upsc civil services (pre) exam...

28
1. Which of the following Biosphere reserves in India are part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list? 1. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve 2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve 3. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve 4. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve 5. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve 6. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve 7. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4, 6 and 7 (c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 (d) All of these 2. Which of the following statements regarding CITES are correct? 1. It lists several species of animals and birds in which trade is prohibited. 2. USA is not a party to the convention. 3. It is also known as Washington Convention. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Stage 1 KNOW TREND the UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (PRE) EXAM General Studies Practice Set 1 Paper 1 Time : 2 hrs MM : 200 Instructions 1. This set contains 100 questions. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, if you feel that the correct response is more than one, then mark the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each questions. 2. All questions carry equal marks. 3. Penalty for Wrong Answer (i) There are four alternatives to answer every question. If a question is marked wrong, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even, if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as to that question, if it has a penalty. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the cnadidate, there wil be no penalty for that question.

Upload: dobao

Post on 03-Apr-2018

219 views

Category:

Documents


5 download

TRANSCRIPT

1. Which of the following Biosphere reserves in India are part of the World Network of Biosphere

Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list?

1. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve 2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

3. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve 4. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

5. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve 6. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve

7. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4, 6 and 7

(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 (d) All of these

2. Which of the following statements regarding CITES are correct?

1. It lists several species of animals and birds in which trade is prohibited.

2. USA is not a party to the convention.

3. It is also known as Washington Convention.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

Sta

ge1

KN

OW

TR

EN

Dth

e

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (PRE) EXAM

General Studies

Practice Set 1

Paper 1

Time : 2 hrs MM : 200

Instructions

1. This set contains 100 questions. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response whichyou want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, if you feel that the correct response is more than one, then mark theresponse, which you consider the best. In any case, choose only one response for each questions.

2. All questions carry equal marks.

3. Penalty for Wrong Answer

(i) There are four alternatives to answer every question. If a question is marked wrong, one-third of the marks assignedto that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even, if one of the given answershappens to be correct and there will be same penalty as to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the cnadidate, there wil be no penalty for that question.

3. Consider the following statements regarding 2011 census.

1. Kerala has registered the lowest growth rate of population in 2011 census.

2. The Northern part of the India has recorded high growth rate of population than Southern India.

3. The decadal growth rate of India’s population is recorded higher than previous census.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

4. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Hadis : Sayings and doings of the prophet

2. Zawabit : Islamic law

3. Fatwa : Islamic legal decision

4. Farman : Rules and regulations framed by the sultans

5. Shariat : Royal order

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights described in the

Constitution.

1. Laws seeking to give effect to Fundamental Rights can be made by both Parliament and StateLegislatures.

2. Any of the Fundamental Rights given in Part III of the Constitution can be amended by Parliament.

3. All the Fundamental Rights are applicable only against the actions of the state and not those of privateindividuals.

4. All Fundamental Rights are negative in nature i.e. they impose restrictions upon the actions of others.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

6. Which of the following factors have led to the decline in the working of Indian Parliament?

1. Growth of delegated legislation.

2. Low level of attendance in Parliament.

3. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.

4. Frequent amendment of the Constitution.

5. Set block in Parliamentary behaviour and ethics.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 5

7. Consider the following about Mudiyettu form of traditional theatre.

1. It is the traditional theatre of Tamil Nadu.

2. It enacts the mythological battle between ‘Kali’ and demon Darika.

3. In 2010, Mudiyettu was recognised by UNESCO in the list of intangible cultural heritage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

8. Consider the following statements, with reference to Bharat Stage Emission Standards.

1. These are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of airpollutants from internal combustion engine equipment, including motor vehicles.

2. The stoppage of production of Maruti-800 is because of regulation of emission.

3. At present India has adopted Bharat Stage -V emission norms.

4. Under Bharat Stage - III, two wheelers were allowed to emit upto 1g/km of carbon monoxide.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these

2 Practice Set 1

9. Arrange the following mountain ranges of Peninsular India from North to South.

1. Maikala range 2. Balaghat range 3. Kaimur range 4. Ajanta range

Codes

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Consider the following statements.

1. These are the most widespread forests of India. They are also called the monsoon forests and spreadover the region receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm.

2. Teak is the most dominant species of this forest, Bamboos, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood, Khair, KusumArjun, Malberry are other commercially important species.

To which type of forests in India does above description refer to?

(a) Tropical deciduous forests (b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Montane forests (d) Montane forests

11. The ultrasound technique is used frequently in obstetrics instead of X-rays based techniques.

What are the principles behind this?

1. Ultrasound is a non-ionising imaging technique.

2. Ultrasound gives a clear picture of soft tissues, which do not show up in X-rays.

3. Ultrasound causes almost no health problems (for a mother or unborn foetus).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

12. Consider the following statements regarding 21st Law Commission of India.

1. It constituted for a period of 3 years with effect from 1st September, 2015 to 31st August, 2018.

2. It undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein andenacting new legislations.

3. The Secretary Department of Legal Affairs is the only ex-officio member of the commission.

4. Its function is to suggest enactment of new legislations to implement the Directive Principles and toattain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution as well.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these

13. Consider the following statements, with reference to Liquid Apogee Motor (LAM).

1. It refers to a rocket motor that is regularly employed on artificial satellites destined for a geostationaryorbit.

2. They often employ bipropellant engine.

3. India’s GSAT-SP will use LAM in its mission.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these

14. Which of the following is the reason for considering insider trading as harmful to the domestic

economy and illegal?

(a) It hurts the economic growth of a nation, increases inflation and Current Account Deficit (CAD)

(b) It results in crash of the security markets which are so vital for channeling savings in the domestic

economy

(c) It distorts the level-playing field between investors in the stock market and makes the markets

susceptible to heavy speculation

(d) Speculation by individual investors is illegal and hurts the retail investors

3Stage 1 Know the Trend

15. Consider the following statements related to NITI Aayog.

1. NITI Aayog is non-constitutional non-statutory body as Planning Commission was.

2. NITI Aayog will enjoy more financial powers than Planning Commission.

3. All members of the NITI Aayog will be full time members.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

16. Which of the following did not follow in the wake of the extensive tour undertaken by Mahatma

Gandhi during 1933-34 in the cause of the upliftment of the Harijans?

