary activity.
(or)
b) What are the factors considering RDA?
2. a) Give dietary advice for an anemic adolescent girl.
(or)
b) What are the reasons for additional nutrient requirements for an
adolescent girl.
3. a) List out the causative factors of hyper tension?
(or)
b) What are the clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus?
19. Describe the Twelve principles of Green chemistry.
20. a) Write a short note on umpolung synthesis
b) Explain the schematic analysis of the trans – 9 – methyl –1 –
decalone and 2,4 – dimethyl – 2 – hydroxyl pentanoic acid.
Question Code : B62110 Sub Code: P16CHC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - IV
MOLECULAR REARRANGEMENTS AND SYNTHETIC METHODS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The rearrangement of aromatic α – diketones in the presence of
hydroxide ion to α – hydroxyl acid is known as ______ rearrangement.
a) Favorshi b) Claisen
c) Benzil – Benzilic acid d) Sommelet – Hauser
2. Name the rearrangement involved in
a) Favorshi b) Hoffmann
c) Curtius d) Benzidine
3. Intermediate formed during the Paterno– Buchi reaction is ______.
a) Carbene b) Nitrene
c) Biradical d) Carbocation
4. Photochemical reaction of ketones and aldehydes which results in fission
of the C – CO bond followed by elimination of CO are classified as
______ process.
a) Norrish type II b) Norrish type – I
c) Barton reaction d) Williamson
H2N H+ H
N
H
N NH2
5. The molecular formula of cholesterol is _______.
a) C27 H46 O2 b) C27 H46 O
c) C26 H46 O2 d) C26 H45 O
6. Female sexharmone is _______.
a) Testosterone b) Progesterone
c) Roffinose d) Galactose
7. Dimethyl carbonate is an example for ________.
a) Anaesthetic b) Vitamin
c) Hormone d) Green Solvent
8. Green chemistry is best described as ________.
a) Chemistry for sustainable development of our planet.
b) Chemistry relating to biological issues
c) Chemistry relating to environmental issues
d) Chemistry of plants and plant products.
9. The structure of the molecule is determined step by step along with
responsible pathways to successively simple compounds accepted as
starting material is called as ______.
a) Quantitative analysis b) Retro synthetic analysis
c) Semimicro analysis d) Convergent synthesis
10. An idea which identifies potential starting materials and reactions
that can lead to desired molecule is ________.
a) configuration b) conformation
c) analysis d) synthetic plan
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Discuss the mechanism of pinacol – pinacolone and cope
rearrangements.
(or)
b) Give an account on the features and mechanism of Beckmann and
Benzidine rearrangements.
12. a) Explain the various photo physical processes with the help of
Jablonskii diagram.
(or)
b) Explain (i) Paterno Buchi reaction with mechanism and
(ii) Electro cyclic reactions.
13. a) Elucidate the structure of Morphine.
(or)
b) Write a brief note on sex hormones and their mode of action.
14. a) What do you meant by Green chemistry? What are green catalyst,
green reagent and green solvents? Give suitable examples. Mention their
uses.
(or)
b) What are the differences between conventional heating and
microwave heating? What are the advantages of microwave heating over
conventional heating?
15. a) Explain Robinson annulation reaction.
(or)
b) Give a brief account on regionselectivity, diastereoselectivity and
enantioselectivity.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the mechanism behind
(i) Wolf (ii) Stevens (iii) Claisen rearrangements
17. a) Explain Norrish type – I and Norrish type – II reactions.
b) What are pericyclic reactions? How are they classified? Explain
Huckel – Mobius method in brief.
18. a) What are the Steroids, hormones and alkaloids? Give suitable
examples.
b) Elucidate the structure of Cholesterol.
Question Code : B62111 / A62111 Sub Code: P16CHC42 / P14CHC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY IV
NUCLEAR AND ORGANOMETALLIC CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The number of protons in a negatively charged atom (anion) is ______.
a) more than the atomic number of the element
b) less than the atomic number of the element
c) more than the number of electrons in the atom
d) less than the number of electrons in the atom
2. The half – life period of a radioactive element is 100 days and after 500
days, one gm of the element will be reduced to _______ gm.
a) 1/100 b) 1/500 c) 1/32 d) 1/64
3. What is the meaning of the term "critical mass"?
a) This refers to the mass of the “critical” elements in a reactor, i.e, the
uranium or plutonium.
b) This refers to the minimum amount of fissionable material required
to sustain a chain reaction.
c) This is the amount of mass needed to make a power reactor
economically feasible.
d) This is the material which is just on the verge of becoming
radioactive.
4. Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is ________.
a) radioactive compound b) non radioactive
c) tracer d) linear active compound
5. Lanthanide contraction is observed due to increase in________.
a) Effective nuclear charge b) Volume of 4f orbital
c) Atomic radii d) Atomic number
6. Which of similarity is seen in Lanthanides & actinides?
a) Electronic configuration b) Formation of complexes
c) Ionisation energy d) Oxidation states
7. Weight loss mechanism in TGA is by ________.
a) Absorption b) Oxidation
c) Desorption d) None
8. Lines which appear in absorption and emission spectrum are
______.
a) same b) far apart
c) different d) very different
9. In going from the linear to the bent (–N-O) system the lone-pair of
electrons have some________character.
a) non–bonding b) anti–bonding
c) bonding d) IT–bonding
10. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is associated with________.
a) Oxidation of olifins b) Hydroformylation
c) Oligomerization d) Olefin polymerization
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write a note on three quantum numbers.
(or)
b) What do you mean by auger emission? Explain with example.
12. a) Explain the theory of nuclear fission with suitable examples.
(or)
b) Discuss the applications of radioactive isotopes in chemical and
analytical fields?
13. a) Explain the lanthanide contraction and its conseqences.
(or)
b) Write a note on
i) Electronic configuration of actinides.
ii) Oxidation state of actinides.
14. a) Discuss the principle and applications of TGA.
(or)
b) Writ a note on amperometric titrations.
15. a) Discuss olefin and acetylene complexes.
(or)
b) Explain the synthesis, structure and bonding in metal nitrosyls .
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. a) Explain the half life period of a radioactive substance.
b) Calculate the time in which the activity of a radioactive substance
reduces to 90% of its original value. The half life period of a radioactive
substance is 1.4x1010
years.
17. Write a note on
a) The energy from nuclear fusion.
b) Thermo nuclear reactions in stars.
18. Discuss the occurrence and various methods of extraction of lanthanides
from monazite sand
19. Elaborate the principle and applications of any four spectro analytical
methods.
20. Write notes on.
a) Wilkinson catalyst b) Oxoprocess
c) Wacker process and d) Ziegler-Natta catalyst
Question Code : B62112 / A62112 Sub Code: P16CHC43 / P14CHC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY IV
CHEMICAL KINETICS , SURFACE, BIOPHYSICAL AND PHOTO CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Lindemann theory says :„All unimolecular reactions must become
second order at sufficiently _________‟.
a) high pressure b) high temperature
c) low pressure d) low temperature
2. The chain length of any reaction is represented by ______.
b) = rate of overall reaction / rate of initiation step
c) = rate of overall reaction / rate of propagation step
d) = rate of overall reaction / rate of termination step
e) = rate of overall reaction x rate of initiation step
3. The relaxation time in T- jump or P- jump method is obtained as the time
required to decay _______.
a) ∆xo completely zero b) to half of its value
c) ∆xo to 1/e of ∆ xo d) to 75% of its value
4. In the neutralization reaction of strong acid by strong base in aqueous
medium, t0.5 value is _______.
a) 10-6
sec or less b) 10-6
min or less
c) 10-6
hour or less d)10-6
hour or high
5. The heat evolved in chemisorption is
a) 1000 kJmol-1
b) 600 kJmol-1
c) 300 – 500 kJmol-1
d) 650 kJmol-1
6. Which of the following substance inhibit the decomposition of
ammonia on platinum?
a) nitrogen b) oxygen
c) fluorine d) hydrogen
7. The Onsager reciprocal relation is ________.
a) Lij+ Lji = 0 b) Lij = Lji
c) (Lij)2 = Lji d) Lij = (Lji)
2
8. Choose the compound which shows molecular recognition :
a) Cyclodextrin b) NaCl
c) KCl d) I2
9. Hydrated electrons are in ________ color.
a) orange b) violet
c) red d) blue
10. Internal conversion is _______.
a) radiative process b) non-radiative process
c) thermal process d) either (a) or (b)
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Account on : (i) Chain length of a reaction
(ii) Explosion limit in H2 – O2 reaction.
(or)
b) With the reaction mechanism, deduce the rate law and rate
constant expression for the decomposition of N2O5.
12. a) Compare continuous and Stopped flow methods.
(or)
b) Explain the study of chemical kinetics of fast reactions by
Relaxation method
13. a) Write Langmuir adsorption isotherm equation and explain.
(or)
b) Discusses the factors that influence the adsorption if gases on solids.
14. a) Write the role of ATP in bioenergetics.
(or)
b) Discuss the Mossbauer effect in haemoglobin.
15. a) Discuss the experimental set up of dosimeter.
(or)
b) Deduce Stern–Volmer equation and list its applications.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. a) Discuss the principle of microscopic reversibility.
b) How do the solvent influences the dielectric constant of the solution.
c) Obtain Bronsted Bjerrum equation.
17. a) Discuss the experimental set up of Flash photolysis.
b) Highlight the importance of Ultrasonic absorption method.
18. a) What are micelles ? How do they classified ? Give two examples for
each one.
b) Explain the term Critical Micellar Concentration.
19. a) How do cyclodextrin and zeolite exhibit the phenomenon of molecular
recognition in organic chemistry.
b) Hint on : Biological energy conversion in catabolism and anabolism.
20. a) Write a note on : (i) Chemical actinometer (ii) Storage of solar energy.
b) Define the term : G–value.
List any three sources of high energy radiations.
What are hydrated electron? Mention its colour.
Question Code : B62308 / A62308 Sub Code: P16CHE42 / P14CHE42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
POLYMER CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In Group transfer polymerization the catalyst used is _____.
a) TiCl4 b) Na c) Al (Et)3 d) Trimethyl silyl cyanide
2. Nylon-6 is can be prepared from _______.
a) Styrene b) Ethylene
c) Ethylene glycol d) Caprolactam
3. Which one of the following is a linear one?
a) LDPE b) HDPE c) Bakelite d) none
4. Osmotic pressure method is used to determine _______.
a) nM b) WM c) VM d) none
5. Tg is related to the Tm for the unsymmetrical polymers
a) Tg = 2/3Tm b) Tg = 1/2Tm
c) Tg = 1/3Tm d) Tg = 3/4 Tm
6. Suspension polymerization is also called as _______.
a) Pearl polymerization b) Melt polycondensation
c) Reinforcing polymerization d) Emulsion polymerization
7. Which polymerization technique gives the largest possible per reactor
volume?
a) Mass b) Solution c) Suspension d) Emulsion
8. Cracks development in rubber on prolonged storage is due to
_______.
a) cross-linking b) Hydrolysis
c) vulcanization d) Oxidation
9. Which of the following is a thermoplastic?
a) Nylon b) Bakelite c) PVC d) Terylene
10. Phthalate esters are used in polymer industry as________.
a) Disinfectants b) colorants
c) flame retardants d) Plasticizers
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the Ring opening polymerisation with suitable examples.
(or)
b) Propose the free radical mechanism of addition polymerization
with suitable example.
12. a) Write notes on Nylons and polyesters.
(or)
b) How can you synthesize polycarbonate and Bakelite? Give a
detailed account of their applications.
13. a) Explain the geometrical isomerism in polymers.
(or)
b) Write notes on number average and weight average molecular
weights.
14. a) Explain in detail about the conducting polymers.
(or)
b) Differentiate emulsion and suspension polymerization.
15. a) Write notes on silicone polymers.
(or)
b) Write notes on Extrusion and Compression moulding.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. (i) How can you prepare polyethylene by zeiglar Natta polymerization?
(ii) Differentiate condensation and addition polymerization?
17. Explain in detail about the synthesis, properties and applications of the
following polymers?
i) Bakelite
ii) Polystyrene
iii) PVC
iv) Melamine – formaldehyde resin
18. What is Tg? (i) What are the factors affecting Tg? (ii) Calculate
wn M&M of a polymer containing equal number of molecules of
molecular weights 50,000; 1,00,000; 1,50,000 and 2,00,000.
19. (i) Explain in detail about the oxidative degradation of Rubber.
(ii)Discuss the biomedical application of polymers.
20. Write short notes on :
i) Plasticizers
ii) Die casting
iii) Rotational casting
iv) Reinforcing
Question Code : B70105 Sub Code: P16CAC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C. A Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ________ divides the image into many sub–regions and extracts the
region.
a) Image compression b) Image enhancement
c) Image segmentation d) Pattern recognition
2. ________ is the process which reduces size of data file by retaining the
necessary information.
a) Image compression b) Image enhancement
c) Image segmentation d) Pattern recognition
3. If the relations aRb and bRc exists, it implies that the relationship aRc
also exits. This is known as a _______ relation.
a) reflective b) symmetric
c) transitive d) closure
4. Histogram______ tries to flattens the histogram to create better quality.
a) matching b) equalization
c) stretching d) sliding
5. A disturbance that causes fluctuations in pixel values is ______.
a) Noise b) lines c) filter d) edges
6. Vector quantization is based on ______ of data.
a) intensity b) pixels
c) blocks d) size
7. The process of extracting the ROI is image ______.
a) filtering b) segmentation
c) compression d) thinning
8. Seed pixel is the ______ point of the region growing algorithm.
a) center b) bottom
c) main d) starting
9. ______ is the process of removing the irrelevant pixels.
a) filtering b) segmentation
c) compression d) thinning
10. Pseudocolour images are _______ images.
a) artificially colour added b) segmented
c) preprocessed
d) naturally enhanced with colour
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the various types of images based on color? Discuss.
(or)
b) Discuss the levels of image processing operations.
12. a) Explain about the following image quality factors.
i) Contrast ii) Brightness
iii) Spatial resolution iv) Noise
(or)
b) What are the various Arithmetic operations used in Image
processing? Explain in detail.
13. a) Discuss the types of image degradation.
(or)
b) Explain how Huffman coding is helpful in compression process?
14. a) Describe the various stages of Edge Detection.
(or)
b) Explain about validation of segmentation algorithms.
15. a) Explain Boundary Extraction process.
(or)
b) Discuss about RGB color model.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the following fundamental image operations.
i) Image enhancement ii) Image compression
iii) Image Restoration iv) Image synthesis
v) Image analysis
17. Describe spatial filtering concepts. Explain Image Smoothing Spatial
Filters in detail.
18. Explain the classification of image compression algorithms.
i) Entropy Encoding ii) Predictive coding
iii) Transform iv) Layered coding
19. Discuss about the principles of Thresholding and algorithms involved in
this process.
20. Explain the following Full colour processing.
i) Colour Transformation
ii) Colour Image segmentations
Question Code : B70106 Sub Code: P16CAC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
E-COMMERCE AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Time : 3 Hrs M.C. A Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which of the following describes E–commerce?
a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business manually
c) Sales of goods d) Purchase
2. Which of the following is part of the four main types of E–commerce?
a) B2B b) B2C c) C2B d) All of the above
3. Porter's value chain theory was introduced in _______.
a) 1980 b) 1985 c) 1990 d) 1995
4. A strategy to develop capabilities in company value chain is called
_______.
a) Value resource b) Substitute resource
c) Strategic resource d) Resource modelling
5. What is a function of e – commerce?
a) Marketing b) Advertising
c) Online sales d) All of the above
6. EDI standard
a) Is not easily available
b) Defines several hundred transaction sets for various business forms
c) Is not popular
d) Defines only a transmission protocol
7. Compared to B2C E–commerce B2B E–commerce is ________.
a) Of equal size b) Slightly smaller
c) Slightly larger d) Much larger
8. In the e –commerce security environment, which of the following
constitutes the inner–most layer?
a) People b) Data
c) Technology solutions
d) Organizational policies and procedures
9. All HTML tags are enclosed in ______.
a) # and # b) ? and !
c) < and > d) { and }
10. What does the <br> tag add to your webpage?
a) Long break b) Paragraph break
c) Line break d) None of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe TCP/IP. Explain its layers and their functions.
(or)
b) Explain in detail about E–Commerce framework.
12. a) Write short notes about Porter's value chain model.
(or)
b) What is meant by Supply chain? Explain its functions.
13. a) Discuss the various stages involved in creating Airline Booking
System.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Business–to–Business E–commerce.
14. a) Explain about EDI standards and technology.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Business to Consumer electronic commerce.
15. a) Explain about E–commerce security.
(or)
b) Design a HTML document using the standard tags.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the infrastructure for Electronic Commerce.
17. Briefly explain about Business strategy, formulation and implementation
planning.
18. Briefly explain about EDI and its benefits with an example.
19. What is B2C? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of
Business – to – Consumer (B2C).
20. What is online payment system? Explain in detail. Discuss the various
risks associated with it.
Question Code : B70107 Sub Code: P16CAC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
C# WITH ASP .NET PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C. A Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. C# is the only language designed for ________.
a) Web application b) .Net frame work
c) Windows application d) Network
2. Which of the following is the additional feature in C# ?
a) Type def statement b) Forward declaration of classes
c) Default arguments d) strict type safety
3. Value constants assigned to variables are ______.
a) Identifiers b) Keywords
c) Punctuators d) Literals
4. In v op = exp , op = is known as ?
a) Shorthand assignment operator b) Simple assignment operator
c) Assignment operator d) Long hand assignment operator
5. The ______ statement at the end of each block, signals the end of a
particular case and causes an exit from the switch statement.
a) exit b) break c) switch d) case
6. In the ______ loop, the conditions are tested before the start of the loop
execution.
a) exit controlled loop b) entry controlled loop
c) goto d) infinite loop
7. What SQL query will retrieve all record form a table named “pets”
in which the pet name is “clyde”, with the records including only the
pet name field (pet_name) and the pet id field(pet_id)?
a) SELECT ALL FROM pets WHERE name = „clyde‟
b) SELECT * FROM pets WHERE pet_name = „clyde‟
c) SELECT * FROM pets WHERE pet_name = „clyde‟ AND
pet_id= „*‟
d) SELECT pet_name, pet_id FROM pets WHERE
pet_name = ‟clyde‟
8. What is the process of determining the end result and working
backward to determine requirements called?
a) From–the–group–up engineering
b) Backward – engineering
c) Reverse –engineering
d) Forward Engineering
9. The ______ component depends on a file called the schedule File to
know what ad images to display, What Links to attach to them, And
how frequently each one should come up.
a) scale b) Ad Rotator
c) page Counter d) server
10. Data entry tools are ______.
a) Text box, Radio Button, Combo Box
b) Button, List Box
c) Frame, Table
d) None of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the scope and life time of variables.
(or)
b) Write a short note on .NET framework.
12. a) Explain the different operators used in C#.
(or)
b) Write a C# program to display the manipulation table from 2 to 10
using for loop statement.
13. a) Discuss the different form of SQL select statement with suitable
example.
(or)
b) Describe the ADO.NET Object model.
14. a) Write a program in ASP.Net to perform the currency conversion.
(or)
b) Illustrate the different Web controls used in ASP.Net.
15. a) Explain Validation controls available in .NET.
(or)
b) What is templates? Explain templates with Data List.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the type conversion, explicit and implicit conversion with
suitable example.
17. Write a program to read and insert the elements in the Array.
18. Write a short note on the following with suitable example.
a) Connection statement
b) SQL update statement
c) SQL insert statement
19. Write a program to implement how to access the Web controls.
20. Illustrate the Data Grid with all options available in ASP.Net.
Question Code : B70303 Sub Code: P16CAE43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DATA MINING AND DATA WAREHOUSING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C. A Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. _______ maps data into predefined group or classes.
a) Classification b) Clustering
c) Association d) Regression
2. _______ is used to fill in missing values, smooth the noisy data and
resolve inconsistencies.
a) Data mapping b) Data cleaning
c) Data filling d) Data resolving
3. A perceptron consists of a simple three – layered network with input
units called _______.
a) photo – receptors b) associators
c) responders d) collectors
4. _______ is the centrally located value of a set of data such that half of
the values of a set of data are above it and other half are below it.
a) Mean b) Average
c) Median d) Summation
5. _______ phase might remove redundant comparisons or remove sub–
trees to achieve better performance.
a) Training b) Pruning
c) Splitting d) Ordering
6. ________ is an iterative clustering algorithm in which items are
moved among sets of clusters until the desired set is reached.
a) K – Means b) K – Medoid
c) CLARA d) DBSCAN
7. ________ is a powerful database model that significantly enhances
the user's ability to quickly analyze large, multidimensional data
sets.
a) Data Warehouse b) Dataset
c) Repository d) Data Mart
8. ________ contains a subset of corporate–wide data that is of value
to a specific group of users.
a) Repository b) Dataset
c) Data Mart d) Data Collector
9. _______ is an analytic model used to increase managerial or
professional decision making by bringing important data to view.
a) Decision Support system b) Expert System
c) Tracking d) Preprocessing
10. _______ is a process of consolidating data values into a single value
a) Clustering b) Classification
c) Aggregation d) Association
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain about Data Integration.
(or)
b) Explain Data reduction in Data preprocessing process.
12. a) Discuss genetic Algorithm with its features.
(or)
b) Explain decision tree with an example.
13. a) Describe about Bayesian classification.
(or)
b) Discuss the requirements of clustering algorithm.
14. a) Explain about the specialized applications of warehousing technology.
(or)
b) What are the various types of Metadata? Explain each one.
15. a) Describe ROLAP.
(or)
b) Discuss the types of backup.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain knowledge discovery process in detail.
17. Discuss the various statistical measures in large databases.
18. Describe about Hierarchical clustering.
19. What is Data Mart? Explain in detail.
20. Explain Data Warehouse project life cycle.
Question Code : B50308 /B51308 Sub Code: P16COE42 / P16MCE42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The term intrapreneur was coined by _______.
a) Robert owen b) Joseph Schumpeter
c) Richard Cantillon d) Gifford Pinchot
2. An entrepreneur‟s primary motivation for starting a business is ______.
a) To take money b) To be independent
c) To be famous d) To be powerful
3. Entrepreneurs are best as ______.
a) Managers b) Venture capitalists
c) Planners d) Doers
4. A successful entrepreneur relies on which of the following for critical
management advice ______.
a) Internal management team
b) External management professionals
c) Financial sources
d) No one
5. Entrepreneurs are _______.
a) High risk takers b) Moderate risk takers
c) Small risk takers d) Doesn't matter
6. One of the most frequent reasons an entrepreneur forms a joint venture is
to share the ______.
a) Resources b) Cost
c) Cost and risk of a project d) Profit
7. Project appraisal is usually done by a________ Institution
a) Marketing b) Financial
c) Production d) None of these
8. The excess of the present value over the cost of the project is
______.
a) IRR b) ARR c) NPV d) NTV
9. _______ is the final report.
a) Feasibility report b) Interim report
c) Project report d) Progress report
10. Personal characteristics of the successful entrepreneur includes
_____.
a) Understand environment b) Creating managerial options
c) Encourage open discussion d) All of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the characteristics of entrepreneurship?
(or)
b) What are the qualities a successful entrepreneur should posses?
12. a) Discuss the economic factors influencing entrepreneurship.
(or)
b) What are DICs? Describe its important functions.
13. a) What is evaluation of ideas? Explain briefly about the various
techniques used in idea evaluation?
(or)
b) Describe how an opportunity is finalized.
14. a) What are the problems of EDP‟s?
(or)
b) What is the women entrepreneurship? Explain the need for women
entrepreneurship.
15. a) Explain the role of institutional agencies in promoting women
entrepreneurship.
(or)
b) What is meant by seed capital? Explain its sources.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Briefly discuss the factors affecting entrepreneurship.
17. Describe the functions of Entrepreneur.
18. Explain the various methods of appraising a project.
19. Discuss the role of EDP in achieving promoting entrepreneur.
20. Discuss the role of entrepreneur in economic growth as an innovator.
Question Code : B50112 / B51110 Sub Code: P16COC41 / P16MCC41
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ACCOUNTING FOR MANAGEMENT DECISIONS
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Management accountant in an organization has to co–ordinate with
______.
a) Cost accountant b) Internal auditor
c) General accountant d) All the above
2. The technique of converting figures into percentages to some common
base is called ______.
a) Comparative statement b) Common size statement
c) Ratio analysis d) Trend percentages
3. Liquidity ratio indicates the ability of the company to meet its ________.
a) Tax obligations b) Funds lost in operation
c) Sources of funds d) Current liability
4. Loss of cash by embezzlement is a kind of _______.
a) Funds from operation b) Funds lost in operation
c) Sources of funds d) Application of funds
5. The term cash includes _______.
a) Sundry debtors b) Accounts receivable
c) Bills receivable d) Bank balance
1
6. Contribution is equal to _________ sales.
a) N/P ratio b) P/V ratio
c) BEP d) EPS
7. _________ indicates the extent to which the sales can be reduced
without resulting in loss.
a) BEP b) Margin of safety
c) Key factor d) Contribution
8. Budgetary control helps to introduce a suitable incentive and
remuneration based on ________.
a) Performance b) Experience
c) Qualification d) Times
9. Material price variance is loss or gain_______.
a) Due to using more or less material
b) Due to wastage of material
c) Due to payment of higher or lower price than what is specified
d) None of the above
10. Standard costing is a______.
a) Method of costing
b) Technique for cost reduction
c) Cost control technique
d) None of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the scope of management accounting.
(or)
b) M/s. Karthik Ltd., has submitted the following Balance sheet for
the year ended 31st Dec, 2000:
ii) 50% of credit sales is realized in the month following the sale and the
other 50% in the second month following. Creditors are paid in the
month following the month of purchase.
iii) Wages are paid at the end of the respective month.
iv) Cash at bank 1st April –Rs.25,000.
20. The following information is obtained from the records of a company
using standard costing system.
Standard Actual
Production in units 4,000 3,800
Fixed overhead Rs.40,000 Rs.39,000
Calculate:
i) Fixed overhead cost variance
ii) Fixed overhead expenditure variance
iii) Fixed overhead volume variance
7 2
(b) Land was revalued during the year at Rs. 1,50,000 and profit on
revaluation transferred to P&L A/C. You are required to prepare a
Cash flow statement for the year ended 31.12.2007.
18. The sales and profit for 2014 and 2015 are as follows:
Year Sales(Rs) Profit(Rs)
2014 1,50,000 20,000
2015 1,70,000 25,000
Find out :
a) Profit volume Ratio
b) BEP
c) Sales for a profit of Rs.40,000
d) Profit for sales of Rs.2,50,000 and
e) Margin of safety at a profit of Rs.50,000
19. XYZ Company wishes to arrange O.D facilities with its bankers
during the period April-June, when it will be manufacturing mostly
for stock.
i) Prepare cash budget for the above period from the following data:
Months Sales
(Rs)
Purchases
(Rs)
Wages
(Rs)
February 1,80,000 1,24,800 12,000
March 1,92,000 1,44,000 14,000
April 1,08,000 2,43,000 11,000
May 1,74,000 2,46,000 10,000
June 1,26,000 2,68,000 15,000
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Equity share capital 1,50,000 Fixed assets 1,62,000
Revenue reserves 30,000 Current assets:
8% Debentures 20,000 Stock 22,000
Sundry creditors 49,000 Debtors 51,000
Bills receivable 2,000
Bank 12,000
2,49,000 2,49,000
Find out the current ratio and liquidity ratio.
12. a) Prepare a statement of changes in working capital from the following
balance sheet of Manjit & Co. Ltd.,
Balance sheet
Liabilities 2006
(Rs.)
2007
(Rs.)
Assets 2006
(Rs.)
2007
(Rs.)
Equity share
capital
5,00,000
5,00,000
Fixed assets 6,00,000 6,00,000
Debentures 3,70,000 4,50,000 Long– term
Investments
2,00,000 1,00,000
Tax payable 77,000 43,000 Work–in–
progress
80,000
90,000
Accounts
payable
96,000 1,92,000 Stock–in–trade
1,50,000
2,25,000
Interest
payable
37,000
45,000
Accounts
receivable
70,000
1,40,000
Dividend
payable
50,000
35,000
Cash 30,000 10,000
11,30,000 12,65,000 11,30,000 12,65,000
(or)
b) Differentiate between funds flow statement and cash flow statement.
3 6
13. a) (i) Calculate breakeven point from the following :
Sales 1,000 units at Rs.10 each Rs.10,000
Variable cost – Rs.6 per unit
Fixed cost – Rs.8,000.
(ii) If the selling price is reduced to Rs.9 ,what is the new
breakeven point?
(or)
b) Differentiate between marginal and absorption costing.
14. a) Prepare a Flexible Budget for overheads on the basis of the
following data. Ascertain the overhead rates at 50%, 60% and 70%
capacity:
At 60% capacity
Rs.
Variable overheads:
Indirect material 6,000
Indirect labour 18,000
Semi-variable overheads:
Electricity (40% fixed : 60% variable) 30,000
Repairs (80% fixed : 20% variable) 3,000
Fixed overheads:
Depreciation 16,500
Insurance 4,500
Salaries 15,000
Total overheads 93,000
Estimated direct labour hours 1,86,000
(or)
b) What are the advantages of zero base budgeting?
15. a) From the following, calculate material price variance, assuming
standard price per kg of Rs.8
Opening stock of material : 50 kg at Rs.10 per kg
Material purchased : 850 kg at Rs.10 per kg
Closing stock of material : 100 kg.
(or)
b) Describe the objectives of standard costing.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Describe the functions of management accounting.
17. The following are the comparative Balance sheet of XYZ Ltd., as on 31st
December 2006 and 2007.
Liabilities 2006
(Rs.)
2007
(Rs.)
Assets 2006
(Rs.)
2007
(Rs.)
Share cap
(shares of Rs.10
each)
3,50,000
3,70,000
Land 1,00,000 1,50,000
Profit & Loss
A/C
50,400
52,800
Stock 2,46,000 2,13,500
9% Debentures 60,000 30,000 Goodwill 50,000 25,000
Creditors 51,600 59,200 Cash at bank 42,000 35,000
Temporary
investments
3,000
4,000
Debtors 71,000 84,500
5,12,000 5,12,000 5,12,000 5,12,000
Other particulars provided to you are :
(a) Dividends declared and paid during the year Rs.17,500.
4 5
Question Code : B50113 / B51111 Sub Code: P16COC42 / P16MCC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
GOODS AND SERVICE TAX
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. CGST and SGST will be levied on :
a) Intra –state supply b) Inter – state supply
c) Import d) Export
2. Which one of the following shall not be treated as supply?
a) Rental b) Lease
c) Actionable claim d) License
3. The maximum rate that can be levied as CGST or SGST will be at
______.
a) 18% b) 20% c) 18% d) 40%
4. On which one of the following items, GST will be levied:
a) Aviation fuel b) Liquefied petroleum Gas
c) Natural Gas d) High Speed Diesel oil
5. Works contract is :
a) Supply of goods b) Supply of services
c) Supply of both
d) Neither supply of goods nor supply of services
6. The default rule of place of supply of services made to any person other
than a registered person if address on record doesn‟t exist shall be
_______.
a) Location of the recipient of services
b) Location of the supplier of services
c) Location where service is rendered
d) Location where agreement for rendering of services is executed
7. Composition levy is applicable to the taxable persons whose
aggregate turnover–did not exceed _______.
a) 50 lakh in the current year
b) 50 lakh in the preceding year
c) 60 lakh in the current year
d) 60 lakh in the preceding year
8. ______ Act provides un–intercepted ITC chain on inter–state
transactions?
a) IGST b) CGST c) VAT d) SGST
9. Import / Export is treated as ______ in GST?
a) Intra – state supply b) Inter – state supply
c) Non – taxable supply d) Exempted supply
10. ITC includes tax payable under ______ also.
a) VAT b) Reverse charge
c) Excise d) Customers
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the principles of Subsumation?
(or)
b) State the benefits of dual GST.
12. a) List down the various types of GST.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Central Goods and Service Tax?
13. a) Who is a person liable for registration and not liable for
registration?
(or)
b) Explain about time of supply of goods and services.
14. a) Briefly explain about First Return of GST.
(or)
b) Write a short note GSTR 3.
15. a) Write a short note on IGST.
(or)
b) Discuss the procedure relating to Levy of GST.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Describe the benefits of the implementation of GST.
17. Briefly explain the various advantages of dual mode GST.
18. Discuss about tax liability on Mixed and Composite supply.
19. State the procedure of matching reversal and reclaim of ITC.
20. Explain the various types of Assessment.
Question Code : B50114 / B51112 Sub Code: P16COC43 / P16MCC43
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Finance Function comprises______.
a) Safe custody of funds only b) Expenditure of funds only
c) Procurement of finance only
d) Procurement & effective use of funds
2. The objective of wealth maximization takes into account ______.
a) Amount of returns expected b) Timing of anticipated returns
c) Risk associated with uncertainty of returns
d) All of the above
3. The following is (are) the type(s) of capital budgeting decision(s)
a) Diversification b) Replacements
c) Expansion d) All of the above
4. Which method of capital budgeting called benefit cash ratio?
a) Pay Back Period b) Net Present Value
c) Accounting Rate of Return d) Profitability Index Number
5. The amount of current assets required to meet a firm‟s long–term
minimum needs is referred to as _______ working capital.
a) Permanent b) Temporary
c) Net d) Gross
1
6. Which of the following would be consistent with a conservative
approach to financing working capital?
a) Financing short term needs with short term funds
b) Financing short term needs with long term debt
c) Financing seasonal needs with short term funds
d) Financing some long term needs with short term funds
7. Degree of Combined leverage can be obtained by_______.
a) EBIT + Fixed Costs/EBIT – Total Interest Expense
b) EBT/Sales
c) Sales/Contribution x 100
d) Sales/Cash x 100
8. Cost of preference Capital can be obtained by______.
a) ) 1( 1002 TaxE //D P/EKP
b) 10010012 / /D P/EKP
c) 10021 /DKP
d) )2/....( / )/. . . .( PNVMnPNVMDKP
9. Modigliani and Miller argue that the dividend decision
a) is irrelevant as the value of the firm is based on the earning
power of its assets.
b) is relevant as the value of the firm is not based just on the
earning power of its assets.
c) is irrelevant as dividends represent cash leaving the firm to
shareholders, who own the firm anyway.
d) is relevant as cash outflow always influences other firm
decisions.
10. _______ is a payment of dividend by issue of additional shares to
shareholders in lieu of cash.
a) Stock split b) Stock dividend
c) Extra Dividend d) Regular Dividend
2
19. From the following data, calculate Operating leverage, Financial
leverage and Composite leverage. Also calculate Financial Break
Even Point.
Amount (Rs.)
EBIT 20,00,000
Profit after Tax 9,60,000
Operating Fixed Cost 15,00,000
Tax Rate 40%
Preference Dividend 2,40,000
20. Following are the details regarding three companies A Ltd, B Ltd,
and C Ltd.
A Ltd. B Ltd. C Ltd.
r = 15% r = 10% r = 8%
Ke = 10% Ke = 10% Ke = 10%
EPS = Rs.10 EPS = Rs.10 EPS = Rs.10
Calculate the value of an equity share of each of these
companies applying Walter‟s formula when dividend per share is
a) Rs. 4 b) Rs. 8 c) Rs.10
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are the functions of Financial Management?
(or)
b) What are the objectives of Financial Management?
12. a) A project requires an investment of Rs.5,00,000 and has a scrap value
of Rs.20,000 after five years. It is expected to yield profits after
depreciation and taxes during the five years amounting to Rs.40,000,
Rs.60,000, Rs.70,000, Rs.50,000 and Rs.20,000. Calculate the average
rate of return on the investment.
(or)
b) What are the factors affecting capital investment decisions?
13. a) What are the various types of working capital of a firm?
(or)
b) From the following particulars, estimate the working capital required
for a firm:
Per annum
i) Average amount locked up in inventories:
Raw materials 5,000
Finished goods 10,000
ii) Credit sales per annum
(Debtors are allowed 2 months‟ credit)
60,000
iii) Manufacturing expenses per annum 24,000
Wages per annum 36,000
(Lag in payment of manufacturing expenses and wages
is one month)
iv) Raw materials consumed per annum 24,000
(Creditors allow 3 months credit)
Add 10% to allow for contingencies.
3 6
14. a) What are the major determinants of capital structure?
(or)
b) A company has sales of Rs.1,00,000. The variable costs are 40%
of the sales while the fixed operating costs amount to Rs.30,000.
The amount of interest on long term debt is 10,000. Calculate the
operating leverage, Financial leverage and Composite leverage.
15. a) A company issues 10% irredeemable debentures of Rs.1,00,000.
The company is in 55% tax bracket. Calculate the cost of debt
(before as well as after) if the debentures are issued at 10% discount
and 10% premium.
(or)
b) The current market price of an equity share of a company is
Rs.120. The current dividend per share is Rs.6. In case the dividends
are expected to grow at the rate of 8%. Calculate the cost of equity
capital.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the various kinds of financial management decisions.
17. Shiva Ltd. is producing articles mostly by manual labour and is
considering replacing it by a new machine. There are two alternative
models X and Y of new machine. Prepare a statement of
profitability showing the pay–back period from the following
information:
Machine X Machine Y
Estimated Life of Machine 4 years 5 years
Cost of Machine 9,000 18,000
Estimated savings in scrap 500 800
Estimated savings in direct wages 6,000 8,000
Additional cost of maintenance 800 1,000
Additional cost of supervision
Ignore taxation
1,200 1,800
18. The management of Vishnu Ltd. has called for a statement showing the
working capital needed to finance a level of activity of 3,00,000 units of
output for the year. The cost structure for the company‟s product, for the
above mentioned activity level, is detailed below:
Cost per unit (Rs.)
Raw Materials 20
Direct Labour 5
Overheads 15
Total Cost 40
Profit 10
Selling Price 50
Pass trends indicate that the raw materials are held in stock, on an
average, for two months. Work–in–process (50%) will approximate to
half–a–month‟s production. Finished goods remain in warehouse, on an
average, for a month. Suppliers of materials extend a month‟s credit.
Two months credit is normally allowed to debtors. A minimum cash
balance of Rs.25,000 is expected to be maintained. The production
pattern is assumed to be even during the year.
Prepare the statement of working capital determination.
5 4
Question Code : B80114/ A80114 Sub Code: P16ELC42 / P14ELC42
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE LITERATURE
Time : 3 Hrs M.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. “Comparative Literature is the study of literature beyond the confines of
one particular country”. Who said this?
a) H.G.Wells b) H.H. Remak
c) P.B. Shelley d) A.A.Milne
2. The term Comparative Literature was coined by _______.
a) John Keats b) Mathew Arnold
c) Sussan Bannet d) Shakespeare
3. Comparative Literature was established in France during the ______as
an academic discipline.
a) 16th
century b) 17th
century
c) 18th
century d) 19th
century
4. The _______ analogy studies are favoured by the American
Comparatists.
a) French b) German
c) Indian d) American
5. The term „thematics‟ was first introduced by_______.
a) Harry Levin b) H.H.Munro
c) G.B.Shaw d) Northrop Frye
6. There are _______ types of influence studies according to S.S.Prawar.
a) three b) four c) five d) six
7. _________ say that the psychological study of literature can be
undertaken on four levels.
a) Wellek and Warren b) Susan Bannet
c) Carl d) Remak
8. _________ and Society are mutually interdependent.
a) Society b) History
c) Literature d) Language
9. ________ is the basic tool of Comparative Literature.
a) Theme b) Style
c) Genre d) Translation
10. The term World Literature is associated with _______.
a) Rene Wellek b) Gothe
c) Ben Johnson d) Paul van Tiegham
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Examine the various definitions of Comparative Literature.
(or)
b) Trace the origin and development of Comparative Literature in
India.
12. a) Brief the contributions of Americans in Comparative Literature.
(or)
b) Write a short note on French Comparatists.
13. a) Discuss the scope of thematology in Comparative Literature.
(or)
b) What according to S.S.Prawar is thematic investigation.
14. a) Bring out the mutual relationship between Literature and
Philosophy.
(or)
b) Describe the interdependence between Literature and Society.
15. a) Examine the achievements of post colonial Comparative Writers.
(or)
b) Evaluate Comparative Literature and its global context.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write an essay on the scope of comparative Literature.
17. Write an essay on the Schools of Comparative Literature.
18. Discuss the important terminologies connected with thematology.
19. Write an essay on Literature and Psychology.
20. Discuss the place of Comparative Literature in the Post Colonial World.
Question Code: B30109 Sub Code: U16COC42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
BANKING THEORY LAW AND PRACTICE
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. When a bank receives cash from a depositor it is called _____.
a) Primary cash b) Primary deposit
c) Secondary cash d) Secondary deposit
2. SFC Stands for ______.
a) State Finance Corporation b) State Finance Company
c) Small Finance Corporation d) Small Finance Company
3. Which one of the following is monetary policy of RBI ______.
a) Cash reserve ratio b) Non performing asset
c) Price changes d) Price stability
4. Negotiable instrument means ______.
a) Bills of Exchange b) Promissory Note
c) Cheque d) All of the above
5. One of the conditions to honour the cheque by the paying banker is
that amount in figures and words should _____.
a) Differ b) Tally
c) Be clear d) Not be clear
6. A bill payable after a specific _______ is known as time bill.
a) place b) date c) time d) date and time
7. _______ is one which is opened by more than one person at a time
and the account holders.
a) A joint account b) Personal a/c
c) Firm a/c d) None of these
8. Credit card originated in the United States doing _____.
a) 1930 b) 1918 c) 1920 d) 1954
9. ____is the system developed in the computer field for promoting
business transactions.
a) E–Commerce b) E–Business
c) E–Mail d) Online
10. PIN Stands for _____.
a) Person Indication Number
b) Personal Identification Number
c) Personal Identify Number
d) All of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the commercial banking system in India.
(or)
b) Distinguish between Saving Account and Current Account.
12. a) Explain the types of Crossing of a Cheque.
(or)
b) What are the types of Endorsement?
13. a) States the conditions given under payment in due course of
paying banker.
(or)
b) Explain the condition under section 131 for collecting banker.
14. a) How a banker will grant loan against security of real estate?
(or)
b) Explain the types of Secured Loan.
15. a) Explain the benefits of E–Banking.
(or)
b) Write a note on the following i) Internet banking ii) Tele banking
iii) E–Banking.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the functions of RBI.
17. Discuss the rule pertaining to Endorsement.
18. Explain the grounds for refusing of a customer Cheque.
19. Explain the lending and investment policies of Commercial Banks.
20. “Emerging trends in Banking” – Discuss.
******
Question Code: B11303 Sub Code: U16ELE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
INDIAN DIASPORIC FICTION
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. When Kuti is born, Ira is
a) excited about the baby b) jealous of her mother
c) angry at her husband d) mean to the child
2. Ira becomes a prostitute because she
a) wants to buy new clothes b) wants a new husband
c) is bored and lonely d) wants to save her brother
3. Mangoes on the maple tree is about the life of the Moghes and the
_____.
a) Bhaves b) Sharmas
c) Sens d) Gangulys
4. Mangoes on the maple tree is set amidst the 1997 floods in _____.
a) Toronto b) Vancouver
c) Winnipeg d) Ottawa
5. What is Ghulam Mohammed‟s nickname for Major Billimoria?
a) Jack b) Billboy
c) Jamle d) J B
6. What habit does Mr. Madon have?
a) drinking beer b) cursing
c) taking snuff d) drinking coffee
7. What department hired Jasmine to answer phones?
a) Sciences b) Mathematics
c) Languages d) General studies
8. Who told Jasmine of Master Ji‟s murder?
a) Mataji b) Vilma
c) Prakash d) Pithaji
9. Why does Mr. Chawla go to see a town official?
a) to ask for a permit
b) to find a husband for Pinky
c) to have something done about the monkeys
d) to have the orchard transferred to Sampath
10. What does Amma sell to visitors at the Orchard?
a) hot buns b) bowls of rice
c) ice cream d) tea
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Why does Rukku become so attached to Puli?
(or)
b) how does the arrival of the tannery affect Ruku and the rest of the
village?
12. a) Trace the life of the Moghes amidst the floods in Mangoes on the
Maple Tree.
(or)
b) How does identity crisis play a main role in Mangoes on the Maple
Tree?
13. a) How do you justify or explain Billimoria‟s money laundering?
(or)
b) What does the blackout paper signify both its staying up for decades
and its coming down in Such a Long Journey?
14. a) Discuss the postcolonial angle in Jasmine‟s India.
(or)
b) Analyse the theme of rebirth in Jasmine.
15. a) What happens when the monkey attacks Pinky and Amma?
