Temple University

College of Engineering

ENVT 0845-THE ENVIRONMENT Review-Exam# 2

Name: _________________________ Date: _____________

1. The three basic kinds of interaction between species are:

A) there are more than three basic kinds of interaction

B) symbiosis, predation-parasitism and migration

C) competition, symbiosis and predation-parasitism

D) competition, parasitism and adaptive radiation

E) migration, symbiosis and adaptive radiation

2. The two processes that lead to biological evolution are:

A) changing cell structures and self-reproduction over time

B) natural selection and mutation

C) self-reproduction and natural selection

D) reproduction and natural selection

E) mutation and changing cell structures over time

3. Principle that species with identical requirements cannot coexist in a habitat:

A) genetic diversity

B) ecological gradient

C) mutation

D) genetic drift

E) competitive exclusion

4. "Ecological gradient" refers to:

A) Interaction of species to benefit one another

B) change in the relative abundance of a species over an area

C) the Competitive Exclusion Principle

D) the variation in the number of species from the equator to the poles

E) increasing extinction of species through time

Page 15. Which population is most likely to exhibit an evolutionary response to a change in its

environment?

A) A population on an isolated island

B) A population which undergoes genetic drift The three major forces of evolution are mutation, selection, and randomgenetic drift

C) A population which has high genetic variability

D) A population in which all organisms are genetically identical and which has a high

reproductive rate

E) A population in which the effect of intraspecific competition is reduced by

behavioral adaptations

##6. Biological evolution matches most closely to which of the following descriptions:

A) the change of inherited characteristics of a population

B) the preservation of endangered species

C) the origins of life

D) genetic drift over time

E) self-reproduction of a population over time

7. The geographic distribution of living things is called:

A) biosphere

B) biogeography

C) biogeographic province

D) biome

E) biotic province

8. A major ecological community characterized by a dominant vegetation type is called

a(n):

A) biotic province

B) biosphere

C) biome

D) biogeography

E) biogeographic province

9. Similar environments in different locations lead to the evolution of species with:

A) similar predators

B) the same behavior, but different bodily adaptations

C) different biotic provinces

D) similar adaptations

E) symbiotic relationships

Page 210. Common vegetation in the __________ biome include deciduous trees, and dominant

animals tend to be small mammals, birds, and insects.

A) temperate forests

B) tropical rain forests

C) tropical savannas

D) temperate shrub lands

E) wetlands

11. A species introduced into a new geographical area is called a(n):

A) abundant species

B) ubiquitous species

C) exotic species

D) anemic species

E) endemic species

12. __________ are treeless plains in areas of low annual temperatures and low rainfall.

A) Deserts

B) Temperate grasslands

C) Benthos

D) Tundra

E) Taiga

13. Which of the following is an example of an ecological island?

A) a stand of trees within the prairie

B) a city park

C) an oasis in the desert

D) a pond in the woods

E) all of the above

14. Since the extensive fires in Yellowstone National Park in 1988, the park often has been

cited as an example of the connection between forest fire and natural succession. An

important part of understanding the danger of wildfire in Yellowstone is understanding

its history. From the time of the founding of the park in 1872 until 1963, what was the

policy regarding wildfires?

A) to allow all fires started naturally to burn naturally

B) to allow fires in areas with species that need fire to reproduce

C) to suppress all fires

D) park officials set annual control burns

E) seasonal control – suppress fires during the tourist season

Page 315. Which of the following exotic species has become established in the Florida

Everglades?

A) pythons

B) grizzly bears

C) bison

D) mountain goats

E) cobras

16. Which of the following practices is consistent with the “balance of nature” concept that

has been prevalent in thinking about the natural environment?

A) left undisturbed, any form of nature will degenerate

B) left undisturbed, most forms of nature will persist indefinitely

C) exotics are perfectly interchangeable with natives in an undisturbed environment

D) humans can always improve a natural setting

E) nature never responds to human interference

17. In the following list, pick which type of environment is restored more often than the

others:

A) sand dunes

B) deserts

C) rivers streams and wetlands

D) mountains

E) beaches

18. What percentage of wetlands have been lost in the United States?

A) 90%

B) 70%

C) 10%

D) 20%

E) 50%

19. The Kissimmee River project cited in the Environmental Science text is an example of:

A) the clogging of a river by aquatic plants

B) the drying up of a river

C) the channelization and straightening of a natural river

D) the accumulation of pollution in a river

E) the invasion of a river by exotics

Page 420. Which of the following changes to an ecosystem is considered unnatural?