(a) Admission of the untouchables to the Guruvayur, temple in Kerala

(b) Admission of the untouchables to the Golden Temple at Amritsar

(c) Introduction of legislation in the Central Legislative Assembly for the abolition of untouchability

(d) Introduction of legislation in the Madras legislature for the abolition of untouchability

17. Consider the following statements about the gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under

the British rule was due to

1. fragmentation of landholdings. 2. decline of cottage industries.

3. lack of development of irrigational facilities. 4. introduction of cash crops.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these

18. Which statements regarding Savanna region are correct?

1. Savanna is a tropical grassland.

2. Savanna eco-region is also called world’s paradise of hunters.

3. In Savanna region trees are sparse and chemo-resistance.

4. Savanna eco-regions has maximum biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these

19. What are the ways, in which the union exercises control over State Legislation?

1. Certain bills passed by the State Legislature have to be compulsorily reserved by the Governor for theconsideration of the President.

2. Governor can also reserve State Bills for the consideration of the President, if he feels that the bills areagainst the constitutional provisions, if it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

3. Certain category of Money Bills passed by the State Legislature have to be compulsorily reserved for theconsideration of the President.

4. During financial emergency, Money Bills of State Legislatures need prior recommendation of thePresident before being introduced.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

20. Which of the following statements is not one of the effects of proclamation of National Emergency

on Fundamental Rights of citizens?

1. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 get automatically suspended under any proclamation of NationalEmergency.

2. Fundamental Rights except those under Article 20 and 21 can be suspended by the President underemergency through his order.

3. Any law made by Parliament under an emergency cannot be declared to be void on the grounds that, itviolates a Fundamental Rights under Article 19.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these

4 Practice Set 1

21. Consider the following statements regarding black soils.

1. These are poor in nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and organic matter and rich in potash and lime.

2. These are porous, friable in nature.

3. These suited for dry farming as it does not require much moisture.

4. These soils expand when wet and become difficult to plough.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these

22. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of dynasties of Delhi Sultanate in the order of

early medieval history to middle medieval history?

(a) Slave dynasty, Khiljis, Tughlaqs (b) Tughlaqs, Mameluks, Khiljis

(c) Khiljis, Slave dynasty, Tughlaqs (d) Tughlaqs, Slave dynasty, Khiljis

23. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Himalayan Yew?

(a) Bird species known for its long beautiful white feathers

(b) A sub-species of owl which is bigger in size than any other owl species in the world

(c) A medicinal plant known from which world famous anti-cancer drug is produced

(d) None of the above

24. Which of the following statements about Agenda 21 is/are correct?

1. Agenda 21 is a binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development.

2. The ‘21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21 important points that are need to be implemented by all thecountries.

3. In 2012, at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development the attending membersreaffirmed their commitment to Agenda 21 in their outcome document called ‘The Future We Want’.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) Only 3 (d) All of these

25. One of the key features of many flagship schemes such as MGNREGA and NRLM is that they are

‘Demand Driven’. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of a demand driven

programme?

1. The process is driven from the grassroots of the society.

2. Highly centralised planning.

3. Implementation is largely done by the Central Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

26. Consider the following statements about India Water Week (IWW)-2016.

1. It is based on the theme ‘Water for All : Striving Together’.

2. International Commission on Irrigation and Drainage (ICID) plans to organise first ‘India IrrigationForum 2016.’

3. Conceptualised and organised for the first time in 2012, the India Water Week is an annual forum wherethe Ministry of Water Resources strategies for conservation, preservation and optimum use of availablewater.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

5Stage 1 Know the Trend

27. Consider the following statements about honey.

1. It is a food stored by bees in their hives.

2. Honeybees transform nectar into honey by a process of regurgitation and evaporation.

3. Most microorganisms do not grow in honey because of its high water activity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

28. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

1. Revenue assignments : Bhoga or Fief

2. Twice born or privileged : Dvija

3. Untouchables : Antyaja

4. Marriage according to norm : Pratilom

Codes

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these

29. Consider the following statements regarding Madurai - Coimbatore - Bengaluru region.

1. It is a predominantly cotton and sugarcane growing region.

2. Mettur hydel power project provide energy to this region.

3. The region also support heavy industries such as heavy engineering, locomotive and heavy electricals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. As the distance from the sea increases, people experience extreme weather conditions. This conditionis known as Continentality.

2. Ocean currents alongwith onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas.

3. The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. Thus, itinfluences the temperature and rainfall pattern.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

31. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

Traditional Puppets Region

(a) Tholu Bommalata : Andhra Pradesh

(b) Putul Nach : Bengal

(c) Togalu Gombeyatta : Kerala

(d) Yampuri : Bihar

32. Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1858.

1. The East India Company’s control came to an end.

2. The Board of Directors was abolished.

3. The basic court of proprietors came to an end.

4. Secretary of state became a member of British Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) None of these (d) All of these

33. Consider the following statements regarding Biomes.

1. Biomes are classified on the basis of climatic parameters only.

2. Biomes are unaffected by human activities.

3. Each biome type occurs in every continent except Antarctica.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

6 Practice Set 1

34. Which of the following climatic factors regulate decomposition in the natural environment?

1. Soil moisture 2. Temperature 3. Wind

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

35. Which of the following mission mode projects are exclusively implemented by the State

Governments under National e-Governance Plan?

1. Education 2. Health

3. PDS 4. Agriculture

5. Insurance 6. Banking

7. Road transport

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 7 (d) 1, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following statements with reference to the distribution of volcanoes around the

world.

1. The Atlantic costs have many active volcanoes.

2. The Pacific ocean has highest number of active volcanoes in its coasts thanks to folded and faulted landforms.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following proposals.

1. All parties would be allowed to express their stance on the partition and their views before theplebiscite.

2. Division, if required, should be by plebiscite by the total population. The participants of plebisciteshould be decided based on education, wealth and social status.

3. The transfer of population, if any would be absolutely on a voluntary basis.

Which of the above proposals were include in C Rajgopalachari formula (1944)?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

38. Consider the following statements.

1. The Godavari is largest peninsular river and also known as Dakshin Ganga.

2. It originates Mahabaleshwar in Shahyadri.

3. Its major part is navigable.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

39. Consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Union and the States.

1. The Union Government has unlimited powers to borrow from anywhere and for any amount.

2. State Governments can borrow from outside India, but only with the permission of the centre.

3. State Governments have unlimited powers to borrow from inside India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these

7Stage 1 Know the Trend

40. Which of the following statements regarding the Department Related Standing Committees are

correct?