(or)
b) What weather disaster occurs before Sampath is born and on the night
of his birth?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What role does nature play in Nectar in a Sieve?
17. Justify the title Mangoes on the Maple Tree.
18. Trace the turbulent life of Gustad Noble and his family in Such a Long
Journey.
19. Discuss Jasmine‟s personal journey as reflected by her series of
transformed identities.
20. Track the exploits of Sampath Chawla in trying to avoid the
responsibilities of adult life.
******
18. What is the present value, true discount, bankers discount gain on a
bill of Rs.1,04,500 due in 9 months at 6% per annum?
19. Investigate the maxima and minima of the function
Y = 3x4-10x
3 + 6x
2 + 5.
20. If A =
612
704
126
C and
317
461
234
B
987
654
321
Show that i) A + B = B + A
ii) A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C.
*******
Question Code: B30204 Sub Code: U16ECA41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. ______ is a collection assemblage, a group ora class of define and
well distinguished objects.
a) Matrix b) A Set
c) Statistics d) Econometrics
2. A set which does not contain any element is called an _____.
a) Empty set b) Finite set
c) Infinite set d) Super set
3. The term q = f (p) refers to ______.
a) Demand function b) Cost function
c) Supply function d) Savings function
4. The log value of 169 :
a) 2 2278 b) 3 2278 c) 4 2278 d) 5 2278
5. _____is the interest calculated on the principal alone.
a) Compound interest b) Simple interest
c) Principal d) Interest
6. If Y = 5x, find dx
dy ______.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 15 d) 20
7. A function f (x) is said to have attained its “Maximum value” is
_______.
a) maxima b) calculus
c) minima d) integration
8. The term Row and Column associated with _____.
a) matrix b) A set
c) integration d) Calculas
9. Find
115
92
73
A If ,TA
a) 1197
523TA b)
523
1197TA
c) 527
1193TA d)
325
7911TA
10. The banker deducts the simple interest on the face value for the
unexpired time. This deduction known as ______.
a) Face value b) True discount
c) Bankers Discount d) Present value
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is rule method? Give examples.
(or)
b) Write a note on Union set.
12. a) List out the basic operation functions.
(or)
b) Differentiate between natural and common Logarithms.
13. a) Find the compound interest for Rs.9,000 at 7% per annum for 3
years.
(or)
b) List out the various important concepts of Bankers discount.
14. a) If Y = dx
dy find 73411 93 xxx .
(or)
b) Find the maxima or minima of the function Y = 542 XX .
15. a) If A =
312
026
431-
B and
403
210
321
find A +B.
(or)
b) If A =
114
3-6
52
B and
12
84
73
find A – B and B – A.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the various types of sets.
17. Evaluate0213
2412222.
Question Code: B23106/A23106 Sub Code: U16ZOC41/BZOCR41
/UZOCR41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
BIOCHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc ( Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The colorimeter has a _____.
a) Tungsten lamp b) Mercury lamp
c) Sodium lamp d) Lithium lamp
2. Calomel electrode is also called as______.
a) Glass electrode b) Reference electrode
c) Chloride electrode d) Silver electrode
3. The process of biosynthesis of glycogen from glucose is known
as______.
a) Gluconeogenesis b) Glycolysis
c) Glycogenolysis d) Glycogenesis
4. The biodegradative phase of metabolism is referred as______.
a) Anabolism b) Catabolism
c) Intermediary metabolism d) Energy metabolism
5. Example of simple protein is____.
a) Globulins b) Phosphoproteins
c) Lipoproteins d) Nucleoproteins
6. The amino acids containing straight chain in the R-group is called
as ______.
a) Heterocyclic amino acids b) Carboxylic amino acids
c) Aliphatic amino acids d) Aromatic amino acids
7. Lipid is a _____.
a) Saturated acid b) Unsaturated acid
c) Fatty acid d) Amino acid
8. Phospholipid is a ______.
a) Derived lipid b) Compound lipid
c) Homolipid d) Simple lipid
9. An enzyme action hypothesis was proposed by ______.
a) Michaelis and Menton b) Emil Fisher
c) Koshland d) Emil and Kuhne
10. Lactic dehydrogenase is an ______.
a) Endoenzyme b) Exoenzyme
c) Antienzyme d) Isoenzyme
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Describe the principle and applications of pH meter.
(or)
b) Explain the principle and applications of paper
chromatography.
12. a) Highlight the nature of carbohydrates.
(or)
b) What are the differences between glycogenolysis and
glycogenesis?
13. a) Classify the proteins based on their solubility and shape.
(or)
b) Write an account on transamination.
14. a) Analyze the structure of lipids.
(or)
b) Differentiate between simple and compound lipids.
15. a) Comment on physico-chemical nature of enzymes.
(or)
b) Classify the enzymes based on their substrates, synthesis and
chemical nature with examples.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Highlight the principle, working components and applications of
polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.
17. Discuss in detail about the gluconeogenesis.
18. Classify the amino acids based on their side chain.
19. Summarize the biological importance of lipids with examples.
20. Write an elaborate account on types of reversible enzyme inhibition.
*******
Question Code: B23303 Sub Code: U16ZOE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
ECONOMIC ENTOMOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The insects belonging to Odonota exhibit ______.
a) Ametamorphosis b) Hemi metamorphosis
c) Holo metamorphosis d) Hyper metamorphosis
2. Mosquitoes belonging to the order_____.
a) Coleoptera b) Lepidoptera
c) Thysanura d) Diptera
3. One of the following strains of mulberry is most popular for high
yielding ______.
a) Kanva 2 b) S54 c) S13 d) China white
4. Nephantis serinopa is an example for_____.
a) Predatory insect b) Scavenger insect
c) Parasitic insect d) Productive insect
5. In an IPM program, ________ control is considered first
a) Physical b) Chemical
c) Cultural d) Mechanical
6. Light trapping is a ______.
a) Mechanical control method b) Biological control method
c) Cultural control method d) Chemical control method
7. The toxicant dissolved in an organic solvent available for
immediate use is called as______.
a) Emulsion b) Wettable powder
c) Dust d) Aerosol
8. One of the desirable qualities of the biological agent is ______.
a) Polyphagous
b) Asynchronism of development with the host
c) Monophagous
d) Edible to the host
9. The larva of housefly is called
a) Imago b) Maggot c) Grub d) Naid
10. The bubonic plaque is transmitted by
a) Anophelus mosquito b) Culex mosquito
c) Human flea d) House fly
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Specify the salient features of Hymenoptera and their economic
importance.
(or)
b) Analyze the various types of larvae with neat sketch.
12. a) Describe the biology of lac insect and the uses of lac.
(or)
b) Give an account of helpful insects.
13. a) Examine the biological methods of pest control.
(or)
b) Discuss the mechanical methods of pest control.
14. a) Enumerate the various insecticidal formulations?
(or)
b) Specify the steps to be taken while handling pesticides.
15. a) Mention the life cycle of house fly, disease transmitted and its
control.
(or)
b) Elucidate the life cycle of Pulex irritans.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Classify Insecta up to orders with suitable examples.
17. Summarize the biology and production of silk worm and its uses.
18. Discuss the various tactics in IPM.
19. How will you classify pesticides based on the mode of action?
20. Give an account of the life cycle of mosquito and its economic
importance.
******
Question Code: B23202/A23202 Sub Code: U16BOA41/BBOAS41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
PLANT DIVERSITY PART - II
(Pteridophytes & Phanerogams) & Plant Physiology
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc – Zoology Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Sporaniga bearing leaf is called ______.
a) Sporophyll b) ramentum
c) indusium d) sorus
2. Ligulate leaves are found in _____.
a) Selaginella b) Nephrolepis
c) Isoetes d) Equisetum
3. In Pinus needle what is the function of the tissue subtending the
epidermis ______.
a) photosynthesis b) mechanical support
c) protection d) conduction
4. The male gametophyte in gymnosperms is represented by _____.
a) microsporaniga b) microspore
c) nucellus d) spore dyed
5. Who proposed the natural system of classification
a) Carolus Linnaeus b) John Hutchinson
c) Benthem and Hooker d) Engler and prantl
6. The unripe fruits of Tamarindus indica rich in ______.
a) citric acid b) acetic acid
c) tartaric acid d) formic acid
7. Staminal corona is found in ______.
a) Zingiberaceae b) Asclepiadaceae
c) Orchidaceae d) Nymphaceae
8. Poaceae is known as _____.
a) cereal family b) vegetable family
c) canna family d) pulses family
9. Dixon and Jolly are associated with ______.
a) light reaction and photosynthesis b) anaerobic respiration
c) cohesion theory d) apical dominance
10. Kranz anatomy is typical of
a) hydrophytes b) C3 plants
c) C4 plants d) CAM plants
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the general characters of Pteridophytes .
(or)
b) Mention the external morphology of Selaginella.
12. a) Describe the vegetative features of Pinus.
(or)
b) Enlist the salient features of Gymnosperms.
13. a) Mention the natural system of classification.
(or)
b) Analyze the floral characters of Annonaceae.
14. a) Summarize the floral characters of Asclepiadaceae.
(or)
b) Give an account on cyathium inflorescence.
15. a) Give an account on ascent of sap.
(or)
b) Describe the dark reaction process in photosynthesis.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Illustrate the life cycle of Selaginella.
17. Discuss about the detailed structure of male and female cones in
Pinus.
18. Describe the distinguish characters and economic importance of
Rutaceae.
19. Highlight the floral characters and economic importance of Poaceae.
20. Write an essay on physiological effects of Gibberellins and Cytokinin.
*****
Part – B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. What are communicable diseases? Classify communicable diseases on
the mode of transmission.
5. Discuss in detail the epidemiology of cholera.
6. Explain the causes, symptoms, prevention and treatment of plague.
7. Discuss the types of vaccines with suitable examples.
8. Give the vaccination schedule for pregnant mothers
******
Question Code: B23502/A23502 Sub Code: U16ZON41/BZONE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
NON –MAJOR ELECTIVE
COMMUNICABLE DISEASES AND MANAGEMENT
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part - A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Explain the causes, symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of Dengue.
(or)
b) Enumerate the causes, symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of
Rabies.
2. a) Discuss the causes, symptoms, prevention and cure of
tuberculosis.
(or)
b) Describe the causes, symptoms, preventive measures and treatment
of typhoid.
3. a) Give the national vaccination schedule for children.
(or)
b) Distinguish active and passive immunization.
Question Code: B30110 Sub Code: U16COC43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
AUDITING
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. An audit conducted in between two annual audit is______. a) Annual audit b) Continuous audit
c) Balance sheet audit d) Partial audit
2. The audit carried by cost accountant is called _______. a) Cost audit b) Continuous audit
c ) Statutory audit d) Management audit
3. Audit Programme should be modified______. a) once a year
b) from time to time and made upto-date c) need not be modified
d) maintained as it is
4. Audit engagement letter is written by the _____. a) auditor b) Client
c) audit staff d) Client‟s staff
5. Proper division of work is key to the success of______. a) Internal control b) Internal check
c) Internal audit d) External audit
6. Internal auditor is an_____.
a) Independent person b) Agent
c) Employer d) Employee of the company
7. A letter of confirmation from a debtor is a ______
a) Collateral Voucher b) Primary voucher
c) Voucher d) document
8. Examining the assets and liabilities appearing in the balance sheet is
known as_____ a) Vouching b) Auditing
c) Verification d) Checking
9. An auditor of a company must be a_______
a) Chartered accountant b) Commerce Graduate
c) Person d) Cost & Works account
10. Auditor acts as a_____
a) Watch dog b) Blood-hound
c) Employee d) Trustee
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the main objectives of Auditing?
(or)
b) What is Internal Audit? Explain the scope of internal audit
12. a) What do you mean by modification of Audit Programme?
(or)
b) Explain the different types of audit programme.
13. a) Explain the objectives of Internal Control.
(or)
b) Distinguish between Internal Check and Internal Audit.
14. a) “Vouching is the essence of Backbone of auditing”- Explain.
(or)
b) How will you Vouch Cash Purchase and Payment to Creditors?
15. a) Under what circumstances as auditor cannot be re-appointed?
(or)
b) What are the duties of auditor under Common Law?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Define Auditing. What are the factors responsible for its
development?
17. Explain the merits and demerits of an audit programme.
18. Discuss an Internal check system regarding wage payments.
19. What are the duties of an auditor in connection with credit sales?
Explain in detail.
20. Describe the qualifications and disqualifications of a company
auditor.
-1-
Question Code: B11501 Sub Code: U16ELN41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
NON – MAJOR ELECTIVE
COMMUNICATION SKILLS - II (Reading and Writing)
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part -A
Answer ALL the Questions either (a) or (b) ( 3 x 10 =30 marks)
1. a) Describe a peacock by using the given adjectives.
(beautiful, long, colourful, wonderful, soft, majestic, short, attractive,
sensitive, lovely)
(or)
b) Describe our National poet Rabindranath Tagore in about 300 words.
2. Translate the following Tamil sentences into English.
i) kPdh kpfTk; mofhfg; ghLfpwhs;. ii) mtDf;F Mq;fpyk; ed;whfg; NgrTk; vOjTk; njhpAk;. iii) NuDfh vjph;fhyj;jpy; xU ey;y Mq;fpyg; Nguhrphpauhf
tpUk;Gfpwhs;. iv) ngz; tpLjiyg; Nghuhl;lj; jpahfpfspy; NtY ehr;rpahh; kpfTk;
Kf;fpakhdth;. v) N\f;];gpah; xU kpfr; rpwe;j ehlf Mrphpah;. vi) vq;fs; fy;Yhpapy; Rkhh; ehd;fhapuk; khztpfs; gbf;fpd;wdh;. vii) mth; NjdPiag; Nghy kpfTk; RWRWg;ghdth;. viii) jw;NghJ kio ePh; Nrfhpg;G kpfTk; ,d;wpaikahjjhfp tpl;lJ. ix) ehd; Njh;T miwf;Fr; nry;tjw;F Kd;Ng, Njh;T
Jtq;fptpl;lJ.
-2-
x) mtd; xU kpfr;rpwe;j gilg;ghsp Mdhy; Nrhk;Ngwp. (or)
b) Translate the following narration in Tamil into English.
ek; tho;tpd; mopo;jk; jz;zPh;. kiof;fhyk; ekf;Fj; jz;zPiuj; jUfpwJ. Rl;nlu;f;Fk; ntapypypUe;J ek;ikf; fhj;J Mw;wg;gLtJ kio . kio Nkfq;fspd; $l;lj;ijg; ghh;g;gJ kpfTk; mUikahdJ. gue;j thdj;jpy; thdtpy;iy urpg;gJ vt;tsT mw;GjkhdJ, tptrhapfs; jq;fs; tay;fspy; jk; Ntiyiaj; Jtf;Ftjw;F kiof;fhyj;jpw;fhff; fhj;jpUg;gh;. caph; jUk; kio kuq;fs;, nrbfs;,; fhLfs; kw;Wk; Njhl;lq;fQf;F Xh; tuk;. kiof;Fg; gpwF Gy; $l gr;ir Kfk; fhl;b rphpf;Fk;. kio ,aw;ifapd; jpUtpoh Vnddpy; kiof;Fg; gpwNf G+f;fs; G+f;fpd;wd. kioahy; jhd; rpw;NwhilfSk; MWfSk; Fsk; Fl;ilfSk; jz;zPuhy; epug;gg;gLfpd;wd. Mdhy; rpy Neuq;fspy; fdkio nts;sg;ngUf;if Vw;gLj;jp mjpf moptpw;F toptFf;fpwJ. 3. Write your response about the following news item.
Police on Friday arrested a 25 – year old catering and hotel
management student for attacking a police sub-inspector and constable
with a knife in an inebriated condition near Thoraipakkam.
The injured policemen were identified as Surya Narayanan (52), a
sub – inspector and Jayaprakash (40), a constable. Police forces said
that the duo were on patrol duty when a drunkard approached them and
asked money. He had claimed that he did not have money to go home.
They told him that they would hire an auto rickshaw for him to be
ferried home. However, the drunkard was impatient and started
abusing the policemen. Taking them by surprise, he took out a knife,
he was carrying and inflicted cut injuries on the duo. A police team
rushed to the scene on information and nabbed the attacker. He was
identified as Hari Krishnan (25), a final year catering student at an
-3-
-6-
Patiently they sit
like empty pitchers
On the mouth of the village well
Pleating hope in each braid
of their mississippi – long hair
looking deep into the water‟s mirror
for the moisture in their eyes.
with zodiac doodlings on the sands
they guard their tattooed thighs
waiting for their men‟s return
till even the shadows
roll up their contours
and are gone
beyond the hills.
*******
institute in Thoraipakkam and a resident of Triplicane. He was produced
before a court and remanded in judicial custody.
(or)
b) Write your opinions and valuable suggestions on the following news
item.
As the investigation into the murder of journalist and activist Gauri
Lankesh continues, the SIT has intensified the probe regarding the
possible involvement of light using activists in the case.
Sources said that the SIT officials are collecting more details about
three specific persons, who are said to be associated with Sanathan
Sanstha.
Sarang Akolkar alias Sarang Kulkarni, Jay Prakash alias Anna and
Praveen Linkar, whose names had figured earlier in the murders of
rationalists – Govind Pansare Narendra Dabholkar and researcher Dr.
M.M. Kalburgi, are said to be under the scanner of the SIT, which is
probing the murder for almost a month now.
Against all the three above mentioned culprits, the Interpol has issued
Red Notice after their involvement was suspected in the Goa plasts in
2009 and they have been absconding since then.
After the ballistic reports revealed that there are striking similarities in
the weapons used in the murders of Pansare, Dabholkar, Kalburgi and
Lankesh, the SIT is working more on the right using angle, as all other
leads are said to have dried.
Meanwhile, the SIT has reportedly asked the NIA and CBI to share
more details about these three suspects.
Part -B
Answer any three questions ( 3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Describe your house and share your emotional attachment with it.
-5-
-4-
5. Develop the hints and write a meaningful story.
The road – essential to social existence –necessary for travel and
trade – progress from place to place – organised society grew –controls
history – framework for all economic development – became
fundamental tool in growth of mankind.
6. Translate the following story into English and give a suitable title to it.
NgUe;J epiyaj;jpy; go tpahghuk; nra;Ak; Kjpath; xUth;, me;jg; NgUe;jpy; gof; $ilAld; Vwpdhh;. “Ie;J goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tp goq;fis tpw;f Kad;whh;. vtUk; gok; thq;f Kd;tutpy;iy. Rkf;f Kbahky; Rke;jgb Kjpath; fPNo ,wq;fpaJk; ,isQd; XUtd; NgUe;jpy; Vwpdhd;. “MW goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tpdhd;. mtDf;F ey;y tpw;gid, kw;nwhU NgUe;jpy; Vwpa Kjpath; mq;Fk;, “Ie;J goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W tpw;f Kad;whh;. gyd; ,y;yhky; NghfNt, fPNo ,wq;fp tpl;lhh;. mLj;J, “MW goq;fs; gj;J &gha;!” vd;W $tpagb me;jg; NgUe;jpy; Vwpa ,isQd; , Vfj;jpw;F tpw;gid nra;jhd;. kpfg; nghpa fk;ngdpapd; tpw;gid MNyhrfuhd XUth; ,e;jf; fhl;rpiag; ghhj;Jf; nfhzbUe;jhh;. Kjpatiu mUfpy; mioj;jth; ,
“me;j ,isQdpd; rhkhh;j;jpak; cq;fsplk; ,y;iyNa! mtDf;Fg; Nghl;bahf ePq;fSk; MW gok; gj;J &gha; vd;W tpw;why; jhNd cq;fSf;F tpw;gid MFk;. mjpff; nfhs;Kjy; %yk; Fiwe;j tpiyf;Fg; goq;fis thq;fp yhgj;ijf; Fiwj;J mjpf tpw;gid nra;ag; goFq;fs; jhj;jh”. vd;W jdJ MNyhridfis ms;sp tpl;lhh;. Kjpath; rphpj;jgb, “Ngha;ah...mtd; vd; kfd;. ,e;jg; goKk; mtdJjhd;. MW gok; gj;J &gha;d;D tpw;why;, rl;Ld;D thq;Ftjw;F ek;k rdj;Jf;F kdR tuhJ. mjdhy; jhd; ehd;‟ Ie;J gok; gj;J &gha;d;D $tptpl;L NghNtd;. mg;Gwkh, MW gok; gj;J
&gha;d;D mtd; te;J nrhd;dJk; mlNl! yhgkh ,Uf;Nf vd;W rdq;f rl;Ld;D thq;fpLthq;f. mtd;jhd;ah eprkhd tpahghhp. rdq;fNshl kdir khj;jwJf;Fj;jhd; vd;id Kd;dhb mDg;Gwhd; vd;whh; Kjpath;. vg;gTk; tpahghhp tpahghhp jhd;!. 7. Read the following news item and given your valuable response to it.
Four persons, including a mother and daughter, were arrested by the
city police on Sunday for allegedly faking a robbery in their house in
Madhavaram milk colony a day ago.
The women residents of Third street in Mathur MMDA colony, were
running a chit fund in their neighbourhood and several women in the area
had invested in it. However, the family had spent the invested amount
and so enacted a drama that they had been robbed in order to convince
the neighbours they had lost all the invested money.
The arrested persons were identified as P. Amutha (45), her mother,
Nagammal (65) their relative Udaya Rajan (31) and his friend Gandhi
Rajan. Police sources said that Amutha and Nagammal collected money
from over 150 residents in the area for a Deepavali chit. With less than
ten days left for the festival, they ought to return the amount to the
investors. As they ran out of cash, they devised a plan with the help of
their relative, Udhaya Rajan.
8. Read the given poem and give your critical response to it.
INDIAN WOMEN
- Shri. K. Kumar
In this triple – baked continent
Women don‟t etch angry eyebrows
On mud walls.
Question Code: B11106 Sub Code: U16ELC41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
BRITISH LITERATURE -V
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. “The Time Machine” is a noted work by _____.
a) H. G. Wells b) Hawthorne
c) G. B. Shaw d) W. Golding
2. Samuel Beckett is a / an ____writer.
a) Italian b) Indian
c) Irish d) Canadian
3. „Tradition and the Individual Talent‟ was first published in the
literary magazine_____.
a) The Rambler b) Herald Times
c) The Toddler d) The Egoist
4. According to T. S. Eliot, Shakespeare acquired more essential
history from _____.
a) Homer b) Alexander
c) Plutarch d) Thoreau
5. The poem ‟Hawk Roosting‟ is written by _____.
a) D. H. Lawrence b) G. B. Shaw
c) Wilfred Owen d) Ted Hughes
6. The shield was made for Achilles for the _____war.
a) Herculean b) Crimean
c) Trojan d) Atlantic
7. Professor Higgins had a laboratory at _____street.
a) Walpole b) Wimpole
c) Wampole d) Walpone
8. Higgins has a rival named ______.
a) Neppommuck b) Neomuckle
c) Neanderthal d) Nestimuck
9. The smallest of the boys are called as _____.
a) littluns b) barabarians
c) Lilliputians d) tots
10. Piggy was killed by _____.
a) Roger b) Simon
c) Jack d) Ralph
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a short critical note on G. B. Shaw.
(or)
b) Highlight the salient features of W.B. Yeats‟ poetry.
12. a) How does Eliot define the role of tradition?
(or)
b) How does Eliot reflect his views on poet‟s personality?
13. a) Attempt a short summary of the poem „Strange Meeting‟.
(or)
b) Write a short critical note on „The Shield of Achilles‟.
14. a) Attempt a character sketch of Colonel Pickering.
(or)
b) Analyse the character of Alfred Doolittle.
15. a) Sketch the character of Simon in „Pygmalion‟.
(or)
b) Explain the relevance of the image of the imaginary beast in
the novel „Lord of the Files‟.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Highlight the salient features of Modern English Drama.
17. Critically analyse T.S. Eliot‟s Essay „Tradition and Individual
Talent‟.
18. Attempt a critical summary of the poem „Snake‟.
19. How does Shaw portray the class structure in Pygmalion?
20. „The novel Lord of the Files is a novel of conflicts – Explicate.
*******
Question Code: B61111 Sub Code: P16PHC42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
NUCLEAR AND PARTICLE PHYSICS
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. For an elastic nuclear collision, _______.
a) Q > 0 b) Q < 0
c) Q = 0 d) Q 0
2. 1 Born = ______m2.
a) 10-28
b) 10-24
c) 10-25
d) 10
-26
3. Nuclear force is ________ independent nature.
a) Charge b) Spin
c) Both charge and spin d) None of these
4. The radius R of a nucleus is given by _______.
a) 3/1
0 ArR b) 3/1
0 ArR
c) 3
0 ArR d) 2/1
0 ArR
5. ______ is known as fission or critical parameter
a) A
z b)
2A
z c)
A
z 2
d) 2
2
A
z
6. The fission fragments in thermal neutrons fission of U235 must be -
active, since they contain excess______.
a) Proton b) Neutrons
c) Electrons d) None
7. The angular momentum and parity of 017
8 nucleus, according to
nuclear shell model (including spin orbit coupling) is_____.
a) 0 b) 1/2 c) 3/2 d) 5/2
8. Which one of the following nuclei is „doubly magic‟ ?
a) Sr88
38 b) Sn120
50 c) Pb208
82 d) S33
16
9. Baryon‟s are also known as __________.
a) Fermions b) Bosons
c) mesons d) positrons
10. Which one of the following decays is forbidden?
a) eVVe b) V
c) eVe d) eee
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the different types of nuclear reaction? Explain it.
(or)
b) Calculate the threshold energy for the nuclear reaction
BanN1114 , in MeV.
12. a) Write a short explanatory note on nuclear isomerism.
(or)
b) Explain the detection of neutrino. Discuss why the mass of
proton is less than that of a neutron in positron emission.
13. a) Describe nucleon emission. Obtain an expression for nucleon
separation energy.
(or)
b) What are prompt and delayed neutrons? Explain the important role
of delayed neutrons in nuclear reactors.
14. a) Give a brief account of the single particle Shell model which
predicts the magic numbers.
(or)
b) Explain the negative spin-orbit coupling of an electron bond in an
atom.
15. a) What is meant by CP and CPT ? Mention its significance.
(or)
b) Write a short note on Hyperons.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What is centre of mass frame? Explain Proton-Proton and neutron-
nucleus collision.
17. Describe in detail about the Fermi‟s theory of beta decay.
18. Explain mass parabolas and their importance.
19. How can you predict the shell model and explain it in detail.
20. Describe the conservation laws and explain it in detail.
******
Question Code: B61112 Sub Code: P16PHC43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
NANO SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The best distance one can resolve with optical instruments
disregarding all aberration is of the order of ------------------ with
visible radiation.
a) 250 nm b) 25 nm
c) 100 nm d) 50 nm
2. In STM, the phenomenon of --------------- is used to obtain the
topography of the surface.
a) diffraction b) electron tunneling
c) diffusion d) electron scattering
3. Electro deposition can also be called as --------------.
a) anodic dissolution b) hydrolysis
c) electro plating d) anodic etching
4. Sol-gel is a -------------- method of preparation of nano materials.
a) chemical b) mechanical
c) biological d) hybrid
5. Photonic crystals also called as______ crystals.
a) Conventional b) Holey
c) Stripped d) Dotted
6. In index-guided photonic crystal fiber structure, the dark areas
are air holes. What does white areas suggests? a) Air b) Plasma
c) Water d) Silica
7. Main stumbling blocks to realize a quantum computer is _____.
a) decoherence b) superposition
c) coherence d) confinement
8. ______ is the ultimate limit of fabrication and controls the
arrangement of individual atoms.
a) Ion – beam lithography b) electon beam lithography
c) molecular beam epitaxy d) Atomic lithography
9. Fe, Co, Ni and Gd are ferromagnetic in bulk but they show
______ magnetic in nanophase.
a) ferri b) para
c) super para d) dia
10. The electrical conductivity of a nanotube is ____ times that of
copper.
a) 1000 b) 100 c) 1/100 d) 10
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are Abbe and Rayleigh criterion? Explain.
(or)
b) Explain any two parts of SEM with necessary diagram.
12. a) Discuss the sol-gel method of preparation of nanomaterials.
(or)
b) Discuss the applications of nanomaterials in medical implants and
other medical uses.
13. a) What are photonic crystals? Explain its applications.
(or)
b) Describe transmission and polarization of light.
14. a) Explain the molecular beam epitaxy method of nano fabrication.
(or)
b) What are single electron transistors? Explain.
15. a) Write a note on Robots.
(or)
b) Discuss the environmental applications of nanotechnology.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the function of Atomic Force Microscopy with necessary
illustrations.
17. What is CVD technique? Explain the preparation of nanomaterials
using this technique.
18. Write a detailed note on new low cost energy efficient windows and
solar absorbers based on nano particles.
19. Explain in detail about quantum computers.
20. What are microelectromechanical systems? Explain in detail.
********
Robert : Really Peter! You teach English and you don‟t know who
Dryden is?
Peter : Well I do teach English and I don‟t know anything, about Dryden.
Who is he?
Robert : He was a very great satirist who lived during the seventeenth
century. In fact I hold the view that he is the greatest among
English satirists.
Peter : Ah, no wonder I don‟t know anything about him. You see, I hate
satire. It „s very cheap literature.
Robert: Cheap or expensive, you, as an M.A. degree holder in English,
ought to know something about satire as a literary from and about
great satirists. Wait a minute. Here comes Jane with the coffee.
Do drink it Peter. Let‟s discuss literature later.
20. Mention the etiquettes a public speaker should adopt.
*******
Question Code: B11204 Sub Code: U16ELA41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
PHONETICS AND SPOKEN ENGLISH
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. It is necessary to learn English in the modern world because it is
the language of _____.
a) Americans b) British
c) Science and technology d) Students
2. It is difficult to avoid the _____while speaking English.
a) influence of mother tongue b) influence of speakers
c) influence of movies d) influence of teachers
3. There are _____front vowels.
a) 5 b) 12 c) 4 d) 8
4. ______ is a voiceless bilabial plosive.
a) / m / b) / b / c) / p / d) / e /
5. The consonant that begins a syllable is called the _____consonant.
a) arresting b) releasing
c) neucleus d) abutting
6. Words ending in –ion take the primary accent on the ____syllable.
a) root b) ultimate
c) syllable preceding the suffix d) penultimate
7. The way in which sounds influence each other is called _____.
a) intonation b) elision
c) assimilation d) accent
8. _____is elided in kept quiet.
a) / d / b) / n / c) / t / d) / j /
9. We appreciate people when we are _____.
a) grateful for their help b) irritated
c) defeated by them d) scolded by them
10. _____is judged not only on the basis of content, but on the
personality.
a) An interviewer b) An interviewee
c) A public speaker d) An employer
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Spoken English has become a necessity in the present day
world. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
(or)
b) Why spoken English is neglected? Give reasons.
12. a) Explain back vowels with a vowel diagram.
(or)
b) Write a note on consonant clusters.
13. a) What are syallabic consonants in English? Explain with
examples.
(or)
b) Write a note on accent in compound words.
14. a) Write a note on elision of vowels and consonants.
(or)
b) Explain how rising tone is used in English.
15. a) Write a dialogue between you and your friend about doing
exercise.
(or)
b) If you are allowed to interview the prime minister of India what
question will you ask?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. English has become the lingua France of India. Substantiate your
views.
17. Write an essay on vowel glides.
18. Write an essay on accent in connected speech.
19. Transcribe the following dialogue:
Peter : Hello Robert. You seem to be very busy this afternoon,
preparing an important lecture?
Robert : Hello peter. Do come and sit down. Jane my dear, uncle
Peter is here. Be a good girl and let‟s have two cups of
good coffee. Remember, no sugar in mine. (To Peter)
What were you saying? Oh yes, you said I was busy. In
fact I am busy. Very busy indeed. I‟m preparing a book
on Dryden and his Poetry.
Robert : Dryden? Who is he?
Question Code: A81114 Sub Code: P14HYC42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2017
HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (Since 1453 AD.)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Renaissance movement first began in ______.
a) Italy b) Germany c) France d) England
2. Kepler belonged to ____.
a) Italy b) Grace c) Portugal d) Germany
3. Nicholas Copernicus was a _____scientist.
a) Medicine b) Astronomy
c) Geography d) Biology
4. Principles of continuity was ______.
a) Copernicus b) Tychobrabe
c) Galilio d) Kepler
5. Inventor of Spinning Jenny _____.
a) James Hargeves b) Richard Arkwright
c) Joseph Lagrange d) Euler
6. Stream Engine was invented by ______.
a) Joseph Lagrange b) James work
c) Cavendish d) Priestly
7. Author of the book of origin of species______.
a) Michael Paraday b) Maxwell
c) Selvin d) Darwin
8. Invention of Michael Paraday ______.
a) Stream Engine b) Stream Boat
c) Electric dynamo d) Vaccination
9. ISRO ______.
a) 1956 b) 1962 c) 1969 d) 1977
10. _____was responsible for Green Revolution.
a) M.S. Saminathan b) APJ Abdul kalam
c) Jagedesh Chandra Bose d) Chandra Roy
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Give a short note on Toricelli.
(OR)
b) Give a short note on Francis Bacon.
12. a) Achievements of million Harvey.
(OR)
b) Account of Royal society of London.
13. a) Progress of textile industry in 18th
century.
(OR)
b) Contribution of Euler in Maths.
14. a) Services of James Young Simpson to medicine.
(OR)
b) Achievements of Alexander Graham Bell.
15. a) Theory of Relativity.
(OR)
b) Role of USA in space Research.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Trace the growth of technology during the period of Renaissance.
17. Role of Sir Isac Newton to modern science.
18. Scientific achievements of Joseph Priestley.
19. Contribution of Thomas Alwa Edison to science.
20. Describe the role of USSR in space research.
******
Question Code: A81115 Sub Code: P14HYC43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2017
HISTORY OF MODERN CHINA (1901 to 2000 AD)
Time : 3 Hrs M. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Name the last Manchu ruler.
a) kuang Hsu b) Tungchi
c) Tsuan Tung d) Pu -yi
2. Which was the immediate cause for the Revolution of 1911?
a) Russo – Japanese war b) Entry of Sun – Yat - Sen
c) Nationalisation of Railways d) Tajsing Rebellion
3. When did china enter the First World War?
a) 1914 b) 1915 c) 1916 d) 1917
4. Who were the War Lords?
a) Political Leaders b) Social Leaders
c) Economic Leaders d) Military Leader
5. Chiang Kai Shek was a _____.
a) Revolutionist b) Extremist
c) Nationalist d) Communist
6. Which is the bone of contention between China and Japan?
a) Korea b) Manchuria
c) Shantung d) Fukien
7. Who was the leader of the Red Army?
a) Chiang kai - shek b) Chu Teh
c) Chou – En - lai d) Mao - Tse -Tung.
8. Five years plan was introduced in ______.
a) 1952 b) 1951 c) 1949 d) 1950
9. Name the architect of the communist party in China.
a) Chiang. Kai- shek b) Mao - Tse -Tung
c) Chu – Teh d) Chou – En – Lai
10. Which played an important role in the Cultural Revolution?
a) Liberation Army daily b) People‟s Liberation Army
c) Red quards d) Cultural Revolutionary Committee
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Causes for the downfall of the Manchu dynasty.
(OR)
b) Open Door policy.
12. a) Yuan shi kai.
(OR)
b) 21 Demands.
13. a) Nationalist China.
(OR)
b) Reforms of Chiang –kai – shek.
14. a) Result of the Civil war
(OR)
b) Law reforms.
15. a) Cultural Revolution.
(OR)
b) Deng – xiao ping.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Elucidate the role of Sun – yat. sen in the History of China.
17. Analyse the participation of China in the First World War.
18. Narrate the causes for the II Sino – Japanese war.
19. Trace the activities of CCP till 1939.
20. Evaluate the foreign policy of China.
*******
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Show that for a given initial velocity of projection, there are, in
general two possible directions of projection so as to obtain a given
horizontal range.
17. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane : if e
be the coefficient of restitution , show that the whole distance
described before the particle has finished rebounding is 2
2
1
1
e
eh .
Show also that the whole time taken is g
h
e
e 2
1
1.
18. Find the loss of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two smooth
spheres.
19. Derive the fundamental differential equation representing a SHM
and solve it.
20. The velocities of a particle along and perpendicular to a radius
vector from a fixed origin are 22 and r where and are
constants. Show that the equation to the path of the particle is
22rC where C is a constant. Show also that the
accelerations along and perpendicular to the radius vector are
rr
rr
32
4232 2
and 2 .
*****
Question Code: A20302/A26302 Sub Code: BMAME41/ BMCME41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
DYNAMICS
Time : 3 Hrs BSc (Maths & Maths- CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Time taken by the projectile to reach the greatest height is
a) g
sin u b)
g
sin 2u c)
g
2sin u d)
2g
sin u
2. The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of
projection is
a) 90 b) 60 c) 45 d) 30
3. The time of flight on the inclined plane of angle inclineation angle
is
a) g
)(sin 2u b)
cos g
)(sin 2u c)
g
sin u d) none of these
4. For a perfectly elastic body, the coefficient of restitution is
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1
5. The lass of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two perfectly elastic
smooth spheres is
a) 21
2
2121
2 mm
uumm b) 0 c)
21
21
mm
uu d) 1
6. If two equal perfectly elastic spheres impinge obliquely
a) they interchange their velocities in the direction of the line of
centres b) their velocities are equal
c) they come to rest d) their velocities are unchanged
7. A solution of 0 2
2
xdt
xd is
a) tcosax b) t cos ax
c) t cos ay d) tax cos
8. The period of simple harmonic motion is independent of the
a) frequency b) amplitude c) displacement d) velocity
9. The transverse component of acceleration is
a) 2 rr b) 2y c) 2 rr d) 2r
10. The p – r equation of ellipse is
a) ar p2 b) ar p c) 12
2
2
r
a
p
b d) 1
22
2
r
a
p
b
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Find the greatest height attained by a projectile and the time of flight. (OR)
b) Show that the greatest height which a particle with initial
velocity v can reach on a vertical wall at a distance „a‟ from the
point of projection is 2
22
22 v
ga
g
v.
12. a) A particle is projected at an angle with a velocity u and it
strikes up an inclined plane of inclination at right angles to the
plane. Prove that i) - tan 2 cot
ii) tan 2- tan cot .
(OR)
b) State the three fundamental laws of impact.
13. a) A ball of mass 8 gm. moving with a velocity of 10 cm. per sec.
impinges directly on another of mass 24 gm., moving at 2 cm per sec.
in the same direction. If 2
1 e , find the velocities after impact. Also
calculate the loss in kinetic energy.
(OR)
b) A sphere of mass 1m moving on a horizontal plane with velocity v
impinges obliquely on a sphere of mass 2m at rest on the same plane.
If e = 1 and 1m = 2m , prove that the directions of motion after
impact are at right angles.
14. a) A particle is moving with S.H.M and while making an oscillation
from one extreme position to the other, its distance from the centre of
oscillation at 3 consecutive seconds are 321 , , xxx . Prove that the
period of oscillation is
2 cos
2
311 xx
(OR)
b) Find the resultant of two simple harmonic motions of the same
period and in the same straight line.
15. a) Show that the path of a point P which possesses two constant
velocities u and v, the first of which is in a fixed direction and the
second of which is perpendicular to the radius OP drawn from a fixed
point O, is a conic whose focus is O and whose eccentricity is v
u .
20. Discuss the procedure for recovery, rehabilitation and
reconstruction after disaster.
*******
Question Code: A40109 Sub Code: BBNCR42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2017
FUNDAMENTALS OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The term Tsunami is coined from.
a) Chinese term b) Indian term
c) German term d) Japanase term
2. The important sector/s that feed the mankind is / are
a) agriculture sector b) forest and wildlife
c) livestock and fisheries d) all of these
3. The agency that has laid down the standards for the control of
pollution of air, water and noise is
a) Central pollution control tribunal
b) Central pollution control agency
c) Ministry of Home affairs
d) Central pollution control board
4. Which of the following was termed the “International Decade for
Natural Disaster Reduction?
a) 1980 -1989 b) 1985 – 1994 c) 1990 -1999 d) 2005 -2015
5. In 2000, Congress passed which of the following to encourage
mitigation planning at the state and local levels?
a) The National Flood Insurance Program
b) The Homeland Security Act of 2002
c) The Disaster Mitigation Act of 2000 (DMA2000)
d) The Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP)
6. Which of the following is not an eligible applicant under the
HMGP?
a) State and local governments
b) Indian tribes or other tribal organizations
c) Non – profit organizations
d) Citizens impacted by a declared disaster
7. Which of the following is not a typical mitigation plan component?
a) FEMA approval letter b) Emergency support function
c) Risk assessment d) Risk analysis
8. Disaster management committee is not concerned with
a) warning dissemination b) rescue
c) first aid d) making contact with other institutions
9. Which of the following is a disaster mitigation strategy?
a) constructing cyclone shelters
b) giving loans from banks
c) providing cheap electricity
d) providing school uniforms to children
10. Who is the chairman of the national disaster management authority
set up under disaster management act, 2005 in India?
a) Home minister b) Prime minister
c) Finance minister d) Rural development minister
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the common elements of disaster?
(OR)
b) Define chemical attack. What should you do in a chemical
attack?
12. a) State the fundamentals of remote sensing.
(OR)
b) Explain the uses of GIS for disaster management.
13. a) What do you mean by cost benefit analysis? Explain its importance.
(OR)
b) What are the functions of National crisis management committee?
14. a) What are the components of environmental impact analysis?
(OR)
b) Explain the various consequences of disaster.
15. a) Explain the functions of crisis management team.
(OR)
b) What are the importances of disaster recovery plans?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the different types of Authorpogenic disasters.
17. What are the precautions to be taken in the case of landslides?
18. Describe the different steps involved in the management of disaster.
19. Enumerate the functions and responsibilities of district disaster
management committee.
Question Code: A40110 Sub Code: BBNCR43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Scope of Organizational Behaviour does not include ______.
a) Leadership b) Perception
c) Job Design d) Technology
2. Scientists of Organizational Behaviour recognize that organizations
are not static but dynamic and ______.
a) Processing b) Systematic
c) Ever changing d) Researching
3. Meso Organization behaviour is related with ______.
a) Individual behaviour b) Group behaviour
c) Organizational behaviour d) Individual
4. Groups created by managerial decision in order to accomplish stated
goals of the organization are called ______ groups.
a) Formal b) Informal c) Task d) Interest
5. A motive is defined as ______.
a) A price of product
b) An inner state that energizes, activates and directs the behaviour of
individuals towards certain goals
c) An inner state that provides difficult task to the player
d) A cost
6. In Vroom‟s Expectancy Theory, Valence means________.
a) Strength of an individual‟s preference for a particular outcome
b) Salary c) Supervision d) Knowledge of Planning
7. Which is the method of Conflict Management?
a) Conflict Resolution Method b) Conflict Reduction Method
c) Conflict Stimulation Method d) None
8. _______ is the General term applied to the pressures that people
feel in life.
a) Stress b) Motivation c) Culture d) Development
9. Decentralization of power, team structure and flattening of the
hierarchy are examples of which type of organizational change?
a) People change b) Strategic change
c) Structural change d) Technological change
10. Which of the following is considered to be a source of resistance to
organizational change at the individual-level?
a) Firm Inertia b) Selective Perception
c) Threats to power structures d) Job Re-Structuring
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the nature of Organization behaviour.
(OR)
b) Explain any two models of Organization behaviour.
12. a) What are the five stages of Group Development?
(OR)
b) Define Group Cohesiveness. Identify the factors which influence
group cohesiveness.
13. a) Discuss the importance of Motivation.
(OR)
b) Give the differences between Theory X and Theory Y.
14. a) What are the consequences of Stress?
(OR)
b) Suggest coping strategies for stress.
15. a) Explain the types of Change.
(OR)
b) How to overcome resistance to change?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Name and explain the various approaches to Organization behaviour.
17. Elucidate the Process of Decision-Making.
18. Elaborate Herzberg‟s two factor theory.
19. Define conflict. What are the various stages of conflicts?
20. Name and explain the steps in OD process
********
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*********
Question Code: A40108 Sub Code: BBNCR41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2017
INDUSTRIAL LAWS
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Factories Act was enacted in the year
a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1949 d) 1950
2. ______is due to shortage of coal or power.
a) Strike b) Closure
c) Lock – out d) Lay -off
3. ______refers to an association of workers in a particular industry.
a) Chamber b) Club c) Trade Union d) Factory
4. _____means body of rules of an industrial establishment which
governs terms and conditions of employment.
a) Standing orders b) Court orders
c) Government orders d) Company orders
5. The total amount of deductions which may be made in any wage
period from the wages in case of persons employed in cooperative
societies shall not exceed.
a) 25% b) 45% c) 50% d) 75%
6. _____is the payment to help employees after retirement.
a) Bonus b) Pension c) Gratuity d) compensation
7. The Workmen‟s Compensation Act was passed in the year
a) 1923 b) 1933 c) 1943 d) 1953
8. The employer and the employee contribute their share to _____.
a) Pension Fund b) Provident Fund
c) Bonus Fund d) Insurance Fund
9. As per section 8 of the payment of Bonus Act, an employee for
being entitled to bonus, he should have at least worker for
_____days in a particular accounting year.
a) Twenty b) Thirty c) Fifty d) Sixty
10. A _____means any person who buys any goods for consideration.
a) Trader b) Businessman
c) Consumer d) Seller
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the provisions of Factories Act relating to welfare of the
workers.