A) flooding

B) wildfire

C) windstorms

D) introduction of an exotic species

E) all of the above are considered natural

21. Which of the terms below refers to the farming of foods in marine and freshwater

habitats:

A) agriculture

B) forage crops

C) mariculture

D) subsistence crops

E) aquaculture

22. Which of the following refers to lack of a specific chemical component of food:

A) miasma

B) undernourishment

C) malnourishment

D) nonnourishment

E) famine

23. Crops grown as food for domestic animals are called:

A) range land crops

B) forage crops

C) agricrops

D) subsistence crops

E) domestic crops

24. Monoculture is associated with:

A) decreased likelihood of crop diseases

B) decreases in organic matter in the soil

C) gain of chemical elements in the soil

D) a high variety of crops produced

E) constant agro-ecosystem

Page 525. The majority of the world's food supply is obtained by:

A) industrial production

B) cattle ranching

C) hunting and gathering

D) agriculture

E) fishing and aquaculture in oceans and freshwater lakes

26. Irrigation of plants refers to:

A) the growing of plants in a nutrient rich solution

B) artificial addition of water

C) the spraying of pesticides

D) artificial addition of fertilizers

E) the crossing of one or more varieties of species to produce an offspring with

particular desired qualities

27. What is the most important cause of starvation worldwide?

A) global warming

B) droughts

C) inadequate distribution of food resources

D) genetically engineered crops replacing local crops

E) floods

28. What is the main effect of year-to-year variability in climate on the ability of a county to

feed its population?

A) variable climates are dryer than more steady ones

B) countries with more variable climates have better distribution systems for food

C) food supply may be adequate in normal years, but periodic subaverage years may

cause famine

D) variable climates cause severe sediment pollution

E) variable climates deplete soil of its fertility

29. Use of predators, parasites, and competitors for pest control defines which of the

following?

A) biological pest control

B) integrated waste management

C) secondary pest outbreaks

D) effective methods for controlling malaria

E) game ranching

Page 630. Eating low on the food chain is more efficient than eating high on it. However

according to the Environmental Science text, conversion of all present rangeland to crop

land would increase environmental damage because:

A) not all land is suitable for agriculture; some is better suited to grazing

B) the process of land conversion itself is more damaging than any single, sustained

type of land-use

C) agriculture contributes methane, a greenhouse gas, to the atmosphere, but grazing

does not

D) agriculture requires clearing of the land, whereas grazing cattle can be done

without clearing sensitive tropical forests

E) contrary to common belief, grazing is beneficial to the environment, increasing

ecological diversity and resilience

31. About one-third (~33%) of the Earth's land has climates that should produce deserts, but

about 43% actually is desert. What one dominant force is believed to be the cause of

this excess desert land?

A) agriculture

B) changing climates since the last Ice Age

C) human activities

D) irrigation

E) global warming

32. Which of the following is not a major symptom of desertification?

A) loss of natural native vegetation

B) pollution by sediment, fertilizers, and pesticides

C) increased salt content of the soil

D) increased soil erosion

E) lowering of the water table

33. In the recent past, the single most effective method to reduce soil erosion has been:

A) crop rotation

B) increased use of herbicides

C) contour plowing

D) introduction of genetically modified crops

E) increased irrigation

34. What practice has greatly increased the farm yield per unit area

A) modern fertilizers

B) irrigation

C) weed control

D) contour plowing

E) pest control

Page 735. Which of the following is a true statement about insect pests in agriculture:

A) DDT is no longer used anywhere

B) insect pests are the leading cause of lost crop production

C) slash-and-burn agriculture eliminates pest problems

D) the cheapest and most effective method is biological

E) the only effective control method is chemical pesticides

36. What is the major product of photosynthesis?

A) proteins

B) carbon dioxide

C) water

D) sugar

E) nitrogen

37. Which of the following terms refers to the accumulation of a substance in living tissue

as it moves through the food web:

A) particulates

B) threshold

C) biomagnification

D) dose response

E) synergism

38. Which of the following is a true statement about the health risks from synthetic organic

compounds:

A) synthetic organic compounds today are used in a wide variety of products

B) all of the statements above are correct

C) not all organic compounds are hazardous to human health

D) some synthetic organic compounds are very toxic even at very low concentrations

E) some synthetic organic compounds are fat-soluble and subject to biomagnification

39. A carcinogen is a particular kind of:

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) II and III

E) I and III

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II. toxin that may cause cancer

III. pollutant that affects the DNA

I. therapy to treat cancer40. Which of the following examples is not a pollution point source:

A) air pollution from the smoke stack of a large chemical plant

B) water pollution from an oil refinery

C) contamination of groundwater from a solid waste landfill

D) chemicals leaked into a stream from an accidental spill

E) air pollution from automobile exhaust

41. Point C is a significant threshold. What does point C signify?

A) death of 50% of a test population

B) death of 100% of a test population

C) first measurable effects

D) harm exceeds benefits

E) maximum benefit

42. Which of the following terms refers to energy that is stored; for example the

gravitational energy of water behind a dam:

A) soft path energy

B) cogeneration

C) first-law efficiency

D) kinetic energy

E) potential energy

Page 943. At position 4 in the figure below, the car is accelerating. The energy that causes that

acceleration is coming from:

A) chemical potential energy

B) potential energy

C) heat

D) kinetic energy

E) momentum

44. The majority of Earth's energy input comes from:

A) combustion of fossil fuels

B) geothermal heat from the Earth's interior

C) the Earth's albedo

D) photolysis of ozone in the stratosphere

E) sunlight

45. The first law of thermodynamics states that:

A) energy is never created, never destroyed, but always preserved

B) energy is measured in joules, power in watts

C) efficiency of energy conversion is always less than 100%

D) energy can go from higher quality forms to lower, but not in the opposite direction

E) the present is the key to the past

46. The second law of thermodynamics states that:

A) energy is never created, never destroyed, but always preserved

B) the present is the key to the past

C) energy can go from higher quality forms to lower, but not in the opposite direction

D) efficiency of energy conversion is always less than 100%

E) energy is measured in joules, power in watts

Page 1047. Soft path energy is characterized as:

A) high quality, high technology, based on new sources

B) diverse, low quality energy, based on renewable sources

C) centralized, based on applying high-tech solutions to improve efficiency and yield

D) focused on conservation, centralized, and high technology

E) low technology, decentralized, with zero effect on the environment

48. Which energy transformation occurs as a book falls from the top of your book shelf

towards the floor?

A) the book's potential energy decreases and it's kinetic energy increases

B) according to the first law of thermodynamics, both energies stay the same

C) the book's potential energy and kinetic energy decreases

D) the book's potential energy increases and it's kinetic energy decreases

E) the book's potential energy and kinetic energy increase

49. Which of the following describes the term “cogeneration” best:

A) the capture and use of waste heat

B) a more efficient production of heat energy

C) generation of heat energy in a cycle

D) using alternative and traditional power supplies together

E) none of the above

50. According to the Environmental Science text, the estimated peak oil production will

about 50 billion bbl per year and it will arrive sometime between 2020 and 2050. In

2004 the growth rate for oil was 3.4% . What will happen when the peak production

occurs and demand is not met?

A) disruption to society is likely to happen

B) a gap between demand and production will occur

C) the price of oil will increase

D) all of the above

E) the predicted peak production will never take place because there are many

unknown reserves to be discovered

51. Oil production, refining, and transportation have been associated with all of the

following environmental problems except:

A) acid mine drainage

B) disturbance of the land surface

C) release of harmful gases

D) pollution of groundwater

E) land subsidence

Page 1152. Which of these sets of adjectives all describe the formation of oil, gas, and coal?

A) inorganic, buried, oxidized

B) organic, eroded, reduced

C) organic, buried, not oxidized

D) acidic, subducted, oxidized

E) inorganic, subducted, not oxidized

53. The purpose of enhanced (or “secondary) production of petroleum is to:

A) recover heavier and denser oil than flows to the surface under natural pressure or

pumping

B) refine crude oil into gasoline, plastics, and petrochemicals

C) recover natural gas from oil wells

D) mitigate the environmental effects of primary production

E) drill for oil in deeper water than conventional production allows

54. In some ways, natural gas is considered a better fossil fuel than oil. This is primarily

because:

A) burning natural gas is cleaner than burning oil

B) gas is found at shallower depths than oil

C) once a reservoir is located, gas commands a higher price than oil

D) gas is easier to transport over long distances than oil

E) gas is a renewable resource

55. Petroleum is usually found in which of the following situations?

A) a porous reservoir rock, overlain by an organic-rich source rock

B) a coarse and porous reservoir rock, overlain by an impermeable cap rock

C) a dense organic-rich cap rock overlain by porous source rock

D) a fine-grained reservoir rock, overlain by an organic-rich cap rock

E) an anticline or other trap overlain by porous reservoir rock

56. Fuel cells produce __________ using __________.

A) heat; electricity

B) light; heat

C) electricity; light

D) carbon dioxide; biofuel

E) electricity; hydrogen or methane

Page 1257. One of the principal advantages of photovoltaic cells is that they:

A) do emit CO2, but they do not emit the SO2 that leads to acid rain

B) convert 80-90% of solar energy into electricity

C) can be produced inexpensively, although costs are rising

D) are made from “Earth-friendly” materials

E) can be used for power in remote locations

58. Which of the following is the greatest environmental impact of using biofuels:

A) accumulation of large volumes of waste material

B) air pollution

C) destruction of ozone in the stratosphere

D) creation of toxic byproducts

E) acid rain

59. Wind power is a clean energy source, but according to its detractors in some locations,

it is associated with __________ pollution.

A) water

B) thermal

C) noise

D) air

E) particulate

60. The primary sources of biofuel in India, an example of a developing country, are:

A) wood and cattle dung

B) wood and coal

C) nuclear and wood

D) oil and coal

E) methanol and cattle dung

61. Direct conversion of electricity using sunlight, without using an intermediate fluid

medium, is accomplished by:

A) power towers

B) photovoltaic cells

C) thermal conversion

D) solar collectors

E) passive solar systems

Page 1362. A tidal power station is constructed at the location shown in the figure on the left.

Using the tide chart in the figure on the right, this facility would be generating power at

_________ and would be idle at _________?

A) noon; midnight

B) noon; 6 am

C) 6 am; noon

D) 3 pm; 9 am

E) noon; 3 pm

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