1. These committees are meant only for scrutinising the budget during the recess of Parliament in thebudget session.

2. The members of these committees are elected based on proportional representation by a singletransferable vote.

3. The report of the committee on budgetary proposals can contain recommendations for cut motions also.

4. All these committees function under the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) All of these (d) None of these

41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Eutrophication?

1. It decreases the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).

2. It is caused only due to human activities.

3. It increases the biomass of the phytoplanktons.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3

42. A soil affected by intensive leaching and rich in iron oxide, aluminium compound and potash, but

poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, making it unsuitable for cultivation and

is commonly found in which of the following Indian states?

1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Uttar Pradesh

5. Haryana

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 4 and 5 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

43. Consider the following statements about the Odissi dance.

1. Odissi evolved independently apart from the tenets of Natyashastra.

2. Its techniques combine two basic postures of Chowk and Tribhanga.

3. The ‘Chowk’ is a very masculine stance with the weight of body equally balanced.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

44. Consider the following statements regarding Saline soils.

1. Saline soils also known as Usara soils occur in arid and semi-arid region and in water logged andswampy areas.

2. Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy. They lack in nitrogen and calcium.

3. In the areas of intensive cultivation with excessive use of irrigation, especially in areas of greenrevolution the fertile alluvial soils are becoming saline soils.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

45. The main objective of the National Development Council is

1. to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.

2. to strengthen and mobilise the efforts and resources of the nation in support of the plan.

3. to ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of country.

4. to secure cooperation of states in execution of the plan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these

8 Practice Set 1

46. Which of the following statements regarding the Right to Equality in the chapter on Fundamental

Rights in the Constitution are incorrect?

1. Equality before the law is an absolute right.

2. Equality of opportunity can be violated in favour of women.

3. Abolition of titles means titles given by foreign countries also.

4. Constitution provides for exceptions to right to equality in favour of backward castes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

47. Consider the following statements about Bihu festivals of Asom.

1. The Bihu festivals are associated with different farming seasons of Asom.

2. Assamese celebrate three types of Bihus namely Rongaali Bihu, Kaati Bihu and Magh Bihu.

3. These three Bihus mark distinct phases of the wheat crop grown in Asom.

4. Rongaali Bihu marks the starting of Assamese new year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these

48. Consider the following statements in respect of the Regulating Act of 1773.

1. The tenure of the Council members depended on the pleasure of the Governor-General.

2. The Governor-General in Council was empowered with the provision of casting vote.

3. The Governor-General in Council was vested with civil and military powers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

49. Which of the following local winds are warm winds?

1. Mistral 2. Chinook 3. Foehn 4. Sirocco

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Block mountains?

1. Block mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically.

2. The uplifted blocks are termed as graben and the lowered blocks are called horsts.

3. The Aravali range in India is one of the oldest Block mountain systems in the world. The range hasconsiderably worn down due to the processes of erosion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

51. Which of the following statements correctly defines the Phillips curve?

(a) It shows the relationship between tax revenue collection and tax rate

(b) It indicates the variation of productivity of a firm with the change in the capital investment

(c) It shows the relationship between per-capita income and population

(d) It shows the relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment

52. Consider the following statements.

1. The anti-defection law gives for the first time a clear-cut constitutional recognition to the politicalparties.

2. The total number of Minister including the Prime Minister in the Central Council of Minister shall notexceed 10% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9Stage 1 Know the Trend

53. Consider the following statements with reference to digestion in grass eating animals.

1. They quickly swallow the grass and store it in a separate part of the stomach called rumen.

2. Partially digested food in the rumen is called cud.

3. In ruminants, the cellulose of the food is digested by the action of certain bacteria which are not presentin humans.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 (b) l and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

54. Consider the following statements about Indian Nationalist Army (INA).

1. INA or Azad Hind Fauj was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose with the help of Japanese in 1942 inSingapore.

2. INA was initially composed of the captured Indian army soldiers at Malaya.

3. Subhash Chandra Bose silently left Calcutta in January 1941 and reached Singapore where he wasgiven the title of ‘Netaji’.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2

(c) Only 3 (d) All of these

55. Consider the following about the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

1. Tribal people of Rajasthan who protect wildlife in the desert regions.

2. Individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication inprotecting wildlife.

3. People who practice Transhumance in the forest and hilly regions who protect traditional knowledge.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) All of these (d) None of these

56. Consider the following statements regarding Mission Indradhanush.

1. It is a mission under the Ministry Health and Family Welfare.

2. It is a mission to achieve full immunisation coverage for all children by 2020.

3. Mission aims to cover all those children who are either unvaccinated or are partially vacinated againstseven preventable diseases.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) All of these (d) None of these

57. Which of the following methods were included in the nationalist programme duringNon-Cooperation movement?

1. Surrender of titles. 2. Boycott of English education.

3. Boycott of courts of law. 4. Boycott of foreign clothes.

5. Non-payment of taxes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these

58. Consider the statements regarding Gupta Period.

1. During this period, many new towns were raised, all old towns were fortified or atleast strengthened

and no old towns declined in North India.

2. Guptas possessed a large quality of gold and issued purest quality of gold coins.

3. Images of Vishnu, Shiva and other Hindu Gods were fashioned for the first time during this period.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

10 Practice Set 1

59. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for West Bengal being the largest producer ofJute in India?

1. It experiences high temperature and receives high rainfall.

2. Annual flood-silts provide natural fertiliser.

3. It has the highest concentration of Jute mills.

4. It is located at the seaport.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these

60. How is the independence of the Supreme Court ensured in the Constitution?

1. Retired judges of Supreme Court are prohibited from taking up public office.

2. Expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

3. Supreme Court has complete freedom to appoint any of its staff without interference.

4. Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, but cannot curtail the same.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

61. The Act of 1935, is one of the most important landmarks in the Constitutional History of India.

Which of the following statements are correct about it?

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely statesas units.

2. The federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it.

3. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the provinces.

4. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these

62. Which of the following statements about life expectancy are correct?

1. It is the number of years that an average person can expect to live.

2. Women tend to have a higher mortality rate at every age.

3. Life expectancies are also used when determining the value of a life settlement, a life insurance policysold for a cash asset.