(OR)
b) Define the following terms
i) Industrial disputes ii) Retrenchment iii) Strike
12. a) List out the powers and duties of certifying officers under the
Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act.
(OR)
b) Explain the rights and privileges of registered trade unions.
13. a) State the provisions relating to payment of gratuity.
(OR)
b) Mention the particulars to be maintained in the Registers and
Records by the employer.
14. a) Write a note on the Employee‟s Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.
(OR)
b) Bring out the differences between temporary partial disablement
and permanent partial disablement.
15. a) Explain the provisions relating to payment of bonus.
(OR)
b) What are the rights of consumers? Explain them.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the provisions of Factories Act with regard to safety of
workers.
17. Discuss the provisions relating to registration of a trade union.
18. Explain the rules relating to nomination by the employee to receive
gratuity.
19. Write about the authorities established for the administration of
Employee‟s Provident Fund Scheme.
20. Describe the provisions relating to the determination of Bonus under
the payment of Bonus Act.
******
Question Code : A70113 Sub Code: P14CAC42 / MCACR42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
COMPUTER GRAPHICS AND MULTIMEDIA
Time : 3 Hrs M.C.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap
on a CRT is referred to as _______
a) Resolution b) Persistance
c) aspect ratio d) Pixmap
2. The display co-ordinate systems are referred to as _____
a) local co-ordinates b) device co-ordinates
c) word co-ordinates d) modelling co-ordinates
3. The process of filling an area with a rectangular pattern is called ____
a) Hatch fill b) soft fill
c) tint fill d) tiling
4. Which one of the following transformation distorts the shape of an
object?
a) Translation b) Rotation
c) Shear d) Reflection
5. The region against which an object is to be clipped is called _____
a) window b) clip window
c) view port d) area clipping
6. A composite three dimensional transformation can be formed
by_____ the matrix representations for the individual operation in
the transformation sequence.
a) adding b) subtracting
c) multiplying d) dividing
7. Which release of product is typically for internal circulation only?
a) alpha b) beta
c) Gamma d) Mega
8. Which of the following is not a stage in multimedia project?
a) Planning b) Testing
c) Designing d) Printing
9. MIDA stands for _____
a) Musical Instrument Digital Interface
b) Multimedia Instrument Digital Interface
c) Multimedia Instrument Display Interface
d) Multimedia Interface for Digital Instrument
10. The popular effect that transforms one image into another is
called____.
a) Tweening b) Morphing
c) Tweaking d) inverse kinematics
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the architecture of Raster Scan Systems with a neat
diagram.
(OR)
b) Write and explain Bresenham‟s line drawing algorithm.
12. a) Discuss about area – fill attributes.
(OR)
b) Explain the basic transformations in 2D with neat diagrams.
13. a) Explain the two dimensional window – to – viewport co-ordinate
transformation with the neat diagram.
(OR)
b) Write notes on text clipping.
14. a) Explain the building blocks of multimedia project.
(OR)
b) Explain the role of multimedia production manger in detail.
15. a) Explain multimedia project revision and documentation.
(OR)
b) Discuss the important considerations in preparing the multimedia
project for delivery in the market place.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss about the different categories of flat panel displays.
17. Explain any five anti-alaising methods.
18. Explain Liang – Barsky line clipping algorithm in detail.
19. Explain the importance of multimedia production team in producing
quality multimedia.
20. Write about the testing, revision and documentation in multimedia
application production.
*******
Question Code: Sub Code: P14CAE41/ MCAME41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
WEB TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs M. C. A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ---------- is the port number for SMTP.
a) 25 b) 26 c) 27 d) 28
2. The purpose of MTA is ---------.
a) Message preparation b) storing message
c) Transferal of message across the internet d) All the above
3. ---------- is the Microsoft implementation of JavaScript for IE.
a) CGI Script b) VBScript c) Jscript d) XML
4. A cookie can maintain -----------.
a) the number of times a user has visited a particular page
b) personalized sit
c) customized color scheme for a website
d) All the above
5. The Embedded style sheets can be applied ---------------.
a) Only within one web document b) for many documents
c) for child documents d) Script documents
6. Empty elements are elements ------------,
a) with no attributes b) with no content
c) with no closing tag d) None of the above
7. For commenting ------- is used in Perl.
a) // b) “ c) /*…*/ d) #
8. The ---------- method is heart of the servlet.
a) Init() b) service() c) start() d) destroy()
9. ----------- are implicit objects of JSP.
a) Page b) Out
c) Config d) IN
10. ---------- object is used to store the information about user session.
a) response b) request
c) Application d) session
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write a note on STMP.
(OR)
b) Comment on the table tag with an example.
12. a) Discuss about the document object in JavaScript.
(OR)
b) Elucidate the two types of procedures in VBScript.
13. a) Elucidate the DHTML document object model and collections.
(OR)
b) Explain the syntax of the XML document with example.
14. a) Explain about CGI Security issues.
(OR)
b) Write a short note on Servlet API.
15. a) Explain ASP cookies with an example.
(OR)
b) Discuss about response object with an example
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the following:
i) Text formatting
ii) Linking tag
ii) Embedding image tag.
17. With example describe various looping statements in JavaScript.
18. Discuss XML Schema in detail.
19. Illustrate servlet life cycle in detail.
20. Summarize the components of JSP.
******
Question Code: A62112 Sub Code: P14CHC43/ MCHCR43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY –IV
(Chemical kinetics, surface and photochemistry)
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The frequency factor is given the symbol.
a) A b) S c) T d) E
2. The rate constant will be independent of ionic strength when
a) 2BAZZ b) 1BAZZ c) 0BAZZ d) 5.0BAZZ
3. Relaxation methods are used to investigate fast reactions in
a) Gases b) solids
c) Solutions d) Vapour
4. Flow techniques can be applied if the time course of the reaction is in the
range of
a) sec10 1 3to b) sec10 1 5to c) sec10 1 7to d) sec10 1 9to
5. Adsorption and absorption take place simultaneously in the process.
a) Adsorption b) Physisorption
c) Sorption d) Chemisorption
6. BET adsorption isotherm is applicable for
a) Single layer adsorption b) Double layer adsorption
c) Triple layer adsorption d) Multilayer adsorption
7. Recognition of molecules take place through
a) Ion-dipole forces b) Vendor Waal‟s forces
c) Dipole – Dipole forces d) All the above
8. Anabolism leads to
a) Dissociation of molecules b) Degration of molecules
c) Disintegration of molecules d) Synthesis of bio molecules
9. The life time of phosphorescence is of the order of
a) sec10 3 b) sec10 5 c) sec10 8 d) sec10 9
10. Inter system crossing involves the following transition.
a) 12 SS b) 0SSn c) nn TS d) 1TTn
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the ARR theory of simple bimolecular reactions.
(OR)
b) Describe the Rice – Herzfeld mechanism for the decomposition of
acetaldehyde .
12. a) How are ultrasonic absorption and continuous flow techniques used
to study fast reactions.
(OR)
b) Explain the flash photolysis technique.
13. a) Explain how will you calculate surface area from BET equation.
(OR)
b) Discuss about the preparation of LB films.
14. a) What is supra molecular chemistry. Give an account of its
applications (Any four).
(OR)
b) Give an account of NMR imaging.
15. a) Detail the Forster‟s treatment of excited state acidity.
(OR)
b) Explain the concept of photosensitization and chemiluminescence.
Give two examples for each.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. What are chain reactions? Arrive at an expression for the rate of 22 BrH
reaction.
17. What do you mean by relaxation method? With diagram explain the
temperature jump and pressure jump methods.
18. Define Adsorption isotherm. Discuss in detail about Langmuir adsorption
isotherm.
19. a) Explain what are high energy metabolites?
b) Discuss the role of ATP in coupled reactions.
20. a) Give an account of the different types of high energy radiations that are
employed in radiation chemistry experiments.
b) Discuss about radiolysis of water.
********
Question Code: A70114 Sub Code: P14CAC43 / MCACR43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which is called classic life cycle model?
a) LSM b) PRM c) RAD d) INM
2. Preparation of manuals will take _______ of the total time spent in a
life cycle.
a) 10 – 20 % b) 20 – 30 %
c) 30 – 40 % d) 40 – 50 %
3. _____is the process of ensuring that deviations are documented and
reported.
a) auditing b) inspection
c) review d) quality control
4. Which model shows how business is organized in terms of functions
and deliverables?
a) Business process b) Business system
c) Business organisation d) Information flow
5. User interfaces and data entry comes under ______ layer of system.
a) control b) conceptual
c) logical d) operational
6. When the module processes all tasks within the module that are
time related and time controlled then it is _______ cohesive.
a) temporal b) procedural
c) logically d) effective
7. Warning and prompts are related to error ________.
a) recovery b) correction
c) detection d) prevention
8. COM stands for ______.
a) Common Object Model b) Component Object Module
c) Common Object Module d) Component Object Model
9. White box testing is also called ______ testing.
a) behavioral b) performance
c) glass box d) complete
10. Tests that are designed to evaluate the software performance in rare
and abnormal conditions is called _______ testing.
a) recovery b) stress
c) security d) technical
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss different types of software.
(OR)
b) Enumerate the estimation of effort and schedule.
12. a) Specify the risk types in requirement according to SEI software
risk taxonomy.
(OR)
b) Discuss the analysis tools.
13. a) Describe the information systems.
(OR)
b) Explain the system design architecture.
14. a) Specify the guidelines for designing UI components.
(OR)
b) Discuss the program verification.
15. a) Describe unit testing.
(OR)
b) Elaborate the following testings:
(i) Aplha (ii) Beta (iii) User satisfaction
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the Constructive Cost Model.
17. Discuss the requirements engineering phase.
18. Illustrate the system‟s behaviour design.
19. Elaborate the user interface analysis and design.
20. Explain the test cases and test plans.
********
17. Find the equation of the straight line passing through the intersection of
the lines 824 and 1743 yxyx and perpendicular to
1257 yx .
18. Investigate the maxima and minima for 133 xxy .
19. Evaluate dxx x
2
1
2
e .
20. Solve the following equations by Matrix Inversion Method.
3473 ; 14584 zyxzyx ; x + y – z = 0
*****
Question Code: A40204 Sub Code: BBNAS41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10marks) 1. A set having finite number of elements is called a .
a) Empty set b) Infinite set c) Finite set d) Universal set
2. 11A is equal to
a) 1A b) A c) U d) 1
A
3. If p is the midpoint of AB then l = m, p is
a) 2
,2
2121 yyxx b)
2,
2
2211 yxyx
c) 2
,2
2121 yyxx d)
2,
2
2211 yxyx
4. The points have both the co-ordinates as positive numbers lie in the
a) IV Quadrant b) III Quadrant c) II Quadrant d) I Quadrant
5. The differential co-efficient of 525 xx with respect to x is
a) 14 xx b) 55 36 xx c) xx 25 4 d) none
6. The local minimum point for the function 2)1(xy is at
a) x = 0 b) x = 1/ 2 c) x = 2 d) x = 1
7. dxx 1 is equal to
a) cxlog b) cx
2
2
c) cx 1 d) cx
1
log
8. dxx35 is equal to
a) cx215 b) cx10 c) cx 4
4
15 d) cx3
4
5
9. S =
100
020
003
is a
a) Unit matrix b) Diagonal matrix c) Scalar matrix d) None
10. If [ 6 5 ] + [ a b ] = [ 6 5 ] the value of a + b is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 6
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) If A = {1, 2, 3, 4,5} = B = { 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 }, C = { 1, 4, 5, 6 } find
i) (A B) C ii) A ( B C )
iii) ( A B ) C iv) A ( B C )
(OR)
b) If A, B, C are any three sets, then using Venn diagram prove that
i) A ( B C ) = ( A B ) ( A C )
ii) A ( B C ) = (A B) (A C)
12. a) Find the point of intersection of the lines 7x – y – 3 = 0 and
2x – 5y –15 = 0.
(OR)
b) A company expects fixed costs of Rs.37,500 and variable cost of
Rs.50,000 on sales of Rs.80,000 i) Find the Break Even Point
ii) What will be the profit for a sales of Rs.90,000.
13. a) Find the differential co-efficient of 752 xxe w. r. t x .
(OR)
b) If y = 2
xex find 2
2
dx
yd
14. a) Evaluate 2
154
xxe x dx .
(OR)
b) Evaluate dxx
25
0
1
15. a) If A = 53
32 verify that 072 IAA .
(OR)
b) Find the adjoint of the matrix A =
302
133
313
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Out of a group of 50 teachers in a High school 30 teach Mathematics, 20
teach English and 25 teach Science. 10 teach both Mathematics and
Science, and none teach Mathematics and English. How many teach
Science and English and how many teach only English?
Question Code: A40302 Sub Code: BBNME41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10marks) 1. Marketers often use the term ______to cover various groupings of
customers.
a) people b) buying power c) demographic segment d) market
2. A further 3‟ps are incorporated into the marketing mix.
a) physical evidence, process and price
b) process, people and promotion
c) physical evidence, people and production
d) physical evidence, process and people
3. Luxury products such as Rolex watches are also known as _____.
products.
a) shopping b) emergency c) shopping d) speciality
4. The way in which the product is delivered to meet the customer‟s needs
refers to _____.
a) New product concepts and improvements b) selling
c) Promotion activities d) distribution activities
5. The act of selling the same product at different prices to different buyers.
a) discriminatory pricing b) psychological pricing
c) location pricing d) prestige pricing
6. Selling directly to ultimate consumers are ______.
a) wholesalers b) retailers
c) distributors d) middlemen
7. Advertising appropriations are largest for ____type of products.
a) industrial b) convenience goods
c) high priced d) speciality
8. ______is a means through which advertisers communicate their
messages to the audience.
a) Advertising agency b) Advertising media
c) web based advertising d) product advertising
9. Sales promotion takes the _____towards the buyer.
a) product b) price
c) place d) promotion
10. ______is the last stage of the consumer decision process.
a) Search for information b) Post purchase behaviour
c) Alternate Evaluation d) none
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Differentiate between marketing and selling.
(OR)
b) Explain the elements of marketing mix.
12. a) Describe the process of new product development.
(OR)
b) Write down the factors that are to be taken while introducing a new
product.
13. a) What are the factors be considered while making pricing decisions?
(OR)
b) Describe the levels of marketing channels.
14. a) Explain the AIDA concepts of advertising.
(OR)
b) Describe the effective features of advertising.
15. a) Describe the steps in consumer buying process.
(OR)
b) What are the qualities of a sales person?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the components of marketing mix in detail.
17. What are the different types of packaging? How does the packaging help
in the development of a product?
18. Describe the junctions of wholesalers to retailers and manufactures.
19. What is an advertising copy? How is it prepared? What are the main
factors of an advertisement copy?
20. Explain about the sales promotion at various levels.
********
Question Code: A62308 Sub Code: P14CHE42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
POLYMER CHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The polymerisation in which carbanion is formed in initiation step.
a) Free radical b) cationic c) anionic d) co-ordination
2. Polymerisation of caprolactam to form Nylon -6 is an example of _____
a) Ring – opening b) Poly addition
c) Poly – condensation d) none of the above
3. A thermo plastic is formed by the phenomenon ______.
a) Chlorination b) condensation polymerisation
c) nitration d) chain polymerisation
4. Polymers prepared by synthesis from simple substance are called_____.
a) Natural polymers b) synthetic polymers
c) linear polymers d) 3 – D polymers
5. The useful range of degree of polymerisation is
a) 200 -2000 b) 180 -3000 c) 200 – 2500 d) 180 - 3500
6. Which one of the following is the characteristics of a plasticizer _____.
a) Low boiling point and high volatility
b) high boiling point and low volatility
c) non – volatility and Low molecular mass
d) Not resistant to moisture
7. Ultrasonic sound waves refer to high frequencies say above ____Hertz.
a) 20000 b) 10000 c) 5000 d) 600
8. In Nylon -6, 6 is an example of
a) solution poly condensation b) interfacial condensation
c) melt poly condensation d) none of the above
9. Spongy materials can be obtained by ______method.
a) Thermo forming b) extrusion moulding
c) extrusion moulding d) reinforcing
10. ____is a technique for fabricating 3-Dimentional article from plastic
sheets
a) Foaming b) thermo forming c) blow moulding d) calendaring
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Give the mechanism of cationic polymerisation with suitable
examples.
(OR)
b) Explain the classification of the polymers on the basis of their
process, properties and origin.
12. a) How are polystyrene and PVC synthesised? Give their applications.
(OR)
b) Explain the methods of preparation and the uses of poly – methyl
methacrylate and polycarbonate.
13. a) Explain the practical significance of polymers molecular weight?
(OR)
b) Explain the following i) molecular weights and degree of
polymerisation ii) polydispersity and molecular weight distribution
in polymers.
14. a) Write note on i) Bulk polymerisation ii) Solution polymerisation
(OR)
b) Explain the following i) anti oxidants ii) hydrolytic degradation.
15. a) What are the different methods for the production of reinforced
plastics, Explain any one method with neat diagram and applications.
(OR)
b) Explain the following terms i) Plastics ii) Elastomers
iii) Componding and plasticizer iv) plasticizer
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the mechanisms involved in co-ordination polymerisation,
metathetical and poly addition polymerisation.
17. Describe the synthesis and application of i) poly urethanes
ii) poly chloroprene iii) melamine formaldehyde polymers.
18. a) Explain the structural regularity and other factors affecting the
crystallisability of polymers.
b) Discuss the following i) Tg and molecular weight
ii) kinetics of polymerisation
19. a) Explain the following i) melt poly condensation
ii) solid and gas phase polymerisation
b) Give the applications of polymer in electronics and bio - medicines.
20. Explain the principle and applications of film extrusion and calendaring
polymer process with neat diagrams.
*******
Question Code: A62111 Sub Code: P14CHC42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY –IV
( Nuclear and Organometallic Chemistry )
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. To which decay series does the element M189 belong?
a) 4n b) 4n +2 c) 4n +1 d) 4n+3
2. The magnetic moment of a nucleus of odd-type will be .
a) half integer b) zero
c) integer d) not predictable
3. A nuclear with negative packing fraction is
a) unstable b) stable
c) emitting - partide d) emitting partide
4. 54
26 Fe undergoes electron capture reaction. The product will be
a) 55
25 Mn b) 54
26 Fe c) 56
26 Fe d) 55
27Co
5. The ground state term symbol for 3Sm is
a) 4
5 I b) 0
6 F c) 2
7
8S d) 2
5
6 H
6. The ion showing sharp spectral lines is
a) 3La b) 4Ac d) 3Sm d) 3Gd
7. The parameter measured in DSC is
a) dH. dt b) dm / dt c) Mass d) reflectance
8. Turbidence S =
a) c
kb b)
bc
k c) kbc d)
kc
b
9. Wilkinson‟s catalyst is
a) RhdPPh23 b) lRhPPh c
43
c) lRhPPh c 3 d) lRhPPh c 33
10. Hybridisation of nitrogen in bent nitrosyl is
a) 2sp b) sp c) 3sp d) both sp and 2sp
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) i) State and explain Soddy – Fajan‟s group displacement law.
ii) Write briefly about electron capture and internal conversion.
(OR)
b) What is mass defect? How is it related to binding energy and
stability of a nucleolus?
12. a) Discuss the applications of radio – active isotopes in medical,
agriculture and industrial fields.
(OR)
b) Explain the theory of nuclear fission.
13. a) How are lanthanides separated from monazite?
(OR)
b) Explain the magnetic preparation and colour of the activities.
14. a) Describe the principle and applications of fluorimetry.
(OR)
b) Explain the principle and application of cyclic voltammetry.
15. a) Discuss the mechanism of olefin polymerization using Ziegler – Natta
catalyst.
(OR)
b) Explain the structure and bonding in ferrocene.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. a) Discuss the secular and transient equilibria.
b) Write a note on Anger effect.
17. Describe the mass distribution in fission products.
18. a) Explain the position of lanthanides and actinides in the periodic table.
b) Write notes on lanthanide contraction.
19. Discuss the principles and applications of DTA and DSC.
20. a) Illustrate with an example on the hydro formulation by xo process.
b) Explain the mechanism of hydrogenation of olefins by Wilkinson‟s
catalyst.
******
Question Code: B70303 Sub Code: P16CAE43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
DATA MINING AND DATA WAREHOUSING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. KDD stands for _____.
a) Knowledge distributed in data base
b) Knowledge dictionary in data base
c) knowledge defined in data base
d) knowledge discovery in data base
2. Which task will remove noise from data?
a) Smoothing b) Aggregation c) Generalization d) Normalization
3. ID3 algorithm was developed by ______.
a) P. T. Stone b) E. B. Hunt c) J. Ross Quinlan d) J. Martin
4. Market basket analysis is an example of ______.
a) classification technique b) clustering technique
c) association rule mining d) data cleaning
5. The process of finding groups of objects such that the objects in a
group will be similar to one another is known as _____.
a) classification b) clustering c) association rule mining d) regression
6. Which one of the following is a hierarchical clustering algorithm?
a) K - Means clustering b) DB – Scan clustering
c) Agglomerative clustering d) CLIQUE clustering
7. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of data
warehouse?
a) subject oriented b) integrated c) time variant d) volatile
8. Data about data is called _____
a) mega data b) meta data c) data auditing d) migrated data
9. ROLAP Stands for ______.
a) Relational Online Analytical Prediction
b) Relational Offline Analytical Processing
c) Relational Online Analytical Processing
d) Relational Offline Analytical Prediction
10. The process of consolidating data values into a single value is
known as _______.
a) Data modelling b) Data base Designing
c) Data Recovery d) Data Aggregation
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss various data mining tasks.
(OR)
b) Discuss the data cleaning process with example.
12. a) State and describe the statistical measures used in large database
with examples.
(OR)
b) Write about multilevel association rule with example.
13. a) Describe in detail about K- Nearest Neighbor classification
algorithm.
(OR)
b) Write a short note on hierarchical clustering with example.
14. a) What is multidimensional data model? Discuss.
(OR)
b) Define data mart in data warehouse and explain.
15. a) Discuss the types of OLAP servers.
(OR)
b) Write a short note on data warehouse recovery models.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain about KDD process in data mining with neat diagram.
17. Assume that the user specified minimum support is 50% , and then
generate all frequent item sets using APRIOI Algorithm for the
following transaction database
tiD Items
C1 Bread, butter, rice
C2 Milk, butter, sugar
C3 Bread, milk, butter, sugar
C4 Milk, sugar
18. Discuss the classification by back propagation neural network with
example.
19. With schematic diagram the three – tier data warehouse architecture.
20. Briefly explain about Decision support system.
******
Question Code: B70107 Sub Code: P16CAC43
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2017
C # WITH ASP. NET PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs M.C.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The ____defines the rules concerning data types in C#.
a) CLS b) CTS c) TCS d) JIT
2. ______is the process by which one object can acquire the properties
of another object.
a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance
c) Polymorphism d) Data Hiding
3. Which one of the following expression is not allowed in switch
statement?
a) char b) int
c) float d) enumeration type
4. _____exception is generated when array boundaries are strictly
enforced in C#.
a) ArrayNotFound b) ArrayOverflow
c) IndexArrayBounds d) IndexOutOfRange
5. The _____object provides a window onto a Data Table in ADO .NET.
a) Data Row b) DataColumn
c) Data Relation d) DataView
6. Which one of the following properties define all the information
that the computer needs?
a) provider b) connection string
c) UserID d) DataSource
7. Which method transfers the user to another page in your application
or a different web site?
a) Redirect b) Request
c) Response d) MapPath
8. _____property is used to specify singleline, multiline or password
in TextBox.
a) Passwd b) TextStyle
c) TextMode d) TextArea
9. _____control validation is performed by a user defined function.
a) Comparevalidator b) Customvalidator
c) Regular Expression Validator d) Range Validator
10. _____event checks the command name to find out what type of
button was clicked.
a) Edit Item Index b) generic Button Type
c) generic Button Cmd d) genericItemCommand
Part B
Answer ALL questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write short notes on C# keywords and Identifiers.
(OR)
b) Discuss the scope and lifetime of variables in detail.
12. a) Explain the bitwise operators in C# with examples.
(OR)
b) What is JaggedArrays? Explain in detail.
13. a) Discuss the following: i) DataSet and ii) DataTable
(OR)
b) How do you use a command with a dataReader?
14. a) What are the properties associated with page class? Explain.
(OR)
b) Explain basic web control classes in detail.
15. a) Briefly explain the AdRotator class and its properties.
(OR)
b) Write a note on the Repeater control.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss about Type conversion and casting in detail.
17. Explain different looping constructs in C# with examples.
18. Discuss the role of SQL statement in ADO. NET with examples.
19. Describe about improving the currency converter with event handling
procedure.
20. Explain the validation process in ASP.NET by means of simple
validation example.
********
Question Code: A81304 Sub Code: P14HYE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
ARCHIVES KEEPING
Time : 3 Hrs M. A (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. National Archives Act was passed in U.S.A in the year
a) 1934 b) 1940 c) 1960 d) 1950
2. Akhapatta was referred by
a) Indiga b) Artha sastra
c) Raja tharangini d) kademberi
3. In the year 1820 Record office was created at Fork William in
a) Madras b) Calcutta
c) Bombay d) Delhi
4. Where was the Register system oriented in the early time?
a) England b) Greek
c) Rome d) Africa
5. Name the bleaching agent used in archives
a) sodium chloride b) Alcohol
c) salt d) none
6. Which method is useful in controlling the temperature?
a) Air conditioning b) open theatre
c) closed door d) none
7. Which was the first secretariat of the English East India Company?
a) public department b) revenue department
c) military department d) secret department
8. When was Tamil Nadu archives established?
a) 1901 b) 1905 c) 1909 d) 1910
9. Who wrote a book entitled “The Madras presidency 1881 -1931”
a) Dr. B.S. Boliga b) Macqueen
c) G. T. Boag d) J. J. Galton
10. Sringeri mutt is located in the state of
a) Kerala b) Karnataka
c) Andhra d) Tamil Nadu
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the meaning and definition of Archives.
( OR )
b) Write about the Archives keeping in Room during the ancient
period.
12. a) Write a note on collection of Records.
( OR )
b) Trace out the origin of archives in France.
13. a) What are the general principles followed for the adoption of
proper preservation of Archives.
(OR)
b) Narrate the various methods used for the DUST Removal.
14. a) Explain the Administration of National Archives of India.
( OR )
b) Give a note on Rehabilitation of records.
15. a) Write a note on the major categories of records.
(OR)
b) Give an account of Parry and company.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the Archives keeping in India during the ancient period
to modern period.
17. What are the materials used for the creation of archives?
18. Define the various cleaning process used to remove the stain from
the papers.
19. Narrate the uses of Archives.
20. Write an essay on Indian Historical Records Commission.
*******
-1- -8-
scrap value. The loss of processes A and B is sold at Rs.5 per 100 units.
The output of each process passes immediately to the next process and the
finished units are passed into stock.
Process A Rs. Process B Rs.
Materials consumed 6,000 4,000
Direct labour 8,000 6,000
Manufacturing expenses 1,000 1,000
20,000 units have been issued to Process A at a cost of Rs.10,000. The
output of each process has been as under:
Process A 19,500; Process B 18,800
Prepare Process Accounts.
20. From the following figures prepare a reconciliation statement between
cost and financial records:
Question Code: A50112 / A51110 Sub Code: P14COC41 / P14MCC41
MCOCR41 / MCCCR41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
COST ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Overhead cost is the total of
a) All indirect costs b) All direct costs
c) Direct and Indirect cost d) Specific cost
2. Advertisement is a part of
a) Prime cost b) Office overhead
c) Selling overhead d) Factory overhead
3. LIFO method of pricing of materials issues is more suitable when
a) Material prices are rising b) Material prices are falling
c) Material prices are fluctuating d) None of these.
4. Time wages are paid on the basis of
a) Standard time b) Time saved
c) Output produced d) Actual time
5. Charging output with overhead at some reasonable rate is called
a) Allocation b) Absorption
c) Apportionment d) None of these.
6. Sundry overhead expenses may be apportioned on the basis of:
a) Material cost b) Wages
c) Labour hours d) None of these
Rs.
Net profit as per financial records 1,28,755
Net profit as per costing records 1,72,400
Works overhead under – recovered in costing 3,120
Administrative overhead in excess 1,700
Depreciation charged in financial records 11,200
Depreciation recovered in costing 12,500
Interest received but not include in costing 8,000
Obsolescence loss charged in financial records 5,700
Income tax provided in financial books 40,300
Bank interest credited in financial books 750
Stores adjustment (credit in financial books) 475
Depreciation of stock charged in financial books 6,750
-2-
-7-
7. Job costing is the most suitable method for
a) Oil processing units b) Transport companies
c) Sugar industry d) Repair shops
8. Cost of abnormal loss is shown in
a) Balance sheet b) P/L credit side
c) P/L Debit side d) None of these
9. Over absorption of over heads in Cost accounts results in
a) Decrease in costing profit
b) Decrease on Financial Accounts profit
c) No effect profits of both the accounts
d) None of these
10. Under valuation of Closing stock in cost accounts
a) Decreases costing profit b) Increases costing profit
c) No effect d) Decreases Financial profit
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Distinguish between cost accounting and financial accounting.
(OR)
b) The following data relate to the manufacture of a standard
product during July 2006.
Raw materials consumed Rs.20,000
Direct wages Rs.18,000
Total machine hours 3000
Machine hour rate Rs.2
Office on cost 10% on works cost
Selling on cost Rs.2.50 p.u
Production -5000 units
Sales - 4600 units @ Rs.20 each.
Prepare a cost sheet showing cost and profit per unit.
A
Rs
B
Rs
C
Rs
X
Rs
Y
Rs.
Direct material
Direct wages
Factory rent
Power
Depreciation
Other overheads
Additional Information:
Area (sq,ft.)
Capital value (Rs. Lacs) of assets
Machine hours
Hours power of Machines
1,000
5,000
4,000
2,500
1,000
9,000
500
20
1,000
50
2,000
2,000
250
40
2,000
40
4,000
8,000
500
20
4,000
20
2,000
1,000
250
10
1,000
15
1,000
2,000
500
10
1,000
25
A technical assessment for the apportionment of expenses of service
departments is as under,
A
%
B
%
C
%
X
%
Y
%
Service dept X
Service dept Y
45
60
15
35
30
-
-
5
10
-
Required:
(a) A statement showing distribution of overheads to various departments
(b) A statement showing re-distribution of service department‟s expenses to
production departments.
21. The product of a company passes through two processes to completion
known as A and B. From the past experience it is ascertained that loss is
incurred in each process as:
Process A – 2% Process B – 5%
In each case the percentage of loss is computed on the number of units
entering the process concerned. The loss of each process possesses a
-6-
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
21. The accounts of Shankar Company Ltd. show for the year 2005.
Materials Rs.35,000; Labour Rs.27,000; Factory overheads
Rs.81,000 and administration overheads Rs.56,080.
What price should the company quote for a refrigerator? It is
estimated that Rs.1,000 for material and Rs.700 for labour will be
required for one refrigerator. Absorb factory overheads on the basis
of labour and administration overheads on the basis of works cost. A
profit of 12½ % on selling price is required.
22. Showing the stores ledger entries as they would appear when using
the LIFO method of pricing issues, in connection with the following
transactions:
April Units Value
Rs.
1 Balance in hand b/f 300 600
2 Purchased 200 440
4 Issued 150 -
6 Purchased 200 460
11 Issued 150 -
19 Issued 200 -
22 Purchased 200 480
27 Issued 250 -
23. Mathis Ltd. is a manufacturing company having the production
departments A,B,C and two service departments X and Y. the
following is the budget for December 2012.
12. a) The component X is used as follows:
Normal usage : 50 units per week each
Minimum usage : 25 units per week each
Maximum usage : 75 units per week each
Re-order quantity : 400 units
Re-order period : 4 to 6 weeks
Calculate for each Component:
(a) Re-order level (b) Minimum level
(c) Maximum level (d) Average stock level
(OR)
b) From the following particulars work out the earnings for the week
of a worker under.
(a) Straight piece-rate (b) Differential piece-rate
(c) Halsey premium system (d) Rowan system
Number of working hours per week 48.
Wages per hour – Rs. 3.75
Normal time per piece – 20 minutes
Rate per piece – Rs. 1.50
Normal output per week – 120 pieces
Actual output for the week – 150 pieces
Differential piece rate : 80% of piece – rate when output is below
standard and 120% when above standard.
13. a) A manufacturing company has 3 production departments namely,
A, B and C and 2 service departments namely, X and Y. The
departmental distribution summary shows the following details:
Rs.
Production Depts: A 40, 000
B 55, 000
C 75, 000
Service Depts: X 18, 000
Y 15, 000
-3-
-4-
-5-
The basis of apportionment of service department costs to the
production departments are stated as follows:
Depts. A B C X Y
X 40% 30% 20% - 10%
Y 25% 35% 20% 20% -
Prepare a statement showing the distribution of the service
department expenses to the production departments on the basis of
repeated distribution method.
(OR)
b) Compute machine hour rate from the information given below:
Cost of machine X Rs.13,500
Life of the machine 10 years
Estimated scrap value (after 10 years) Rs.1,980
Working hours 1,800
Insurance (per annum) Rs.45
Cotton wastes (per annum) Rs.75
Rent for dept. (per annum) Rs.975
Foreman‟s salary (per annum) Rs.7,500
Lighting for dept. (per annum) Rs.360
Repairs for entire life Rs. 1,440
Power: 10 units @ 7.5 paise per units
Machine X occupies 1/5 of the area and foreman devotes 1/4th
of his
time to the machine. The machine has two light points out of the total
12 for lighting in the department.
14. a) The following particulars are extracted from the books of Beta & co
Ltd. in respect of production of Order No.807.
Material issued Rs.14,000
Direct Labour Dept. A 700 hours @ Rs.7 per hour
Dept. B 900 hours @ Rs.11 per hour
Dept. C 1200 hours @ Rs.12 per hour
Direct Expenses Rs.7,000
Factory overhead absorbed is 40% on direct wages.
Administration overhead absorbed is 20% on works cost and Selling
& Distribution overhead absorbed is 10% on works cost.
Calculate the cost of production for the Job and find out the
selling price if 20% profits are charged on selling price.
(OR)
b) 100 units introduced into process I at a cost of Rs.9,600 and
expenditure of Rs.4,800 is incurred. From past experience, it is
ascertained that wastage normally arises to the extent of 15% of units
introduced. This wastage is having a scrap value of Rs.10 per unit. The
actual output of process I is 90 units, transferred to process II.
Prepare Process I Account, Abnormal Gain Account and Normal
Loss Account.
15. a) What are the reasons for preparation of reconciliation statement
between cost accounts and financial accounts.
(OR)
b) Prepare a Reconciliation statement from the following details:
Rs.
Net loss as per cost accounts 3,44,800
Net loss as per financial accounts 4,32,890
Works overhead under recovered in costing 6,240
Depreciation over charged in costing 2,600
Interest on Investments 17,500
Administrative overhead over recovered in costing 2,600
Goodwill written of 92,000
Stores adjustments in financial books(Cr.) 950
Depreciation of stock charged in financial books 13,500
Question Code: A50113 / A51111 Sub Code: P14COC42 / P14MCC42
MCOCR42 / MCCCR42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
INDIRECT TAXES
Time : 3 Hrs M.Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Excise duty can be levied on those goods which are ----------- in India.
a) Manufactured b) Sold c) Removed d) none
2. The Central Excise duty is levied by ----------- government.
a) State b) Central c) village d) Foreign
3. The Customs duty is levied while the goods -------- Customs Frontier
of India.
a) Cross b) Sold in c) Lost d) Produced
4. Baggage rule does not include---------
a) Goods b) Service c) Motor vehicle d) Sales
5. CENVAT stands for Central ---------- Added Tax
a) Vision b) Vehicle c) Voter d) Value
6. The levy of central sales tax is on ---------
a) Purchase of goods b) Sale of goods
c) Purchase and sale d) None
7. Which of the following is not declared goods.
a) Imported cotton b) Cotton yarn waste
c) Raw unginned cotton d) Ginned cotton
8. In service tax, Form -------------- is used for appeal to Commissioner
of central excise.
a) AB-1 b) ST -4 c) BC -2 d) CD-5
9. The state government introduced VAT in terms of the state list of
the constitution.
a) Entry 54 b) State Legislation
c) Entry 45 d) Central Government
10. What is the percentage of VAT on export sales?
a) 0% b) Nil c) 1% d) 4%
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) State the difference between Indirect and Direct tax?
(OR)
b) List out the merits of Indirect taxes.
12. a) What are the differences between excise duty and sales tax?
(OR)
b) Analyse the procedure for registration under excise act.
13. a) Explain the various types of customs duties levied in India.
(OR)
b) Describe the rules and provisions relating to baggage as per the
customs act.
14. a) How would you determine the Interstate sales?
(OR)
b) Explain the provisions of the CST act regarding registration of
dealers.
15. a) Explain the procedure for assessment under the service tax act.
(OR)
b) Examine the salient Features of VAT with Example.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail about the objectives of Taxation.
17. Explain the procedure for clearance of goods under central excise act.
18. Analyse the method of valuation of goods imported under the
customs act.
19. Discuss the procedure for registration of dealers under CST act.
20. Bring out the features and importance of VAT.
*******
Question Code: A20502 Sub Code: BMANE41/ BMCNE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
Non –Major Elective
STATISTICS AND OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part - A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Find the mean for the following data :
Class 11-20 21-30 31-40 41-50 51-60 61-70 71-80
Frequency 42 38 120 84 48 36 31
2. Calculate the standard deviation for the following data :
Age 20 - 25 25 - 30 30 - 35 35 - 40 40 - 45 45- 50
No. of
persons 170 110 80 45 40 35
3. Fit a straight line trend to the following time series data and estimate
the production for the year 2018.
Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014
Sales 38 40 65 72 69 60 87 95
4. Construct the cost of living index number of prices for the data given
below :
Group Weight Index No.
Food 50 330
Clothing 10 208
Lighting 12 200
Rent 12 162
Miscellaneous 16 180
5. Solve the following LPP by graphically:
Maximize z = ,10002 subject to 34 2121 xxxx
7000 ,4000 ,800 2121 xxxx
Part – B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Find out the coefficient of variation for the following data:
x 0 -
1000
1000 -
2000
2000 -
3000
3000 -
4000
4000 -
5000
5000 -
6000
f 18 26 30 12 10 4
7. Fit a parabola to the following data; also estimate y at x = 6.
x 1 2 3 4 5
y 5 12 26 60 97
8. Compute i) Laspeyre‟s ii) Paasche‟s and iii) Fisher‟s index
numbers from the following data :
Item Price Quantity
Base year Current year Base year Current year
A 6 10 50 50
B 2 2 100 120
C 4 6 60 60
D 10 12 30 25
9. Old hens can be fought for Rs. 2 each but young ones cost Rs. 5 each.
The old hens lay 3 eggs per week and young hens lay 5 eggs per
week, each egg being worth 30 paise. A hen costs Re. 1 per week to
feed. If a person has only Rs. 80 to spend on the hens, how many of
each kind should be bought to get maximum profit per week assuming
that he cannot house more than 20 hens? Formulate this as a LPP and
then solve by graphical method.
10. Show that the following LPP possess an unbounded
solution:Maximize 321 2107 xxxz subject to the constraints
.0,, ,03
,562
116 ,
3
72
3
1
3
14
321321
321321
xxxxxx
xxxxxx
******
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail the following terms in superconductors:
a) Heat Capacity b) Energy gap
c) Isotope effect d) Josephson effect
17. What do you mean the crystal field splitting factor? Explain Van
Vleck temperature independent paramagnetism.
18. Write short notes on the following:
a. Frenkel excitons
b. Weakly Bound excitons
c. Exciton Condensation into EHD
19. What is meant by local field in a dielectric and how is it calculated
for a cubic structure? Deduce Clausius-Mosotti relation and explain
its use in predicting the dielectric constant of solids.
20. Explain the various types of dislocations in a crystal and indicate
the manner in which the Burgers vectors differ for different
dislocations. Calculate the stress field of a screw dislocation.
********
Question Code: A61110 Sub Code: P16PHC41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SOLID STATE PHYSICS - II
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The temperature at which a conductor becomes a superconductor is
called ______.
a) superconducting temperature b) Curie temperature
c) Critical temperature d) transition temperature
2. Below transition temperature, a superconducting material
exhibits_____.
a) only zero resistance b) only diamagnetic property
c) zero resistance and diamagnetism
d) zero resistance and ferromagnetism
3. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is essentially independent
of temperature _______.
a) at very low temperatures
b) at very high temperatures
c) under all circumstances
d) as long as the electronic structure is independent of temperature
4. In an antiferromagnet, the spins are ordered in an antiparallel
arrangement with zero net moment at temperatures below the _____.
a) Curie temperature b) Neel temperature
c) Transition temperature d) Weiss temperature
5. The low-lying single particle excitations of the system of interacting
electrons are called
a) quasiparticles b) electron-electron collisions
c) excitons d) polaritons
6. In _______ crystals, the lowest-energy excitons are localized on the
negative halogen ions.
a) ionic b) molecular
c) alkali halide d) hydrogen bonded
7. In infrared frequency region, the contribution towards polarization
is due to ______.
a) dipolar polarization only b) ionic polarization only
c) dipolar and ionic polarization d) electronic polarization
8. Piezoelectric effect is the production of electricity by ______.
a) pressure b) temperature
c) varying field d) chemical effect
9. In edge dislocation, the burger vector is _______.
a) parallel to dislocation line
b) at right angle to dislocation line
c) 45° to dislocation line
d) 30° to dislocation line
10. If ħω is the energy of an incident photon, T is the kinetic energy of
an emitted electron and W is the work function, then the Einstein
equation is ______.
a) ħω = W ÷ T b) ħω = W ± T
c) ħω = W - T d) ħω = W + T
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is Meissner effect? Obtain an expression for the London
penetration depth of magnetic field for a superconductor.
(or)
b) Explain about (i) Type II superconductors and (ii) vortex state.
12. a) Give an account of Weiss theory of ferromagnetism. On the basis
of this theory, how will you explain hysteresis and Curie point?
(or)
b) Explain antiferromagnetic order. Find the susceptibility of an
antiferromagnetic material below the Neel temperature.
13. a) Give LST relation. Explain how LST relation provides information
about reflectance property.
(or)
b) What are polarons? Explain Peierls instability of linear metals.
14. a) What are ferroelectric crystals? Explain the occurrence and
classification of ferroelectric crystals.
(or)
b) Give a schematic sketch of the variation of the total polarisability
of an atom as a function of the frequency, explaining the physical
origin of the various contributions and the relevant frequency
ranges.
15. a) Explain the mechanism of diffusion through solids. Derive the
Fick‟s law for macroscopic diffusion in a solid.
(or)
b) Distinguish between the substitutional solid solution and
interstitial solid solution. Explain the Hume-Rothery rules for the
stability of a solid solution.
Question Code: A23302 Sub Code: BZOME41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
ECONOMIC ENTOMOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc – Zoology Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. These are large group of insects showing a complex process of
development.
a) Heterometabola b) Holometabola
c) Hemimetabola d) Hypermetabola
2. Butterflies and moths belong to which order?
a) Diptera b) Coleoptera
c) Hymenoptera d) Lepidoptera
3. The behaviour of the honeybee to come out of the hive in the large
numbers is called______.
a) Bee dance b) Swarming
c) Absconding d) Foraging
4. Mulberry silkworm belongs to the family of______.
a) Saturinidae b) Muscidae
c) Apidae d) Bombycidae
5. Which of the following is a physical method of pest control?
a) Trapping b) Cooling
c) Banding d) Shaking
6. The formulation containing a suitable species of bacteria that kills pests
is known as______.
a) Bacterial pesticide b) Parasitoids
c) Coated pesticide d) Fungal pesticide
7. The appliances used to spray liquid formulations are called as
a) Fumigators b) Dusters
c) Sprayers d) None of the above
8. Which one of the following is called fan type dusters?
a) Bellow Duster b) Rotary Duster
c) Package Duster d) Knapsack Duster
9. Aquatic larva of mosquito is popularly known as_______.
a) Floating raft b) Imago
c) Maggot d) Wriggler
10. Mouth parts of housefly is _______.
a) Sucking type b) Sponging type
c) Siphoning type d) Piercing type
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Briefly explain the types of metamorphosis.