4. Life expectancy is one of the factors in measuring the Human Development Index (HDI) of each nation.

5. Lindy effect and Glasgow effect are theories related to life expectancy.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

63. Consider the following statements.

1. India ranks third in the production of cereals after Brazil and Ukraine.

2. India ranks second in the production of rice after China.

3. India ranks first in the production of pulses.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3

64. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

Mineral Region

1. Coal : Damodar valley2. Copper : Singhbhum3. Uranium : Kullu4. Natural gas : Karnataka

Codes

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) Only 4

11Stage 1 Know the Trend

65. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The vascular tissue for the transport of water and nutrients in the plant is called the xylem.

2. Veins are the vessels which carry carbon dioxide-rich blood from all parts of the body back to the heart.

3. Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body.

4. The arteries have thin walls whereas the veins have thick elastic walls.

5. The food synthesised by leaves has to be transported to all parts of the plant. This is done by thevascular tissue called the phloem.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

66. Consider the following statements about the policy of Doctrine of lapse.

1. Lord Dalhousie used ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ as a chief instrument for expansion of Birtish territories inIndia.

2. Under two ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ the Indian state was not allowed to pass on to an adopted heir, unlessprior approval of British.

3. Apart from Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara were annexed using this doctrine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

67. Consider the following statements.

1. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about only 1% of the solar energy falling on theirleaves.

2. Only 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the other via the food chain.

3. The lower trophic levels house greater number of individuals than the higher levels.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

68. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8th August, 1967 in

Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the

Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.

What is its motto?

(a) All For One, One For All (b) One Vision, One Identity, One Community

(c) World Is Our Family (d) Cooperation For World’s Development

69. Consider the following statements regarding Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme.

1. The scheme will provide facility of unlimited investment by way of purchase of certificate from postoffice in various denominations.

. 2. The certificates can also be issued in single or joint names and can be transferred from one person toany other person.

3. The facility of transfer from one post office to another anywhere in India and of nomination will also beavailable under the scheme.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these

70. Examine the following statements regarding the administration of scheduled and tribal areas in the

Constitution.

1. Distinction between scheduled and tribal areas is made on the basis of forest and non-forest tribes.

2. Any law made by Parliament can be excluded from application to a scheduled area by the Governor.

3. Governor is free to increase or decrease the size and change the name of autonomous district councils intribal areas.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1

12 Practice Set 1

71. Consider the following statements regarding Gram Nyayalayas set up under the Gram Nyayalaya Act.

1. Gram Nyayalayas have powers of both Civil and Criminal courts.

2. Awards of Gram Nyayalayas cannot be appealed in Higher courts.

3. Plea bargaining has also been enabled in Gram Nyayalayas.

4. Gram Nyayalayas are required to follow procedures under Indian Evidence Act.

5. Jurisdiction of Gram Nyayalayas is the same as the District court and Sessions court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 5

72. Consider the following statements about Manipuri dance

1. With the arrival of Vaishnavism, popular Radha Krishan theme of Rasleela evolved in Manipuri.

2. Manipuri dance is accompanied by Kirtan.

3. Thang-Ta is a martial art performed by the male dancers of Manipuri.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

73. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

Agreement Signed in

1. CITES : Washington, USA

2. UNFCCC : Rio de Janeiro, Brazil

3. Convention on Biological Diversity : Nagoya, Japan

4. Convention on Nuclear Safety : Berlin, Germany

Codes

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

74. Which of the following can be a form of economic ‘Protectionism’ by India?

1. Visa restriction for foreign nationals.

2. Preferential market access policies for domestic industries.

3. Discouraging FII.

4. Increasing custom duties on imported goods and services.

5. Increasing custom duties on exported goods and services.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

75. Consider the following types of nuclear reactors.

1. Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR)

2. Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR)

3. Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR)

Arrange the above types of nuclear reactors based in the chronological order as per India’s threestage nuclear power programme.

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2 (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2

76. Consider the following statements regarding Crimean Peninsula.

1. Crimean Peninsula is washed by Black Sea and Sea of Azov.

2. Crimean Peninsula borders with Ukraine in the North and separated from Russia by Kerch strait in theEast.

3. The Black Sea parts of Crimea provide quick access to the Eastern Mediterranean Balkans and MiddleEast.

4. Sevastopol port is the base of NATO Navy Black Sea fleet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

13Stage 1 Know the Trend

77. First Round Table Conference convened in London in November, 1930. Ramsay Macdonald was

its Chairman. Congress was not a participant of it. Who came to Gandhiji to persuade him to meet

Lord Irwin and negotiate a settlement in the name of Congress?

(a) BR Ambedkar (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(c) Ghanshayam Das Birla (d) CY Chintamani

78. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Finance Commission.

1. The Chairman of Finance Commission is required to have wide experience or expertise in any one ofpublic finance, administration, economics etc.

2. Finance Commission recommendations are binding on the government.

3. Terms of reference of the Finance Commission are exhaustively listed in the Constitution.

4. It also has to consider the recommendations made by the various State Finance Commissions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 4

79. Which of the following factors affect surface air temperature?

1. Latitude 2. Altitude

3. Cloud cover 4. Land/Water heating differences

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these

80. Consider the following soil conservation methods.

1. No-tillage farming is planting without removing the existing plant cover and previous cropresidues.

2. Minimum tillage farming is ploughing only along edges of croplands to reduce soil loss from waterrunoff.

3. Gully reclamation is seeding gullies with quick-growing plants and using check dams of manure andstraw to reduce erosion.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these

81. Consider the following statements in the context of Ayyappa Temple.

1. The hill temple of Lord Ayyappa in Shabarimala is Situated in the Eastern ghats.

2. The temple is open to all devotees irrespective of caste, creed, religion or social status.

3. Girls and women between 10 and 50 years of age are not allowed to visit the temple to facilitate strictobservance of celibacy in the temple complex.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

82. Consider the following statements about the Central Electronics Limited (CEL).

1. It is a public sector enterprise of the department of Scientific and Industrial Research, Ministry ofScience and Technology, Government of India.

2. It is one of the top producers of single crystalline silicon solar cells in the world.

3. Its emphasis is on indigenous technology inducted both from its in-house development and from thenational laboratories.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) None of these

14 Practice Set 1

83. Consider the following statements about following musical forms of Carnatic music.

1. Gitam are the scholarly and complex compositions in the Tamil and Telugu languages.

2. There are many intricate variations in the music of Gitam.

3. A notable feature of Gitam is the existence of Matrika Padas.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these

84. Consider the following statements with reference to eutrophication.

1. It is the natural aging of a lake by biological enrichment of its water.

2. As the lake’s fertility increases with more incoming nutrients, plants and animal life burgeons, andorganic remains begin to be deposited on the lake bottom.

3. Eutrophication increases oxygen and hence contributes to over production of phytoplankton.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

85. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Net primary productivity in an ecosystem is calculated by reducing the respiratory loss from thegross primary productivity.

2. Eutrophication is the process of excessive depletion of nutrients in an aquatic ecosystem.

3. About 90% energy is transferred from the lower tropic level to the higher tropic level.

4. Primary and secondary succession in an ecosystem are always a natural process.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) Only 1 (d) Only 4

86. Consider the following statements regarding the solar water heater.

1. The copper pipes are used for the solar water heaters.

2. The pipes are used for heating and are in the spiral shape.

3. The pipes are painted with black colour.

4. It works on the principle of greenhouse effect.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

87. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Resource Country

1. Largest natural gas reserves : USA

2. Largest oil reserves : Saudi Arabia

3. Largest coal reserves : Russia

Codes

(a) l and 2 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

88. Hormones are classified in which of the following chemical groups?

1. Polypeptide 2. Steroid 3. Amino-acid derivative

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these

89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Strachey Commission : Famine

2. Hartog Committee : Education

3. Fraser Commission : Police Reforms

Codes

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

15Stage 1 Know the Trend

90. Consider the following statements regarding delegation of functions between the union and states.

1. States cannot delegate any of their administrative powers to the union.

2. Union can delegate any function on the State Government even without taking the consent of the latter.

3. Functions of Union Government can be delegated upon a State Government even without takingpermission from the Union Parliament.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

91. Consider the following statements regarding citizenship in India.

1. Provisions relating to termination and renunciation of Indian citizenship are also provided in theConstitution.

2. Any Indian citizen of full age can renounce his citizenship voluntarily.

3. Citizenship of a person can also be taken away by the Central Government in public interest.

4. Questions relating to determination of citizenship can only be determined by the Supreme Court.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 3 (d) 3 and 4

92. Consider the following statements about Basel Convention.

1. This international treaty was signed explicitly to prevent transfer of hazardous wastes from thedeveloped countries to developing and less developed countries.

2. This international treaty talks the nuclear wastes and hazards.

3. As per this convention, a waste is called hazardous waste if it is defined as hazardous in the law ofimporting country only.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

93. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Folk Song Region

1. Kajri : Uttar Pradesh

2. Chhakri : Punjab

3. Mando : Goa

4. Pankhida : Rajasthan

Codes

(a) l and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of these

94. Consider the following actions.

1. Increasing interest rates.

2. Introduction of Inflation-Indexed National Saving Securities (IINSSs) for retail investors.

3. Increasing excise duty on gold.

4. Permitting FDI in multi-brand retail trading.

Which of the above are the steps taken by RBI to counter inflation?

(a) l and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4

16 Practice Set 1

95. With reference to spectrum management, consider the following statements.

1. The purpose of spectrum management is to mitigate radio spectrum pollution and maximise the benefitof usable radio spectrum.

2. Spectrum and satellite orbits are scarce natural resources, which are prone to harmful interference,hence exclusively managed by the governments.

3. Spectrum management is the process of regulating the use of radio frequencies to promote efficient useand gain a net social benefit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

96. Which of the following statements meets the objective of the Zonal Councils.

1. To achieve motional integration of the country.

2. To secure some kind of political equilibrium between different regions of the country.

3. To enable the centre and states to cooperate with each other in social and economic matters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

97. Which of the following are narrowly utilitarian arguements for conserving biodiversity?

1. Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.

2. Humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature such as food (cereals, pulses, fruits), firewood fibre, construction material (tannins), lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes) and products ofmedicinal importance.

3. With increasing resources put into ‘bioprospecting’ nations endowed with rich biodiversity can expectto reap enormous benefits.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

98. Which of the following are examples of primary pollutants?

1. Sulphur Dioxide 2. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN)

3. Particulate matters 4. Carbon Monoxide

5. CFC

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) All of these

99. Which of the following is not a function of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(a) To promote exchange rate stability

(b) To assist in the elimination of foreign exchange restrictions

(c) To provide loans to member nations to boost their export competitiveness

(d) To assist member nations by temporarily providing financial resources to correct Balance of

Payments (BoP) Crisis

100. Which of the following is not goal of 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) regarding population of India?

1. Reducing Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to one per thousand livebirths.

2. Reducing Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to twenty-five per thousand livebirths.

3. Raising Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) to 950 by the end of the plan.

4. Reducing Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1 by the end of the plan.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) None of these

17Stage 1 Know the Trend

18 Practice Set 1

19Stage 1 Know the Trend

PRACTICE SET 1 OVERALL ANALYSIS

Answers with Explanations

1. (d) All the given biosphere reserves of India are part of the

world network of biosphere reserves, based on the UNESCO

Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme list. The

Achanakmar-Amarkantak biosphere reserve of Chhattisgarh

was added to the list in the last year.

2. (c) CITES also known as the Convention on International Trade

in Endangered Species of wild flora and fauna entered into

force in 1975 and became the only treaty to ensure that

international trade in plants and animals does not threaten their

survival in the wild. Currently, 179 countries (called Parties),

including the United States, implement CITES, the convention

on international trade in endangered species of wild flora and

fauna is also known as the Washington Convention.

3. (a) Kerala has registered the lowest growth rate 9.4 in the

country during 2011 census. A continuous belt of states from

West to East in the North-West, North and North central parts

of the country has relatively high growth rate than the Southern

states. 2001-2011 has recorded the lower growth rate of

population (17.64%) than 1991-2001 which was (21.15%).

4. (c) Hadis were the sayings and doings of prophet, Shariat is

the Islamic law, whereas Zawabit was the revenue law. Farman

was the royal order and fatwas were the Islamic legal

decisions.

5. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect, because the power to make laws

to implement Fundamental Rights is available only to the

Parliament, so as to ensure uniformity across the country.

Statement 2 is correct and Parliament can amend any

Fundamental Rights as long as such an amendment does not

violate the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution. Statement 3 is

incorrect, as Article 17 against untouchability is also applicable

to private individuals. Statement 4 is also incorrect. Although

most Fundamental Rights are negative in nature as they

impose restrictions upon the state to not to encroach upon the

rights of the individual, some of them also give positive powers

to individuals like the right to establish minority institutions.