(OR)
b) Write the salient features of the order Hymenoptera?
12. a) Comment on life cycle of silkworm.
(OR)
b) Write short notes on Predators.
13. a) Enumerate the mechanical methods of pest control.
(OR)
b) Briefly explain the integrated pest management.
14. a) List out the pesticide appliances used in agriculture.
(OR)
b) What are precautionary measures for handling of pesticides?
15. a) Write about the diseases transmitted by Rat flea.
(OR)
b) Give an account of life cycle of mosquito.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Elaborate the larval and pupal types in insect development.
17. Write an essay on life cycle of Bombyx mori with a neat sketch.
18. Discuss the biological methods of pest control and add their merits and
demerits.
19. Classify the pesticides based on mode of action.
20. Give a detailed account on life cycle and control measures of housefly.
*****
Part – B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Draft an application for the post of a lecturer in commerce in response
to the advertisement in a leading newspaper.
5. Write the important points to be considered in writing a letter of
enquiry and replies to enquiry.
6. Write a letter to your customer expressing inability to execute an order.
7. Write a letter to the Head office recommending a loan to a customer.
8. Draft a letter to your banker requesting him to extend an overdraft
facility to stock goods for approaching festival season.
******
Question Code: B30502 Sub Code: U16CON41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
NON –MAJOR ELECTIVE
BUSINESS COMMUNICATION
Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
Part - A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Explain the various types of communication.
(or)
b) Write a letter asking a candidate to appear for an interview for post
of an assistant accountant.
2. a) Write a letter to your suppliers enquiring the price and time of
delivery of leather bags.
(or)
b) What are the essential contents of a letter for placing order for the
goods?
3. a) Explain the various characteristics of successful bank
correspondence.
(or)
b) Write a letter to your banker requesting the bank to pay the life
insurance premium.
Question Code: B31108 Sub Code: U16CAC42
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
VISUAL PROGRAMMING
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. To change the name of a form, select the form and click the _____
property in the properties window.
a) text b) name c) caption d) font
2. _____ statement is used to declare variables.
a) var b) dim c) declare d) variable
3. The default property of an image is _____.
a) caption b) text c) picture d) value
4. The _____ function converts strings to all lowercase letters.
a) lcase b) LCase c) LCASE d) LcASE
5. Octal numbers must, prefix with _____.
a) &O b) #O c) ^O d) @O
6. The _____ statement is ideal for repeatedly executing a block of code
a specific number of times.
a) break b) continue c) switch d) for
7. The color property stores color information as a _____ value that
represents an RGB color.
a) string b) decimal c) long d) integer
8. The dialog box is opened using the _____ method of the common
dialog box.
a) ShowOpen b) open()
c) new -> open d) showopen()
9. The _____ method reads the entire contents of the file and returns a
string value.
a) Read b) ReadLine
c) ReadAll d) None of these
10. ADO is an acronym for _____.
a) Active Data Object b) Activex Date Objects
c) ActiveX Data Objects d) Add Data Objects
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain toolbox in Visual Basic with examples.
(or)
b) Write short notes on data types.
12. a) List out the useful properties of Labels.
(or)
b) Explain ListBox and ComboBox controls.
13. a) Explain numeric operators with examples.
(or)
b) Explain Do statement with examples.
14. a) Write short note on i) Input Box ii) Message Box.
(or)
b) Explain dialog box with its properties.
15. a) How can you read a file in Visual Basic?
(or)
b) Explain briefly about Data Grid Control.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the steps related to enter and edit code in VB.
17. Explain Manipulating strings in VB with example.
18. Explain different forms of If Statements with example.
19. Explain Menu system in detail.
20. Explain the process of opening, closing and deleting a file.
******
18. i) Predict the product and explain the mechanism.
ii) How would you predict whether the rearrangement is
intermolecular or intra-molecular?
19. i) Discuss elaborately about the PTC and their application.
ii) Write the twelve principles of green chemistry.
20. i) Discuss the schematic analysis of the total synthesis of
trans – 9 – methyl decalone.
ii) Write a note on Robinson annelation reaction.
******
Question Code: A62110 Sub Code: P14CHC41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY –IV
( Biomolecules, Rearrangements and Synthetic Methods )
Time : 3 Hrs M. Sc. (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Tertiary structure of proteins refer to
a) mainly denatured protein and structure of prosthetic group.
b) three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino-acid
residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain.
c) linear sequence of amino acid residue in polypeptide chain.
d) regular folding patterns of continuous portion of polypeptide chain.
2. The building block ofterpenes are
a) allenes b) isoprene units
c) vinyl units d) butadiene units
3. Free radical cannot be detected with the help of
a) NMR b) EPR
c) Magnetic susceptibility d) I2
4. Identify the product formed in the given reaction
C3H7CONH2 ?
a) C3H7Br b) C3H7CONHBr
c) C3H7NH2 d) C3H7OH
5. If the starting material is having chiral carbon, it undergoes
rearrangement to form product. In the product the optical activity
will be retained then the rearrangement is said to be
a) intermolecular rearrangement b) cationotropic rearrangement
c) intra molecular rearrangement d) anionotropic rearrangement
6. For carrying out the Green synthesis the starting material must be
a) petrochemical b) benzene derivatives
c) microwave inert compound d) bio-mass
7. Which of the reaction is not having atom economy 100% ?
a) Fries rearrangement b) Claisen rearrangement
c) hydrogenation of olefin d) substitution reaction
8. ______ is used as blocking group to protect carbonyl group.
a) ethylene glycol b) acetyl chloride
c) toluene d) DNB
9. ______ is an important tool not to construct carbon-carbon single
bond.
a) aldol condensation b) Knovenagal reaction
c) Michale addition d) Wittig reaction.
10. Photochemical reaction takes place only in this molecular orbital
a) ground state LUMO b) excited HOMO
c) ground state HOMO d) excited LUMO
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Give the method of synthesis of Zingiberene.
(OR)
b) Distinguish between starch and cellulose.
12. a) Show that disrotatory ring closure is characterized by σ-plane.
(OR)
b) How would you detect the free radical? Give any two methods.
13. a) Give the mechanism of Benzidine rearrangement and to show that
it is intermolecular in nature.
(OR)
b) Predict the product and explain the mechanism of the following
transformation.
14. a) Catalyst are specific in their action – Explain with suitable
example.
(OR)
b) Discuss the solvent free techniques with suitable example.
15. a) Explain Umpolung reaction with an example.
(OR)
b) What are blocking groups? Explain their function with an example.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the structure of proteins.
17. i) Explain (4+2) cycloaddition by Huckel – Mobius approach.
ii) Write note on the following reactions
a) Barton reaction. b) Pschorr reaction.
-8-
-1-
The firm was dissolved on 1.1.2005. Joint life policy was taken over
by A at Rs.5,000. Stock realized Rs.18,000. Debtors realized
Rs.14,500. Plant and Machinery was sold for Rs.36,000. Liabilities
were paid in full. In addition, one bill for Rs.700 under discount
was dishonoured and had to be paid by the firm.
Give the necessary ledger accounts to close the books of the firm.
20. P, Q and R were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of
2:2:1. The partnership was dissolved on 31.12.2004 and their
Balance sheet on that date was as follows:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Sundry Creditors 6,000 Cash in hand 2,000
Capital Accounts: Other Assets 38,000
P – 16,000
Q – 10,000
R – 3,000
29,000
Profit & Loss A/c 5,000
40,000 40,000
The assets were realized gradually:
Rs.10,000 was received in I Instalment.
Rs.10,000 was received in II Instalment.
Rs. 13,000 was received in III instalment.
Show how the cash was distributed.
*******
Question Code :B30108/ B31107 Sub Code: U16COC41/ U16CAC41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING -IV
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Interest on capital is chargeable to a firm to the extent of
available______.
a) profits b) reserves c) profit and reserves d) none of these
2. Under fixed capital method, drawing of each partner is debited in his
______.
a) capital account b) current account
c) profit and loss appropriation account d) good will account
3. Goodwill is______.
a) a tangible asset b) intangible asset
c) a current asset d) a fictitious asset
4. The profit or loss on revaluation of assets at the time of admission
must be transferred to the partner in the _______.
a) capital ratio b) sacrificing ratio
c) old profit sharing ratio d) new profit sharing ratio
5. A retiring partner is entitled to his share in the goodwill of the firm as
per the _______.
a) profit sharing ratio b) agreement between the partners
c) market value d) none of these
-2-
-7-
6. When the retiring partner is paid in instalments, the total amount
payable to the retiring partner is transferred to ______.
a) an annuity suspense account b) his loan account
c) his capital account d) profit and loss account
7. Realisation a/c is a _______.
a) Nominal A/c b) Real A/c
c) Personal A/c d) Cash A/c
8. Garner Vs Murray rule is applicable to _______.
a) Admission of a partner b) retirement of a partner
c) dissolution of a partnership d) insolvency of a partner
9. Proportionate capital method is otherwise called ______.
a) maximum loss method b) minimum loss method
c) relative capital method d) balance method
10. Under the maximum loss method of piece-meal distribution of cash,
the notional maximum loss is divided in
a) profit sharing ratio b) fixed capital ratio
c) equal d) capital ratio
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write short notes on
i) Partners capital account ii) Partners current accounts
(or)
b) Show how the following items will appear in the Capital
Accounts of the partners, Babu and Gopu when their capitals are
fluctuating:
18. X and Y are partners in a business sharing profits and losses as
ththX5
2-Yand
5
3
. Their Balance Sheet as on 1st January 2007 is given
below.
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Capital:
X - 20,000
Machinery
Stock
19,500
16,000
Y - 15,000 35,000 Debtors 15,000
Reserve 15,000 Cash at Bank 6,000
Sundry Debtors 7,500 Cash in hand 1,000
57,500 57,500
Y decides to retire from the business owing to illness and X takes it over
and the following revaluation are made:
a) Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs.15,000.
b) Depreciate Machinery by 7.5% and Stock by 15%.
c) A Bad debts provision is raised against debtors at 5% and a Discount
Reserve against creditors at 2.5%.
Prepare ledger accounts and the Balance Sheet of A.
19. A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1.
On 31.12.2004, their Balance sheet was as follows:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Sundry
Creditors
15,400 Cash at Bank 3,500
Bills payable 3,600 Stock 19,800
A‟s loan a/c 10,000 Debtors 15,000
Capital account: Less: Provision 1,000 14,000
A – 20,000 Joint Life Policy 4,000
B – 16,000 Plant & Machinery 43,700
C – 8,000 44,000
Reserve Fund 12,000
85,000 85,000
-6- -3-
a) Interest on capital at 6% per annum
c) The capitals of X, Y and Z being Rs.50,000, Rs.40,000 and
Rs.30,000 respectively.
d) Interest on drawings: X Rs.350; Y Rs.250; Z Rs.150
e) Partners‟ salaries : X Rs.5,000; Y Rs.7,500
f) Commission due to X (for some special transaction) Rs.3,000.
You are required to Pass a single journal entry to be made on 10th
April 2007.
17. X and Y were in partnership sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3:2.
Their Balance Sheet on 30.06.2007 was as follows:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Capital a/c
X – 50,000
Y – 45,000
95,000
Plant and Machinery
Land & Buildings
Furniture
20,000
25,000
6,000
Stock 15,000
Debtors 30,000
Less: Provision 2,000
28,000
Cash 26,000
1,20,000 1,20,000
They want to take Z into partnership subject to the following terms:
i) Z pays Rs.25,000 as capital for 1/4th
share in the business.
ii) Plant and Machinery be increased by 20% and Land & Building be
reduced to Rs.20,000.
iii) Provision for doubtful debts be increased to Rs.3,000.
iv) An item of Rs.2,000 included in sundry creditors is not likely to be
claimed.
v) Certain investments amounting to Rs.13,000 (not included in the
above Balance Sheet) should be brought into account.
Prepare Revaluation a/c, Capital a/c and Revised Balance sheet.
Babu
Rs.
Gopu
Rs.
Capital on 1.1.87 8,00,000 7,00,000
Drawings during 1987 1,60,000 1,40,000
Interest at 5% on drawings 4,000 2,000
Shares of Profits for 1987 84,000 66,000
Interest on Capital at 6% 48,000 42,000
Salary 72,000 Nil
12. a) Calculate the amount of goodwill at three year‟s purchase of last five
years average profits. The profits were:
I year – Rs.9,600 II year – Rs.14,400
III year – Rs.20,000 IV year – Rs.6,000
V year – Rs. 10,000
(or)
b) A firm earned net profits during the last three years are as follows:
I year - Rs.36,000 , II year - Rs.40,000 and III year - Rs. 44,000
The capital investment of the firm is Rs.1,20,000. A fair return on the
capital having regard to the risk involved is 10%. Calculate the value of
goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchase of super profits.
13. a) Explain the accounting treatment of goodwill at the time of retirement
of a partner.
(or)
b) X, Y and Z were partners sharing profit in the proportion of 4:3:3
respectively. Set out below was their Balance Sheet as at 31st
December 2006.
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Capital: X - 50,000 Goodwill 30,000
Y - 35,000 Other assets 1,20,000
Z – 35,000 1,20,000
Other liabilities 30,000
1,50,000 1,50,000
-4- -5-
Z retires on 1.1.2007 on which date goodwill of their business was
estimated at Rs.20,000. How will you deal with it in the books of the
firm.
14. a) A, B and C are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio
of 4:3:2 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2000 stood
as follows:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Creditors 7,000 Cash 3,000
Capital Accounts:
A - 8,000
Debtors
Stock
2,000
4,000
B - 4,000 Buildings 11,000
C – 1,000 13,000
20,000 20,000
The firm was dissolved on the date. “A” agreed to take over the stock
at an agreed value of Rs.3,000 and debtors at Rs.1,400. The building
was sold at auction for Rs.5,400. Prepare realization a/c.
(or)
b) The following was the Balance Sheet of Radha, Krishna and Sankar
as on 31.12.2003.
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Creditors 12,000 Machinery 25,000
General Reserve 3,000 Stock 11,000
Capital: Radha 20,000 Debtors 9,500
Krishna 15,000 Goodwill 13,000
Sankar 10,000 Cash 1,500
60,000 60,000
On the above date the firm was dissolved. The assets realized
Rs.50,000. The creditors were settled at Rs.11,500. Dissolution
expenses amounted to Rs.1,000. The partners had 3:2:1 as their profit
sharing ratio. Pass Journal Entries.
15. a) From the following, distribute cash under proportionate capital
method:
Capital of Partners: Amir- Rs 20,000 : Balan – Rs 10,000
Profit sharing ratio: 3 : 2
I Instalment (cash) Rs. 5,000 ; II Instalment (cash) Rs. 4,000
III Instalment (cash) Rs. 2,000
(or)
b) Big, Small and Short share profits and losses in proportions of
4
1 and
4
1 ,
2
1
.
On the date of dissolution their balance sheet stood as follows Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Creditors 14,000 Sundry Assets 40,000
Capital:
Big - 10,000
Small - 10,000
Short - 6,000 26,000
40,000 40,000
The assets realized as follows:
1st instalment Rs.14,000, 2
nd Instalment Rs.10,000, 3
rd Instalment
Rs.10,000. Show how the proceeds should be distributed.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm. The net profit of the firm for the year
ended 31st March 2007 is Rs.30,000, which has been duly distributed
amongst the partners in their agreed ratio of 3:1:1 respectively. It is
discovered on 10th
April, 2007 that the undermentioned transactions were
not passed through the books of account of the firm for the year ended
31st March 2007.
-1-
Question Code: B30303/ B31303 Sub Code: U16COE41/ U16CAE41
A30302 /BCOME41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL - 2018
MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Management Accounts deals with ____.
a) Tools and techniques b) Statutory data
c) Auditors report d) Accounting data
2. Management accounts is suitable for ______.
a) Small business
b) cooperative societies
c) Non-profit organization
d) large industrial and trading concerns
3. Ratio Analysis involves the process of _____.
a) Recording b) Computation
c) Relationship between two items d) none of these
4. Solvency ratios include ______.
a) G/P ratio b) Fixed assets turnover
c) Capital gearing ratio d) P/E ratio
5. Cash Flows include ______.
a) Cash receipts only b) Cash Payment only
c) Cash receipt and payment
d) Cash and non cash income and expenses
-2- -7-
6. The Term Fund refer to _____.
a) Reserve b) Working capital
c) Profit d) Cash
7. P/V Ratio is ______.
a) Price volume ratio b) Price variance Ratio
c) Contribution to sales ratio d) Total cost of sales ratio
8. A key factor is ______.
a) Budget factor b) Limiting factor
c) Cost factor d) None of these
9. Sales budget is ______.
a) Budget of output to be sold
b) budget for selling expenses
c) Budget of Revenue and expenses
d) a list of incentives to salesmen
10. Zero base budgeting refer to _____.
a) Short term and long term budgeting
b) Performance reporting
c) Responsibility Accounting
d) Justification of every item in the budget afresh
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks) 11. a) State the difference between Management Accounting and
Cost Accounting.
(or)
b) What are the limitations of management accounting?
12. a) The following figures relates to the trading activities of a
company for the year ended 31.12.2014
19. From the following relating to Rishi Ltd you are required to find out
(a) P/V ratio (b) Break-even point (c) Profit
(d) Margin of safety (e) Volume of sales to earn profit of Rs.6000
Total fixed cost Rs.4500 ; Total variable cost Rs.7500
Total sales Rs.15000
20. A newly started Pushpa &Co.,wishes to prepare cash budget from
January. Prepare a cash budget for 6 months from the following
estimated revenue and expenses.
Month Total
sales
Material Wages Production
overhead
Selling &
distribution
overhead
Jan 20000 20000 4000 3200 800
Feb 22000 14000 4400 3300 900
Mar 24000 14000 4600 3300 800
April 26000 12000 4600 3400 900
May 28000 12000 4800 3500 900
June 30000 16000 4800 3600 1000
Cash balance on 1st Jan was Rs.10000. A new machine is to be
installed at Rs.30000 on credit to be repaid by two equal installments
in March and April.
Sales commission at 5% on total sales is to be paid within the
month following actual sales.
Rs.10000 being the amount of 2nd
call may be received in
March. Share premium amounting to Rs.2000 is also obtained with
2nd
call. Period of credit allowed by suppliers – 2 months
Period of credit allowed to customers – 1 month
Delay in payment of overheads – 1 month
Delay in payment of wages – ½ month
Assume cash sales to be 50% of the total sales.
*****
-3-
-6-
18. The following is the comparative Balance sheet of Padma & co.ltd
as on 30th
June 2014.
Liability 30.6.2013 30.6.2014 Asset 30.6.2013 30.6.2014
Share
capital
180000 200000 Goodwill 24000 20000
Reserve &
surplus
28000 36000 Building 80000 72000
P & L A/c 39000 24000 Machinery 74000 72000
Trade
creditors
16000 10800 Investment 20000 22000
Bank
overdraft
12400 2600 Inventories 60000 50800
Provision
for taxation
32000 34000 Debtors 40000 44400
Provision
for doubtful
debts
3800 4200 Cash 13200 30400
311200 311600 311200 311600
Additional information:-
(1) Depreciation charged on machinery Rs.10000 and on building
Rs.8000.
(2) Investment sold during the year Rs.3000.
(3) Rs.15000 interim dividend paid during Jan 2014.
(4) Taxes paid during the year Rs.30000.
Prepare (a) A statement of changes in working capital
(b) A funds flow statement.
Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.
Sales 100000 Salary of salesmen 1800
Purchase 70000 Advertising 700
Closing stock 14000 Travelling expenses 500
Sales return 4000 Salaries (office) 3000
Dividend received 1200 Rent 6000
Profit on sale of fixed
asset
600 Stationary 200
Loss on sale of shares 300 Depreciation 1000
Opening stock 11000 Other expenses 2000
Provision for tax 7000
You are required to calculate
1. Gross profit ratio 2. Operating profit ratio
3. Operating ratio 4. Net profit ratio
(or)
b) Pandi Ltd. sells goods on cash as well as on credit basis. The
following information is extracted from their books of accounts for
2015:
Rs.
Total sales 100000
Cash sales (included in the above) 20000
Sales return 7000
Total debtors for sales as on 3.12.2015 9000
Bill receivables as on 31.12.2015 2000
Provision for doubtful debts 1000
Trade creditors as on 31.12.2015 10000
You are required to calculate
1. Debtors / Receivable turnover ratio
2. The average collection period
-4-
-5-
13. a) Bring out the difference between Funds flow and Cash flow
statement.
(or)
b) Calculate funds flow operation from the following profit and
loss A/c.
Profit & Loss A/c
Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.
To Expenses paid 300000 By Gross profit 450000
To Depreciation 70000 By Gain on sales of land 60000
To loss on sale of
machine
4000
To Discount 200
To Goodwill 20000
To Net profit 115800
510000 510000
14. a) The following particulars are obtained from the record of a
company manufacturing two products P and R
P per unit R per unit
Selling price 200 400
Material cost (Rs.20 per kg) 40 100
Direct wages (Rs.6 per
hour)
60 120
Variable overhead 20 40
Total fixed overhead is Rs.10000
Comment on profitability of each product when production
capacity in hours is the limiting factor.
(or)
b) State the salient features of Marginal costing.
15. a) What are the objectives of budgeting control?
(or)
b) Meena Ltd. sells two products A and B which are produced in its
special products division. Sales for the year 2015 were planned as
follows:
1st
quarter
2nd
quarter
3rd
quarter
4th
quarter
Product A 10000 12000 13000 15000
Product B 5000 4500 4000 3800
The selling price were Rs.20 per unit and Rs.50 per unit respectively
for A and B. Average sales returns are 5% of sales and the discount
and bad debts amount to 40% of the total sales. Prepare sales budget
for the year 2015.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Define Management Accounting and Explain its nature.
17. Following are the ratio relating to the trading activities of Neena
Traders Ltd. Madurai.
Receivable turnover = 90 days (360 day year)
Inventory turnover = 3 times
Payable turnover = 3 months
Gross profit ratio = 25%
Gross profit for the year amounted to Rs.18000. Closing inventory
of the year is Rs.2000 above the opening inventory. Bill
receivable amount to Rs.2500 and bill payable Rs.1000. Ascertain
the following.
a) Sales b) Debtors
c) Closing inventory d) Sundry Creditors
18. With the help of schematic diagram, give the instrumentation and
working of Raman spectrometer.
19. Discuss in detail the rotational fine structure of electronic-vibration
spectra.
20. Derive Bloch equations and explain their physical significance.
******
Question Code: B61307 Sub Code: P16PHE41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
MOLECULAR SPECTROSCOPY
Time : 3 Hrs M.Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The moment of inertia relations for near prolate asymmetric rotor is
a) Ia = Ib = Ic b) Ia = Ib< Ic
c) Ia< Ib = Ic d) Ia Ib Ic.
2. Nuclei with spin _______ lack the spherical symmetry along the spin
axis and possess an electric quadrupole moment eQ.
a) I 1 b) I = 1 c) I 1 d) I = 0
3. In CO2 molecule the alternate lines in the P and R branches have zero
intensity, which leads to the line spacing of
a) 2B b) B c) 3B d) 4B.
4. The zero point energy implies that even at absolute zero, the
________ motions of the molecule still exist.
a) vibrational b) translational
c) rotational d) linear.
5. The intensity of Stoke‟s lines are always _____ the corresponding
anti-Stokes lines.
a) less than b) greater than
c) equal to d) none of these
6. The rule of mutual exclusion states that if a molecule has _______
then Raman active vibrations are infra-red inactive and vice versa.
a) centre of symmetry b) light atoms
c) non-centrosymmetry d) heavy elements
7. Franck-Condon principle can be stated that the transition between
electronic states occur________ in potential energy diagram.
a) exponentially increasing b) exponentially decreasing
c) vertically d) horizontally
8. The energy required to separate a stable diatomic molecule AB in
the =0 vibrational state into the two unexcited atoms A and B is
known as the_______ energy.
a) association b) disassociation
c) band d) zero point.
9. The indirect interaction between two nuclei via the electron cloud
is termed as the _______.
a) indirect nuclei interaction b) nuclear magnetic transition
c) indirect spin-spin interaction d) resonance interaction.
10. Spectrometers operating at higher magnetic fields (B=1.3 T) with
corresponding higher microwave frequency (~35 GHz) are called
______ spectrometers.
a) Q-band b) X-band c) T-band d) M-band.
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Describe the classification of molecules based on the relative
values of principal moments of inertia.
(or)
b) Outline the information that could be derived from rotational
spectra.
12. a) With a suitable diagram, explain the dipole moment change in CO2
molecule.
(or)
b) Describe how infra-red spectroscopy is used for characterisation of
the transition phases of cermaics.
13. a) Discuss the classical theory of Raman effect in detail.
(or)
b) Give an account on rotational Raman spectra of a linear molecule.
14. a) What do you mean by dissociation energy? Illustrate different
dissociation energies and explain how equilibriium disssociation
energy is obtained?
(or)
b) With the help of a schematic diagram, describe the components and
working of a photoelectron spectrometer.
15. a) Obtain the resonance condition for NMR.
(or)
b) Discuss the ESR spectrum of hydrogen atom.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss Stark effect on a symmetric top and linear molecule.
17. Explain in detail principle behind FTIR spectroscopy and also
describe interferometer arangement of FTIR spectrometer.
-1- -16-
92. X-rays of wavelength 1.5418Å are diffracted by planes in a
crystal at an angle 30° in the first order. Calculate the interatomic
spacing.
a) 1.5418Å b) 2.5418Å c) 2.6705Å d) 4.6418Å
93. Copper has Face Centred Cubic (FCC) structure and its lattice
parameter is 3.6Å. Find the atomic radius.
a) 1.27Å b) 1.54Å c) 6.20Å d) 1.30Å
94. Atomic packing factor for Body Centred Cubic (BCC) is
a) b) c) a)
95. The main contribution to the binding energy of ionic crystals is
electrostatic.
a) Madelung constant b) Madelung energy
c) Cohesive energy d) Equilibrium lattice constant
96. The energy of a lattice vibration is quantized. The quantum of energy is
called______.
a) Photon b) Phonon c) Plasmon d) Magnon
97. Thermal vibrations in crystals are thermally excited phonons, like the
thermally excited photons of black-body electromagnetic radiation in a
cavity. The energy of an elastic mode of angular frequency ω is
a) b) c) d)
98. The Hall coefficient is
a) b) c) d)
99. A crystal can be an insulator only if the number of valance electrons in
a primitive cell of the crystal is_____.
a) Even integer b) Odd integer c) Half integer d) Zero
100. The type I superconductors are
a) Hard superconductors b) Soft superconductors
c) Hard and soft superconductors d) Hard or soft superconductors
Question Code: Sub Code: P16PHX41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
MODEL PAPER FOR NET / SET EXAM
Time : 2 Hrs M.Sc. (Physics) Max. Marks: 100
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 100 x 1 = 100 marks)
1. Choose the Poisson's equation
a) b)
c) d) (c)
2. Using Gauss divergence theorem
evaluate , where S is the surface of the
sphere .
a) b) c) d)
3. Choose the wrong one:
The spherical polar coordinate system consists of
a) =constant b) = constant
c) = constant d) = constant
4. Choose the wrong one:
The properties of matrix multiplication
a) Premultiplication and Postmultiplication
b) Matrix multiplication is commutative
c) Associative law of multiplication
d) Distributive law of multiplication
5. The rank of zero or null matrix is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
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6. The outer product of the two tensors, is a tensor whose rank is the ………
of the ranks of given tensors.
a) Sum b) Multiplication
c) Division d) Subtraction
7. Evaluation of Gamma function
a) b) c) d)
8.
a) b) c) d)
9. To show that
a) b) c) d)
10. Choose the correct Cauchy-Riemann equations in polar form
a) b)
c) d)
11. Using method of complex variables, show that
a) b) c) d)
12. Using Cauchy Residue theorem show that
a) b) c) d)
a) b)
c) d)
84. Derive matrix for the operator 2J for
a) b)
40
04
c) d)
40
04
85. For the Pauli‟s spin matrices, to show that yx ,
a) b) c) d)
86. In the case of an harmonic oscillator, the corrected ground state energy is
a) b)
c) d)
87. A solar cell is essentially a ________.
a) P-N junction b) N-P-N junction
c) P-N-N junction d) N-P junction
88. A reverse biased ideal diode looks like an _____ resistance.
a) Infinite b) Finite c) Low d) High
89. Zener diodes are commonly used as _____ regulators.
a) Voltage b) Resistance c) Current d) Frequency
90. The ratio of IC and IE gives the _____ of a transistor.
a) Alpha b) Beta c) Comma d) Zero
91. In a CB amplifier, a positive going input signal produces a ____ going
output signal.
a) Infinite value b) Negative c) Positive d) Finite value
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78. The deuteron is a system of two particles, a proton and a neutron, of
almost equal mass m held together by an attractive short-range force. This
short-range force between the nuclear particles can be described by
a) Kronig-Penney potential b) Square well potential
c) Wood-Saxan potential d) Yukawa potential
79. The validity of Wentzel, Kramers, Brillouin (WKB) approximation
method is
a) b)
c) d)
80. The commutation relation yLL ,2
a) L b) L c) yL d) 0
81. The matrix for
a) b)
c) d)
82. The , and are called the Pauli‟s spin matrices. These matrices
satisfy the following relation. Find the wrong one
(a) 1222
zyx
(b) , ,
(c) 0zxxzyzzyxyyx
(d) 0zxxzyzzyxyyx
83. Consider two noninteracting systmes having angular momenta and
and eigenkets and respectively. Find the dimensions of
the product of .
13. Show that
a) b) c) d)
14. Generating function for Bessel‟s differential equation.
a) b)
c) d)
15. Orthogonal properties of Legendre‟s polynomial
a) b)
c) d)
16. Find the Jacobi series,
a) b)
c) d)
17. Find Hermite differential equation
a) b)
c) d)
18. The Rodrigue‟s representation of Laguerre‟s polynomials for n = 0.
a) b) c) d) 1
19. Find the Fourier series of the function in the interval .
a)
b)
c)
-4-
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d)
20. Find the value of
a) b) c) d)
21. Choose the wrong one in the convergence property(s) of Fourier series
a) is continuous in the given interval
b)
c) The derivative of , is piecewise continuous.
d) is discontinuous in the given interval
22. Fourier sine transform of derivative
a) b)
c) d)
23. A black body is at 727°C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
a) b) c) d)
24. How much work can be done by 250 cal of heat?
a) 1050 J b) 1045 erg c) 1045 W d) 0
25. When one mole of monoatomic gas expands at constant pressure, the ratio
of the heat supplied that increases the internal energy of the gas and that is
used in expansion is
a) b) c) d) 0
26. A Carnot engine has efficiency 50% when its sink is at a temperature of
27°C. The temperature of the source is
a) 273°C b) 300°C c) 327°C d) 373°C
What is the expectation value for the energy of the system?
a) b)
c) d)
74. The fundamental commutation relation
a) b) c) d)
75. In Quantum mechanics, some of the systems for which the Schrödinger
equation is exactly solvable. However, the potential energy of the most of the
real systems are different from those considered and an exact solution is not
possible. Which method is used to solve those systems?
(i) Time-independent perturbation method (ii) Variation method
(iii) WKB approximation method, Self-consistent procedure, etc.
a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Both (i) and (iii)
c) Both (ii) and (iii) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
76. The total energy of the system of time-independent perturbation is
Where is called the unperturbed Hamiltonian and is called perturbed
Hamiltonian. The eigenvalue equation is , where
n = 1,2,3…etc. The eigenfunctions is
a) Form a complete orthonormal basis
b) Form a complete orthogonal basis
c) Form a complete normal basis
d) None of these above
77. A rigid rotator in a plane is acted on by a perturbation represented by
, where is a constant. Calculate the first order
correction to the ground state energy is
a) b)
c) d)
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68. Choose the wrong property of the function
a) b)
c) d)
69. In the case of linear harmonic oscillator, the finite value of the ground state
energy level,
a) 0 b) c) d)
70. The harmonic oscillator wave function is
Here . The normalization constant ( ) is
a) 2
1
n n! l nN b)
c) d)
71. The spherical polar coordinates to give
a) b)
c) d)
72. In the case of Hydrogen atom, the first radial function is
a) b)
c) d)
73. At time t = 0, the wave function of hydrogen atom is
27. Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic
systems?
a) The internal energy changes in all processors
b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions
c) The change in entropy can never be zero
d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero
28. Above Curie temperature
a) a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
b) a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
c) a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
d) a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic
29. Which one is incorrect Maxwell's thermodynamical relations
a) b)
c) d)
30. The Gibb's function G of a system is given by
If the process is isothermal as well as isobaric,
a)
b)
c)
d)
31. The 6N dimensional space is conventionally called Phase Space and it is
giving
a) 3 momenta and 3 coordinates b) 4 momenta and 2 coordinates
c) 2 momenta and 4 coordinates d) 5 momenta and 1 coordinates
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32. Choose the incorrect for the Canonical ensembles
a) Isothermal systems
b) The systems exchange energy but not mass
c) Temperature constant to systems
d) The number of particles (N) is not constant
33. The partition function for a system of N number of molecules is
a) b) c) d)
34. In general, if and are two dynamical variables, then their Poisson
brackets are defined as _______.
a)
b)
c)
d)
35. The Variational principle is stated as
Where is the variation, time independent but position dependent?
a) b)
c) d)
36. The Poisson bracket
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
37. The Poisson bracket
a) b)
c) d)
64. The properties of strange (d) Quark
a) Charge +1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0
b) Charge -1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness -1
c) Charge -1/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0
d) Charge +2/3, Spin 1/2, Baryon number 1/3, Strangeness 0
65. Ehrenfest's theorem shows that a wave packet moves like a classical particle
whenever the expectation value gives a good representation of the classical
variable; this is usually the macroscopic limits the equivalence of
a) Finite size, internal structure of the packet can be ignored.
b) Infinite size, internal structure of the packet can be ignored.
c) Finite size, internal structure of the packet can be considered.
d) Infinite size, internal structure of the packet can be considered.
66. In the Ehrenfest's theorem
a) Violation of uncertainty principle limits
b) Obey of uncertainty principle limits
c) Both (a) and (c) d) None of these
67. One-dimensional square well potential with perfectly rigid walls
In these case for and for . Here
Which has the general solution,
a)
b)
c)
d)
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-7-
58. To find magic numbers
a) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 and 123 b) 4, 5, 7, 19, 49, 72 and 125
c) 1, 3, 9, 23, 55, 82 and 123 d) 2, 4, 8, 20, 50, 82 and 126
59. Which potential is used in a single particle shell model?
a) Harmonic oscillator b) Square well
c) Woods-Saxon d) All the above
60. To find the spin and parity of Ta181
73 .
a) Spin 2
11, parity odd b) Spin
2
11, parity even
c) Spin 2
9, parity odd d) Spin
2
9, parity even
61. The fundamental interactions of Hardons
a) Strong interaction and range
b) Weak interaction and range
c) Strong interaction and range
d) Weak interaction and range
62. To find the missing elementary particle (x) in the following reaction
pexv
a) b) c) d)
63. The three Quark (uuu) combination have
a) Charge +2, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0
b) Charge +2, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness -1
c) Charge 0, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0
d) Charge -1, Spin 3/2, Baryon number 1, Strangeness 0
38. Find the Laplace equation value of the following potential field
V= cos + z
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
39. The Stoke‟s theorem can be used to find which of the following?
a) Area enclosed by a function in the given region
b) Volume enclosed by a function in the given region
c) Linear distance
d) Curl of the function
40. Two charges 1C and –4C exists in air. What is the direction of the force?
a) Away from 1C b) Away from –4C
c) From 1C to –4C d) From –4C to 1C
41. The Gaussian surface for a point charge will be
a) Cube b) Cylinder
c) Sphere d) Cuboid
42. For a dielectric which of the following properties hold good?
a) They are superconductors at high temperatures
b) They are superconductors at low temperatures
c) They an never become a superconductor
d) They have very less dielectric breakdown voltage
43. A β-particle mass is equal to
a) mass of proton b) mass of electron
c) mass of neutron d) mass of positron
44. According to measurements by Rutherford and Geiger, one gram of Radium
emits in one second alpha particles. Estimate the half life of
Radium.
a) 1800 years b) 1600 years c) 1200 years d) 1400 years
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45. The law of Radioactive decay
a) b)
c) d)
46. Match the following
S.No. Equilibrium Parent and daughter
lived time
i Ideal ii Transient ii Secular
a) b)
c) a)
47. The type of radioactivity of Hydrogen is
a) Beta b) Gamma c) Alpha d) None of these above
48. Nuclear reactions are classified on the basis of the projectile used, the
particle detected and the residual nucleus. To find the type of nuclear
reaction for the following statement: The projectile and the detected
particle are the same when the residual nucleus is left in the ground state.
a) Scattering b) Pickup reactions
c) Stripping reactions d) Compound nuclear reactions
49. The analytical relationship between the kinetic energy of the projectile and
outgoing particle and nuclear disintegration energy Q is called as the Q
equation. The solution of
a) Endoergic reactions b) Exoergic reactions
c) Stripping reactions d) Compound nuclear reactions
50. Find out the unknown (x) particles in the nuclear reaction given below
a) Beta b) Gamma c) Alpha d) None of these above
51. The radius R of the nucleus is
a) b) c) d)
52. The Bosons have spin and wave function on exchange of co-ordinates,
a) Half-integer spin and symmetric wave function
b) Half-integer spin and antisymmetric wave function
c) Integer spin and symmetric wave function
d) Integer spin and antisymmetric wave function
53. In nuclear fission reaction to reach stability: neutron (N) increases by 2units
and proton (Z) number decreases by 2 units, which is…
a) decay b) decay c) decay d) None of these above
54. Why binding energy per nucleon is constant?
a) Independent of the overall size of a nucleus
b) Dependent of the overall size of a nucleus
c) Independent of the overall density of a nucleus
d) Dependent of the overall density of a nucleus
55. To find the most stable nuclei using Weizsacher's semi-emperical mass
formula.
a) b) c) d)
56. To find the stable nuclei against beta -decay for the following members
of an isobaric family
a) b) c) d)
57. Why does not undergo fission reaction?
a) Due to the absence of the pairing energy term for
b) becomes an Even-Odd nuclide
c) The fission barrier cannot be crossed
d) All the above
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Question Code: Sub Code: P16COX41
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
MODEL PAPER FOR NET / SET EXAM
Time : 2 Hrs M. Com & M. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 100
Answer all questions, choose the correct answer ( 100 x 1 = 100 marks)
1. Goods means
a) All movable property b) All immmovable property
c) Auctionable claims d) Decree
2. Goods includes
a) Rare coins b) Grass c) Crops with land d) All of these
3. A central consumer protection council establishment by the
a) State Government b) Central Government
c) Parliament c) president of India
4. A state consumer proection council is established by the _____ in each
state.
a) Respective state government b) Only the president of India
c) Prime Minister d) Home Minister
5. The district forum shall consists of
a) A person who is qualified to be a District Judge who shall be its
president
b) A person of eminence in the field of education, trade or commerce,
who shall be a member.
c) A lady social worker.
d) All of the above.