6. (a) Frequent amendments of the Constitution, that involves,

debates and discussion are considered as deepening of

democracy and legislation.

Whereas, growth of delegated legislation, low attendance,

frequent promulgation of ordinances by passing parliamentary

processes and unethical behaviour of parliamentarian have

wasted precious time of Parliament, that led to decline in its

working. So, except Statement 4 all other are correct.

7. (b) Mudiyettu is a traditional theatre, dance and drama of

Kerala. It enacts the battle between goddess ‘Kali’ and demon

Darika. The theatre is performed in the temples called

‘Bhagwati Kavas’ or the temple of Mother Goddess. In year

2010, Mudiyettu was inscribed in the UNESCO’s list of

‘Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity’. Apart from

Mudiyettu, the Sanskrit theatre Koodiyattam is another popular

art form of Kerala.

8. Bharat Stage Emission Standards are emission standards

instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of

air pollutants from internal combustion engine equipment,

including motor vehicles. The phasing out of 2 stroke engine

and stopping the production of Maruti-800 was done under

this initiative. The standards and the timeline for

implementation are set by the central pollution control board

under the ministry of environment and forests. The standards

based on European regulations were first introduced in 2000.

Bharat Stage Norm III have been enforced across the country.

In 13 major cities Bharat Stage-IV norms have been in place

since 2010.

9. The correct order of given mountain, ranges from North to

South is: Kaimur range, Maikala range, Balaghat range and

Ajanta range . These are ranges of Central India. Most of them

lies in Madhya Pradesh.

10. Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread

forests of India. They are also called the monsoon forests and

spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and

70 cm. Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about six

to eight weeks in dry summer in order to save moisture, these

forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. The

former is found in areas receiving rainfall between 200 and 100

cm whereas later are found in areas rainfall receiving from 70

to 150 cm.

11. (d) Ultrasound, also called sonography, is another type of 3-D

computerised imaging. Using brief pulses of ultrahigh

frequency acoustic waves (lasting 0.01 seconds), it can

produce a sonar map of the imaged object. The technique is

similar to the echolocation used by bats, whales and dolphins.

By measuring the echo waves, it is possible to determine the

size, shape, location and consistency (whether it is solid,

fluid-filled or both) of an object.

Ultrasound is a very safe, non-invasive imaging technique.

Unlike X-rays, sonography does not use ionising radiation to

produce an image. It gives a clear picture of soft tissues,

which do not show up in X-rays. Ultrasound causes no health

problems (for a mother or unborn factor) and may be repeated

as often as necessary. Current evidence indicates that

diagnostic ultrasound is safe for the unborn child, unlike

radiographs, which employ ionising radiation. However, no

randomised controlled trials have been undertaken to test the

safety of the technology and thus, ultrasound procedures are

generally not done repeatedly unless medically indicated.

12. (b) On 9th September, 2015, the Union Government has

approved the establishment of 21st Law Commission of India

for a period of three years i.e. 1st September, 2015 to 31st

August, 2018. It consists of 1 chairperson and 11 members of

which 2 members i.e. Secretary Department of Legal Affairs

and Legislative Department are the ex-officio members. It

undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India

for making reforms therein and enacting new legislation. Its

function is to identify laws which are no longer relevant and

recommending for the repeal of obsolete and unnecessary

enactments; to suggest enacting new legislations to implement

the DPSP and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of

the Constitution.

13. (d) ISRO took 8 years to develop the LAM and spent several

years to build a high-altitude test facility to validate the rocket

motor in the airless condition of space. LAM refers to a rocket

motor that is regularly employed on artificial satellites destined

for a geostationary orbit.

14. (c) Insider trading is the trading of a public company’s stock or

other securities (such as bonds or stock options) by individuals

with access to non-public information about the company. In

various countries, insider trading based on inside information is

illegal. This is because it is seen as unfair to other investors who

do not have access to the information.

15. (c) The government has replaced Planning Commission with a

new institution named NITI Aayog (National Institution for

Transforming India). It is a non-constitutional, cabinet resolution

as Planning Commission was established.

NITI Aayog will not have any financial powers. It is merely a

advisory body and financial allocations will be done by Finance

Ministry.

NITI Aayog will comprise of full time as well as part time

members.

16. (b) Through Gandhi’s inspiration, Harijan Sevak Sangh was

founded to combat untouchability and a new weekly Harijan. He

led movement for temple entry at Guruvayur, inspired legislation

in the Central Assembly and Madras Legislature.

So, statements (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

17. (d) The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India, under

the British rule was due to the fragmentation of landholdings,

decline of cotton industries, lack of development of irrigational

facilities and introduction of cash crops.

18. (c) Characteristics of Savanna region.

● Savanna is a tropical grassland.

● Savanna eco-region is the paradise of hunters.

● Savanna region has coarse grass and fire resistant trees.

● Maximum biodiversity found in equatorial rainfall region.

19. (a) Statement 1 is correct, since any bill of the State Legislature,

which endangers the position of the High Court has to be

reserved by the Governor for the recommendation of President.

Statement 2 is also correct as Governor can also reserve State

Bills for the consideration of President for many other reasons

like unconstitutional, opposing directive principles of state

policy etc.

There is no certain category of Money Bills to be compulsorily

reserved for the consideration of the President. Normally, the

Governor gives his assent to a Money Bill as it is introduced in

the state legislature with his prior permission. However he may

reserve the bill for presidential assent. So, Statement 3 is also

incorrect. Statement 4 is incorrect because during financial

emergency the reservation of all Money Bills or other Financial

Bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed

by the Legislature of the State.

20. (d) When a proclamation of national emergency is made, the

six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically

suspended. Any law made by Parliament under an

emergency cannot be declared to be void on the grounds

that, it violates a Fundamental Rights under Article 19. The

right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article

20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain

enforceable even during emergency.

21. (c) Characteristics of black soils are as follow

● Fine textured and clayey in nature.

● Has high qualities of lime, iron, magnesium and generally

poor percentage of phosphorus, nitrogen and organic

matter.

● Black in colour as it is formed from weathered lava rocks,

● Soil’s colour also varies from black to chestnut brown.

● Very clayey and therefore highly retentive of water.

Because of high clay content, these soils expand when wet

and become difficult to plough.

● During dry season, black soils shrink and develop big

cracks which help in air circulation.