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6. The First Industrial Policy, of India announced by the Dr.Shyama
Prasad Mukherjee on
a) 6.4.1948 b) 6.4.1950 c) 6.4.1951 d) 6.4.1955
7. The Industrial policy, 1990 was announced by the
a) Shri Ajeet Singh b) Shri Manmohan Singh
c) Shri Jaswant Singh d) Shir T. R. Dhir
8. The New Industrial Policy announced on
a) 24.7.1991 b) 20.7.1991 c) 20.6.1992 d) 20.7.1996
9. Which one of the following is not meant of Water Transport in India?
a) Inland water transport b) Coastal transport
c) Oceanic Transport d) Railway
10. Which one of the following is not included under the object or New
Industrial Policy 1991?
a) To correct the distortions (or) weakness that may have crept in
b) To maintain a sustained growth in productivity and gainful
employment
c) To attain international competitiveness
d) To abolish on the gains already made
11. Who are the drivers of Globalisation?
a) International Trade b) Financial Flows
c) Communications d) All of these
12. The world economy has been emerging as a ….. economy
a) Global b) Traditional
c) Domestic d) Both (a) and (b)
13. Who counted “All institutions have to make global competitiveness a
strategic goal”?
a) Peter Drucker b) Guleek
c) Terry d) A. D. Honga
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98. Industrial relations consists
a) Recruitment and placement b) Job analysis
c) Supervision d) All of these
99. Feedback and counselling involves
a) Give critical and supporting feedback
b) provide support
c) discuss the steps, the employee can take for improvement
d) all of these
100. Organization and development includes
a) Organisational diagnosis b) Team building
c) Task force d) All of the above
*******
14. Forms of Mixed Economy consists of
a) Public sector b) Private sector
c) Co-operative sector d) All of these
15. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of mixed economy?
a) Public interest b) Public control
c) Joint sector d) Economy independency
16. Economic infrastructure includes
a) Transport b) Communications
c) Water d) All of these
17. Which is the Corporate Citizen?
a) Reliance Industries Ltd b) Panchayat
c) Ram d) None of the above
18. The strategies of marketing adopted by firm to achieve growth for
a) Add more products b) Add more markets
c) Expand markets d) All of these
19. Political environment consists
a) Role of legislature b) Role of Judiciary
c) Role of executive d) All of these
20. Economic environment consists
a) New economic policy b) Population
c) Per capita income d) All of the above
21. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are
a) Accounting concepts b) Accounting conventions
c) Accounting standard d) (a) and (b) both
22. Accounting is a language of
a) Business b) Books of accounts c) Accountant d) None of these
-4- -13-
23. Which expenses is a Capital‟s nature?
a) Depreciation b) Wages
c) Salary d) Stationary
24. General Reserve created from
a) Capital profit b) Revenue profits
c) Only profit d) Sale of asset
25. Dividend can be declared from
a) Revenue profit b) Capital profit
c) Secret reserve d) All of these
26. The term current assets do not include
a) Debtors b) B/R
c) Stock d) Goodwill
27. Balance is a statement of
a) Assets b) Liabilities
c) Capital d) All of these
28. Owner‟s equity could be understood as comprising ……. and ……
a) Contributed capital b) Retained earnings
c) Liabilities d) Both (a) and (b)
29. Cost of sales in the case of trading company is equal to
a) Sales–Gross profit
b) Opening Stock + purchases + incidental expenses –closing stock
c) Sales – Closing stock d) Only (a) and (b)
30. Which one of the following is not an example of Intangible assets?
a) Patents and Trade marks b) Copyright
c) Sologan d) Land
91. Which of the following factors connected with working condition?
a) Fair wages b) Security and opportunity to rise
c) Work environment d) All of these
92. Which of the following types are fatigue?
a) Muscular or physiological fatigue b) Nervous fatigue
c) Industrial fatigue d) All of these
93. Mental fatigue arises due to a feeling of tiredness that drops up in a person
while working continuously on a ……. operation
a) Repetitive b) Standing
c) Industrial d) performance
94. On the job training can be provided through
a) Distance education b) Mobile teacher
c) Non –formal education d) All of these
95. The industrial relations in the 21st century are not going to be between two
groups – haves or have-nots or managers and managed or employers and
a) Employees b) Customers
c) Firm d) Suppliers
96. A number of decisions have been taken to strengthen recruitment and
improve the quality of management
a) Trainees b) Assignees
c) Company d) Programmes
97. Qualitative changes in the attitudes of employees involves
a) There is a greater awareness among officers, workers and associations
b) Communication process is more effective
c) There is considerable clarity about goals and objectives
d) all of these
-5-
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85. Recruitment deals with
a) identification of existing sources of applicants and developing them
b) creation of new sources to applicants
c) identification of new sources to applicants
d) all of the above
86. Selection includes
a) Framing and developing application banks
b) checking of references
c) formulating interview techniques
d) all of these
87. Training involves
a) identification of training needs of the individuals and the company
b) developing suitable training programme
c) evaluating the effectiveness of training programme
d) all of these
88. Physical condition of work includes
a) Lighting b) Temperature
c) Rest pauses d) All of these
89. Technological development includes
a) Plant size b) Job layout
c) Raw materials d) All of these
90. “Morale as a readiness to co-operate warmly in the tasks and pursposes
of a given group or organization” who gave this statement?
a) Alldrich b) Ackooff
c) Viteles d) none of these
31. The minimum number of partners for Partnership firm is ____.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
32. Unrecorded liability, when paid by a firm on its dissolution is debited
to______.
a) Partner‟s capital account b) Unrecorded liability account
c) Realisation account d) None of these
33. A company can purchase its own______.
a) Equity shares b) Preference shares
c) Debentures d) All of these
34. The minimum amount that should be called by a company with
application for its shares is the following percent of face value of shares
a) 2% b) 5% c) 10% d) 15%
35. A company cannot issue
a) Redeemable Equity shares b) Redeemable preference shares
c) Redeemable debentures d) None of these
36. Which one of the following is not include in calculation of purchase
consideration?
a) Net Assets method b) Payment method
c) Lumpsum method d) None of these
37. In holding companies, dividends received out of profits of the subsidiary
companies must be
a) Debited to investment account b) Credited to investment account
c) Debited to revenue account d) Credited to revenue account
38. Which one of the way is not of Internal Re-construction?
a) By alteration in share capital of company
b) By reduction in share capital
c) By agreement with companies creditors
d) By sale of assets
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39. The basic purpose of funds flow statement is to indicate the following
a) Financial position
b) Increase or decrease in assets
c) Increase or decrease in liabilities
d) Increase or decrease in working capital
40. Solvency ratio will be
a) 72% b) 72.72% c) 10% d) 70%
41. Deposits consists of
a) Demand Deposits account b) Savings Deposits account
c) Fixed Deposits account d) All of these
42. Subsidiary ledgers of banking companies includes
a) Current Account Ledger
b) Fixed Deposit interest Ledger
c) Recurring deposit accounts ledger
d) All of these
43. Slip system of banking book keeping consists
a) Paying in slips b) Cheques
c) With drawl slips d) All of these
44. When was introduced banking Regulation Act in India?
a) 1935 b) 1940 c) 1949 d) 1956
45. The subscribed capital of a Banking Company should be
a) 50% of authorized capital b) 45% of paid up capital
c) 50% of paid up capital d) All of these
46. Reserve Fund known as
a) Statutory Reserve Fund b) General Reserve
c) Proposed Dividend d) All of these
78. The three section of BOP are
a) Current account b) Capital account
c) Official Reserve account d) all of these
79. Cable rate, known as
a) Spot rate b) Token rate
c) Foreign rate d) Interest rate
80. IMF indicates
a) Indian Monetary Fund b) International Money Fund
c) International Monetary Fund d) Indian Music Folio
81. Which one of the following does not include under the functions of
Human Resource Management?
a) Planning b) Organizing
c) Recruitment d) Profitability
82. Human Relations consists
a) Motivation b) Morale
c) Communication d) All of these
83. Compensation Management consists
a) Job Evaluation b) Fringe Benefits
c) Wages and Salary Administration d) All of these
84. Human Resource Development consists
a) Training b) Career planning and development
c) Performance appraisal d) All of these
-10- -7-
72. Which of the following is not the function of WTO?
a) To optimum use of world resources
b) To make Co-ordination between IMF and IBRD for formulating
the economic policy.
c) To introduce the rule and provision relating to the procedure of
business policy
d) None of these
73. Which of the following is the objective of WTO?
a) To introduce New World Trade Policy
b) Expansion to the Trade and production
c) To make the dispute settlement
d) All of these
74. More companies operate internationally because
a) New product quickly became known globally
b) Companies can produce in different countries
c) Domestic companies, competitor‟s suppliers and customers have
become international
d) All of these
75. A global company sometimes called a ……. company
a) A Joint Stock Company b) A globally integrated company
c) A multi domestic company d) All of these
76. Asian Development fund was created by
a) Asian Development Bank b) World Bank
c) IMF d) SAARC
77. Export processing zones has been converted into
a) Special Export Zone b) Economic Export Zones
c) Special Economic Zones d) None of these
47. The Schedule-2 of Banking Act consists of
a) Capital Reserve b) Share Premium
c) Revenue Reserve d) All of these
48. The Schedule-3 of Banking Act is related with
a) Deposits b) Borrowings
c) Capital d) All of these
49. Other liabilities and provisions consists
a) Bills payable b) Inter –office adjustment
c) Interest accrued d) All of these
50. IDBI contributed ….. of the share capital of IRCI
a) 60% b) 70% c) 50% d) 79%
51. UTI was set up in
a) 1964 b) 1970 c) 1975 d) 1979
52. Industrial development bank in India (IDBI) was set up in
a) July 1964 b) June 1964
c) August 1964 d) None of these
53. Which of the following schemes comes under UTI Mutual fund?
a) UTI –G–Sec fund investment plan
b) UTI–G–Sec fund short term plan
c) UTI–Bond Fund
d) All of these
54. The UTI was established under the
a) Unit Trust of India Act 1963
b) Reserve Bank of India Act 1935
c) Indian Companies Act 1956
d) Banking regulation Act 1949
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55. IDBI is a wholly owned subsidiary of the
a) Reserve Bank of India b) State Bank of India
c) Unit Trust of India d) None of these
56. When did the Royal Commission of Indian Currency and Finance
Commission suggest the establishment of the Reserve Bank of
India?
a) In 1926 b) In 1920 c) In 1930 d) In 1935
57. Which bank is known as a Central Bank of India?
a) Reserve Bank of India b) Punjab National Bank
c) State Bank of India d) All of these
58. When the Reserve Bank of India Act was passed?
a) March 6, 1930 b) March 6, 1934
c) March 6, 1935 d) March 6, 1937
59. The reserve bank of india was inaugurated on
a) April 1, 1934 b) April 1, 1935
c) April 1, 1930 d) April 1, 1949
60. The RBI was nationalized on
a) January1, 1949 b) January1, 1950
c) January1, 1956 d) None of the above
61. Which institute has been formed by the World Bank for providing
the soft loan for long term economic development?
a) International Development Association
b) International Finance Corporation
c) Asian Development Bank
d) Reserve Bank of India and EURO Bank
62. Who proposed the proposal for formation of IDA first time in
America? a) E. S. Moronoy b) D. S. Morya
c) A. Linken d) B. L. Tandon
63. Which of the following is not included under tenth replenishment of
IDA‟s programme?
a) Poverty reduction b) Environmental sustainability
c) Economic reforms d) None of these
64. GATT came into force on
a) 1947 b) 1949 c) 1959 d) 1956
65. GATT is a
a) Organization b) Agreement
c) Method d) Policy
66. 8th conference of GATT has been held at
a) Uruguve Round b) Hempasayer
c) New Delhi d) Chennai
67. World Trade Organisation has been set up for the replacement of
a) GATT b) World Bank c) EURO d) ADA
68. The functions of WTO has been start from
a) 1Jan 1995 b) 1Feb 1996 c) 1Jan 1997 d) None of these
69. DOHA conference is related with
a) GATT b) World Bank c) WTO d) USA
70. Which of the following is not the member of EFC?
a) Poland b) Germany c) Italy d) U.K
71. Who is the successor of GATT?
a) WTO b) ABB c) World Bank d) IFC
Question Code : A11110 Sub Code: BELCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SHAKESPEARE
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Bottom regards his association with Titania as ______.
a) a dream b) a reality
c) a heroine d) an angel
2. Puck says that he can move round the globe in _______.
a) thirty minutes b) forty minutes
c) thirty seconds d) forty seconds
3. Ross and Angus are the two important noblemen of ______
a) England b) Ireland
c) Scottland d) Iceland
4. The third witch declares that Macbeth ________.
a) is the thane of Glamis b) is the thane of Cawdor
c) will be the king of England d) will be the king of Scottland
5. Falstaff and his men rob ________.
a) Soldiers b) Thieves
c) Women d) Travellers
6. The battle of Shrewsbury closes in ________.
a) four days b) three days
c) two days d) one day
7. The main characters of Shakespearean tragedy face disaster because
of ______.
a) Suspicious nature b) Greedy nature
c) Tragic flew d) Adamant nature
8. The fools in Shakespeare sometimes perform the function of
______ in Green tragedy.
a) Chorus b) Villains c) Heroes d) Fate
9. According to Bradley, Shakespeare's tragedies portrays a conflict
between _______.
a) bad and bad b) good and good
c) good and evil d) hero and villain
10. _______ is the monumental work of A.C.Bradley.
a) Shakespeare the Man b) Shakespearean Tragedy
c) Shakespearean Comedy d) Preface of Shakespeare
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What problems are created by the flower 'Love – in – idleness'?
How are they solved?
(or)
b) Describe the staging of Pyramus and Thisbe.
12. a) Account for Macbeth's popularity on the stage.
(or)
b) Discuss the dramatic irony in Macbeth.
13. a) Examine the plot construction in Henry IV part – I.
(or)
b) Evaluate the Shakespeare's concept of the ideal king as presented
in Henry IV, Part I.
14. a) Bring out the development of Shakespearean theatre.
(or)
b) Brief the relevance of Shakespeare's Soliloquies in his plays.
15. a) Comment on Shakespeare's tragicomedy and Dr.Johnson's
justification of it.
(or)
b) What according to Johnson are the merits of Shakespeare.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Elucidate the aptness of the title A Midsummer Night's Dream.
17. Examine Macbeth as a Shakespearean tragedy.
18. Discuss Henry IV Part I as a morality play.
19. Critically analyse the clowns and foods in Shakespeare's plays.
20. Evaluate A.C.Bradley as a Shakespearean critic.
Question Code : A11111 Sub Code: BELCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
WOMEN’S WRITING IN ENGLISH AND IN TRANSLATION
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In 'Towards a Feminist Poetics' Showalter traces the history of the
literature of ______.
a) Children b) Men c) Women d) Jane
2. Showalter divides feminist Criticism into _______ distinct varieties.
a) two b) three c) four d) five
3. The Poem 'My Grandmother's House' is _____ in tone.
a) biographical b) autobiographical
c) tragic d) comic
4. Poetry is described by Judith Wright as ______.
a) a ray b) darkness
c) a darkening ray d) tick and tock
5. The Play' Mother of 1084' was written in the backdrop of the _______
revolution.
a) Naxalite b) Terrorist
c) Literary d) Critical
6. Mahasweta Devi's 'Mother of 1084' is a _______ act play.
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 5
7. In the novel 'Sula' Shadrack performs the ritual called ________.
a) National Suicide b) National freedom
c) National tragedy d) National carnival
8. ________ accidentally drowns in the river while Sula is playing
with him.
a) Shadrack b) Eva Peace
c) Jude Greene d) Chicken Little
9. The important theme of Dorris Lessing's story England Vs England
is _______.
a) Cultural conflict b) identity crisis
c) adaptability d) Social division
10. In 'A Correspondence Course' , Roland escapes from_______.
a) Pretoria prison b) London
c) Newyork
d) the African National Congress
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Elaborate Showalter's definition of the term 'The Feminist
Critique' or 'The gynocritique'.
(or)
b) What are Elaine Showalter's views on woman as reader and
writer?
12. a) Write a critical appreciation of the poem 'Before you knew you
owned it'.
(or)
b) How does the Mother in the poem 'My Daughter's Boy Friend'
feel when her daughter is on the point of eloping with her lover?
13. a) Describe the world of Marginalized in Mahasweta Devi's play Mother
of 1084.
(or)
b) Discuss Violence as the theme of Mother of 1084.
14. a) How does Morrison define Selfhood and Womanhood in Sula?
(or)
b) Sketch the character of Sula Peace.
15. a) Write an essay on Charlie's attitude to life and the changes that it
undergoes.
(or)
b) Write an essay on Panna's relationship with the people around her
including her husband.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Critically analyse the theme of Anita Desai's essay 'War'?
17. Discuss the autobiographical elements present in Kamala Das's Poem
'My Grandmother's House'.
18. 'Mother of 1084' is a heart breaking and yet coldly analytical story of a
loving Mother – Elucidate.
19. Consider Sula as a feminist fable.
20. Write an essay on the love that springs up between Harriet and the
political prisoner, Roland Carter.
Question Code : A11112 Sub Code: BELCR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
LITERARY CRITICISM
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which is the highest form of poetry according to Aristotle?
a) Tragedy b) Comedy
c) Epic d) Elegy
2. How many chapters are there in Aristotle's "Poetics"?
a) 24 b) 26 c) 34 d) 36
3. When was "Biographia Literaria" published?
a) 1800 b) 1817 c) 1819 d) 1822
4. Who applied Touchstone method to assess the quality of a poem?
a) F.R.Leavis b) Wilber Scott
c) Mathew Arnold d) Dr. Johnson
5. "Revaluation " is a work written by ________.
a) Northorp Frye b) T.S.Eliot
c) Dr.Johnson d) F.R. Leavis
6. Who introduced impersonal theory of poetry?
a) I.A.Richards b) T.S.Eliot
c) Ben Jonson d) Coleridge
7. Who established psychoanalytic criticism?
a) Freud b) Jung c) Keble d) F.R.Leavis
8. Cleanth Brooks is an exponent of ________ criticism.
a) Historical b) Formalistic
c) Psychological d) Sociological
9. "Hamlet and Oedipus" is a study made by _______.
a) Shakespeare b) Ernest Jones
c) Sophocles d) Freud
10. "Tension" is a term used in _______
a) Historical criticism b) Psychological criticism
c) Archetypal criticism d) Formalistic criticism
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Comment on Aristotle's views on epic.
(or)
b) What are the arguments given by Sidney to depend poetry?
12. a) Write short notes on Wordsworth's choice of language.
(or)
b) State Coleridge's views on fancy and imagination.
13. a) Briefly explain the term "dissociation of sensibility".
(or)
b) Bring out the views of I.A.Richards on practical criticism.
14. a) What is psychological criticism? Illustrate with examples.
(or)
b) How is formalistic approach relevant to contemporary literature?
15. a) Explain the tenets of archetypal criticism.
(or)
b) Elucidate if the historical context is necessary to interpret a text.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Elaborate the components of tragedy as viewed by Aristotle.
17. Discuss Wordsworth's definition of poetry and its diverse aspects.
18. Which writers form the great tradition of English novelists according to
F.R.Leavis?
19. How does T.S.Eliot relate religion and literature through moralistic
approach?
20. How do race, gender and class constitute towards sociological criticism?
Question Code : A11113 Sub Code: BELCR64
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEACHING
Time : 3 Hrs B.A (English) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. English is a ________ language.
a) international b) regional
c) national d) none of the above
2. Kachru divides English in the world into _______ circles.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
3. Dr.West modified the _________ for giving greater importance to
reading.
a) new method b) direct method
c) translation method d) group method
4. In the _______ method there is no use of mother tongue in the
classroom.
a) direct b) new
c) translation d) substitution
5. Reading aloud is an art and _______ cannot be learnt this way.
a) Pronunciation b) Silent reading
c) Understanding d) Vocabulary
6. ________ vocabulary is the set of words,the pupil has to use in his
everyday speech and writing.
a) Passive b) Active
c) Specialised d) Essential
7. ________ is the ability to locate specific information or fact.
a) skimming b) scanning
c) writing d) speaking
8. Teaching ______ comprehension will have three phases.
a) listening b) reading
c) writing d) speaking
9. Films help to improve the _______ of spoken English.
a) Pronunciation b) Comprehension
c) information d) Custom
10. ________ offered graded lessons in pronunciation.
a) A.S.Hornby b) F.T.Wood
c) Michael Swan d) O‟ Connor
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What features of English, do you think, have made it acceptable
to different speech communities in the world?
(or)
b) Write a short note on Bloom‟s Taxonomy of objectives in the
cognitive domain.
12. a) Write a short note on the principles of Grammar –Translation
method.
(or)
b) Give a write up about Dr.West‟s views on the importance of
teaching of English.
13. a) Write a short note on the methods of correcting mistakes.
(or)
b) Bring out the purpose of the teaching of extensive reader.
14. a) What are the merits and demerits of reading aloud.
(or)
b) What are the components of reading comprehension?
15. a) Write a short note on the uses of a language laboratory.
(or)
b) Examine the uses of Audio –Visual aids.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Review English as an international language.
17. What are the principles on which Direct method is based on? Explain its
salient features.
18. Explain the techniques and strategies involved in teaching of poetry.
19. Describe the four essential skills in learning English language.
20. How can computer be used for language teaching? Point out the
advantages and disadvantages.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
4. Explain in detail about the sources of values and value of values.
5. Give elaborate notes on impact of Suicide and its Remedial
measures.
6. Describe in detail about the Mahatma Gandhi as the symbol of
Ahimsa.
7. Explain in detail about Human rights in India context and write
about the protection of Human Rights.
8. What are the problems developed for women and their health –
Explain.
Question Code : A03102 Sub Code: BCNVE61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
VALUE EDUCATION
Time : 2 Hrs B.A / B. Sc / B.Com / B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions. (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. a) Write about the Spiritual Values.
(or)
b) Give an account on Good manners.
2. a) Write in detail about the message from the life of Subramaniya
Bharathi.
(or)
b) Write short note on impacts of drug addiction.
3. a) Brief an account on Human Rights organisations and its functions.
(or)
b) What are the violences occur against women –Explain.
Sub Code: UZOCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. DNA Ligase is a ________.
a) Breaking enzyme b) Joining enzyme
c) Releasing enzyme d) Removing enzyme
2. The polymerase chain reaction machine is also called as_______.
a) Thermo cycler b) Gene gun
c) Photocopier d) Gene maker
3. Hepatitis B vaccine produced in the host ________.
a) E.coli b) Yeast
c) Drosophila d) Animal cells
4. Interleukin is also known as _______.
a) Plasma cell factor b) Natural killer cell growth factor
c) B – cell growth factor d) T – cell growth factor
5. In monoclonal antibody technology, hybridoma is a fusion products of a
lymphocyte and a ________.
a) Hybridoma cell b) Natural killer cell
c) Myeloma cell d) Lymphoblast
6. The transgenic goldfish was first developed by using _______.
a) Human growth hormone gene b) Antifreeze gene
c) Fish growth hormone gene d) Interleukin gene
7. The fusion of isolated protoplasts of two different plants is known as
________.
a) Hybrid protoplast b) Cybrids
c) Haploids d) Somatic hybridization
8. In transgenic cotton technology, the bxn gene and crylAc gene
introduced into cotton varieties through ________.
a) Virus based vector b) Plant based vector
c) Agrobacterium based vector
d) Yeast artificial chromosome based vector
9. Super bug is constructed from the bacterium.
a) Pseudomonas putida b) Pseudomonas fluorescens
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Pseudomonas testosteroni
10. Spirulina is effectively cultured in
a) Lake b) Pond c) Lagoon d) Pool
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Compare and contrast plasmids and bacteriophages.
(or)
b) Analyze the different strategies used in gene transfer methods.
12. a) Write a brief account on the production of Interferons.
(or)
b) Give an account on production process of recombinant hepatitis B
vaccine.
13. a) Elaborate the gene cloning strategies with suitable example.
(or)
b) Critically analyze the production of transgenic fish.
14. a) Describe the importance of protoplast fusion.
(or)
b) Explain the role of electroporation in transgenic plant production.
15. a) Give a detailed account on applications of Spirulina.
(or)
b) List the significance of super bug and its construction process.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write an account on restriction endonucleases with examples.
17. Describe the types of Interferons and their applications.
18. Discuss the production and applications of monoclonal antibodies.
19. What is microbial insecticide? Write short note on mode of action of Bt
toxins.
20. Discuss the principle and applications of immobilizing enzymes.
Question Code : A23110 Sub Code: BZOCR62 / UZOCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSIOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which is the muscular organ?
a) Oesophagus b) Throat
c) Pharynx d) Tongue
2. Which one of the following is the region of small intestine?
a) Ileum b) Colon
c) Villus d) Appendix
3. Vascularized air sae is _______.
a) Gill b) Lung
c) Skin d) Trachea
4. Stigma is a part of _______.
a) Trachea b) Epipodite
c) Book lung d) Skin
5. The excretory product of most of the aquatic animals is ______.
a) Amino acid b) Uric acid
c) Ammonia d) Urea
6. The first step in urine formation is ______.
a) Ultrafiltration b) Absorption
c) Secretion d) Dialysis
7. The part of a neuron looks like a cell is called _______.
a) Axon b) Dendron
c) Cyton d) Fibrils
8. Cochlea is a part of ________.
a) Outer air b) Middle air
c) Inner air d) Eye
9. Which is the mastergland of an endocrine system?
a) Thyroid b) Pituitary
c) Testis d) Ovary
10. Hormonal disorder due to pituitary tumour is called _______.
a) Gigantism b) Dwarfism
c) Aeromegaly d) Myxoedema
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Enumerate the role of enzyme in protein digestion.
(or)
b) Comment on digestive glands.
12. a) Mention about the various types of respiration.
(or)
b) Give notes on respiratory organs.
13. a) Comment on dieresis.
(or)
b) List the composition of Urine.
14. a) Mention about the types of neurons.
(or)
b) Discuss about the physiology of vision.
15. a) Write the functions of Hormones.
(or)
b) Give an account of Thymus.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write about the steps in process of digestion.
17. Describe the structure of Human heart.
18. Discuss the mechanism of muscle contraction.
19. Explain the mechanism of hearing.
20. Give an account on Adrenal gland.
Question Code : A23304 Sub Code: BZOME61 / UZOME61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MEDICINAL BOTANY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The first written record of Indian herbal medicine was first appeared in
the year ______.
a) 3500 – 1800 B.C. b) 2000 – 1500 B.C.
c) 2400 – 2000 B.C. d) 2800 – 2400 B.C.
2. Who among the following is an ancient Indian herbalist?
a) Susrata b) Bhaskara
c) Samudra Gupta d) Bimbisara
3. Vincristine is obtained from _______.
a) Catharanthus roseus b) Digitalis purpurea
c) Dioscorea compositae d) Aegle mermelos
4. Saraparin is used for treating ________.
a) Nerve disorders b) Heart disorders
c) Skin diseases d) Brain disorders
5. Hemidesmus indicus belongs to the family _________.
a) Meliaceae b) Lamiaceae
c) Asclepiadaceae d) Rutaceae
6. Tulsi is botanically known as ________.
a) Albizzia lebbeck b) Azadirachta indica
c) Ocimum sanctum d) Aloe vera
7. Eczema can be cured by ______.
a) Piper nigrum b) Zingiber officinale
c) Aloe vera d) Phyllanthus niruri
8. Cynodon dactylon belongs to the family ________.
a) Liliaceae b) Poaceae
c) Piperaceae d) Euphorbiaceae
9. Identify the state which is the largest producer of sandal wood oil in
India.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu
10. Kalappaikilangu is botanically known as _________.
a) Aloe vera b) Gloriosa superba
c) Santalum album d) Eucalyptus globulus
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Trace the history of herbal medicine.
(or)
b) Explain drugs? Give any two examples for drugs of plant origin.
12. a) Highlight the medicinal importance of Digitalis purpurea.
(or)
b) Explain the medicinal importance of Sarasaparilla.
13. a) Bring out the medicinal importance of Cassia angustifolia.
(or)
b) Explain the medicinal importance of Azadirachta indica.
14. a) Give an account of the phytochemical constituents of Emblica
officinalis.
(or)
b) Describe the medicinal importance of Zingiber officinale.
15. a) How will you extract the Eucalyptus oil by steam distillation method?
(or)
b) Highlight the uses of Sandal wood oil.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Write an essay on the Ayurveda system of medicine.
17. Describe the sources and medicinal uses of cardiac glycosides studied by
you.
18. Give an account of the botanical features and medicinal features of
Aegle mermelos.
19. Discuss the pharmaceutical importance of Piper nigrum.
20. Explain the cultivation practices of Catharanthus roseus.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Explain the shed requirements for various programme in a Poultry
farm?
7. Describe the Management of layers.
8. Write down the Forced Moulting in a farm.
9. Briefly Explain the Parasitic diseases in a Poultry farm.
10. Describe the Ranikhet disease in a Poultry farm.
Question Code : A23405 Sub Code: BZOSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
POULTRY SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. Explain the layout of a Layer farm?
2. Describe the types of waterers in a Poultry farm?
3. Write down the winter Management of a farm?
4. Explain the lighting in a Poultry farm?
5. Describe the Fowl Pox Vaccine?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Describe the cultivation method of white button mushrooms.
7. Write an account on spawn running, fruit body production and
harvesting of Oyster mushroom.
8. Explain the cultivation methods of Paddy straw mushroom.
9. Discuss the various preservation methods of mushroom.
10. Describe the following recipes:
a) Mushroom Soup
b) Mushroom Omelette
c) Mushroom Samosa.
Question Code : A23406 Sub Code: BZOSB62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
MUSHROOM TECHNOLOGY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Zoology) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. Discuss the importance of mushrooms.
2. Describe the harvesting and packing of white button mushroom.
3. Write the facilities required for Paddy straw mushroom house.
4. Explain the polybag method of Oyster mushroom.
5. Describe the mushroom curry.
Question Code : A30116 Sub Code: BCOCR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
BUSINESS LAW - II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The word „bailment‟ means _________
a) to receive b) to deliver
c) to forget d) to find
2. The finder of goods _______ .
a) has a right of lien over the goods for his expenses
b) can mix with his own goods
c) need not find the true owner
d) can use the goods
3. _________ is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order
signed by the maker .
a) Promissory note b) Notes
c) Bill of Exchange d) Hundis
4. _______ instrument is an incomplete instrument in some aspect.
a) An inchoate b) Escrow
c) Fictitious d) Clean
5. The term of service for Central Consumer Protection Council is _____
years.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 2 d) 3
6. The Chairman of State Consumer Protection council is _______.
a) Chief Minister b) Governor
c) Consumer Affairs Mniister d) High Court Judge
7. The consideration for which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the
assured against the risk is called _________.
a) Policy b) Premium
c) Reinsurance d) double insurance
8. The doctrine of subrogation is a corollary to the principle of ______.
a) Guarantee b) Insurance
c) Indemnity d) Causa proxima
9. Competition Commission of India has its headquarters at ________.
a) Indore b) Kolkata
c) Mumbai d) New Delhi
10. The penalty for making false statement shall not be less than
________.
a) 5 lakhs b) 50 lakhs
c) 5 crores d) 50 crores
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Who is the finder of lost goods? What are his rights and
obligations ?
(or)
b) Under what circumstances a contract of bailment gets terminated?
12. a) What are the types of crossing ? Explain in detail.
(or)
b) Who are the parties to Bill of Exchange and Promissory note ?
13. a) Discuss State consumer protection council.
(or)
b) What are the objectives of Central consumer protection council ?
14. a) Write a short note on Nature of Contract of Insurance.
(or)
b) What is reinsurance ? Explain.
15. a) State the reasons for passing Competition Act 2002.
(or)
b) What are the powers of Central Government with respect to
miscellaneous.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the rights of bailor and bailee.
17. Briefly classify the negotiable instruments.
18. Explain about Unfair trade Practices.
19. Write shot notes on i) Causa Proxima ii) Subrogation
20. Discuss the duties, powers and functions of competition commission of
India.
Question Code : A31116 Sub Code: BCACR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
E - COMMERCE
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which of the following describes E–Commerce?
a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods d) All of the above
2. E – Business Transaction through the _______.
a) Marketing b) Multiple way
c) Online d) None of these
3. B2B Transaction is _______.
a) Business to Business b) Business to Banking
c) Bank to Bank d) Basic to Business
4. The expansion of URL is _______.
a) Unified Resource Location b) Uniform Resource Locator
c) Uniform Revise Location d) Unified Revise Location
5. MAN refers to ______ area network.
a) Maximum b) Monitor
c) Major d) Metropolitan
6. EPS is an Expansion of _______.
a) Everytime Process Symbol b) Entertime Paper System
c) Electronic Payment System d) All the above
7. E –Cash Means_______.
a) Electronic Cash b) Employee Cash
c) Entry Cash d) None of these
8. Electronic Data Interchange is an exchange of ______ information.
a) Customer b) Structured Business
c) Product d) None of these
9. Workflow Automation is _______ and _____ Task.
a) Paper and electronic b) Element and Entry
c) Each and Every d) Buy and Sell
10. Online Advertisement helps to ________.
a) improve knowledge b) improve health
c) improve Financial d) improve business
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the Advantages and Disadvantages of E–Commerce.
(or)
b) Explain the various types of convergence.
12. a) Explain about Architectural Framework for Electronic
Commerce.
(or)
b) Describe the Features of WWW.
13. a) What is EDI? Write the Advantages of Electronic Data
Interchange.
(or)
b) What are the Risk for the Electronic Payment?
14. a) Explain the component of Supply Chain Management.
(or)
b) Discuss about the WorkFlow automation and coordination.
15. a) Describe the internal Commerce Architecture.
(or)
b) Decribe about recent Technology in E – Commerce.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Briefly Explain about Anatomy of E –Commerce Application.
17. Explain the market forces influencing the I –way.
18. Describe the important types of payment.
19. Briefly Explain the EDI Application in Business.
20. Explain about Online Advertising and Online Marketing.
Question Code : A30117 Sub Code: BCOCR64
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Investment made in real estate is a ______.
a) Real investment b) Financial investment
c) Non–Financial investment d) Intangible investment
2. Which one of the following is a contingent investment?
a) Recurring deposit b) Bonds
c) Equity shares d) Life Insurance Policy
3. The minimum number of shares to be applied for is ______.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
4. Book building is managed mainly by ______.
a) Registrar b) Lead manager
c) Registrar and book runner d) Lead manager and book runner
5. The rolling settlement period introduced in the stock exchanges is
______.
a) T + 5 b) T + 7 c) T + 2 d) T + 15
6. Carry Forward transactions are permitted for a period of
a) 70 days b) 75 days c) 80 days d) 90 days
7. The promoters contribution should not be less than ______.
a) 25% of the issue size b) 20% of the issue size
c) 30% of the issue size d) 33% of the issue size
8. SEBI would not vert offer documents seeking listing on ______.
a) OTCEI b) NSE c) BSE d) ISE
9. NSDL, commented its operations in_______.
a) 1994 b) 1995 c) 1996 d) 1997
10. SEBI (Depository and Participants) Act was promulgated by the
Government in _______.
a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the factors favourable for investment.
(or)
b) How Investment is differ from Speculation?
12. a) Define the new issue market. How is it related to the secondary
market?
(or)
b) Give an account of the recent trends in the primary market.
13. a) Explain the functions of stock exchange in India.
(or)
b) What is a carry forward transaction? Explain.
14. a) Who are underwriters? What are their functions?
(or)
b) State the important functions of SEBI.
15. a) What are the functions of NSDL?
(or)
b) Explain the depositary process.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. What is Investment Management? Explain its scope.
17. Explain the functions of new issue market?
18. Explain the procedures for listing of securities on a stock exchange.
19. Explain in detail the SEBI guidelines for primary market.
20. Evaluate the performance of NSDL in the depository system..
Part B
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Explain the various stages involved in personality development.
7. “Determination of biological factors of development of personality”
– Elucidate.
8. Discuss the various factors which affect the individual behavior of
personal traits.
9. Explain the following terms of personality development:
(i) Socio-psychological theory.
(ii) Traits theory
(iii) Self theory.
10. Describe the nature of personality traits.
Question Code : A30403 / A31403 Sub Code: BCOSB61 / BCASB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT
Time : 2 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. How does immaturity – maturity continuum differ from stage theories of
Prsonality Development?
2. Discuss the maturity characteristics of personality development.
3. What is a personality trait and what are the set-barrier to perpetual
accuracy?
4. What are the major factors shape the personality of an individual?
5. Explain the Immaturity characteristics of personality development.
18. The cash flows from two mutually exclusive projects X and Y are as
under
Year Project X
Rs.
Project Y
Rs.
0 (–) 44,000 (–) 54,000
1 – 7 12,000 14,500
Project life 7 years 7 years
Calculate profitability index at 15% discount rate and suggest which
project is profitable?
19. What are the determinants of working capital requirements ?
20. Du Preez Ltd. gives you the following information
Earnings per share – Rs.45
Cost of capital – 18 %
Return on investment – 18 %
Ascertain the market value per share using Gordon‟s Model,
if the pay out is a) 30% b) 60% c) 90%
Question Code : A30114 / A31114 Sub Code: BCOCR61 / BCACR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The appropriate objective of an enterprise is _______.
a) Maximisation of sales b) Maximisation of profits
c) Maximisation of owner's wealth d) Maximisation of production
2. Traditional approach confine finance function only to _______.
a) utilize funds b) raise funds
c) make profits d) make sales
3. Financial leverage is important for ______planning.
a) profit b) investment c) sales d) dividend
4. ________ refers to make up of firm‟s capitalisation.
a) capital gearing b) capital structure
c) working capital d) EBIT
5. According to _________ approach , a firm can increase its value by
increasing the proportion of debt in its financing.
a) Net income b) Net operating income
c) MM d) Traditional
6. According to MM approach the total value of the firm is _______.
a) low b) high c) static d) medium
7. _________ refers to the firm‟s investment in total current assets.
a) receivables b) factoring
c) gross working capital d) net working capital
8. The permanent working capital is also called as________.
a) core current assets b) net current assets
c) fixed assets d) core fixed assets
9. An extra dividend paid to shareholders from surplus profit is_____.
a) rights issue b) cash dividend
c) bonus shares d) interim dividend
10. _____ dividends are paid in the form of some assets other than cash
a) scrip b) bond c) cash d) property
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Discuss the aims of finance function.
(or)
b) What are financial decisions?
12. a) A firm sells is product at Rs.12 per unit. Its variable cost is Rs.8
per unit. Present sales are 1,000 units. Calculate the operating
leverage in each of the following situations.
1. When fixed cost is Rs.1,000
2. When fixed cost is Rs.1,200
3. When fixed cost is Rs.1,500
(or)
b) What is meant by over capitalisation ? What are the causes for
over capitalisation ?
13. a) Project K requires an investment of Rs.20,00,000 and yieds after
tax and depreciation as follows :
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Profit after tax and
depreciation
1,00,000 1,50,000 2,50,000 2,60,000 1,60,000
At the end of 5th
year the plant can be sold for Rs.1,60,000. You are
required to calculate ARR.
(or)
b) Enumerate the steps involved in capital budgeting process.
14. a) What is working capital ? Discuss its concepts.
(or)
b) Kamath Ltd is engaged in customer retailing. You are required to
estimate is working capital requirements from the following data.
Projected annual sales Rs.6,50,000
Percentage of net profit to cost of sales 25%
Average credit allowed to debtors 10 weeks
Average credit allowed by creditors 4 weeks
Average stock carrying(in terms of stock carrying) 8 weeks
Allow 20% for contingencies
15. a) Discuss the nature of dividend policy.
(or)
b) The following information relates to S Ltd.
EPS Rs.10
IRR 18 %
Cost of capital 20 %
Payout ratio 40 %
Compute the market price under Walter‟s model .
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the role of finance manager.
17. The following particulars relate to two companies. You are required to
calculate the operating, financial and combined leverages of the two
companies :
X Ltd Y Ltd
Sales 4,00,000 8,00,000
Less : Variable Cost 1,60,000 2,40,000
Contribution 2,40,000 5,60,000
Less : Fixed Cost 1,28,000 2,80,000
Operating profit(EBIT) 1,12,000 2,80,000
Less: Interest 48,000 1,20,000
Profit before tax 64,000 1,60,000
Question Code : A30115 / A31115 Sub Code: BCOCR62 / BCACR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
INCOME TAX – II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com & B.Com (CA) Max. Marks : 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer. 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. How many exceptions are there to the provisions as regards Inter–head
set off?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
2. The only loss allowed to be carried forward among Incomes from other
sources is _______.
a) Loss from card games b) Loss due to lotteries
c) Loss from crossword puzzles
d) Loss on account of owning and maintaining race horses
3. What is the maximum mediclaim premium allowed to an individual
below 60 years if actual premium is more than that limit?
a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.10,000
c) Rs.5,000 d) Rs.15,000
4. What is the tax exemption limit for an individual?
a) Rs.40,000 b) Rs.70,000
c) Rs.1,00,000 D) Rs.2,50,000
5. Tax on Dividends distributed by a company is payable by _______.
a) Share holder b) Company
c) No tax on dividends d) Government
1
6. Tax rate applicable to Indian companies is _______.
a) 20% b) 40% c) 30% d) 50%
7. There is no exemption limit and flat rate of tax is applicable to
_______.
a) individuals b) partnership firms
c) AOP d) Companies and partnership firms
8. Minimum Alternate Tax payable by companies is dependent on
______.
a) Gross profit b) Book profit
c) Cash profit d) Operating profit
9. The scheme of filling returns by salaries employees through their
employer is done by getting form _____.
a) No.10 b) No.12A c) No.16AA d) No.25C
10. Liability of an employer to deduct tax at source is _______.
a) voluntary b) absolute
c) optimal d) non– voluntary
Part B
Answer ALL questions. 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) The following are the particulars of income / loss of Mr.A. You
are required to set–off losses and carry forward and set–off where
necessary.
2
i) H.U.F. has paid Rs.12,000 as premium on the Life Insurance
Policies of Y & Z for Rs.2,00,000. Life Policies were taken in
2005.
ii) One of his major sons is working as Manager in a private
limited Company and he is getting a salary of Rs.60,000 p.a.
iii) Deposited Rs.2,000 in PPF on the name of Z.
18. A,B and C are partners in a firm assessed u/s 185 sharing profits and
losses equally. The following is the profit and loss account of the
firm.
Rs. Rs.
To Manufacturing
Expenses
9,000 By Gross Sales 50,000
To Establishment 6,000 By Interest on Securities
[Gross]
3,000
To Depreciation 3,000
To Sundry Expenses 4,000
To Salary to A 6,000
To Commission to B 4,000
To Interest on capital
A 1,000
B 2,000
C 3,000
6,000
To Net profit
A 5,000
B 5,000
C 5,000
15000
53,000 53,000
19. Describe the provisions Relating to Rectification of Mistake
[Section 154] in Assessment of income Tax Act .
20. Explain the penalties imposed under the Income Tax Act 1961 for
different defaults committed by Assessee‟s.
Assessment Year
2016–17
Rs.
Assessment Year
2017–18
Rs.
Income from salary
[computed]
15,000 15,000
Income from interest on
Securities [Gross]
5,000
5,000
Loss from business 53,000 15,000
Short–term capital gain 8,000 –––
Long–term capital gain
[Land]
21,000 –––
(or)
b) Explain the provisions relating 'set–off of losses'.
12. a) The total income of an individual [45 years old] computed under the
normal provisions of Income tax Act is Rs. 10,00,000. However, the
'adjusted total income' of the individual [computed as per Section
115JC[2]] amounted to Rs. 30,00,000. Calculate the Final Tax Liability
of the individual for Assessment Year 2017-18.
(or)
b) Write a brief note on the tax treatment of income received from
different institutions.
13. a) A,B and C are partners in a firm assessed as firm sharing profits and
losses in the proportion of 3:2:1. The firm‟s Profit and Loss Account for
the year ended 31st March, 2017. Showed a net profit of Rs. 1,17,360
after debiting inter-alia the following amounts:
i) Salary of Rs.4,000 paid to C.
ii) Rent of Rs.9,000 at A for the portion of building owned by A in
which the firm's office was situated.
iii) Interest on capital @ 10% is Rs.1,000; Rs.2,000 and Rs.3,000 to
A,B and C respectively.
iv) Commision on sale to B Rs.1,000.
3 6
v) Expenses on current repairs of the business premises belonging
to partner A Rs.1,000. The rent agreement does not contain any
provision regarding repair to the firm.
vi) Donation to Shri Sai Baba Sansthan Trust Shirdi (approved)
Rs.5,000.
The net profit of Rs. 1,17,360 included Rs. 10,400 from interest on
Government securities. Compute firm‟s total income for the
assessment year 2017-18. The deed was admitted along with return
and it provides for salary to C Rs. 4,000 p.a. and interest on capital
to partners @ 10% p.a. also compute partner‟s income chargeable
to tax under the head “Profits and Gains”.
(or)
b) The total income of a LLP/Firm, computed under the normal
provisions of Income Tax Act is Rs.15,00,000. However the
„adjusted total income‟ of the LLP [computed as per Section
115JC[2]] amounted to Rs. 30,00,000. Calculate the Final Tax
Liability of the LLP for Assessment Year 2017–18.
14. a) Explain : Best Judgement Assessment.
(or)
b) Describe the prescribed Forms for filing of Income [Rule 12 of
Income-tax Rules 1962 [Applicable for assessment year 2017-18].
15. a) State briefly the law relating to declaration of tax at sources.
(or)
b) The estimated tax liability [after deducting TDS] of Mr. Sanjeev
for the previous year 2016-17 is Rs. 1,00,000. Calculate advance
tax payable by him in various instalments during the previous
year 2016–17.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions. 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Determine the total income from following particulars:
Previous Year
2016–17
Rs.
Previous Year
2017–18
Rs.
House property income
[computed]
20,000 20,000
Salary income [computed] 1,80,000 1,90,000
Business Profit before
depreciation
40,000
1,20,000
Depreciation for the year 1,20,000 1,40,000
Capital Gain – short term 10,000 Nil
Income from Other sources 20,000 40,000
17. X is the Karta of a Hindu Undivided Family, Y and Z are his two major
sons. From the following particulars, compute the total income and tax
of H.U.F.
iv) The H.U.F. runs a business in cotton textiles. The net profit of the
business was Rs.2,11,000 after charging Rs.11,000 paid as salary to
Y and Z for their help in running the business.
v) Profit and Loss Account shows an entry of drawing of Rs.20,000.
vi) The assessee has failed to furnish satisfactory explanation regarding
a deposit of Rs.20,000 in the name of X.
vii) Remuneration received by Karta for acting as Director of a company
in which H.U.F. holds shares worth Rs.2 Lakhs; Rs.10,000.
viii) Interest on debentures received by H.U.F. Rs.6,944, Tax deducted at
sources Rs.1,736 [H.U.F did not submit PAN to deductor]
ix) Sale proceeds of a shop acquired in 1978, sold on 31.12.2016 for
Rs.4,05,250 Fair market value on 1.4.81 estimated to be Rs.25,000
[C.I.I for 1981 –82 is 100 and for 2016 – 17 is 1125]
5
4
18. a) If V is an inner product space and S1, S2 are subsets of V, then prove
that 1221 SSSS .
b) Apply Gram – Schmidt process to construct an orthonormal basis for
V3 ( ) with the standard inner product for the basis {v1, v2, v3} where
v1 = (1, 0, 1), v2 = (1, 3, 1) & v3 = (3, 2, 1).
19. Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix A =
113
351
311
20. Reduce the quadratic form 2x1 x2 – x1 x3 + x1 x4 – x2 x3 + x2 x4 – 2x3 x4
to the diagonal form using Lagrange’s method.
Question Code : A20111/A26111 Sub Code: BMACR61 / BMCCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
LINEAR ALGEBRA
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. If T is one – to – one and homomorphism then T is called _________
a) epimorphism b) monomorphism c) isomorphism d) kernel
2. If T : V V is defined by T () = then ker T = _________
a) V b) {1} c) {0} d) {–1}
3. L (L(S)) = _______
a) S b) L (S) c) V d)
4. The dimension of T (V) is called the ________ of T.
a) nullity b) basis c) rank d) infinite
5. V = ___________
a) V b) {0} c) {1} d)
6. In an orthonormal set S, x = ________ for all x S.
a) 1 b) 0 c) x d) none
7. If A and B are similar matrices then their determinants are _________
a) different b) 0 c) same d) equivalent
8. The characteristic roots of
10
01 A are __________
a) 0, 1 b) 1, 1 c) 0, 0 d) –1, –1
9. The set of all bilinear forms on V is dended by __________
a) L (V, F) b) L (F, V) c) L (V, V, F) d) L (V X V, F)
10. A quadratic form associated with a diagonal matrix of older n is of the
form a1 x12 + a2 x2
2 +…+ an xn
2 is known as _________ form.
a) canonical b) symmetric c) diagonal d) quadratic
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Prove that the mapping defined by
T (a, b) = (2a – 3b, a + 4b) is a linear transformation.
(or)
b) Let A and B be the subspaces of a vector space V. Then prove that
AB = {0} iff every vector v A+B can be uniquely expressed in the
form v = a + b where a A, b B.
12. a) Prove that any set containing a linearly dependent set is also linearly
dependent.
(or)
b) Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F. Let T : V W be an
isomorphism. Then prove that T maps a basis of V onto a basis of W.
13. a) State and prove Triangle inequality in an inner product space.
(or)
b) If V is a finite dimensional inner product space and W is a subspace
of V, then prove that V = W W.
14. a) Find the sum and product of the eigen values of the matrix
311
421
443
without actually finding the eigen values.
(or)
b) Find the rank of the matrix A =
7012
7436
3124
15. a) Prove that a bilinear form f defined on V is symmetric iff its matrix
(aij) with respect to anyone basis {v1, v2, …, vn} is symmetric.