● Soil is very fertile in most of places.

● Poor in nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and organic

matter and rich in potash and lime.

22. (a) Slave dynasty ruled (1206-1290).

Khiljis ruled (1290-1320).

Tughlaqs ruled (1320-1412).

23. (c) The Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallichiana) is a medicinal

plant found in various parts of Himachal Pradesh and

Arunachal Pradesh. A chemical compound called ‘taxol’ is

extracted from the bark, needles, twigs and roots of this tree

and it has been successfully used to treat some cancers the

drug is now the biggest selling anti-cancer drug in the world.

The species is under great threat due to overexploitation. In

the last one decade, thousands of Yew trees have dried up in

various parts of Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh.

24. (c) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented

action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable

development. It is a product of the UN Conference on

Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de

Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. It is an action agenda for the UN,

other multilateral organisations and individual governments

around the world that can be executed at local, national and

global levels. The ‘21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21st century.

It has been affirmed and modified at subsequent UN

conferences. In 2012, at the United Nations Conference on

sustainable development the attending members reaffirmed

their commitment to Agenda 21 in their outcome document

called ‘The Future We Want’. 180 leaders from nations

participated.

25. (a) There are two systems, one is allocation based and

another is demand driven. Allocation is also called supply

driven. The demand driven implies that the scheme

implementation is driven from below by the grassroots

institutions of poor. The planning will be highly decentralised,

it is driven by the institutions such as PRIs, SHGs etc.

21Stage 1 Know the Trend

26. (d) The government has involved all stakeholders including

decision makers, politicians, researcher and entrepreneurs of water

resources from India as well as abroad to discuss strategies for

managing the demands and supplies in the right manner. The first

event was organised in New Delhi 2012 and theme was ‘Water,

Energy and Food Security : Call for Solution’. The Indian Water

Week 2016 to be held between 4-8th April, 2016 in New Delhi and

theme is ‘Water For All : Striving Together’.

27. (c) Honeybees transform nectar into honey by a process of

regurgitation and evaporation. They store it as a primary food

source in wax honeycombs inside the beehive. Most

microorganisms do not grow in honey because of its low water

activity of 0.6. However, honey sometimes contains dormant

endospores of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, which can be

dangerous to infants, as the endospores can transform into

toxin-producing bacteria in infants immature intestinal tracts,

leading to illness and even death.

28. (b) Bhoga or Fief an estate of land one held on condition of feudal

service: a fee Dvija (twice born) is a male member of the 1st three

varnas in Brahminical Hindu Society.

Antyaja means ‘the last born untouchables’. The marriage of a man

of higher varna with a girl from lower varna was called Anuloma. It

was allowed by the sacred texts. The marriage of a girl of higher

varna with a man of a lower varna was called Pratiloma. It was not

allowed by the sacred texts.

29. (b) Madurai - Coimbatore - Bengaluru region is a predominantly

cotton and sugarcane growing region and has developed around

silk textiles, sugar, chemicals, machine tools and leather goods

industries. The region receives hydel power from Mettur, Sharavati,

Sivasamudram, Papanasam and Pykaram projects. Various public

sector enterprises located in this belt include the Hindustan

Machine Tools, the Vishveshwaraiya Iron and steel works, the

BHEL, the Indian Telephone Industry and the Hindustan

Aeronautics Limited.

30. (d) All the given statements are correct. There are six major controls

of the climate of any place. They are latitude, altitude, pressure and

wind system, distance from the sea (continentality), ocean currents

and relief features. Due to the curvature of the Earth, the amount of

solar energy received varies according to latitude.

As a result, air temperature decreases from the equator towards the

poles. As one goes from the surface of the Earth to higher altitudes,

the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases.

The hills are therefore cooler during summers. The pressure and

wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the

place. Thus, it influences the temperature and rainfall pattern. The

sea exerts a moderating influence on climate. As the distance from

the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the

people experience extreme weather conditions.

This condition is known as continentality (i.e. very hot during

summers and very cold during winters). Ocean currents alongwith

onshore winds affect the climate of the coastal areas, any coastal

area with warm or cold currents flowing past it, will be warmed or

cooled if the winds are onshore.

31. (c) Tholu Bommalata is Andhra Pradesh’s shadow

puppet. These are large size jointed waist, shoulder,

elbow and knees. The puppet plays are drawn from

Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas. Putul Nach is a

rod puppet form of West Bengal. The puppets are

dressed like the Jatra characters (a theatre form of

Bengals). The technique of manipulation are highly

theatrical and music has close similarly with Jatra theatre.

Togalu Gombeyatta is the shadow puppet of Karnataka.

These puppets are mostly small in size, however different

characters are assigned different size, large size for kings

and Gods and small size fore servants and common

people.

Yampuri is the traditional rod puppet of Bihar. These

puppets are made up of wood, these puppets are in one

piece and have no joints.

32. (d) In 1858, Government of India was placed directly

under the crown through the secretary of State for India

and all matters were to be seen by him.

This Act had following parts

● The East India Company’s control came to an end.

● Governor-General of India - He was placed under the

Secretaries of State.

● It ended the system of double government by

abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.

● A new office of Secretary of State for India was created,

which was to be a member of British Cabinet.

33. Biomes are various regions of our planet that can be

best distinguished by their climate, flora and fauna. There

are different ways of classifying biomes, but the common

elements are climate, habitat, animal and plant

adaptation, biodiversity and human activity. Every biome

type does not occur in all the continents. Biomes are

majorly affected by human activities.

34. (a) Decomposition (or rotting) is the process by which

organic substance are broken down into simpler forms of

matter. The process is essential for recycling the finite

matter that occupies physical space in the biome.

Temperature and soil moisture are the most important

climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their

effects on the activities of microbes.

35. (c) Originally, the NeGP comprised of 27 Mission Mode

Projects (MMPs) and 8 components. However, in 2011 it

was augmented by adding 4 more projects-Health,

Education, PDS and Posts to increase the list of 27 MMPs

to 31 MMPs. The 31 MMPs comprising the NeGP are

further classified as state, central or integrated projects,

the list of the 3 types of MMPs are as follow

Central MMPs under NeGP Banking, Central Excise and

Customs, Income Tax (IT), Insurance, MCA21, Passport,

Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registrations and

Tracking, Pension, e-Office, posts and UID.