(or)
b) Find the matrix of the bilinear form f defined on V3( ) by
f (x,y) = x1y1 + x3y3 where x = (x1, x2, x3) and y = (y1, y2, y3) with
respect to (i) the standard basis and ii) {(1, 1, 0), (0, 1, 1), (1, 0, 1)}.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. State and prove the fundamental theorem of homomorphism.
17. Let V be a vector space over a field F. Let S = {v1, v2, …, vn} V.
Then prove that the following are equivalent.
i) S is a basis for V ii) S is a maximal linearly independent set
iii) S is a minimal generating set.
Question Code : A20112/A26112 Sub Code: BMACR62 / BMCCR62
UMACR61 / UMCCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPLEX ANALYSIS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The complex form of C.R equation is _________
a) fx = – ify b) fx = ify c) fx = fy d) fx = – fy
2. yxixiz 2lim 1 = ________
a) 1 – i b) 2 + i c) 1 + i d) 2 – i
3. The transformation w = z + b is called ___________
a) translation b) rotation c) contraction d) inversion
4. If dcz
bazzT
then T() = ____________
a) b/d b) a/c c) b/c d) a/d
5. The parametric equation of the circle |z| = r is _________
a) z = reit b) z = rie
it c) z = e
it d) e
rit
6. The interior of a simple closed curve is _____
a) multiply connected b) simply connected
c) connected d) not simply connected
7. The singular points of )(
1
izz is
a) 0 and i b) i and – i c) 0 and 1 d) 1 and –1.
8. A pole of order 1 is called __________
a) Simple b) double c) single d) finite
9. The residue of cot z at z = 0 is __________
a) 1 b) 0 c) d) –1
10.
0 2 1x
dx __________
a) b) 2 c) / 2 d) /4
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Prove that the functions f(z) and zf are simultaneously analytic.
(or)
b) Prove that u = 2x – x3 + 3xy
2 is harmonic and find its harmonic
conjugate. Also find the corresponding analytic function.
12. a) Prove that any bilinear transformation can be expressed as product
of translation, rotation, contraction and inversion.
(or)
b) Show that the transformation 24
45
z
zW maps that unit circle |z| = 1
into a circle of radius unity and centre – ½ .
13. a) State and prove Maximum modulus theorem.
(or)
b) State and prove Liouville’s theorem.
14. a) Find the Taylor’s series to represent 32
12
zz
zin |Z| < 2.
(or)
b) Find the Laurent’s series for 21 zz
zabout z = –2.
15. a) Find the poles of zzz
zzf
22
423
2
and determine the residues at
the poles.
(or)
b) Evaluate c zz
dzz
)3)(2(
2
where C is the circle |z| = 4.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Let f(z) = u (r, ) + iv (r, ) be differentiable at z = rei
0. Then prove
that
v
rr
u 1 and
v
u
rr
v
1. Also find
r
vi
r
urzf
2)(
17. Prove that any bilinear transformation preserves cross ratio.
18. Show that c
idzz 12
where C is the square vertices (0,0), (1, 0),
(1, 1) and (0, 1).
19. If 2)1)(3(
4
zz
zzf find Laurent’s series expansion in
i) 0 < |z – 1| < 4 and ii) |z – 1| > 4.
20. State and prove fundamental theorem of algebra.
Question Code : A20113/A26113 Sub Code: BMACR63 / BMCCR63
UMACR63 / UMCCR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
GRAPH THEORY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The number of edges in Km,n is ________
a) m + n b) m – n c) mn d) m/n
2. r (3, 3) = _________
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) none of these
3. If x is a bridge of G then w (G – x) = __________
a) w (G) + 1 b) w (G) – 1 c) w (G) d) w (G) + 2
4. In any graph which is true
a) k b) k c) k d) k
5. In any Eulerian graph the degree of every points _________
a) even b) odd c) prime d) none of these
6. Any acyclic (p, q) graph with ________ is tree.
a) p + 1 = q b) q + 1 = p c) p – 1 = q d) p + q = 1
7. The number of perfect matchings in complete bipartite graph kn, n is
a) n b) 2n c) n ! d) 2n!
8. If G is a maximal planar (p, q) graph then ________
a) q = 3p b) q = 3p – 3 c) q = 3p + 6 d) q = 3p – 6
9. For any independent set S of points of a critical graph G, (G – S) =
__________
a) (G) – 1 b) (G) + 1 c) (G) d) (G) – 2.
10. If G is a (p, q) graph, the coefficient of p–1
in f (G, ) is ________
a) q b) – q c) p d) – p
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Prove that r (m, n) = r (n, m).
(or)
b) Prove that 1 +
1 = p.
12. a) If a partition p = (d1, d2, …., dp) with d1 d2 ….. dp is graphical
then
p
iid
1
is even and
k p
kiiii dkkkd
1 1
,min1 for 1 k p.
(or)
b) If A is the adjacency matrix of a graph with V = { v1, v2, …vp}.
Prove that for any n 1 the (i, j)th
entry of An is the number of vi
– vj
walks of length n in G.
13. a) Prove that C (G) is well defined.
(or)
b) Prove that every non trivial tree G has atleast two vertices of degree 1.
14. a) Let G be a k-regular bipartite graph with k > 0. Then prove that G has
a perfect matching.
(or)
b) Define planar graph. Prove that the graphs k5 and k3, 3 are not planar.
15. a) Define k – critical. Prove that if G is k – critical then (G) k –1.
(or)
b) Define chromatic number. Prove that for any graph G, + 1.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Let G1 be a (p1, q1) graph and G2 a (p2, q2) graph then prove that
i) G1 U G2 is a (p1 + p2, q1 + q2) graph
ii) G1 + G2 is a (p1 + p2, q1 + q2, p1 p2) graph
iii) G1 x G2 is a (p1 p2, q1 p2 + q2 p1) graph.
17. A partition P = (d1, d2, ...., dp) of an even number into p parts with
p – 1 d1 d2 .... dp is graphical iff the modified partition
p1 = (d2 –1, d3 –1, ...., 1
1dd –1, 2
1dd , .... dp) is graphical.
18. State and prove Charatal theorem.
19. State and prove Hall’s marriage theorem.
20. State and prove four colour theorem.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. A continuous random variable X is defined by
31316
1
112616
1
13)3(16
1)(
2
2
2
xifx
xifx
xifxxf
17. An insurance agent accepts policies of 5 men all of identical age and in
good health. The probability that a man of this age will be alive 30
years hence is 2/3. Find the probability that in 30 years. i) All five men
ii) atleast one man iii) atmost three will be alive,
18. A random sample of 500 apples was taken from a large consignment
of apples and 65 were found to be bad. Find the S.E of the population
of bad ones in a sample of this size. Hence deduce that the percentage
of bad apples in the consignment almost certainly lies between 8.5 and
17.5.
19. Fit a Poisson distribution for the following data of test the goodness of
fit.
x: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total
y: 273 70 30 7 7 2 1 390
20. Three varieties of cows of same age group are treated with four
different types of fodders. The yields of milk in decilitres are given
below. Perform an analysis of variance and check whether there is any
significance difference between the yields of different varieties of
cows due to different types of fodders.
Varieties
of cows
Fodders
F1 F2 F3 F4
C1 61 63 66 68
C2 62 64 67 69
C3 63 63 68 69
Question Code : A20304 Sub Code: BMAME61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ADVANCED STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Maths) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The Standard deviation of the random variable X is 8 and its mean is 2
then ][ 2xE is __________
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 0
2. For a discrete random variable X, 2 = 0 and 21 = 74 then the mean of
the random variable is _________
a) 64 b) –8 c) 8 d) 8
3. Mode of the biaoncial distribution B (7, ) is _________
a) ¼ b) 29/4 c) 7/4 d) 1 and 2
4. If X is a Poisson variable with P(X = 0) = P(X = 1) = C, then the value
of C is______
a) e b) log e c) log
e
1 d)
e
1
5. Standard error of number of successes is given by __________
a) n
pq b) npq c) n p q d)
q
np
6. Large sample theory is applicable if _________
a) N > 30 b) N < 30 c) N = 30 d) N < 50
Verify that : i) the area under
curve is unity.
ii) also show that the
mean in zero.
7. The calculated value of 2 is _______
a) always positive b) always negative
c) zero d) either positive or negative
8. Student’s t – distribution was discovered by __________
a) Karl Pearson b) Laplace c) Fisher d) Gosset
9. All the ______ used in the analysis of variance table can be expressed
interms of the row totals and grand total.
a) change of scale b) ratio
c) sum of squares d) change of origin
10. The concept of Latin square is used when we have ________ criteria
classification.
a) two b) one c) three d) none
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) A random variable X, has the probability function
xxp
2
1 , x = 1, 2, 3, …. Find i) mgf ii) mean
(or)
b) Let X have the pdf
otherwise
xifx
xf
0
4218
2
Find i) E (x) ii) E [(x + 2)2 ]
12. a) If X is normally distributed with zero mean and unit variance find
E [x2].
(or)
b) Assuming that are in 80 births in a case of twins. Calculate the
probability of 2 or more births of twins on a day when 30 births occur
using i) binomial distribution ii) Poisson distribution
13. a) A die is thrown 10000 times and a throw of 1 or 2 was obtained 4200
times. On the assumption of random throwing do the data indicate an
unbiased one?
(or)
b) A sample of 400 individuals is found to have a mean of 67.47. Can it
be reasonably regarded as a sample from a large population with mean
67.39 and S.D. 1.3?
14. a) A random sample of 10 boys has the following IQ 70, 120, 110, 101,
88, 83, 95, 98, 107, 100. Do these data support the assumption of a
population mean IQ of 100.
(or)
b) Prove that
k
i
k
i i
i
i
ii ne
O
e
eO
1 1
22
2 where there are K set of
theoretical and observed values with the total frequency n.
15. a) The following table gives the results of experiments on 4 varieties of
crops in 5 blocks of plots. Prepare the table of analysis of variance to
test the significance of difference between the yields of the 4 varieties
Block Variety 1 2 3 4 5
A 32 34 35 35 37
B 34 33 36 37 35
C 31 34 35 32 36
D 29 26 30 28 29
(or) b) A tea company appoints 4 salesman A, B, C, D and observes their sales
in 3 seasons summer, monsoon and winter. The figures of their sales in
lakhs of rupees are given below.
Salesmen A B C D
Season 36
Summer 36 36 21 35
Monsoon 26 28 29 29
Winter 28 29 31 32
Carry out analysis of variance for i) Salesmen ii) Seasons.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks) 16. In a factory, there are six jobs to perform, each of which should go
through two machines A and B, in the order A, B. The processing timings
(in hours) for the jobs are given here. You are required to determine the
sequence performing the jobs that would minimize the total elapsed time T.
what is the value of T?
Job : J1 J2 J3 J4 J5 J6
Machine A : 1 3 8 5 6 3
Machine B : 5 6 3 2 2 10
17.Obtain the optimal strategies for both-persons and the value of the game
for zero-sum two –person game whose payoff matrix is as follows:
05
22
14
61
53
31
18 Solve the following game. Player B
IVIIIIII
Player A III
II
I
0212
1021
1324
19. A contractor has to supply 10,000 bearings per day to an automobile
manufacturer. He finds that when he starts a production run, he can produce
25,000 bearings per day. The holding cost of a bearing in stock is Rs. 0.02
per year. Set-up cost of production is Rs 18. How frequently should the
production run be made?
20. A barber shop has space to accommodate only 10 customers. He can
serve only one person at a time. If a customer comes to his shop and find it
full, he goes to the next shop. Customers randomly arrive at an average rate
10 per hour and the barber’s service time is negative exponential with an
average of 5 minutes per customer. Find P0 and Pn.
Question Code : A20114/A26114 Sub Code: BMACR64 / BMCCR64
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. In sequence problems
a) all jobs are completely known and ready for processing
b) jobs are processed sequentially
c) total elapsed time is determined by the point of time at which the first
of the n jobs goes to machine A until the time when the last job comes off
machine B
d) all of the above
2. Dynamic programming problem
a) Cannot be dealt with non-linear constraints.
b) Can be solved simplex method.
c). is solved starting from the initial stage to the next till the final stage is
reached.
d) Can be solved by using Monte- Carlo method.
3. The pay-off value for which each player in a game always selects the
same strategy is called the
a) equilibrium point b) saddle point
c) both a) and b) d) none of the above.
4. The size of the pay-off matrix of a game can be reduced by using the
principle of
a) Dominance. b) Rotation reduction
c) Game inversion d) Game transposes
5. For a two person game with A and B, the minimizing and maximizing
players, the optimum strategies are:
a) Minimax for A and Maximin for B
b) Maximax for A and Minimax for B
c) Minimin for A and Maximin for B
d) Maximin for A and Minimax for B
6. A game is said to be fair, if
a) Upper value is more than lower value of the game.
b) upper and lower values of the game are not equal
c) upper and lower values of the game are same and zero
d) None of the above
7. The purpose of safety stock is to
a) replace failed units with good ones
b) eliminate the possibility of a stockout
c) eliminate the likelihood of a stockout due to erroneous inventory
tally
d) control the likelihood of a stockout due to the variability of demand
during lead time
8. If unit cost raises, will optimum order quantity the total inventory cost is
a) increases b) decreases
c) either increases or decreases d) None of the above
9. If λ = 4 per hour and µ = 12 per hour in an (M|M|1):(∞/F1F0) queueing
system, P0 =
a) 121
81
b)
121
71
c)
121
91
d)
121
101
10. Multiple servers may be
a) in parallel b) in series
c) in combination of parallel and series d) all of the above
Part B
Answer ALL the questions ( 5 x 7 = 35 marks )
11.a) Discuss sequencing problem.
(or)
b) Explain the elements that characterize a sequencing problem.
12. a) Solve the game whose pay-off matrix is given by
Player B
321 BBB
Player A 3
2
1
A
A
A
151
340
131
(or)
b) Determine the range of the value of p and q that will make the pay-
off element a22, a saddle point for the game whose pay-off matrix is
given below:
Player B
321 BBB
Player A 3
2
1
A
A
A
84
710
542
p
q
13. a) Explain the algebraic method for solving a rectangular game
(or) b) Discuss iterative method of approximate solution
14. a) what are all major reasons to carrying inventories?
(or)
b) Determine an EOQ with no shortages
15. a) A T.V repairman finds that the time spent on his jobs has an
exponential distribution with mean 30 minutes. If he repairs sets in the order
in which they came in, and if the arrival of sets is approximately Poisson
with an average rate of 10 per 8 hours day, what is repairman’s expected
idle time each day? How many jobs are ahead of the average set just
brought in?
(or)
b) Explain operating characteristic of a queueing system.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. State and prove some properties of lattices.
7. Let (L, , ) and ( ) be two lattices. Prove that (L, x M, , ) is
a lattice.
8. Prove the following:
i) any chain is modular ii) every chain is a distributive lattice.
9. Prove that a lattice, L is a modular if and only if none of its sub lattices
is isomorphic to the pentagon lattice N5.
10. State and prove De Morgan’s Laws for Boolean algebra.
Question Code : A20404/A26404 Sub Code: BMASB61/ BMCSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
LATTICES AND BOOLEAN ALGEBRAS
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc Maths and Maths(CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x10 = 30 marks)
1. Let (L, ) be a lattice. For any a, b L, prove that the following are
equivalent:
i) a b b) a b = b and iii) a b = a
2. In any lattice (L, ), prove that the operation and are isotone.
3. Prove that a lattice L is modular if any only if for all x, y, z, L,
(x (y z )) (y z) = (x (y z)) (y z).
4. In a distributive lattice, prove that the following are equivalent:
i) a b x a b ii) x = (a x) (b x) (a b).
5. Express the polynomial p (x1, x2, x3) = x1 v x2 in an equivalent sum
of – products canonical form in three variables x1, x2 and x3.
19. Calculate Break- Even point from the following particulars.
Rs.
Fixed expenses 1,50,000
Variable cost per unit 10
Selling price per unit 15
20. Prepare a production budget for three months ending March 31, 2016
for a factory producing four products on the basis of the following
information.
Type
of
product
Estimated stock
on January 1, 2016
(Units)
Estimated Sales
during January-
March,2016 (Units)
Desired closing
stock March 31,2016
(Units)
A 2,000 10,000 5000
B 3000 15000 4000
C 4000 13000 3000
D 5000 12,000 2,000
Question Code : A40114 Sub Code: BBNCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. The term Management Accounting first coined in -------------.
a) 1960 b) 1950 c) 1945 d) 1955
2. The use of management accounting is ___________.
a) Optional b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
3. The relationship between two financial variables can be expressed in:
a) Pure ratio b) Percentage
c) Rate or time d) Either of above
4. Profit for the objective of calculating a ratio may be taken as
a) Profit before tax but after interest b) Profit before interest and tax
c) Profit after interest and tax d) All of these
5. Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis?
a) Schedule of changes in working capital b) Funds flow statement
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
6. Cash flow Statement is based upon --------------.
a) Credit basis of accounting b) Accrual basis of accounting
c) Cash basis of accounting d) None of these
7. Marginal cost is taken as equal to
a) Prime cost plus all variable overheads
b) Prime cost minus all variable overheads
c) Variable overheads d) None of these
8. Under absorption costing, managerial decisions are based on ----------
a) Contribution b) Profit volume ratio
c) Profit d) None
9. R and D Budget and Capital expenditure budget are examples of --------
a) Short-term budget b) Current budget
c) Long-term budget d) None of these
10. A Budgeting process which demands each manager to justify his entire
budget in detail from beginning is ---------------.
a) Functional budget b) Zero base budget
c) Master budget d) Flexible budget
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. (a) List out the disadvantages of Management Accounting.
(or)
(b) What is Comparative Balance Sheet? What is Comparative
Income Statement?
12. a) Bring out the demerits of Ratio analysis.
(or)
b) From the following details, find out Current Assets.
Current ratio 2:5; Liquid ratio 1.5; Working Capital Rs.90,000
13. a) Bring out the demerits of Funds flow statement.
(or)
b) Outline the steps involved in the preparation of Cash Flow
Statement.
14. a) Write down the merits of Marginal Costing.
(or)
b) Write down the assumptions of Break-even analysis.
15. a) Write down the demerits of Budgetary control.
(or)
b) Spell out the steps involved in Budgetary Control.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the functions of Management Accounting.
17. Define the following:
(i) Current ratio (ii) Liquid ratio
(iii) Debt-equity ratio (iv) Net Profit ratio
18. Discuss the merits and demerits of Cash Flow Statement.
Question Code : A40115 Sub Code: BBNCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. _______objective is the department’s level of service must be
tailored to fit the organization.
a) Social b) Organizational c) Functional d) Personal
2. _______aspects is concerned with company’s relation with the
employees.
a) Personnel b) Welfare
c) Industrial Relation d) Organizational Behaviour
3. _____ job descriptions is the immediate product of job analysis
process
a) Job analysis b) Job specification
c) Job description d) Job enrichment
4. ______ is the process of searching for prospective employees and
stimulating them to apply for the jobs in the organization.
a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Placement d) Induction
5. _____of performances is an increasingly popular technique of
management development.
a) Sensitivity training b) Role play
c) Brain storming d) Simulation
6. ______ methods is a combination of time and piece wage system.
a) Time Wage System b) Piece Wage System
c) Balance d) None
7. ______is a very powerful weapon used by the trade union to get
their demands accepted.
a) Industrial relation b) Industrial disputes
c) Strike d) Lockout
8. ______ causes is dissatisfaction with jobs and personal life results
in to industrial conflicts.
a) Social b) Psychological c) Political d) None
9. ______ method attempts to measure worker’s performance in terms
of certain events that occur in the course of work.
a) Forced Choice b) Critical Incident
c) Free Essay d) Field review
10. _____ is the supervisor writes a report about the employee which is
based on his assessment.
a) Free Essay b) Critical incident c) Forced choice d) none
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Discuss the objectives of HRM.
(or)
b) Write the features of Human resources planning?
12. a) What are characteristics of a job description?
(or)
b) Describe the process of recruitment.
13. a) Explain the various stages involved in the process training.
(or)
b) What do you understand by Time wage system?
14. a) Explain the approaches to industrial relation.
(or)
b) What are the causes for poor industrial relations?
15. a) What is performance appraisal? Describe its objectives.
(or)
b) Explain workers’ participation in management.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the types of Human resources planning.
17. Enumerate the contents of job description.
18. Shortly explain methods of wage payment.
19. Explain the machinery for prevention and settlement of industrial
disputes in INDIA.
20. Briefly discuss the various traditional methods of performance
appraisal.
Question Code : A40116 Sub Code: BBNCR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
COMPUTER AWARENESS IV (VISUAL PROGRAMMING)
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. IDE stands for ________
a) Integrated Desktop Environment
b) Integrated Development Environment
c) Integrated Dual Environment
d) Internet Development Environment
2. _________ variable is one that is declared inside a procedure.
a) Global b) Local c) External d) None of the above
3. In Visual Basic, _______ is the extension to represent the project
file.
a) . frm b) . vbp c) . cb d) . vb
4. _______ statement enables us to trap runtime error.
a) Error b) On error c) On runtime error d) None of these
5. _________method removes a dialog box from view.
a) Enabled b) Disable c) Hide d) Display
6. The process of correcting error from the program is called _______.
a) Debugging b) Correction
c) Syntax error d) Logical error
7. The function procedures are _______ by default.
a) Public b) Private c) Protected d) None of the above
8. __________ do not return a value.
a) Sub procedure b) Function procedure
c) Property Procedure d) All of these
9. _________ is a collection of files.
a) Class b) Group c) Project d) Form.
10. ________ event occurs when a form loaded into the memory.
a) Load b) Active c) Initialize d) None of the above.
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain briefly about object related concepts in VB.
(or)
b) Discuss about data types and data declarations in VB.
12. a) Write the various categories of control tool.
(or)
b) Explain briefly about scroll ball control.
13. a) How to create a menu using menu editor?
(or)
b) How to set break points?
14. a) How to define a sub procedure with example?
(or)
b) How to process the array elements using subscripted variables?
15. a) Write the characteristics of a data file.
(or)
b) Write a visual basic program to read and write a data in a binary
file.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain briefly about visual basic fundamentals.
17. Write about visual basic control tools.
18. Describe briefly about syntactic and logical errors in VB.
19. Define array and how to declare an array with example.
20. How to access and save a file in visual basic using common dialog
control?
Question Code : A40117 Sub Code: BBNCR64
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. _______ production system deals with the manufacturing process.
through a sequence of operations which form a flow.
a) Continuous b) Intermittent c) Job d) Batch
2. The _________ of production system can range from highly
standardized products to highly customized products.
a) Input b) Output c) Process d) None of the above
3. Which factor affects the plant location?
a) Availability of labour b) Availability of Power
c) Availability of water d) All the above
4. Which layout means a functional layout?
a) Fixed position b) Product layout
c) Process layout d) Line layout
5. __________ is a process of determining the task to be done on a
part or a product.
a) Routing b) Scheduling c) Dispatching d) Expediting
6. ________ study deals with the techniques of establishing line standards
for doing a particular job on the basis of measurement of work content.
a) Method study b) Time study
c) Work measurement d) Work study
7. In a _______ materials organization, the materials manager is
responsible for all the materials functions.
a) Centralized b) Decentralized
c) Well-coordinate d) None of the above
8. _________ includes selection of sources of supply and maintain
smooth relationship among suppliers.
a) Stores & Inventory control b) Materials planning
c) Purchasing d) Materials control
9. A fixed conveyer is used on the __________ production shop floor.
a) Mass b) Intermittent c) Continuous d) Small
10. ________ is an area wherein imperfections of a product, object or
process are detected and correctives applied.
a) Manufacturing b) Quality control
c) Inspection d) None of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. (a) Explain the objectives of Operations Management.
(or)
(b) Explain the principles of Scheduling.
12. (a) What are the needs for selecting a suitable location?
(or)
(b) Discuss the Principles of Plant Layout.
13. (a) Enumerate the objectives of PPC.
(or)
(b) Explain the factors influencing productivity.
14. (a) What are the principles of right purchasing?
(or)
(b) Explain the benefits of Inventory Control.
15. (a) Discuss the seven tools for Quality Control.
(or)
(b) Write short note on TQM.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the types of Production System.
17. Briefly explain the process and product layout with examples.
18. Describe the steps involved in Method Study.
19. Discuss the techniques of Material Planning and control.
20. Explain the Material Handling Equipments.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Enumerate the various stages involved in developing a positive attitude.
7. Discuss the recent challenges faced by the job seekers.
8. Explain the different stages of the job interview process.
9. Elaborate the various guidelines for writing the resume.
10. How do you deal with problems in the workplace?
Question Code : A40403 Sub Code: BBNSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
JOB SEEKING SKILLS
Time : 2 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Explain the various benefits of positive attitude.
2. What are the stages involved in goal setting? Explain in detail.
3. Explain the various sources of job advertising methods.
4. What are the various purpose of resume writing?
5. How to provide effective new employee orientation?
Question Code : A21110 Sub Code: BPHCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. (1111)2 – (1010)2 using 1‟s complement is _________
a) 1010 b) 0011 c) 0101 d) 0110
2. Bubbled OR gate is equal to ________ gate
a) AND b) OR c) NOR d) NAND
3. The value of the Boolean equation A is ________
a) A b) A c) 1 d) 0
4. In k–map method, a quad can eliminate ________ variables.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
5. In a full adder, the sum is obtained by a ________.
a) NAND b) NOR c) Ex-OR d) Ex-NOR
6. A Demultiplexer is also referred to as a _________.
a) data selector b) data distributor
c) code converter d) encoder
7. Racing problem is eliminated in _________ flip-flop.
a) RS b) JK c) D d) JK Master-Slave
8. T flip flop can be used as _________
a) counter b) register c) storage devices d) power cells
9. The shift register is classified into _______ types.
a) 4 b) 2 c) 2 d) 1
10. A ring counter is also referred to as _________
a) mod-10 counter b) decade counter
c) binary counter d) circulating counter
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Convert the numbers (25)10 and (53)10 into Binary, Octal and
Hexadecimal number.
(or)
b) Explain the function of OR gate with truth table.
12. a) State and prove De Morgan‟s theorem.
(or)
b) Simplify the expression
y = m (3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15) using k-map method.
13. a) Explain the operation of full subtractor with diagram and truth
table.
(or)
b) Explain 3 to 8 decoder with suitable truth table.
14. a) Discuss an astable multivibrator using 555 timer. Obtain the
expression for output frequency.
(or)
b) Explain the working of a D flip flop with suitable diagram and
table.
15. a) Discuss the working of serial in serial out shift register employing
D flip flop.
(or)
b) Describe ADC using successive approximation method.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain TTL NOR gate with circuit diagram.
17. Why NAND and NOR gate are called as Universal gate?
a) Realise the basic gate using NAND gate
b) Realize the basic gate using NOR gate
18. Discuss the basic four input multiplexer with necessary table and
diagram.
19. Explain the operation of clocked S-R flip flop with neat diagram.
20. Discuss the working of decade counter with diagram.
Question Code : A21109 Sub Code: BPHCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
QUANTUM MECHANICS AND RELATIVITY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. What is the thickness of foil in G.P. Thomsons experiment?
a) 10-6
m b) 10-8
m c) 108m d) 10
6m
2. De-Broglie equation is _______
a) mv
h b)
h
mv c)
hv
m d) = mvh
3. The operator <– 2
2
2
m8
h denotes
a) velocity b) kinetic energy
c) potential energy d) total energy
4. If the wave function satisfies 1dx* is known as ________
wave function.
a) normalized b) orthogonal
c) complex d) plane
5. Zero point energy is ________
a) ½ hv b) ½ h2v
c) ½ hv
2 d) ½ h
6. _________polynomial is the solution of LHO.
a) Hermite b) Bessel c) Languer d) Legender
7. The force which does not really act on a particle but appears to act
due to the acceleration of the frame is called ________ force.
a) friction b) fractional c) fictitious d) frame
8. In Michelson Morley experiment, the displacement in the
interference fringe is ________.
a) 2C
DV b)
C
DV 2
c) 2
2
C
DV d)
C
DV
9. If 1 kg of a substance is fully converted into energy, how much
energy is produced?
a) 9 x 1016
J b) 6 x 106 J c) 19 x 10
16J d) 90 x 10
16J
10. Four dimensional space time continuum is also known as ________
space.
a) Meson‟s b) Minkowski‟s
c) Momentum d) Mass
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain De-Broglie concept of matter waves and obtain an
expression for it.
(or)
b) Show that the group velocity of the De-Broglie waves is the same
as the velocity of the particle.
12. a) Explain the concept of probability current density.
(or)
b) State the basic postulates of wave mechanics. Define eigen
values and eigen function.
13. a) What is zero point energy? Show that the existence of zero point
energy is in conformity with the uncertainty principle.
(or)
b) Describe the particle in a box and deduce its eigen values.
14. a) Write a short note on Ether hypothesis.
(or)
b) Explain the negative result of Michelson Morley experiment.
15. a) How does the decay of Meson‟s confirm time dilation? Explain it.
(or)
b) Obtain an expression for the addition of velocities and show that
the velocity of light is invariant under Lorentz transformation.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. State Planck‟s hypothesis. Derive Planck‟s radiation law.
17. Derive the time independent Schrodinger equation.
18. Obtain the solution for the Barrier penetration problem (potential
step)
19. What is Newton relativity? Deduce Galilean transformation
equations.
20. What is the length of a metre stick moving parallel to its length
when its mass is 3/2 of its rest mass?
Question Code : A21304 Sub Code: BPHME61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
MICROPROCESSORS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The number of pins in 8085 microprocessor is
a) 30 b) 39 c) 40 d) 41
2. What is meant by ALU?
a) Arithmetic Logic Upgrade b) Arithmetic Logic Unsigned
c) Arithmetic Local Unsigned d) Arithmetic Logic Unit
3. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?
a) Disk Unit b) Control unit
c) ALU d) Modem
4. In 8085, the name of the 16 bit register is
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter
c) Both A & B d) None of these
5. The microprocessor can read / write 16 bit data from or to
__________
a) memory b) I/O device c) processor d) register
6. Which is used to store critical pieces of data during subroutines and
interrupts?
a) Stack b) Accumulator
c) Data Register d) Device
7. BCD stands for
a) Binary Coded Decimal b) Binary Coded Decoded
c) Both A & B d) None of these
8. How many bits the instruction pointer is wide?
a) 16 bit b) 32 bit c) 64 bit d) 128 bit
9. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt?
a) TRAP b) INTR c) RST 7.5 d) RST 3
10. The fastest digital – to – analog converter (DAC) is
a) Comparator type b) Counter type
c) Successive type d) Duel slope type
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Draw the pin diagram of 8085 p and explain.
(or)
b) Explain the Arithmetic operations.
12. a) Describe the programming techniques of looping and counting.
(or)
b) Discuss about the logic operators.
13. a) Write an assembly language program to multiply two
hexadecimal numbers.
(or)
b) Explain the program of generating pulse wave form.
14. a) Discuss about the BCD addition.
(or)
b) Explain the BCD multiplication.
15. a) Explain the classification of interrupts in 8085.
(or)
b) Explain the how D/A and A/D interfacing done with 8085.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain with neat block diagram of the architecture of 8085
microprocessors.
17. Describe the Additional data transfer and arithmetic operations.
18. Explain Stack used in 8085 and write a program of zero to nine
counters.
19. Explain the BCD to binary conversion and binary to BCD
conversion.
20. Draw the block diagram to of ADC and explain how it works.
9. With neat block diagram explain the working of an ECG machine
and also discuss the different lead configurations used in ECG.
10. Draw the block diagram of EEG unit and explain the different parts
in it. Also give the origin of brain waves
Question Code : A21403 Sub Code: BPHSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. Write a note on transport of ions through the cell membrane and
bioelectric potentials.
2. Draw the structure of a living cell of our body and explain its
constituents.
3. Describe the LVDT along with its electrical characteristics.
4. What are active and passive transducers? Explain the thermoelectric
type transducer.
5. Discuss the different characteristics of the recording system. Also
write a note on ERG and EOG.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Discuss the development of action potential and muscular
contraction.
7. Draw the differential capacitive transducer and how it is used as a
pressure sensor.
8. Discuss the loading effect and sensitivity of the bridge. Also briefly
explain the action to piezoelectric transducer as arterial pressure
sensor.
28. The logic gate that will have „HIGH‟ or „1‟ as its output when any one
of its inputs is „HIGH‟ is a ________
a) OR gate b) AND gate c) NOT gate d) NOR gate
29. A single transistor can be used to build which of the following digital
logic gates?
a) NOT gates b) OR gates c) AND gates d) NOR gates
30. Which of the following logical operations is represented by OR gate in
Boolean algebra?
a) Y = A + B b) BAY c) Y = A – B d) BAY
PART –B
Answer any THREE of the following: (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
31. a) Explain the action of the following secondary cell i) Lead acid
accumulator
b) Two wires of same material and length have resistances 5 and
10 respectively. Find the ratio of radius of the two wires.
32. a) Explain the principle of transformer. Discuss its construction and
working.
b) Magnetic field through a coil having 200 turns and cross sectional
area 0.04m2 changes from 0.1wb m-2 to 0.04 wb m-2 in 0.02s. Find the
induced emf.
33. a) What are cathode rays? Write the properties of cathode rays.
b) A metallic surface when illuminated with light of wavelength
3333A emits electrons with energies upto 0.6 ev. Calculate the work
function of the metal.
34. a) Calculate the energy equivalence of 1amu [atomic mass unit]?
b) Assuming that the energy released by the fission of a single 235
92 U necleous is 200 mev. Calculate the number of fissions per
second required to produce one watt of power.
35. a) What is an OR and AND gate? Explain the action of diode truth
table and its symbol.
b) A transistor has = 150. Calculate the approximate base and
collector currents for an emitter current of 15mA.
Question Code: A21404 Sub: Code: BPHSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, ARPIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the correct answer:
(30 x 1 =30marks) 1. What is the international system of unit of electromotive force?
a) volt b) volt/metre c) ampere d) second
2. How many terminal that electric cells consists of ________
a) two b) one c) three d) five
3. An accumulator is also called as _________
a) Electrochemical cell b) Primary cell
c) Secondary cell d) Voltaic cell
4. According to Ohm‟s law, if voltage increases and resistance stay the
same _________.
a) resistance increases b) current increase
c) current remains the same d) current decrease
5. The current flowing in a conductor is proportional to
a) drift velocity b) 1/area of cross section
c) 1/no. of electrons d) square of area of cross section
6. Ohm‟s law is not applicable to
a) Vacuum tubes b) Carbon resistors
c) High voltage circuits d) Circuits with low current
7. The unit of „Charge‟ is ________
a) ampere b) ampere / second
c) second d) ampere / second
8. One newton meter is same as __________
a) one watt b) one joule c) five joule d) one joule second
9. Resistance is a measure of a materials opposition to __________
a) voltage b) current
c) electric flux d) movement of proton
10. The cells are connected in series in order to_______
a) increase the current b) increase the voltage rating
c) increase the life of the cells d) increase internal resistance
11. Aluminium foil causes cathode rays to _________
a) pass through it b) struck in it
c) distort d) loose their identity
12. The energy absorbed by electron is used in _________
a) escaping metal b) increasing kinetic energy
c) both (a) and (b) d) increasing frequency
13. In nuclear fission, as compared to masses of original nuclei, final
nucleus is always
a) equal b) more c) less d) zero
14. If frequency and intensity of incident radiation are both kept constant,
then photoelectric current _________ increase in positive accelerating
potential.
a) decrease with b) increase with
c) is independent of d) remains constant
15. Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of?
a) electron and neutron b) proton and neutron
c) electron and proton d) electron and meson
16. Neutron is a fundamental particle which carries?
a) no charge and mass of one unit
b) a charge of +1 and mass of 1 unit
c) no charge and no mass d) a charge –1 and no mass
17. The cathode rays are deflected by?
a) a magnetic field only b) both electric and magnetic field
c) neither electric nor magnetic field
d) an electric field only
18. When particle are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go
straight through the foil because?
a) -particles moves with high velocity
b) -particles are positively charged
c) most of the space is empty in an atom
d) -particles are negatively charged.
19. In a cathode rays tube, a ________ glow is formed on the inner surface
of the glass opposite the cathode?
a) greenish b) purplish c) bluish d) blackish
20. When the control rods are inserted into the reactor, K(multiplication
factor) becomes
a) 0 b) >1 c) 1 d) < 1
21. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
a) resistance b) reluctance
c) conductance d) inductance
22. How many terminals does a diode have _______
a) 5 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3
23. The diode ________
a) is the simplest of semiconductor devices
b) has characteristics that closely match those of a simple switch
c) is a two terminal device d) all the above
24. Which capacitance dominates in the forward bias region?
a) diffusion b) transition c) depletion d) all the above
25. For a forward biased diode, the barrier potential ________as
temperature increases.
a) decreases b) constant c) increases d) all the above
26. Transistor must be operated in a transistor has two pn junction. The
number of depletion layer in a transistor is
a) three b) two c) one d) five
27. Which statement best describe an insulators? a) a material with few free electron b) a material with large free electron
c) no description fits d) a material with large proton
Question Code : A22109 Sub Code: BCHCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY III
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The catalyst used in the Beckmann rearrangement is
a) LiAlH4 b) Na/Hg c) PCl5 d) Kmno4
2. Free radicals
a) contain no electrons b) contain unpaired electrons
c) contain all paired electrons d) none of these
3. Alkenes show geometrical isomerism due to
a) asymmetry
b) rotation around a single bond
c) resonance
d) restricted rotation around a double bond
4. Racemic mixture is designated by the prefix
a) + b) – c) d) K:
5. Alkaloids
a) contain Nitrogen b) have a bitter taste
c) are usually acidic d) only (a) and (b) are correct
6. Pyridine reacts with HCl to form
a) Pyridinium chloride b) 2–Chloropyridine
c) 3–Chloropyridine d) 4–Chloropyridine
7. Which part of the IR Spectrum is called „finger print region‟?
a) 3000 – 2000 cm-1
b) 3000 – 1000 cm-1
c) 2000 – 1000 cm-1
d) 1000 – 600 cm-1
8. What type of radiation is used in NMR spectroscopy?
a) Radiowaves b) Ultraviolet
c) Infra Red radiations d) Microwaves
9. The bond angle between Carbon atoms in Cyclohexane is
a) 60 b) 90 c) 109.5 d) 120
10. What is the „Isoprene rule‟?
a) Terpene contains „head–to–head‟ connected isoprene
b) Terpene contains „head–to–tail‟ connected isoprene
c) Terpene contains „tail–to–tail‟ connected isoprene
d) Terpene contain 5n atoms
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the mechanism of Fries and Wagher-Meerwein
rearrangements.
(or)
b) What are free radicals? Give suitable examples. Explain the
stability of free radicals.
12. a) What are carbohydrates? Give any four examples. How will you
convert Glucose into Fructose and vice versa?
(or)
b) Describe R, S notations used in fixing the positions of groups in
an optically active compound with an example.
13. a) What are alkaloids? How are they classified? Explain the general
methods for determining the structure of alkaloids.
(or)
b) What are hetero cyclic compounds? Given any six examples.
How is pyrrole prepared? List out its chemical properties.
14. a) What are the applications of UV and IR spectroscopy.
(or)
b) Bring out the various types of electronic transition in UV
spectroscopy and modes of vibration in IR Spectroscopy.
15. a) What are cycloalkanes? How are they prepared? Explain their
important properties.
(or)
b) What is mean by conformational analysis? Briefly explain the
conformational analysis of Ethane and cyclohexane.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. a) What are short lived and long lived free radicals? Explain their
preparation and important reactions.
b) What is meant by pinacol–pinacolone and Beckmann
rearrangement? Write their mechanisms.
17. a) Explain the geometrical and optical isomerism with suitable
examples.
b) Write a short note on asymmetric synthesis.
18. a) How is Quindine synthesised? Describe its important reactions.
b) How is Coniine and Nicotine synthesised? Discuss about structure
of Papavarine.
19. a) Explain about Woodward-Fieser rules and Finger print region.
b) Define the term chemical shift and coupling constant(J).
20. a) Discuss about Baeyer‟s Strain theory and its modification.
b) Explain the structure of Geraniol.
Question Code : A22110 Sub Code: BCHCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY-III
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. For an ideal gases TP
His_________
a) 1 b) 0 c) –1 d) infinity
2. The work done in reversible adiabatic expansion process is________
a) TVr–1
= constant b) PVr = constant
c) W = P(V2 – V1) d) W = )TT()r1(
nR12
3. Among the following which is correct?
a) Tds = dE + Pdv b) Tds = dE/Pdv
c) Tds = Pdv/dE d) Tds = dE
4. A process is exothermic by 100KJ and G = –1000KJ at 27 c, the
entropy change is
a) 1000KJ mol–1
b) 900KJ mol–1
c) 900KJ k–1
d) 3.0 KJ k–1
5. A process is at equilibrium when
a) G > 0; S = 0 b) G = 0; S = 0
c) G < 0; S > 0 d) G = (infinity)
6. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to
________
a) molecular mass solute b) weight of the solvent
c) osmotic pressure d) enthalpy of vapourisation
7. The electrolyte is used in H2–O2 fuel cell is
a) NaCl b) NaOH c) Na2CO3 d) NaHCO3
8. The strongest reducing agent among the following is
a) V54.0E0
)I/I( 2
b) V77.0E0
)Fe/Fe( 23
c) V13.0E0
)Pb/Pb( 2 d) V37.2E0
)Mg/Mg( 2
9. The transition for first overtone band is
a) v = 0 v = 1 b) v = 0 v = 2
c) v = 0 v = 3 d) v = 0 v = 4
10. Which is not correct?
a) c = b) c
1 c) c
d) c = E h
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) i) Derive the relationship between Cp and Cv using first law of
thermodynamics.
ii) Define Specific heat
(or)
b) Discuss the variation of heat of reaction with temperature.
12. a) Derive the Gibb‟s – Helmholtz equation. Give its limitations.
(or)
b) Derive Clapeyron-Clausius equation.
13. a) i) Derive Van‟t Hoff reaction isotherm.
ii) Obtain the relation between b and Keg.
(or)
b) Derive the expressions Smix and Vmix.
14. a) Explain the following i) Salt bridge and its function
ii) Lead storage cell
(or)
b) Obtain the relationship between emf with entropy and enthalpy
15. a) Write any four application of IR spectroscopy.
OR
b) Explain the types of molecular spectra.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. i) Derive the expression for expansion work in reversible adiabatic
process.
ii) To prove RP
v
p
.CV
E
17. i) State Carnot theorem.
ii) Discuss the carnot cycle.
18. Derive the relation between the depression of freezing point and
elevation of boiling point with molality.
19. Write any five applications of electrochemcical series
20. i) Discuss the quantum theory of Raman Effect.
ii) Write the applications of Raman spectra.
Question Code : A22304 Sub Code: BCHME61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
CHEMISTRY FOR COMPETITVE EXAMINATIONS-II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The RMS of a gas at 270
C is Y cm sec-1
. The temperature at which
its velocity will be 2Y is
a) 540 C b) 108
0 C c) 600 K d) 1200 K
2. In Bragg‟s equation nλ = 2d sinθ , „n‟ refers to
a) the number of moles b) the Avogadro number
c) the order of reflection d) the principal quantum number
3. Which out of the following is not an intensive property?
a) volume b) mass c) pressure d) internal energy
4. A system containing liquid water and water vapour has ----- of
phases
a) one b) two c) three d) zero
5. On passing one Faraday of electricity, one mole of metal is
deposited from
a) KCl solution b) BaCl2 solution
c) AlCl3 solution d) all these
6. The rate law relates the rate of a chemical reaction to the
a) activation energy b) temperature
c) concentration of reactants d) all these
7. One Einstein is the energy associated with
a) one mole b) one photon
c) Avogadro number of photons d) none of these
8. Chemisorption generally _________ with temperature
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains same d) none of these
9. The scattering of light by the dispersed phase is called
a) electrophesis b) Brownian movement
c) Tyndall effect d) osmosis
10. Fog is an example of colloidal system of
a) gas dispersed in solid b) solid dispersed in gas
c) solid dispersed in liquid d) liquid dispersed in gas
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Derive van der waal‟s equation for real gases.
(or)
b) Describe the different types of unit cells.
12. a) State the various statements of first law of thermodynamics.
(or)
b) Explain the following: Phase, component and degrees of
freedom.
13. a) What is Ostwald dilution law? Give its importance.
(or)
b) Define rate law and write the rate equations for various order
reactions.
14. a) State and explain the laws of photochemistry.
(or)
b) What are adsorption isotherms? Give the main points of
Langmuir theory of adsorption.
15. a) Giving suitable examples, explain the types of catalysis.
(or)
b) Describe the preparation and optical property of colloidal
solutions
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. a) Deduce Boyles‟s law, Charles law and Avogadro‟s law from
kinetic gas equation.
b) Enumerate the various crystal defects.
17. a) Explain the term Entropy and its physical significance.
b) Draw the phase diagram of water system and discuss the
importance of various points, lines and areas.
18. Write notes on the following: (a) Galvanic cell (b) Effect of
temperature on reaction rate and (c) Potentiometric titrations
19. a) Explain Flash photolysis.
b) Discuss some important applications of adsorption.
20. a) Classify colloidal solutions on the basis of solvent affinity.
b) Describe the Rast method for determination of molecular weight
of an electrolyte.
O
||
O
||
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. a) How is organic compounds synthesis protecting group technique?
b) Calculate the % atom economy of the following:
i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2 iNCH3CH2CH3
ii) CH3 CH2 – C – CH2CH3 + H3C – NH2
CH3CH2 C–NH–CH3 + OH – CH2 –CH3
7. a) Write the oxidation and phase transfer catalyst.
b) Discuss the microwave induced reactions of oxidation of toluene.
8. a) Give the microwave induced reactions of ortho ester claisen
rearrangement.
b) List out the Green catalyst and Acid catalyst.
9. Describe the following ultra sound assisted reactions
i) Esterification
ii) Saponification
iii) Coupling reaction
10. a) Explain the organic reactions in solid phase.
b) Write the bio catalyst used in organic synthesis.
Question Code :A22405 Sub Code: BCHSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT - GREEN CHEMISTRY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. Explain in detail about the twelve principles of green chemistry.
2. a) How is Dimethyl carbonate used as a green reagent?
b) How will you compare green chemistry and ecoefficiency?
3. Explain the generation of dihalocarbene.
4. Discuss the microwave induced green synthesis.
a) Hofmann elimination
b) Hydrolysis of benzamide
5. Describe the following ultra sound assisted Green synthesis.
i) Bouveault
ii) Cannizaro reaction.
9. Write the preparation, properties and uses of
i) Butyl rubber
ii) Silicone rubber
iii) Rubber cement
10. What is Reclaimed rubber? Give its advantages and uses.
Question Code : A22406 Sub Code: BCHSB62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT – RUBBER TECHNOLOGY
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Chemistry) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. a) What are the types of rubber? Give Examples.
b) Write a note on Latex.
2. Explain the Coagulation process of rubber.
3. How are synthetic rubber classified? Give five examples for each.
4. a) List out the properties of SBR Rubber.
b) Write a note on cyclo rubber.
5. Write a note on rubber industries in India.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. a) Write a note on
i) Gutta Parcha (5) ii) Crepe rubber
b) What are the drawbacks of raw rubber?
7. Write the preparation, properties and uses of polyisoprene rubber?
8. a) What is chlorinated rubber? Give example.
b) How do you manufacture styrene?
9.
Question Code : A24106 Sub Code: BCSCR61/
UCSCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without
overlap on a CRT is referred to as the ___________.
a) Persistence b) Deflection c) Refresh d) Resolution
2. The display processor in a random-scan system is referred to as a
_________.
a) Graphics controller b) Video controller
c) Display controller d) Monitor controller
3. Odd-even rule is also called _______.
a) Nonzero number rule b) Odd parity rule
b) Winding number rule d) Odd rule
4. A _______ connected boundary-fill algorithm would correctly fill
the interior of the area defined.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
5. The Rectangular fill patterns are sometimes referred to as ______.
a) tiling patterns b) text attributes
c) showdow patterns d) tint attributes
6. Character size is specified by printers and compositors in ________.
a) width b) height c) points d) inch
7. A ________ is a transformation that produces a mirror image on an
object.
a) Translation b) Rotation c) Scaling d)
Reflection
8. A world-coordinate area selected for display is called a _______.
a) window b) viewport c) viewing d) scaling
9. Icons representing objects are referred to as ________
a) command icons b) control icons
c) application icons d) window icons
10. In ______ mode, the application program and input devices operate
independently.
a) request b) sample c) event d) input
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) State the benefits of computer graphics in the field of education.
OR
b) Explain different input devices used in graphics.
12. a) Describe DDA algorithm for generating a line.
OR
b) Explain about scan-line polygon fill algorithm.
13. a) Discuss about line attributes.
OR
b) Write a note on bundled attributes.
14. a) Explain about Raster methods for transformations.
OR
b) Discuss about the viewing pipeline.
15. a) Explain about Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm.
OR
b) Discuss about the three input modes.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Briefly explain about video display devices.
17. Discuss midpoint circle generations with example.
18. Explain in detail about Character attributes.
19. Explain about the Reflection and Shear transformations.
20. Give an overview about polygon clipping.
Question Code : A24107 Sub Code: BCSCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
COMPUTER NETWORKS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. ________ network covers a city.
a) MAN b) WAN c) LAN d) PAN
2. ________ layer uses HTTP, which is the basis for WWW.
a) Network b) Application c) Data link d) Physicak
3. Which one is not a guided media?
a) Twisted pair b) Power lines
c) Radio transmission d) Coaxial cable
4. The two-wire connection between each subscriber‟s telephone and
the end office are known in trade as _______ loop.
a) Binary b) Level c) Global d) Local
5. _________ is often used to mean a group of check bits associated
with a message.
a) Sum b) Burst c) Checksum d) Parity
6. CSMA/CD is the basis of the classic Ethernet________
a) MAN b) LAN c) WAN d) PAN
7. ________ algorithm does not base their routing decisions based on
measurements.
a) Non-adaptive b) Adaptive
c) Prediction d) Routing
8. ________ combines several signals into a single one.
a) DEMUX b) MUX c) Transmitter d) Receiver
9. Which is not a MIME content type?
a) text b) image c) binary d) message
10. Which term is not related to cryptography?
a) Intruder b) Plain text
c) Cipher text d) None of these
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Write about WAN in detail.
OR
b) How will you express the protocol hierarchies?
12. a) Explain the working of Microwave transmission.
OR
b) Write an overview of PSTN.
13. a) Write about stop and wait protocol for Noisy channel.
OR
b) Write about collision free protocols.
14. a) Define: Distance Vector Routing.
OR
b) What are the services provided to the upper layers in a transport
service?
15. a) Write a short note on DNS.
OR
b) Write a short note on cryptography.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Detail about TCP/IP Reference model.
17. Write about Guided Transmission Media.
18. Write the steps involved in Detecting and Correcting errors.
19. What are the elements of transport protocols?
20. Elaborate the Public Key algorithms.
Question Code : A24307 Sub Code: BCSME61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
WEB TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Which is a web server among the following?
a) Apache b) Internet Explorer
c) Netscape Navigator d) None
2. TCP stands for
a) Transmission Control Protocol
b) Transmission Centered Protocol
c) Transfer Control Protocol
d) Transfer Centered Protocol
3. JavaScript was first used in ________ browsers.
a) Netscape Navigator b) Internet Explorer
c) Opera d) Firefox
4. The ________ command will break the current loop and continue
with the next value.
a) continue b) break c) goto d) loop
5. An object is just
a) a special kind of data b) a collection of properties
c) a collection of methods d) all of the above
6. The _______ object is used to store multiple values in a single
variable.
a) array b) string c) date d) boolean
7. Each cookie has an ________ after which it is trashed.
a) expiry date b) name-value c) domain d) path
8. Find the odd man out
a) onerror b) try c) catch d) throw
9. User agent for web is called a ________
a) browser b) web server
c) search engine d) all of the above
10. _______ classes are used to represent the connection between a
client program and a server program.
a) Socket b) TCP socket
c) UDP socket d) all of the above
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the classes of IP addresses.
OR
b) Discuss web applications in brief.
12. a) Illustrate the conditional statements of JavaScript.
OR
b) Explain how to create three kinds of popup boxes.
13. a) Explain how a property and methods of an object is used in
JavaScript?
OR
b) Write and explain various methods for string object.
14. a) Explain short notes on how cookies work.
OR
b) Describe the use of try and catch statements in JavaScript.
15. a) What is a proxy server? Explain it with neat diagram.
OR
b) Explain the any one format of HTTP messages.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss about TCP/IP protocol suits.
17. Write a note on operators in JavaScript.
18. State and explain few windows objects methods.
19. How will you create a cookie and erase cookie? Explain with
examples.
20. Explain TCP/IP sockets for both client and server.
8. Discuss any three software design notations.
9. Elaborate on System testing activities.
10. Comment the importance of configuration management in software
engineering
Question Code : A24405 Sub Code: BCSSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT - SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. Explain Waterfall chart.
2. Discuss on Programming team structure.
3. State the characteristics of a software module and other modularization
criteria.
4. Explain how Abstraction and Information hiding is helpful in software
design concepts.
5. Compare and contrast Assertion-driven debugging with Execution
histories.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. Discuss the following:
a. Expert Judgement b. Delphi Cost Estimation
7. Describe the types of tests and Milestones.
Question Code : A40114 Sub Code: BBNCR61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The use of Management Accounting is __________
a) Compulsory b) Optional
c) Obligatory d) Decision making
2. Comparative and common size statements are prepared for the
meaningful ________ of data.
a) Recording b) Presentation
c) Interpretation d) Reporting
3. Solvency ratio is ________ ratio.
a) Gross Profit b) Net Profit
c) Capital gearing d) Current
4. The standard for Quick ratio is _________
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 5 : 1
5. Funds flow refers to change in_________
a) Working Capital b) Capital employed
c) Shareholders fund d) Cash
6. Cash flow statement is based upon _________basis of accounting.
a) Accrual b) Cash
c) both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
1
7. Marginal cost means _________
a) Additional cost b) Variable cost
c) Indirect cost d) Fixed cost
8. __________ is the difference between the sales and the variable
cost.
a) P/V ratio b) Break even point
c) Margin of safety d) Contribution
9. Zero based budgeting is ________
a) Preparation of budgets from the scratch
b) Taking into account only the quantitative values
c) Containing future estimates only
d) Taking previous year as base
10. A budget which changes with the level of activity is _________
budget.
a) Fixed b) Cash c) Flexible d) Master
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Describe the Scope of Management Accounting.
OR
b) From the following profit and loss account of Ramco Ltd, for the
year ended 2009 and 2010. You are required to prepare a
Comparative Income Statement.
Profit and Loss Account
Particulars 2009
Rs.
2010
Rs.
Particulars 2009
Rs.
2010
Rs
To cost of goods
sold
60000 75000 By Net sales 80000 100000
To operating
expenses
20. Summarized below are the Income and Expenditure forecast for the
month of March to July 2012.
Month Sales
Rs.
Purchases
Rs.
Wages
Rs.
March 60000 36000 9000
April 62000 38000 8000
May 64000 33000 10000
June 58000 39000 8500
July 56000 39000 9500
Prepare cash budget for 3 months starting from 1st May 2012.
i) Cash balance on 1st May 2012, Rs. 8,000
ii) Advance tax Rs.8000 payable in March and June each
iii) Credit allowed by suppliers is 2 months and allowed to
customer is one month
iv) Lag in payment of wages is one month
7
2
7
Dividend paid Rs.23000
a) Depreciation written off
Machinery Rs.14000
Buildings Rs. 10000
b) Income tax paid Rs. 28000
Prepare the following two statements
i) Working capital statement
ii) Fund flow statement
19. Following are the particulars about Narayanan company.
Year Sales Profit
2010 Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 15,000
2011 Rs. 1,20,000 Rs. 23,000
Explain briefly about D/A converter.
Particulars 2009
Rs.
2010
Rs.
Particulars 2009
Rs.
2010
Rs
To cost of goods
sold
60000 75000 By Net
sales
80000 100000
To operating
expenses
Administrative 2000 2000
Selling 3000 4000
To Net profit 15000 19000
80000 100000 80000 100000
Find out
i) P/V ratio
ii) Fixed cost
iii) Break even point
iv) Profit when sales are Rs. 1,25,000
v) Sales required to earn a profit of Rs. 20,000
Administrative 2000 2000
Selling 3000 4000
To Net profit 15000 19000
80000 100000 80000 100000
12. a) What do you mean by Ratio analysis? State its merits.
OR
b) From the trading account of JC Ltd. Calculate stock turnover
ratio.
Particular Amount
Rs.
Particulars Amount
Rs.
To opening stock 70000 By Sales 400000
To purchases 220000 By closing stock 50000
To wages 10000
To carriage 15000
To Gross profit 135000
450000 450000
13. a) Explain the limitations of Fund Flow Statement.
OR
b) The net income reported on the income statement for the year was
Rs.1,10,000 and depreciation of fixed assets for the year was
Rs.44,000. The balances of the current asset and current liability
accounts at the beginning and end of the year are as follows.
Particulars 2010 Rs. 2011 Rs
Cash 140000 130000
Debtors 180000 200000
Inventories 300000 290000
Prepaid expenses 16000 15000
Accounts payable 116000 102000
Calculate Cash from operation.
3 6
14. a) Discuss the advantages of Marginal costing.
OR
b) From the following details find out (a) profit volume ratio
(b) B.E.P. (c) Margin of safety
Sales Rs.100000
Total costs Rs. 80000
Fixed costs Rs. 20000
Net Profit Rs. 20000
Variable cost Rs. 60000
15. a) What do you mean by budgetary control? Explain the objectives
of Budgetary control.
OR
b) From the following figures prepare raw materials.
Purchase budget for January.
Materials (Units)
Particulars A B C D E F
Estimated
stock 1st Jan
16000 6000 24000 2000 14000 28000
Estimated
stock 31st Jan
20000 8000 28000 4000 16000 32000
Estimated
consumption
120000 44000 132000 36000 88000 172000
Standard
price per unit
25
paise
5 paise 15 paise 10
paise
20
paise
30
paise
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Enumerate the Functions of Management Accounting.
17. From the following Balance Sheet, compute the following ratios:
a) Current ratio
b) Liquid ratio
c) Proprietary ratio
d) Debt-equity ratio
e) Current assets to working capital ratio
Balance sheet as on 31st December
Liabilities Rs. Assts Rs
.
Equity share
capital`
200000 Plant & Machinery 200000
10% preference
share capital
100000 Land and Buildings 200000
20% Debentures 100000 Stock 150000
Reserves and
surplus
100000 Debtors 50000
Long term loan 50000 Cash 100000
Creditors 100000
Bank overdraft 50000
700000 700000
18. Balance sheets of Balu Company are given below.
Liabilities 2014
Rs.
2015
Rs.
Assets 2014
Rs.
2015
Rs
Share capital 100000 150000 Land and
building
100000 90000
General reserve 50000 60000 Machinery 100000 119000
P & L A/c 30500 30000 Stock 50000 24000
Bank loan 70000 - Debtors 75000 63200
Sundry creditors 50000 37200 Cash 2500 16000
Provision for tax 32000 35000 Good will 5000 -
332500 312200 332500 332500
During the year ended 31st December 2015
5 4
Question Code : A40115 Sub Code: BBNCR62
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75 Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. _________ is involved with getting persons together and making
them work willingly and effectively for the achievement of the
designated goals.
a) planning b) organizing c) directing d) controlling
2. Which one of the following is an external environment to be
considered by manpower planar while planning the manpower?
a) Social factor b) Economic factor
c) Technical change d) All the above
3. ________ refers to summary of the personal characteristics required
for a job.
a) Job description b) Job specification
c) Job rotation d) Job evolution
4. ________ refers to shifting an employee to a position carrying
higher responsibilities and therefore enjoying increased prestige.
a) transfer b) promotion c) demotion d) deputation
5. _________ method of training is specially imparted to the newly
selected machine operators to make them familiar with their job.
a) Internship b) Induction c) Vestibule d) Lectures
6. In _______ method of wage system, output is taken as the basis for
payment.
a) Piece wage b) Time wage
c) Incentive d) Non incentive
7. _________ means a mandatory settlement of an industrial disputes
by a labour court or a tribunal.
a) Arbitration b) Conciliation
c) Adjudication d) Work committee
8. __________ means the closing of a place of employment by an
employer.
a) Strike b) Lock out c) Lay off d) Gherao
9. _________ method of performance appraisal is an old and
traditional one.
a) Confidential report b) Essay description
c) Checklist method d) Grading method
10. _________ means expanding the job content, adding task elements
horizontally.
a) Job Enrichment b) Job rotation
c) Job Enlargement d) Job evolution
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain any seven need and importance of manpower planning.
OR
b) Define Human Resource Management and its scope.
12. a) What is Application blank? What is its role and importance in
selection process?
OR
b) Distinguish between Job description, Job specification and Job
analysis.
13. a) List down the merits of piece wage system.
OR
b) Write short notes on Refresher training and apprenticeship
training.
14. a) Explain the causes of Industrial disputes.
OR
b) Describe the process of collective bargaining.
15. a) Explain any five methods of performance appraisal.
OR
b) Bring out the limitations of performance appraisal.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the functions of Human Resource Management.
17. Explain the various sources of Recruitment.
18. Discuss the principles of wage and salary administration.
19. Explain the limitations of Industrial relations in India.
20. Discuss various forms at workers participation in management.
Question Code : A40116 Sub Code: BBNCR63
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
COMPUTER AWARENESS IV (VISUAL PROGRAMMING)
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Visual Basic is __________programming development system for
creating applications
a) an event driven b) a sequential
c) an object-oriented d) a differential
2. A _________constant is a sequence of characters
a) numeric b) integer c) variable d) string
3. _________ provides a means of initiating an event action by the user
clicking on the button.
a) command button b) Combo Box
c) file list box d) option button
4. List Box provides a collection of _________items.
a) symbol b) text c) number d) picture
5. The__________ includes other features that permit various menu
item enhancements
a) Menu editor b) Menu bar c) Caption d) form
6. _________ cause the program to “crash” during execution
a) system errors b) programme errors
c) runtime errors d) logical errors
7. A ________ is a self-contained group of VB commands that can be
accessed from a remote location within a VB program..
a) Module b) Program c) Procedure d) declaration
8. The ________statement is used for declaring an array.
a) option base b) dim c) print d) assignment
9. The_________ mode does exactly what the OUTPUT mode does
a) append b) output c) write d) read
10. The_________ function can be used as an alternative to the Get
statement.
a) Input b) output c) rename d) put
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What are Numeric Constants? State the rules for numeric
constants.
OR
b) Discuss the Hierarchy of Operations in Visual Basic.
12. a) How to work with controls?
OR
b) How to generate error messages in VB.
13. a) Write about submenus.
OR
b) Discuss in detail about Logical errors with example.
14. a) Discuss in detail about function procedures with example.
OR
b) Explain in detail about modules.
15. a) How to open and close a file in VB? Give Example.
OR
b) Discuss the binary files in VB.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain the relational operators used in Visual Basic. Give
examples for each.
17. Explain the various Visual Basic Control Tools.
18. How to build a drop down menu? Give example.
19. Describe about control Arrays. Give Example.
20. Explain in detail about files with its characteristics and types.
.
Question Code : A40117 Sub Code: BBNCR64
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B.B.A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A Answer all questions, Choose the best answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. The output of operation system consists of
a) good and finance b) goods and services
c) marketing and services d) profit making
2. _________ decisions are about products, processed and facilities.
These decisions have long term significance.
a) strategic b) tactic c) operational d) functional
3. A location survey must be carried out based on the specific
requirements of a
a) customers b) retailers c) wholesaler d) enterprise
4. ________ is an important criterion of product development success.
a) low price b) high quality
c) time to market d) advertisement
5. MPS stands for
a) Master Production Scheme b) Master Production Society
c) Master Production Schedule d) Mass Production Schedule
6. MRP stands for
a) Material Requirement Planning
b) Manufacturing Requirement Planning
c) Master Resources Planning
d) Material Reduction Process
7. The time between placing and receiving an order is called
a) Lead Time b) Assembling time
c) Delivery period d) Ordering time
8. _________ is also known as Fixed Order Quantity Model.
a) H – Model b) Q – Model
c) EOQ Model d) none of the above
9. TQM stands for
a) Total Quality Management
b) Total Quality Measurement
c) Total Quantity Management
d) None of the above
10. ________ is the overall scheme for accepting or rejecting a product
lot based on information gained from samples.
a) Acceptance procedure b) Acceptance performance
c) Acceptance plan d) Action planning
Part B
Answer ALL questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) What is the role of operations in an organization? How
operations is related to other functions in the organization.
OR
b) What are the challenges of operations management in coming
times? Discuss with examples.
12. a) Describe generic product development process.
OR
b) Explain – group layout.
13. a) Explain – Method study.
OR
b) Explain the objectives and techniques of time study.
14. a) Explain about material planning and control.
OR
b) Explain the functions of store management.
15. a) Explain the principles of material handling.
OR
b) Explain the seven tools of QC.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Discuss the scheduling strategies and its types.
17. Describe about plant location models.
18. Discuss about TPM and PPM.
19. Explain the benefits and techniques of Inventory Control.
20. Briefly explain about the functional activities of TQM.
Question Code : A40403 Sub Code: BBNSB61
Sri S.Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT - JOB SEEKING SKILLS
Time : 2 Hrs B.B.A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
1. State the dreaming about future.
2. How do we face facts?
3. Narrate the resume examples.
4. What are the common essential criteria to apply for a job?
5. Explain the ways for dealing with problems.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 15 = 45 marks
6. How to create and use networks?
7. Write about the job advertisement.
8. What types of the questions to be asked at the interview?
9. Explain the concept of dealing with disappointment.
10. How to solve problems at workplace.
Question Code : A21404 Sub: Code: BPHSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, ARPIL 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc (Physics) Max. Marks:
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the correct answer: (30 x 1 =30marks)
28. SI unit of electric current is ________
a) ampere b) volt c) watt d) ohm
29. The average distance covered by a free electron between two successive
collisions with the atoms is called ________
a) emf b) drift velocity
c) mean free path d) current density
30. At constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is
directly proportional to the potential difference between the two ends.
a) Newton‟s law b) Ohms law
c) Kirchoff‟s law d) Lens law
31. The inverse of resistance is called ________
a) Current b) Watt c) Conductance d) Capacitance
32. Current density J = ________
a) I
A b)
A
I c)
I
V d)
V
I
1
33. The induced current flows in a direction so as to oppose the change that
produces it is _________ law
a) ohm‟s law b) Krichoff‟s law
c) Faradays law d) Lenz‟s law
34. What causes the core of a transformer to get heated up under operation?
a) resistance b) current c) eddy currents d) capacitor
35. An emf induced in a coil due to change of current in a neighbouring
coil is called ________
a) self inductance b) mutual inductance
c) eddy current d) conductance
36. SI unit of inductance is _________
a) H (Henry) b) (Ohm) c) I (Current) d) W (Watt)
37. How many units of energy does a electrical heater of 1500w, used for 2
hours?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
38. ________ rays are streams of electrons moving from the cathode to
anode in a discharging tube.
a) cathode b) uv c) Infra red d) Gama
39. ________radiation is most suitable for photoelectric emission from Zn
surface.
a) visible b) ultraviolet c) infrared d) microwave
40. The ratio charge (q) to mass (m) of a particle ie q/m is called _______
a) specific charge b) capacitance
c) watt d) resistance
2
and a battery E. Indicate the path and direction of flow of appreciable
current in the circuit.
35. a) What is logic gate? Give the logic symbol, the truth table and
Boolean expression of the OR gate.
b) Write the truth table for the following combinations of gates.
41. Alkali metals are most suitable for photoelectric emission, because of
_________ values of work function.
a) lowest b) highest c) zero d) neutral
42. One atomic mass unit ie 1 amu = _________
a) 1.6606 x 10-12
kg b) 1.6606 x 10-27
kg
c) 5.6 x 1010
kg d) 1.23 x 10-10
kg
43. Nuclides having the same atomic number but different mass number are
called _________
a) Isotopes b) Isobars c) Isotones d) Isomers
44. What is the order of nuclear density?
a) ~ 1017
kg/m3
b) ~ 1028
kg/m3
c) ~ 10-17
kg/m3 d) 10
-28 kg/m
3
45. Einstein‟s mass-energy relation E = __________
a) mr2 b) mc
2 c) mgh d) 2mv
2
1
46. The difference between sum of the masses of the constituent nucleons
and the mass of the nucleus is called _________
a) mass number b) atomic number
c) mass defect d) its half life period
47. In a nuclear reactor, moderators are used to _________ the neutrons.
a) slow down b) increases the speed of
c) obsorb d) stop
48. In a semiconductor the charge carriers are _______
a) electrons b) holes
c) both electrons and holes d) none of the above
Y
N P
P
N
D1
D2 E
R
6 3
49. A pure semiconductor is called _________ semiconductor
a) Extrinsic b) Intrinsic c) bad d) good
50. Majority charge carriers in a p-type semi conductor is ________
a) electron b) holes
c) both electrons and hole d) none of the above
51. _________ impurity is required to have an n-type semiconductor.
a) trivalent b) pentavalent
c) hexavalent d) single valent
52. Current gain of a transistor is = ________
a) E
C
I
I b)
E
b
I
I c)
b
E
I
I d)
b
C
I
I
53. The basic logic gates are ________
a) OR gate b) AND gate
c) Not gate d) Both OR, AND and NOT gates
54. The symbol , r represent ______gate.
a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) X-OR
28. The symbol A Y = A represent ________ gate.
a) OR b) NOT c) AND d) NOR
29. Truth table
111
001
010
000
YBA
is __________ gate
a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) NAND
30. Truth table
01
10
YA
is _________ gate
a) NOT b) OR c) AND d) XOR
PART –B
Answer any THREE of the following: (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
31. a) State and Explain Kirchoff‟s laws
b) The magnetic flux threading a coil changes from 12 x 10-3
Wb to
6 x 10-3
Wb in 0.01second. Calculate the induced emf.
32. a) Describe the construction and working of a cathode ray oscilloscope.
Give a labelled diagram.
b) Calculate the threshold frequency of photons for photo electric
emission from a metal of work function 0.05ev (h = 6.6 x 10-34
Js).
33. a) Describe the construction and working of a nuclear reactor.
b) The mass of helium nucleus is 4.0015u, mass of a proton is
1.0073u and mass of a neutron is 1.0087u. Calculate the binding
energy of Helium nucleus.
34. a) Explain the working of a junction diode under forward and reverse
biasing condition.
b) The figure shows two p-n junction diodes along with a resistance R
A
B Y=A+B
4 5
and a battery E. Indicate the path and direction of flow of appreciable
current in the circuit.
35. a) What is logic gate? Give the logic symbol, the truth table and
Boolean expression of the OR gate.
b) Write the truth table for the following combinations of gates.
Y
N P
P
N
D1
D2 E
R
Question Code : A10110 Sub Code: BHYCR61/ UHYCR61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
HISTORY OF EUROPE 1789-1945 A.D
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. “Man is born free, but everywere he is in chains” is the words of
_____.
a) Rousseau b) Voltaire
c) Lenin d) Karl Marx
2. ______was the child of French Revolution and the hero of France.
a) Hitler b) Churchill
c) Mussolini d) Napoleon
3. Metternich was the Chancellor of ______.
a) Sweden b) Austria
c) France d) Germany
4. The Father of the Holy Alliance was ______.
a) Metternich b) Calvin
c) Alexander I d) Cavour
5. The June Days of 1848 in France revealed divisions between ______.
a) the rural and urban populates
b) the upper and lower classes
c) liberals and socialist
d) Louis – Napolean Bonaparte and Louis Phillippe
6. Napoleon III, the French king helped ______in her war against
Austria which led to the annexation of Lombardy.
a) Sardinia b) Parma
c) Modena d) Tuscany
7. „Carbonari‟ was a secret society of ______.
a) Germany b) France
c) Italy d) Poland
8. Who was called “The Iron Chancellor” of Germany?
a) Hitler b) Mussolini
c) Bismarck d) Peter the Great
9. The headquarters of the League of Nations was at ______.
a) Paris b) Geneva
c) The Hangue d) London
10. The pope who singed the Lateran Treaty with Mussolini was _____.
a) Pious XVIII b) Pious XI
c) Beneticct d) Boniface
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) How for the philosophers caused for the outbreak of the French
revolutions?
( or)
b) Give a brief note on Code of Napolean.
12. a) Examine the objectives and achievements of the Holy alliance.
(or)
b) What were the causes of the Revolution of 1848?
13. a) Write a note on Louis Nepoleon as a president.
(or)
b) Describe the importance of Treaty of Frankfurt.
14. a) Explain the role of Garibaldi in the Unification of Italy.
(or)
b) Describe the internal reforms of Bismark.
15. a) Examine the causes and the results of the Crimean War.
(or)
b) Discuss the principles of Fascism.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the reforms of Napoleon Bonaparte.
17. Examine the aims and the achievements of Vienna Conference.
18. Describe the domestic policy of Napoleon III.
19. Give a detailed account of the different stages of the Unification of
Italy.
20. Enumerate the causes and results of the Second World War.
********
Question Code : A10111 Sub Code: BHYCR62/ UHYCR62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (1945-2005)
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. How many countries attended the San Francisco conference?
a) 50 b) 51 c) 52 d) 53
2. Where is the head quarter of UNESCO located?
a) Paris b) London
c) Geneva d) New York
3. When was Rio treaty signed?
a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1950
4. Where was SALT II singed?
a) Vienna b) Washington
c) Berlin d) London
5. How many nations participated in the First SAARC meeting?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 9
6. Which year, Common Wealth of Independent states was formed?
a) 1991 b) 1992
c) 1993 d) 1994
7. The Third Arab – Israel was took place in the year______.
a) 1949 b) 1967
c) 1973 d) 1974
8. Name the ruler of Iraq during Gulf War.
a) Nazar b) Bhutto
c) Saddam Hussain d) Benazin
9. Who was the founder of Alquida?
a) Bin Laden b) Ansari
c) Nazer d) Mubarak
10. When was Simla Preaty singed?
a) 1970 b) 1972 c) 1975 d) 1980
Part B
Answer ALL questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What do you know about World Health Organisation?
(or)
b) Discuss the principles of Panchasheel.
12. a) Write a note on SEATO.
(or)
b) Explain the importance of Warsaw Pact.
13. a) Give an account of the Association of South – East Asian
Nations.
(or)
b) Write about the activities of the Arab League.
14. a) Explain Arab conflict.
(or)
b) Asses the causes and results of Gulf War.
15. a) Comment on Kargil War.
(or)
b) Examine the Foreign Policy of England.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the functions of UNO.
17. Examine the causes and effects of Cold War.
18. Analyse the objectives of SAARC.
19. What are the main issues of Palestin question?
20. Evaluate the foreign policy of USA.
********
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Estimate the origin and growth of Architecture in India.
7. Write an essay on the contributions of Mauryan Architecture.
8. Point out the characteristics of Jain Architecture.
9. State the role of slave dynasty in the development of Muslim
Architecture in India.
10. Estimate the contribution of second Pandyan for the development of
temple architecture in the South.
*******
Question Code : A10405 Sub Code: BHYSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
INDIAN ARCHITECTURE
Time : 2 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Point out the general features of Nagara style of Architecture.
2. Give a brief account of Dravida style Architecture.
3. Narrate the architectural features of Saranath Pillar.
4. Write a note on Buddhist Chaityas in Ellora Caves.
5. Discuss the Draupati Ratha.
Question Code : A10112 Sub Code: BHYCR63/ UHYCR63
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
HISTORY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Who discovered the isochronisms of the Pendulum?
a) Dalton b) Galileo
c) Copernicus d) Boyle
2. In which book the astronomical observations of Galileo was
published?
a) Starry Messenger b) Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres
c) Origin of Spices d) Sceptical Chemistry
3. What was the theory contributed by Newton to Science?
a) Fermentation Theory b) Theory of Gravitation
c) Theory of Evolution d) Magnetic Theory
4. Who was the father of Zoological Science?
a) Dalton b) Darwin c) Galileo d) John Hunter
5. Who discovered the germ theory of fermentation?
a) John Hunter b) Louis Pasteur
c) Gurushetra d) Harvey
6. Name of the first scientist who define atom?
a) John Dalton b) Antoine Lavoisier
c) Joseph Priestly d) Henry Cavendish
7. Who discovered Radium?
a) Marie Curie b) Einstein
c) Roentgen d) Faraday
8. Who is the father of atomic energy?
a) John Datton b) Antoine Lavoisier
c) Joseph Priestly d) Henry Cavendish
9. Who was the founder of Indian Space Research organization at
Thumba?
a) Aryabhata b) Bhaskara
c) VikramSarabai d) Abdul Kalam
10. Who was the first Indian to receive Nobel prize?
a) J.C.Bose b) C.V.Raman
c) A.P. J Abdulkalam d) KasthuriRangan
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Give an account of the contribution of Nicholas Copernicus to
Science.
(or)
b) Trace The contribution of Andreas Vesalius to Modern Science.
12. a) Explain the discoveries of John Hunter.
(or)
b) Give an account of Robert Boyle.
13. a) Explain the contribution of Faraday to science.
(or)
b) Give a note on Alfred Nobel.
14. a) Prove that Rutherford is the father of the Atomic Science.
(or)
b) Give an account of Roentgen.
15. a) Explain ISRO and its role in the modern Indian Science and
Technology.
(or)
b) Elucidate the contribution of sir C.V.Raman or the growth of
Modern Science.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Write an essay on the discoveries of Galileo.
17. Describe the William Harvey discoveries on circulation of blood.
18. Describe the contributions of Louis Pasteur to the growth of the
science of Microbiology.
19. Describe the role of Einstein in the growth of science.
20. Estimate the contributions of Dr. Abdulkalam in the growth of
modern science.
*****
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Write an essay about the fundamental principles of journalism.
7. Describe the role played by Journalism in a democratic country.
8. Evaluate the rights and privileges of the press in India.
9. Give an account on the Indian news agencies.
10. Bring out the importance of press laws.
*******
Question Code : A10406 Sub Code: BHYSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
JOURNALISM
Time : 2 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Discuss the duties of journals.
2. Write about the aims of Journals.
3. What are the rights of the press in India?
4. What do you know about the privileges of the press in India?
5. Explain about the press council of India.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Present a detailed note on phased life cycle model.
7. Discuss about the format of software Requirement specification.
8. Explain in detail about fundamental design concepts.
9. Explain system Testing.
10. Describe Configuration Management.
*******
Question Code : A24405 Sub Code: BCSSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc.. (Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Discuss about some size factors.
2. Describe project structure.
3. Discuss about Cohesion.
4. Explain about Walkthroughs and Inspections.
5. Write a note on Quality Assurance.
Question Code: A24107 Sub Code:
BCSCR62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
COMPUTER NETWROKS
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Expand MAN______.
a) Metro Access Network b) Metropolitan Area Network
c) Mass Around Network d) None of the above
2. TCP / IP Reference model has _____ layers.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
3. UTP stands for ______.
a) United Twisted Pair b) Unshielded Twisted Pair
c) Underground Twisted Pair d) None of the above
4. Which telephone network is designed for human voice
transmission?
a) PSTN b) PTN
c) ITU d) None of the above
5. Error control is a mechanism of _____.
a) Physical Layer b) Data Link Layer
c) Network Layer d) Transport Layer
6. Temporary delaying outgoing acknowledgement for hooking into next
outgoing frame is _____.
a) chaining b) piggy packing
c) framing d) none of the above
7. When too many packets are present in the subnet, then the performance
degradation is termed as, ______.
a) Congestion b) Flooding
c) Framing d) None of the above
8. QoS stands for _______.
a) Quantified Service b) Quality oriented Service
c) Quality of Service d) None of the above
9. SMTP relates to _____.
a) chat b) browsing
c) e-mail d) none of the above
10. Messages to be encrypted is known as, _____.
a) plaintext b) ciphertext
d) simple text d) none of the above
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write note on Wide Area Network.
(or)
b) Discuss connection oriented and connectionless services.
12. a) Write about Coaxial cable.
(or)
b) Discuss Radio transmission.
13. a) Explain about Flow control.
(or)
b) Discuss simplex stop and wait protocol.
14. a) Write short note on Non–adaptive algorithm and Adaptive algorithm.
(or)
b) Describe about Transport Services.
15. a) Write note on Domain Name System.
(or)
b) Discuss about WWW.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail about TCP/IP Reference model.
17. Discuss Fiber Optic Cables.
18. Explain in detail about Multiple Access Protocols.
19. Write in detail about shortest Path Routing.
20. Describe about E-mail Architecture and Services.
*******
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Enumerate the Role of international Airlines in the tourism industry.
7. Explain the procedures for emergencies in front office department.
8. Explain the job description of front office assistant briefly.
9. Enumerate in detail about left luggage procedure.
10. Explain about guest Arrival and departure procedure.
*****
Question Code : A25405 Sub Code: BNDSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
FRONT OFFICE MANAGEMENT
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (N and D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Describe the different types of hotels.
2. Describe the components of hotel industry.
3. Explain the importance and advantages of Job description.
4. Explain in detail about front office salesmanship.
5. Enumerate the procedures at the beginning of the day at the reception.
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Write in detail about the components of functional foods.
7. Briefly explain about “Terpenoids”.
8. Elaborate the functional foods from Animal sources.
9. Describe on functional foods from plant sources.
10. Write about the role of functional foods in the prevention of cancer.
*****
Question Code : A25406 Sub Code: BNDSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
FUNCTIONAL FOODS
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc. (N and D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Write about the sources of functional foods.
2. Discuss various types of Nutraceuticals.
3. Describe about the functional foods of fruits and vegetables.
4. Write about the health effects of probiotics and prebiotics.
5. Explain the role of functional foods in gut health.
Question Code: A24106 Sub Code: BCSCR61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called
_____.
a) Picture element b) Point
c) Dot Pitch d) aspect ratio
2. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using ______.
a) Accelerating anode b) Control grid
c) Electron gun d) Focusing anode
3. ______ controls the basic display properties of output primitives.
a) Attribute parameter b) setpixel
c) getpixel d) None of the above
4. The simplest output primitive is _______.
a) Straight line b) Straight line segment
c) Point d) Circle
5. _____controls the basic display properties of output primitives.
a) Attribute parameter b) setpixel
c) getpixel d) None of the above
6. ______is defined as the distance between the baseline and cap line of
the character body.
a) Character Size b) Character Height
c) Character Width d) Character Length
7. The basic transformations include ______.
a) Translation b) Rotation
c) Scaling d) All of the above
8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where
the image will actually appear are called _____.
a) Transformation viewing b) View port
c) Clipping window d) Screen coordinate system
9. The region code of a point within the window is ______.
a) 1111 b) 0000 c) 1000 d) 0001
10. Identify an relative locator device from the following:
a) Mouse b) Touch panel
c) Light pen d) Keyboard
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the usage of Computer Graphics in Education and
Training, Computer Aided Design and Image Processing.
(or)
b) Explain the various Input devices of Graphics.
12. a) Explain the Bresenham‟s Line Generation Algorithm.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Character Generation.
13. a) Discuss the usage of Curve Attributes.
(or)
b) Discuss the usage of Bundled Attributes.
14. a) Write short notes on Homogeneous Coordinates.
(or)
b) Explain Viewing Pipeline.
15. a) Discuss Polygon Clipping Algorithm.
(or)
b) Explain the different Graphical User Interfaces.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss in detail about Video Display Devices.
17. Explain Ellipse Generating Algorithm with example.
18. Discuss in detail about Color and Gray Scale Levels.
19. Write short notes on i) Basic 2D transformations ii) Viewing
Transformation.
20. Explain Cohen Sutherland Line Clipping algorithm.
*******
b) The work function of a photosensitive surface is 3 eV. Will photo emission
occur if a photon of energy 3.5 eV is incident on the surface? If yes, find
in joules the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron.
32. a) Explain Seebeck effect, Peltier effect and Thomson effect. Mention
some applications of thermoelectricity.
b) What is the largest voltage you can safely put across a 98 ohm,
0.5 W resistor?
33. a) What is meant by wave – particle duality of radiation.
b) Find the de Broglie wavelength of electrons moving with a kinetic
energy of 100 eV. 31-34 1019 melectron of mass 10 636 h
34. a) Write the main characteristics of the nuclear force.
b) The half life period of a radioactive substance is 16 hours. After how
much time will 6.25% of a material remain undecayed.
35. a) What is meant by energy bands in solids? Distinguish between
conductors, insulators and semi conductors.
b) A common emitter transistor amplifier has current gain of 50. If load
resistance is k4 , input resistance is 500 , Find the voltage gain
of the amplifier.
*********
Question Code : A21404 Sub Code: BPHSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PHYSICS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
Time : 2 Hrs B.Sc. ( Physics) Max. Marks: 75 Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (30 x 1 = 30 marks) 1. S.I unit of emf is ______
a) ohm b) Volt c) farad d) ampere
2. Ohm‟s law is _____
a) R = VI b) I = RV c) V = IR d) V = I / R
3. SI unit of resistance is ______
a) volt b) ohm c) farad d) ampere
4. The order of free electron density in metals is
a) 3
2910m
b) 3
2010m
c) 3
3010m
d) 3
2510m
5. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinite
6. The device used for measuring internal resistance of a cell is _____
a) potentiometer b) voltmeter c) ammeter d) galvanometer
7. Eddy current produces large amount of heat in
a) dynamo b) motors c) transformers d) all the above
8. Working principle of a transformer is ____.
a) self induction b) mutual induction c) capacitance d) none
9. The temperature of the hot junction at which thermo emf is maximum , is
called _____.
a) inversion temperature b) neutral temperature
c) eritical temperature d) none
10. Joule‟s law is _____.
a) U = IRT b) tIRU 2 c) RtIU 2
d) U = IR / t
11. The phenomenon that establishes particle nature of light is
a) specific charge b) photo electric effect
c) electron diffraction d) none
12. Photo current is _____ to the frequency of independent radiation.
a) directly proportional b) inversely proportional
c) independent of d) none
13. Nuclides having same atomic number, but different mss number are called
____.
a) isobars b) isotopes c) isotones d) none
14. What is the SI unit of activity?
a) bequerel b) roentgen c) curie d) Rutherford
15. Which part of the atom is responsible for radio activity?
a) electron b) nucleus c) proton d) photon
16. Which is the best moderator for a nuclear reactor?
a) water b) heavy water c) graphite d) all the above
17. The wave length and momentum of a photon is related by
a) p
h b) hp c) h
p d) hp 2
18. Specific charge of a particle is _____
a) q m b) m / q c) q / m d) 2qm
19. _____light can eject electrons from a photosensitive surface.
a) red b) blue c) orange d) all the above
20. Arrange and , rays in increasing order of penetrating power.
a) ,, b) , i c) , 1 d) , ,
21. A pure semiconductor is _____semiconductor.
a) extrinsic b) intrinsic c) doped d) perfect
22. Elements used as pentavalent impurity are
a) phosphorous b) antimony c) Arsenic d) all the above
23. Low resistance of np junction is due to _____
a) Forward bias b) reverse bias c) load d) none
24. In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the output voltage is ____with the
input voltage.
a) in phase b) out of phase c) 90 phase shifted d) None
25. Boolean expression for NAND gate is
a) Y = BA b) BAY c) Y = A + B d) AY
26. Which among the following is a universal gate?
a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) NOT
27. A potential difference is applied across a non – uniform metal rod. Which of
the following quantities remain constant along the rod?
a) current b) current density c) drift velocity d) none
28. An electrochemical cell converts ____ energy into electrical energy.
a) kinetic b) chemical c) potential d) mechanical
29. Commercial unit of electrical energy is _____
a) Joule b) Watt c) Kilo Watt Hour d) eV
30. Refrigeration is the application of _____
a) Seebeck effect b) Peltier effect c) Joule effect d) Thomson effect
Part B
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 15= 45 marks)
31. a) Explain stopping potential and threshold frequency in photo electric
emission. Give an appropriate graph showing the variation of stopping
potential with the frequency of incident radiation.
Question Code: A25110 Sub Code: BNDCR62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
COMMUNITY NUTRITION
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. (N&D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. _____ encompasses a broad set of activities designed to provide
access to a healthful diet to a population living in a particular
geographic area.
a) Public health nutrition b) Special nutrition programme
c) Community nutrition d) Applied nutrition programme
2. Biochemical information is related to obtaining data about_____.
a) food intake b) indicators in body tissues
c) signs of poor nutritional health d) prevalence of health problems
3. One of the signs of anaemia is______.
a) koilonychia b) growth retardation
c) muscle wasting d) stunting
4. Identify the component to prevent PEM is ______.
a) maternal malnutrition b) low birth weight
c) supplementary feeding d) dietary inadequacy
5. Body Mass Index is the ratio of ______.
a) weight (in pounds)/ height (m2) b) weight (in kg)/ height (m
2)
c) weight (in pounds)/ height (cm2) d) weight (in kg)/ height (m)
6. The Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated from the annual number
of female deaths per ----------- live births.
a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10000 d) 100000
7. FAO was established in the year ______.
a) 1943 b) 1944 c) 1945 d) 1946
8. Central Reference Laboratory of NNMB is located in one of the
following states
a) Kerala b) Punjab c) Rajastan d) Assam
9. ------ can serve as convenient centres for disseminating nutrition
education to young mothers.
a) Women‟s organisations b) schools
c) exhibition d) PHC
10. A visual aid which stimulate the interest of people with respect to
nutrition message is ______.
a) lecture b) poster
c) demonstration d) newspaper
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Sketch the types of information used to identify nutrition
problem.
(or)
b) Evaluate the most common health problems present in your
community.
12. a) Write short notes on cretinism.
(or)
b) Assess the manifestations of fluorosis.
13. a) Examine the common measurements used in nutritional
anthropometry.
(or)
b) Outline the clinical signs of Vitamin A deficiency.
14. a) Discuss the key health projects carried out by CARE India.
(or)
b) Highlight the functions of ICAR.
15. a) Brief the framework of planning nutrition education programmes
for the public.
(or)
b) Classify the modes of training available in the field of nutrition.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail the objectives of community nutrition.
17. Describe the spectrum of IDD in different age groups.
18. Elicit the different biochemical tests used to assess nutritional status
of the community.
19. Elucidate the following with respect to ICDS.
i) Objectives ii) Target groups iii) Programme Components
20. Elaborate the various channels available to impart nutrition education
to the community.
*****
Question Code: A24307 Sub Code: BCSME61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
WEB TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Which of the following is private IP address?
a) 12.0.0.1 b) 168.172.19.39
c) 172.15.14.36 d) 192.168.24.43
2. Which of the following is the first web browser?
a) Nexus b) Netscape Navigator
c) Internet Explorer d) Mosaic
3. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of
the OSI model?
a) Application b) Host-to-Host
c) Internet d) Network Access
4. Where is the correct place to insert a JavaScript?
a) <body> b) <head>
c) <title> d) both (a) and (b)
5. How can you get the type of arguments passed to a function?
a) using typeof operator b) using getType function
c) using returnType function d) None of the above.
6. Which of the following function of String object returns a number
indicating the Unicode value of the character at the given index?
a) charAt() b) charCodeAt()
c) unicode( ) d) indexOf()
7. What is the result of the following code snippet?
window.location == document.location
a) False b) true
c) 0 d)
8. How is everything treated in HTML DOM?
a) Node b) Attributes
c) Elements d) All the above
9. Which of these package contains classes and interfaces for
networking?
a) java.io b) java.util
c) java.net d) java.network
10. Which class is used to create a server that listen for either local
client or remote client programs?
a) ServerSockets b) Http Server
c) HttpRequest d) Http Response
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Draw the web architecture with example.
(or)
b) Discuss the concept of IPv4 addresses.
12. a) Explain the javascript variable with examples.
(or)
b) Explain the various types of built in functions in javascript.
13. a) Discuss date object in javascript.
(or)
b) Write a short note about window prompt() method with
examples.
14. a) How do you create a cookie? Explain.
(or)
b) What is java script event? Explain any three events with examples.
15. a) Explain the concept of web servers and clients.
(or)
b) Discuss the concept of TCP/IP server socket.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain in detail about web browsers with examples.
17. Discuss the types of operators in javascript with examples.
18. Explain the types of window object methods in JavaScript with
examples.
19. Explain in detail about exceptions handling in javascript.
20. Discuss any five types of networking classes and interfaces.
********
Question Code: A25109 Sub Code: BNDCR61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
CLINICAL NUTRITION AND LABORATORY TECHNIQUES
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. (N&D with CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Common test used to detect urinary sugar is _______.
a) Barjoed‟s b) Fehling‟s
c) Benedict‟s d) Selivanoff‟s
2. Urine should be examined within _____hours after discharge.
a) two b) five c) six d) eight
3. The ketone bodies are formed in______.
a) Liver b) Spleen
c) gall bladder d) none
4. Jaundice is clinically detected in S. Clerae when serum bilirubin
concentration reaches above.
a) 0. 5 to 1mg / 100 ml b) 1 to 2 mg /100 ml
c) 2 to 3 mg /100 ml d) 3 to 4 mg /100 ml
5. The Hollanders gastric stimulation test routinely requires the use of
_______.
a) Alcohol b) Gastrin
b) Glucose d) Insulin
6. Vagal nerves are intact if basal gastric test results indicate ______.
a) Hypo chlorhydria b) presence of pepsin
c) Normal Hydrogen ion secretion d) presence of gastrin
7. In patients with renal failure all of the following are typically
elevated in serum, except ______.
a) urea nitrogen b) phosphate
c) uric acid d) albumin
8. Normal maximum urea clearance (cm) in an adult averages about
_______.
a) 60 b) 65 c) 70 d) 75
9. Platelets are produced in the _____from megakaryocytes.
a) Bone marrow b) liver
c) skin d) small intestine
10. _____ function in the host immune defence against helminths and
participate in some inflammatory reactions.
a) Eosinophils b) Basophils
c) Lymphocyts d) Monocyts
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) How will you express the concentration of solutions in metric
system?
(or)
b) What are the preservatives used for preserving wine sample?
12. a) Briefly explain about Hippuric acid test.
(or)
b) Describe the role of liver in fat metabolism.
13. a) Explain the Hollander‟s gastric stimulation test.
(or)
b) Discuss about the types of stomach Tubes.
14. a) Describe “endogenous ceratinine clearance test”.
(or)
b) Write the procedure for urea clearance test.
15. a) How will you determine the serum creatinine level?
(or)
b) Briefly describe the Haemoglobin estimation.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the tests used for detecting the presence of sugar in
urine.
17. Enumerate the various functions of liver. Describe the liver
function tests based on excretion of bilirubin.
18. Enlist the gastric functions tests. Explain the Tubelers gastric
analysis.
19. What is meant by the term “Clearance”? Describe the urea
clearance test and its significance.
20. Enumerate the methods of determination of Blood Glucose.
Explain any one method in detail.
*******
Question Code: A40116 Sub Code: BBNCR63 / UBNCR63
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
COMPUTER AWARENESS IV (VISUAL PROGRAMMING)
Time : 3 Hrs B. B. A. Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. VB programming is done in a ____ environment.
a) Text_only b) object oriented
c) graphical d) none
2. The value changes during the execution of program is called ____.
a) constant b) variable
c) statement d) none
3. Which tool is used to select one choice from a group?
a) Option button b) check box
c) frame d) none
4. To Find and remove bugs is called _____.
a) debugging b) correction
c) checking d) none
5. Expansion of MDI _____.
a) Multiple Document Interface b) More Data Interface
c) Multiple Data Interface d) none
6. _____ dialog box is used to display a message
a) input b) label
c) message d) none
7. _____ procedures have a return value.
a) sub b) function c) main d) none
8. _____ is a set of sequentially indexed elements having the same
intrinsic data type.
a) file b) record c) array d) none
9. ______ file is used for reading and writing arbitrarily structured
files.
a) Binary b) Random c) Sequential d) none
10. In _____ access method, data is stored as binary information
a) sequential b) random c) binary d) none
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What are the operators available in VB ? Explain with examples.
( OR )
b) List any five string functions and give example with explanation.
12. a) Discuss various Form properties.
( OR )
b) Explain the concepts of „Text Box‟. Give examples
13. a) Compare Combo Box and List Box.
( OR )
b) Explain the following concepts
i) Syntax error ii) Logical error
14. a) Write a VB coding to find the biggest value among „N‟ numbers.
( OR )
b) Explain the concepts of Sub procedures and Event procedures
15. a) Write about the usage of sequential file in VB.
( OR )
b) Explain the concept of Random Access files.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain various IF statements with example.
17. State and explain various form events with sample program.
18. Explain the following:
a) Input dialog box b) Message dialog box
19. Write a program to generate a calculator using control array
20. Write a VB program using Common Dialog Control
*******
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. What are the factors which should be taken in to account during the
designing of medical equipment?
7. Discuss the loading effect and sensitivity of the bridge.
8. With block diagram explain, Differential capacitive transducer.
How is it used as a pressure sensor.
9. Discuss the different lead configurations used in ECG.
10. Describe the recording setup used in EMG. Also write a note on
ERG.
*******
Question Code : A21403 Sub Code: BPHSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
BIO MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION - II
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc (physics ) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Draw the structure of living cell of our body and explain its
constituents.
2. What are bioelectric potentials? Discuss the frequency and voltage
range of ECG, EEG and EMG.
3. Write a short note on magnetic induction type and photovoltaic type
transducer.
4. Describe LVDT along with its electrical characteristics.
5. Write a note on Electrooculography (EOG)
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Comment on the pros and cons of using social media to network.
7. What are the possible Questions at the interview?
8. What are the common essential criteria to apply for a job?
9. Explain the factors essential for success in an interview.
10. What strategies can be adopted to solve the problems at workplace?
*******
Question Code : A40403 Sub Code: BBNSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2016
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
JOB SEEKING SKILLS
Time : 2 Hrs B. B. A Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions ( 3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. What are the factors that make job seeking so challenging?
2. Explain the concept of self esteem.
3. Explain the procedure involved in preparing applications.
4. What are the features of an interview?
5. How to start in a new job?
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Explain detail with examples about „Format‟ command in MATLAB.
17. Discuss all the built in functions for handling arrays with examples.
18. Use matrix operations to solve the following system of linear equations
in MATLAB :
03106
4282
8624
zyx
zyx
zyx
19. Determine a function w = f(t) (it is the independent variable, w is the
dependent variable) with a form discussed in this section that best fits
the data.
t : 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0
w 6.00 4.83 3.7 3.15 2.41 1.83 1.49 1.21 0.96 0.73 0.64
20. A car with a mass m of 1500 kg hits the bumper at a speed of 90 km / h.
Determine and plot the velocity of the car as a function of its position
for mx 30 [ use the formula 33 1xkvF where k = 30 s. 5/ mkg
is a constant.
********
Sub Code: UMCME61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2015
MATLAB
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. – Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. In MATLAB, the _____sign is called the assignment operator
a) b) = c) - d) +
2. Variable names can be upto _____characters long in MATLAB 6.5
a) 63 b) 31 c) 60 d) 30
3. A single vector element v(k) can be used as a ______.
a) Number b) parameter c) variable d) none
4. A (m : n, p : q) refers to the elements
a) in columns m through n and rows p through q of the matrix A.
b) in rows m through n and columns p through q of the matrix A.
c) in columns p through q and rows m through n of the matrix A.
d) in rows p through q and columns m through n of the matrix A.
5. ______computes the dot product of two vectors.
a) dot (a, b) b) dot ( )ba c) dot (a ; b) d) dot (a : b)
6. The _____operation can be explained with the help of the identity
matrix and the inverse operation.
a) Addition b) exponentiation
c) multiplication d) division
7. _______functions cannot model 0x (or) negative values of x .
a) Logarithmic b) Exponential
5m
36m
x
c) Trigonometric d) None
8. _____are mathematical expressions that are frequently used for
problems solving and modelling.
a) Interpolation b) Polynomials
c) curve fitting d) None
9. When a function is entered as a string in „fzero‟, it can not include
______.
a) Pre – defined variables b) changing variables
c) parameter d) none
10. When the „fminbnd‟ command is executed, it tries to find _____within
the interval that is entered for x .
a) The end point 1X b) The end point 2X
c) a local minimum d) none
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Explain the „Rounding functions‟ in MATLAB with examples.
(OR)
b) Write the rules about variable names in MATLAB.
12. a) Explain deleting elements in arrays with examples.
(OR)
b) Given are a 5 x 6 matrix A, a 3 x 6 matrix B, and a 9 element
long vector V.
A =
2118151296
2017141185
1916131074
181512963
171411852
; B =
807570656055
555045403530
30252015105
V = [ 99 98 97 96 95 94 93 92 91 ]
Create the three arrays in the command window, and then by writing
on command, replace the last four elements of the 1st and 3
rd rows of
A with the first four columns of the first two rows of B, the last four
columns of the 4th
row of A with the elements 5 through 8 of V and
the last four columns of the 5th
row of A with columns 3 through 5 of
the third row of B.
13. a) Write how to perform matrix addition and matrix subtraction
MATLAB.
(OR)
b) Write any seven built – in – functions for analysing arrays in
MATLAB with example.
14. a) Explain in detail the POLYFIT function for the curve fitting with
functions other than polynomials in MATLAB.
(OR)
b) For the polynomial
88.3595.71015175940112 2345 xxxxxxf
i) Calculate f (9) ii) plot the polynomial for -1.5 7.6x
15. a) Determine the distance x for which is maximum for the
configuration shown in the figure.
(OR)
b) Use the data to calculate the flow rate and then integrate the flow
rate to obtain an estimate of the total amount of water that flows
in the river during a year. Day 1 32 60 91 121 152 182 213 244 274 305 335 366
H(m) 2.0 2.1 2.3 2.4 3.0 2.9 2.7 2.6 2.5 2.3 2.2 2.1 2.0
V(m/s) 2.0 2.2 2.5 2.7 5 4.7 4.1 3.8 3.7 2.8 2.5 2.3 2.0
8. Find the cash required to purchase Rs.3,200,7 % stock at 107
(brokerage %)
Part B Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 10 = 50 marks
9. A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In
how many years will it become eight times?
10. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday fall?
11. A man buys Rs.20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have
an interest of 12% on his money. Find the market value of each share.
12. Which is better investment, 11% stock at 143 or 9 % stock at 117?
13. The true discount on a certain sum of money due 3 years hence is
Rs.250 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same time and
at the same rate is Rs.375. Find the sum and the rate percent.
14. The banker‟s discount and the true discount on a sum of money due 8
months hence are Rs.120 and Rs.110 respectively. Find the sum and
the rate percent.
15. Find the odd man out: (i) 19,28,39,52,67,84,102
(ii) 190,166,145,128,112,100,91 (iii) 10,26,74,218,654,1946,5834.
16. Insert the missing number: (i) 3,7,6,5,9,3,12,1,15,(…)
(ii) 9,12,11,14,13,(…),15 (iii) 165,195,255,285,345,(…).
*******
Sub Code: UMASB61/ UMCSB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2015
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
QUANTITATIVE MATHEMATICS
Time : 2 Hrs B. Sc – Maths & Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any FIVE questions 5 x 5 = 25 marks
1. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 12% per
annum is Rs.40 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 3 years
at 10% per annum. Find the sum.
2. Prove that the calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year
2007.
3. Find the income derived from 88 shares of Rs.25 each at 5 premium,
brokerage being per share and the rate of dividend being 7 % per
annum. Also, find the rate of interest on the investment.
4. The true discount on a bill due 9 months hence 12% per annum is
Rs.540. Find the amount of the bill and its present worth.
5. Find the odd man out: (i) 1,5,14,30,50,55,91 (ii). 2,5,10,50,500,5000
6. Divide Rs.1301 between A and B, so that the amount of A after 7 years is
equal to the amount of B after 9 years, the interest being compounded at
4% per annum.
7. It was Sunday on Jan1, 2006. What was the day of the week on Jan 1,
2010?
Salesman
Area 1S
2S 3S 4S
A 22 27 38 45
B 28 32 40 38
C 25 40 36 22
Part C
Answer any THREE questions 3 x 10 = 30 marks
16. Obtain i) Mean ii) Median and iii) Mode for the following
distribution
elsewhere
xifxxxf
0
106 2
17. Define : Poisson distribution and fit a Poisson distribution to the
following data x 0 1 2 3 4 Total
F 123 59 14 3 1 200
18. A machine puts out 16 imperfect articles in a sample of 500 articles.
After the machine is overvalued it put out 3 defective articles in a
sample of 100. Has the machine improved?
19. For the 2 x 2 contingency table dc
ba , show that the 2
- test of
independence is dcca
bcadN
ba db
2
2 where N = a+b+c+d.
20. An agricultural experiment on the Latin square plot gave the following
results for the yield of wheat per acre. Letters corresponding to various
columns to treatments and rows to blocks. Discuss the variation of
yield with each of these factors. A16 B10 C11 D9 E9
E10 C9 A14 B12 D11
B15 D8 E8 C10 A18
D12 E6 B13 A13 C12
C13 A11 D10 E7 B14
Sub Code: UMACR64 / UMCCR64
SRI S. RAMASAMY NAIDU MEMORIAL COLLEGE, SATTUR
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2015
ADVANCED STATISTICS
Time : 3 Hrs B.Sc. - Maths & Maths (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer 10 x 1 = 10 marks
1. Find the value of the constant C if
x
Cxf3
2 x = 1,2,3, .....is a p.d.f
of a discrete random variable X.
a) C= 0 b) C= 1 c) C= 2
1 d) C = 2
2. If 1
r is the thr moment about the origin of random variable X and if
! 1 rr then the M.G.F of X is
a) 1+t b) 1-t c) 1
1 t d) 1
1 t
3. The fourth order Cumulant of a Poisson distribution is
a) 2 b) 2 c) d) 0
4. The Points of inflection of a Normal distribution are
a) b) 2 c) 2
d) 2
5. A hypothesis tested for possible rejection under the assumption that it is
true is
a) alternative hypothesis b) Null hypothesis
c) Type I error d) Type II error
6. Accepting a hypothesis 0H when 0H is false is called
a) Type I error b) Type II error c) error d) mean
7. 2 distribution is used to test
a) population variance b) goodness of fit
c) independence of attributes d) All the above
8. In a 2 - distribution
a) n
i
n
i
ii eO1 1
b) n
i
n
i
ii eO1 1
c) n
i
n
i
ii eO1 1
d) n
i
n
i
ii eO1 1
9. The arrangement of „n‟ letters A,B, C, ......such that each letter
occurring in each column and one in each row is called
a) ANOVA b) Latin Square
c) One – way classification d) Two – way classification
10. The process of studying the variation present in the observed values
classified into several classes is called.
a) Latin Square b) ANOVA c) 2 - distribution d) t- distribution
Part B
Answer ALL the questions 5 x 7 = 35 marks
11. a) Define : Cumulant generating function and hence find first three
cumulants.
(OR)
b) A random variable X has the probability function
1,2,3, 2
1xxp
x....Find its i) M.g.f. ii) Mean iii) Variance
12. a) Find & Coefficients of Poisson distribution and also find
4321 ,,, .
(OR)
b) In a normal distribution 31% of the items are under 45 and 8% are
over 64. Find the mean and standard deviation.
13. a) A manufacturer claimed that atleast 95% of the equipment which he
supplied to a factory conformed to specifications. An examination of
a sample of 200 Pieces of equipments revealed that 18 were faulty.
Test this claim at a significance level of i) 5% ii) 1%
(OR)
b) The mean heights of 50 male students who showed above average
participation in college sports was "268 with s.d "52 ; while 50 male
students who showed no interest in such participation had mean height
"567 with s.d. "82 . Test the hypothesis that male students who
participate in college sports are taller than other male students
14. a) Five Coins are tossed 320 times. The number of heads observed is
given below. Examine whether the Coin is unbiased.
No of heads 0 1 2 3 4 5 Total
Frequency 15 45 85 95 60 20 320
(OR)
b) The theory predicts that the proportion of an object available in four
groups A, B, C, D should be 9: 3: 3: 1. In an experiment among 1600
items of this object the numbers in the four groups were 882, 313, 287
and 118. Use 2 test to verify whether the experimental result
supports the theory.
15. a) The following table gives the results of experiments on 4 varieties of
Crops in 5 blocks of plots. Prepare the table of analysis of variance to
test the significance of difference between the yields of the 4 varieties.
Block
Variety
1 2 3 4 5
A 32 34 35 35 37
B 34 33 36 37 35
C 31 34 35 32 36
D 29 26 30 28 29
(OR)
b) A Company manufacturing a certain product appointed 4 Salesman
4321 ,,, SSSS in three different areas A, B, C. For the following data
carryout the analysis of variance to test whether there is a significant
difference in the sales of the 4 salesmen and in the sales carried out in
different areas.
Question Code: A30117 Sub Code: BCOCR64
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Gambling is
a) an intelligent speculation b) based on rumours
c) successful speculation d) none of these
2. Investment made in real estate is a
a) Real investment b) Financial investment
c) Non – financial investment d) Intangible investment
3. Primary and Secondary markets
a) control each other b) function independently
c) compete with each other d) complement each other
4. At per means
a) Shares issued at premium b) shares issued at discount
c) shares issued at face value d) all the above
5. ______is an independent broker who purchases and sells
securities in his own name.
a) Bull b) Bear c) Jobber d) none
6. The another name of secondary market is ______.
a) capital market b) money market
c) stock exchange d) none
7. The main function entrusted with SEBI is
a) capital formation
b) regulating the business in stock exchange and any other
c) issue of statistics
d) giving financial assistance to stock exchange
8. To prevent insider trading SEBI has introduced regulations in
______.
a) 1990 b) 1992 c) 1980 d) none of these
9. SEBI Act was promulgated by the government in
a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996
10. CDSL commenced its operations in
a) 1999 B) 1998 c) 1997 d) 1996
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Distinction between investment and speculation.
(OR)
b) What are the classifications of investment?
12. a) What are the relationship between the primary market and
secondary market?
(OR)
b) Discuss the methods of floating shares in new issue market.
13. a) Explain the various process of control over stock exchanges.
(OR)
b) Discuss the membership sales in stock exchanges.
14. a) Describe the SEBI guidelines for secondary market.
(OR)
b) Explain the complaints against members of stock exchanges.
15. a) Explain the function of NSDL.
(OR)
b) Describe the process of dematerialisation.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Explain the salient features of SEBI (Reporting and participants)
Regulation Act.
17. Explain in detail the functions and management of SEBI.
18. Describe the function of stock exchange.
19. Explain the parties involved in the new issue market.
20. Describe the features of an investment programme. What steps
should an investor follow to make an investment?
********
Question Code: A31116 Sub Code: BCACR63
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
E – COMMERCE
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. _____is an unique name that identifies an internet website.
a) DSL b) Domain name c) B2 G d) C 2 C
2. _____protocol is used for transferring any kind of file, like, doc, bmp
& Jpeg.
a) File Transfer Protocol b) GPRS c) ASC x 12 d) TCP
3. _____content includes a combination of text, graphics etc.
a) I – way b) multimedia c) servers d) HTML
4. Electronic banking is also known as ______.
a) E- learning b) E – trading c) E- Tailing d) Cyber banking
5. I – way is known as information ______.
a) Super highway b) Paypal c) WAIS d) Gopher
6. _____combines the qualities of hypertext and multimedia.
a) Hyper media b) Client c) HTTP d) WWW
7. _____is used to identify specific sites and files available on the
WWW.
a) Smartcard b) NSFNET c) URL d) VAN
8. Usage of computers and networks for criminal activities is called as
_______.
a) DSL b) Cyber crime c) Browser d) C 2 C
9. _______is a special signature for signing electronic correspondence.
a) EDI b) ATM c) Digital signature d) VAN
10. The _____system records each sale in a central data base, using a
scanner which reads the bar code on the product.
a) MIME b) POS c) E – Cash d) IRC
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a brief note on global information distribution networks.
(OR)
b) Explain the factors promoting E – Commerce.
12. a) Describe about various electronic commerce application services.
(OR)
b) Explain briefly about ATM.
13. a) Write a brief note on Credit card.
(OR)
b) Discuss about EDI Layered Architecture.
14. Write a note about customization and Internal commerce.
(OR)
b) Explain about Macro forces and internal commerce.
15. a) Explain the following advertising on the internet
i) Push – Based advertising ii) Pull – Based advertising
(OR)
b) Point out the guidelines for Internet advertising.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Briefly explain the anatomy of E – commerce applications.
17. Describe about Mercantile Models from the consumer‟s Perspective?
18. Write down the importance of EDI applications in business.
19. Point out the new forms of organisational structure.
20. Explain about adaptation of the new product introduction process to
the internet.
********
Question Code: A30116 Sub Code: BCOCR63
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
BUSINESS LAW - II
Time : 3 Hrs B.Com Max. Marks: 75
Part – A
Answer ALL questions, Choose the best answer: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. A bailee has ______.
a) right of particular lien
b) right of generation
c) right of both particular lien and general lien
d) no lien at all.
2. The sale of goods act was enacted in the year
a) 1940 b) 1930 c) 1950 d) 1913
3. A signed document containing a written promise to pay a stated sum
to a specified person or the bearer at a specified date or on demand.
a) Promissory Note b) Cheque
c) Bill of exchange d) Hundis
4. The bill of exchange transaction contains
a) Drawee b) Drawer
c) Payee d) All the above
5. Which one of the following is known as Consumer disputes redressal
agency?
a) District forum b) State commission
c) National commission d) All the above
6. The chairman of the district consumer protection council is
a) District magistrate b) Collector of the District
c) MP of the district d) None of these
7. The object wagering agreement is to earn
a) capital gain b) short term gain
c) speculative gain d) insurable interest
8. Which one of the following is not a contract of indemnity?
a) personal accident insurance b) fire insurance
c) marine insurance d) none of these
9. Which Act was replaced with the introduction of Competition Act
2002?
a) FERA b ) MRTP c) POTA d) None of these
10. Which committee recommended the enactment of Competition Act?
a) High level Committee on competition policy and Law
b) A Committee on Law and Order
c ) A Central Committee for Research and Policy
d) None of these.
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the rights of Bailee.
(OR)
b) State the circumstances regarding the discharge of bailment contract.
12. a) Write short notes on bill of exchange and Hundies.
(OR)
b) Explain the circumstances for the discharge of a Negotiable
Instrument.
13. a) How can you classify the consumer protection councils in India?
(OR)
b) Mention your suggestions for strengthening the growth of
consumer movement in India.
14. a) Distinguish between Insurance and wager.
(OR)
b) State the terms and conditions of payment of premium by the
insured.
15. a) Define agreement. Explain the prohibition of agreement?
(OR)
b) Write short notes on the following
a) Competition commission penalties
b) Competition Advocacy
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss the duties of Bailor and Bailee.
17. Classify the various types of Negotiable Instruments.
18. Briefly explain the consumer disputes and Regressal.
19. Enumerate the fundamental elements of insurance contract.
20. List down the functions of competition commission and duties of
director general.
*******
18. From the following details, calculate net present value of two projects
and suggest which of the two projects should be accepted assuming a
discount rate of 10%.
Project X Rs. Project Y Rs.
Initial Investment 20,000 30,000
Estimated life 5 years 5 years
Scrap value 1000 2000
The profits before depreciation and after taxes are as follows.
Year 1
Rs.
2
Rs.
3
Rs.
4
Rs.
5
Rs.
Project X 5,000 10,000 10,000 3,000 2,000
Project Y 20,000 10,000 5,000 3,000 2,000
P. V. Factor @ 10% .909 .826 .751 .683 .621
1. From the following information, prepare an estimate of working
capital of Dunlop Ltd.
Average period
of credit
Estimated for
first year. Rs.
Purchase of material 6 months 26,00,000
Wages 1 ½ weeks 19,50,000
Overheads:-
Rent, rate, etc. 6 months 1,00,000
Salaries 1 month 8,00,000
Other overheads 2 months 7,50,000
Cash sales - 2,00,000
Credit sales 3 months 60,00,000
Average amount of stock and WIP - 4,00,000
Average amount of undrawn profits - 3,00,000
Assume that all expenses and income were at an even rate for the year.
2. The Earnings per share of Jasmine Ltd. is Rs.12, the rate of return is
8 % and the capitalisation rate is 10%.
Compute the market price of the share using Walter‟s approach if
payment is a) 25% b) 50% c) 100%
********
Question Code: A30114/ A31114 Sub Code: BCOCR61/ BCACR61
SRI S. RAMASAMY NAIDU MEMORIAL COLLEGE, SATTUR
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. A person who is responsible in a significant way to carry out the finance
functions.
a) Treasurer b) Controller c) Finance Manager d) Control officer
2. Wealth maximisation is also known as _____maximisation.
a) value b) profit c) cost d) sale
3. Capital structure is concerned with _____aspect.
a) Qualitative b) Quantitative c) both (a) and (b) d) financing
4. The par value of stocks and bonds outstanding is termed as
a) Fixed capital b) Capitalisation c) Depression d) Financial planning
5. Under pay back method, a project would be accepted if the period is
a) Higher b) Medium c) Shorter d) All of these
6. Profitability index is also known as _____.
a) P V ratio b) Benefit ratio c) Cost ratios d) Benefit cost ratio
7. ______is the difference between current assets and current liabilities.
a) Net worth b) Net working capital
c) Gross working capital d) Proprietors fund
8. The capital used for meeting routine and repetitive expenses of day – to –
day business operation is called
a) Working capital b) Fixed capital c) Reserve capital d) All of these
9. ______dividend promises to pay the shareholders at a future date.
a) Stock b) Scrip c) Cash d) Property
10. Dividends may be declared in the form of
a) cash only b) bonus shares
c) preference shares d) cash and bonus shares
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) List out the objectives of Financial Management.
(OR)
b) Narrate the scope of Financial Management.
12. a) Calculate the operating and financial leverages.
Sales Rs.50,000 ; Interest Rs. 5,000
Variable cost Rs.25,000 ; Fixed cost Rs.15,000
(OR)
b) Explain briefly the effects of under capitalisation.
13. a) Calculate the Average rate of return for projects A and B from the
following
Project A Project B
Investments Rs.20,000 Rs.30,000
Expected life
(No salvage value)
4 years 5 years
Years Project A Rs. Project B Rs.
1 2,000 3,000
2 1,500 3,000
3 1,500 2,000
4 1,000 1,000
5 - 1,000
6,000 10,000
If the required rate of return is 12%, which project should be
undertaken?
(OR)
b) The following particulars are relating to a project
Cost of the project – Rs.50,500
Annual cash Inflows:
years Rs.
1 5,000
2 20,000
3 30,000
4 30,000
5 10,000
Year 1 2 3 4 5
P.V Factor at 10% .909 .826 .751 .683 .621
Calculate discounted payback period.
14. a) Explain the various types of working capital.
(OR)
b) From the following details, you are required to forecast the working
capital requirements.
Rs.
Project annual sales - 6,50,000
% of net profit to cost sales - 25%
Average credit allowed to Debtors - 10 weeks
Average credit allowed to Creditors - 4 weeks
Average stock carrying -
( in terms of sales Requirement)
8 weeks
Add 20% to allow for contingencies
15. a) The following information relates to Vignesh Ltd.
Earnings per share Rs.9. ; Internal rate of return -18%
Cost of capital - 12% ; Payout ratio - 33.33%
Compute the market price under the Walter‟s model.
(OR)
b) Explain Modigliani – Miller‟s Dividend irrelevance Hypothesis.
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Describe the functions of a Treasurer and controller.
17. What are the major determinants of capital structure?
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Describe the major Models of Man in an Organisation?
7. What is Personality development from Sigmund Fraud‟s point of
view?
8. Discuss the Traits theory of Personality.
9. Describe the factors influencing human interpretation in an
Organisation.
10. Discuss the process involved in Perception.
*******
Question Code: A30403/ A31403 Sub Code: BCOSB61 / BCASB61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT
Time : 2 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. “Human Behaviour is caused”. Examine this statement.
2. Highlight the impact of Personal Biographical factors in determining
individual behavior.
3. Define Personality. List out the different types of Personality.
4. Explain the Type theory of Personality.
5. Explain the internal and external factors affecting Perception.
Question Code: A11111 Sub Code: BELCR62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
WOMEN’S WRITING IN ENGLISH AND IN TRANSLATION
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. ( English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. _______ has parented many languages.
a) India b) USA c) UK d) China
2. In the _______ phase women wrote in an effort to equal the
intellectual achievements of male culture.
a) Feminine b) Feminist c) Female d) Final
3. “I am not that Woman” is written by ________.
a) Razia Khan b) KishwarNaheed
c) Kamala Das d) Alice Walker
4. The poem “Before You Knew You Owned It” talks about _______.
a) love b) reducing our expectations
c) poet‟s love for her grandmother d) depression
5. ______ is rebellious and expresses contempt for familial code.
a) Jyoti b) Bina c) Brati d) Nipa
6. DibyanathChatterjee is a ______ by profession.
a) chartered Accountant b) birth control officer
c) pollution control officer d) Teacher
7. Attitude towards ______ gives vital clues to a character in Sula.
a) family b) sex c) religion d) compassion
8. ______ determines a person‟s opportunity in Sula.
a) Academic progress b) Personality
c) Organisational skill d) Race
9. _____ calls Charlie as „Charlie boy‟.
a) Sally b) Jenny c) Lennie d) Thornton
10. ______ is a Hungarian refugee.
a) Haberman b) Harriet c) Imre d) Pat
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is Showalter‟s perception regarding the Feminist critique?
(OR)
b) Explain the role of gynocritics as proposed by showalter.
12. a) Comment on the speaker‟s agony regarding her daughter in “My
Daughter‟s Boyfriend”.
(OR)
b) Supply your views on the nostalgic element in “My
Grandmother‟s House”.
13. a) How does the traumatic experience that Sujatha faces lead to her
death?
(OR)
b) Comment on the honest commitment that Brati had in his
mission.
14. a) Betrayal appears in relationships in the novel Sula.-Discuss.
(OR)
b) Write a note on the issues of race and gender in Sula.
15. a) Mike in England vs England symbolizes the voice of realism.-
justify.
(OR)
b) Compare and contrast the life styles of the narrator and other
women in “Wife‟s Story”
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Examine the views of Showalter regarding feminist poetics.
17. How does Kishwar Naheed bring the image of the suppressed women
in “I am not that Woman”?
18. Mahasweta Devi‟s portrayal of the plight of women in Mother of
1084 is realistic.-Discuss.
19. Examine the role played by female characters in Sula.
20. Explore the class difference that appear in “England Vs England”.
******
-1-
Question Code : A30115 /A31115 Sub Code: BCOCR62/ BCACR62
SRI S. RAMASAMY NAIDU MEMORIAL COLLEGE, SATTUR
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
INCOME TAX -II
Time : 3 Hrs B. Com & B. Com (CA) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Un absorbed depreciation is adjusted ______ No of years?
a) 10 years b) 8 years
c) 4 years d) any number of years
2. _______Loss cannot be set off against a Salary Income.
a) Business Loss b) L.T. C Loss
c) S.T.C. Loss d) all the above
3. Who is treated as Karta of HUF?
a) Junior Most Male Member b) Senior Most Male Member
c) Senior Most Female member d) Junior Most Female member
4. Who is called super senior citizen?
a) age 40 and above b) age 60 and above
c) age 70 and above d) age 80 and above
5. If Book Loss in PFAS – What is the Maximum Limit of deduction is
allowed U / S 40b?
a) Rs.1,00,000 b) Rs.1,50,000
c) Rs.2,00,000 d) Rs.3,00,000
6. What is the Tax Liability of PFAS (Partnership Firm Assessed as
Such)
a) 20 % of the T.I. b) 30 % of the T. I
c) 35% of the T. I d) 40 % of the T. I
-2-
7. Best Judgement Assessment otherwise called ______.
a) EX – Party Assessment b) Self Assessment
c) Regular Assessment d) None of the above
8. PAN Referred U / S _______.
a) 139 b) 139 A c) 140 d) 140 A
9. TCS Refers to ______.
a) Tax Collected at Source b) Tax Collected at Service
c) Tax Commission Service d) None of the above
10. PAY AS YOU EARN Refers to _______.
a) TDS b) TCS c) Advance Tax d) PAN
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) What is set off and Carry forward of Losses?
(OR)
b) Compute Gross total Income from the following income and loss
of Mr. Y.
Previous year 2015 – 16
House property Loss Rs.2,00, 000
Horse Race loss Rs.1,00,000
Horse Race income Rs. 50,000
Long Term capital loss Rs 1,50,000
Long Term capital gain Rs.1,00,000
S. T. Capital loss Rs. 25,000
Interest on Securities Rs. 50,000
12. a) Write Tax Liability of super senior citizen for the Current
Previous Year 2015 – 16.
(OR)
-3-
b) Mr. X is a Karta of HUF submitted the following details.
Rs.
Rent Received
(Municipal Tax paid Rs.25,000)
2,00,000
Long Term capital gain 1,00,000
Short term capital gain 50,000
Dividend from Indian company 25,000
Director Fees Received by Mr. X 50,000
Salary income Received by Mr. Y 2,00,000
Compute Total Income of HUF?
13. a) What is a partnership? What are the Types of partnership firm for
Assessment purpose?
(OR)
b) From the following Profit and Loss A/c, compute Business Income
of PF AOP.
Profit and Loss A/c
Rs. Rs.
To Salary 2,00,000 By Gross Profit 10,00,000
To Partner salary 1,00,000 By Interest on
securities
2,00,000
To Partner
commission
1,00,000
To Office Expenses 1,00,000
To Partner Interest on
Capital (13%)
50,000
To Donation to
PMNRF
1,00,000
Net Profit 5, 50,000
12,00,000 12,00,000
14. a) Explain Best Judgement Assessment?
(OR)
b) What is PAN? Explain.
-5-
-4-
15. a) What is Tax Clearance Certificate?
(OR)
b) What is Tax Credit Certificate?
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Mr. X whose Gross total income is Rs.40,00,000 makes the
following donation during the previous year ending 31.03.2016.
1. To Prime Minister‟s National Relief Fund Rs.1,00,000
2. To Nations Defence Fund Rs.2,00,000
3. To a Temple of Public worship for its Repaird
( so Notified) Rs.2,00,000
4. To a Local college for constructions of Commerce Block
Rs.1,00,000
5. To a Poor Student as aid Rs.10,000
6. To a Municipal Committee Rs.1,00,000
7. To PGI Chandigarh for promotion of family planning Rs.50,000
8. To Chief Minister Earthquake Relief fund Maharashtra
Rs.20,000
The Gross total income includes Rs.10,00,000 as his share from
an Association of person.
Compute his total income for the Assessment Year 2016 -17.
17. The following particulars have been submitted by Mr. Ram Lal in
the capacity of Karta of Hindu Undivided family for Assessment
purpose.
a) Profit from family business Rs.2,00,000 after charging an
amount of Rs.60,000, Gives as salary to Karta‟s Brother who
has been actively participating in it
b) Salary income of Karta‟s another Brother who is managing a Co
– operative Bank Rs.11,000 p.m.
c) Directors Fees Received by Karta Rs.5,000
(HUF holds 20% shares in A & B company)
d) Bank interest Rs.24,000
e) Long – Term capital gain from the transfer of Building
Rs.28,000
f) Long Term Capital gains from the transfer of Investment
Rs.40,000.
g) Donation to College which is an approved Institutions Rs.40,000
h) Rental value of the property let Rs.36,000 ,
i) Municipal Tax paid in respect of the House Rs.4,500,
j) Interest on Loan taken for the repair of House Rs.12,000.
You are required to compute total Income and Tax liability of
family for the Assessment Year 2016 -17.
18. Ashwani Company Pvt. Ltd. furnish the following information
Rs.
Interest in Securities 10,000
Income from House Property computed 20,000
Income from Business
a) Taxable Manufacturing: Profit as per Profit and
Loss a/c before depreciation
2,00,000
Depreciation 95,000
b) Hosiery Manufacturing:
Profit as per Profit and Loss a/c before
depreciation
75,000
Depreciation 18,000
Agency Business Loss b/f from 2013 -14 15,000
Income from the other sources 20,000
Book profit U/S 115 JB 7,00,000
Compute the Total Income and Tax Liability under MAT for the
Assessment Year 2016 -17.
19. What is Advance Tax? When it Arises? When it is payable to
different types of Assessee?
20. What are the provisions relating to Rectification of mistake U/S 154?
******
Question Code: A11113 Sub Code: BELCR64
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2017
ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEACHING
Time : 3 Hrs B. A. ( English) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. ______ is the associate official language of India.
a) Tamil b) English
c) Sanskrit d) Hindi
2. The objectives in the _____ domain are important at the initial stages
of speaking and writing.
a) Cognitive b) Psychomotor
c) reasoning d) logical
3. The _____method is a non-translation method.
a) Translation b) Structural
c) Direct d) Communicative
4. ______ came into being as a revolt against Traditional grammar.
a) Structural linguistics b) Translation
c) Situational Approach d) Communicative Approach
5. The _______is meant for teaching vocabulary and sentence structures.
a) Prose b) Poem
c) Composition d) Extensive Reading
6. _______ grammar is incidental learning of the grammar of the
language.
a) Formal b) Functional
c) Theoretical d) Transformational
7. Articulating the sound of the respective phonemes and associating
them with written symbols is called_______ method.
a) Alphabetic b) Phonetic
c) Phonic d) Non-letter
8. _______ is one of the pre-listening activities.
a) Brainstorming b) Dramatization
c) Role-play d) Story-telling
9. ______ is given in psychological professions and problem-solving
case studies.
a) Brainstorming b) Role play
c) Dramatization d) Puzzle
10. The teacher can use _____ effectively while teaching a story in the
extensive reader.
a) Role play b) Brainstorming
c) Dramatization d) puzzles
PART –B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Write a short note on English as an international language.
(OR)
b) What are the objectives of Teaching English?
12. a) Explain the Direct Method in language teaching.
(OR)
b) What is situational Approach in language teaching?
13. a) How is grammar taught in a class?
(OR)
b) What are the steps involved in teaching composition?
14. a) Explain the three phases of listening.
(OR)
b) Write about the importance of phonetics in improving
speaking skill.
15. a) Write a short note on Role play in language teaching?
(OR)
b) How far is Computer Aided Language Learning effective in
language teaching?
PART – C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Write an essay on the role of English in India.
17. Explain the Structural Approach in language teaching.
18. What are the objectives and steps in teaching a prose lesson?
19. What are the methods to be followed in enhancing reading skill?
20. Discuss the role of audio-visual aids in language teaching.
******
Part B
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 15 = 45 marks)
6. Explain the duties and responsibilities of a Journalist.
7. Write an essay on Press and its privileges in India.
8. How did the press protect the rights of people in democracy?
9. Estimate the functions of News Agencies.
10. Examine the significance of press council of India.
*******
Question Code : A10406 Sub Code: BHYSB62
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
SKILL BASED SUBJECT
JOURNALISM
Time : 2 Hrs B. A. (History) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
1. Define – Journalism.
2. Mention the principles of Journalism.
3. State the constitutional rights of press.
4. Narrate the freedom of press in democracy.
5. Summarise the importance of Official Secret Act.
Question Code: Sub Code: BCSCR61 / UCSCR61
Sri S. Ramasamy Naidu Memorial College, Sattur
END SEMESTER EXAMINATIONS, APRIL- 2018
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
Time : 3 Hrs B. Sc. ( Computer Science) Max. Marks: 75
Part A
Answer ALL questions, choose the correct answer (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
1. Smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called
_____.
a) Picture element b) Point
c) Dot Pitch d) aspect ratio
2. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using ______.
a) Accelerating anode b) Control grid
c) Electron gun d) Focusing anode
3. ______ controls the basic display properties of output primitives.
a) Attribute parameter b) setpixel
c) getpixel d) None of the above
4. The simplest output primitive is _______.
a) Straight line b) Straight line segment
c) Point d) Circle
5. _____controls the basic display properties of output primitives.
a) Attribute parameter b) setpixel
c) getpixel d) None of the above
6. ______is defined as the distance between the baseline and cap line of
the character body.
a) Character Size b) Character Height
c) Character Width d) Character Length
7. The basic transformations include ______.
a) Translation b) Rotation
c) Scaling d) All of the above
8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where
the image will actually appear are called _____.
a) Transformation viewing b) View port
c) Clipping window d) Screen coordinate system
9. The region code of a point within the window is ______.
a) 1111 b) 0000 c) 1000 d) 0001
10. Identify an relative locator device from the following:
a) Mouse b) Touch panel
c) Light pen d) Keyboard
Part B
Answer ALL the questions (5 x 7 = 35 marks)
11. a) Explain the usage of Computer Graphics in Education and
Training, Computer Aided Design and Image Processing.
(or)
b) Explain the various Input devices of Graphics.
12. a) Explain the Bresenham‟s Line Generation Algorithm.
(or)
b) Write short notes on Character Generation.
13. a) Discuss the usage of Curve Attributes.
(or)
b) Discuss the usage of Bundled Attributes.
14. a) Write short notes on Homogeneous Coordinates.
(or)
b) Explain Viewing Pipeline.
15. a) Discuss Polygon Clipping Algorithm.
(or)
b) Explain the different Graphical User Interfaces.
Part C
Answer any THREE questions (3 x 10 = 30 marks)
16. Discuss in detail about Video Display Devices.
17. Explain Ellipse Generating Algorithm with example.
18. Discuss in detail about Color and Gray Scale Levels.
19. Write short notes on i) Basic 2D transformations ii) Viewing
Transformation.
20. Explain Cohen Sutherland Line Clipping algorithm.
*******