22 Practice Set 1

State MMPs under NeGP Agriculture, Commercial Taxes

e-District, Employment Exchange, Land Records (NLRMP)

Municipalities, e-Panchayats, Police (CCTNS) Road Transport,

Treasuries Computerisation, PDS, Education, Health.

Integrated MMPs under NeGP CSC, e-Biz, e-Courts,

e-Procurement, EDI for e-Trade, National e-Governance

services Delivery Gateway, India Portal.

36. (b) Pacific ocean basin also known as ‘Pacific Ring of fire’ is an

area where large number of earthquakes and volcanoes

eruptions occur.

37. (c) CR formula was formulated to solve political deadlock

between Congress and Muslim League on the matter of

independence and partition of Bengal. It proposed many

things, in which it said that plebiscite should be conducted on

all inhabitants irrespective of caste and religion on basis of adult

suffrage. It also recommended that terms of the binding will be

applicable only in case of full transfer of power by Britain to

Government of India.

38. (a) The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is

also called the Dakshin Ganga. It originates from Nasik district

of Maharashtra and discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It

is navigable only in the deltaic stretch.

39. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect, since such a power has been given

to the Union Government according to Article 292 of the

Constitution. The limits to this power though can be specified by

the Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Constitution does not

allow State Governments to borrow from outside India under

any circumstances. Even when an international loan is assigned

to the states, it is taken in the name of the Union Government.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because even the power of

State Governments to borrow from inside India is

restricted under certain circumstances. When the Union

Government has any loan outstanding from a state then that

state can make any additional borrowing from elsewhere only

after the permission of the Union Government. The right answer

is thus (d).

40. (d) The committees perform many functions, the major one of

which is scrutinising the budgetary proposals during the recess

of the budget session. Apart from this, the committee also

examines the bills of related ministries and considers the annual

reports of ministries. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2

is also incorrect, as the members of the committee may be

elected, appointed, nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha

and Chairman of Rajya Sabha from among their members.

Statement 3 is incorrect, as the report of the committee cannot

contain any proposal for cut motions on the expenditures

concerned. Statement 4 is also incorrect. Out of the 24

committees, 8 functions under the Rajya Sabha and 16 under

the Lok Sabha. Thus, the right answer is (d).

41. Eutrophication can be caused by human activities as well

as naturally. Eutrophication leads to increased Biological

Oxygen Demand (BOD) due to the increased consumption of

dissolved oxygen. It increases the biomass of the

phytoplanktons.

42. (c) The laterite is affected by intensive leaching and rich in

iron oxide, aluminium compound and potash, but poor in

organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium making it

unsuitable for cultivation. It is commonly found in Karnataka,

Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of

Asom and Odisha.

43. (c) Odissi closely follows the tenets laid down by the

Natyashastra. Facial expressions, body and hand

movements are used to suggest a certain feeling, an emotion

or the nine- rases. The techniques of movement are built

around the two basic postures of chock and tribanga. Chowk

is a position imitating a square and is a very masculine

stance with weight of body equally balanced. The tribhanga is

a very feminine stance where the body is defected at the neck

and waist and the knee. The Nataraja Buddhist sculptures,

tantric images of dancing yoginis bear testimony to this

dance from 2nd century BC to 10th century AD.

44. (d) Saline soils are also known as Usara soils. Saline soils

contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and

magnesium. They occur in arid and semi-arid regions and in

water logged and swampy areas. Their structure ranges from

sandy to loamy. In the areas of intensive cultivation with

excessive use of irrigation, especially in areas of green

revolution the dry climatic conditions promotes capillary

action, which results in the deposition of salt on the top layer

of the soil.

45. (d) The NDC was established with the main objective to

secure cooperation of states in the execution of the plan, to

strengthen and mobile the efforts and resources of the nation

in support of plan, to promote common economic policies in

all vital spheres, and to ensure balanced and rapid

development of all parts of the country. So, correct option is

(d).

46. (c) Equality before the law is not an absolute right and certain

persons like President, foreign diplomats etc have special

provisions, which can be said to violate equality before the

law. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is also

incorrect, as the exceptions provided to the right to equality of

opportunity in the Constitution do not mention women. The

exception include residence as a condition, backward

classes etc. Statement 3 is correct and both national as well

as foreign titles are prohibited under the Constitution.

Statement 4 is also incorrect as the only exception in the

Constitution to certain rights to equality have been provided

to backward classes of citizens. Classes have been

interpreted later to mean castes. Thus, the right answer is (c).

23Stage 1 Know the Trend

47. (c) The origin of the word ‘Bihu’ is said to be from the Sanskrit

word ‘Vishu’. The Assamese celebrate three types of Bihu in a

year.

1. Rongaali Bihu is celebrated in the middle of April, marks the

advent of new year and seeding time.

2. Kaati Bihu marks the completion of sowing of ‘paddy’ and

transplantation of the saplings. It also marks the Assamese

New Year.

3. Magh Bihu marks the culmination of the harvesting period.

These festivals are also accompanied by Bihu songs and

Bihu dances. The entire Assamese community irrespective

of caste, creed and religions background, celebrates the

Bihu festival.

48. (a) Provisions of the Regulating Act, 1773. The Governor of

Bengal became Governor-General of Bengal. He got a council of

4 members and decisions were taken in majority. The

Governor-General in Council was authorised to regulate all the civil

and military matters of the presidency of Bengal. Supreme Court

was set up in Calcutta with Elijah Impey as its Chief Justice.

49. (d) Mistral is a cold and dry strong wind in Southern France that

blows down from the North along the lower Rhine river valley

toward the Mediterranean sea. Chinook, Foehn and Sirocco

are the warm local winds. Chinook (Snow eaters) is a hot wind

which comes in south-westerly direction to prairies near

California. Fohn is a type of dry warm down slope wind in

Switzerland. Sirocco is a hot dry and dusty wind which

originates in the Sahara coast. Through, it may occur in any

season of the year but is most frequent in spring.

50. (a) There are three types of mountains- Fold mountains, Block

mountains and the Volcanic mountains. The Himalayan

mountains and the Alps are young Fold mountains with rugged

relief and high conical peaks. The Aravali range in India is one

of the oldest Fold mountain systems in the world. The range has

considerably worn down due to the processes of erosion. Block

mountains are created when large areas are broken and

displaced vertically. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts

and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and

the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain

systems.

51. (d) The Phillips curve shows the relationship between the rate of

inflation and rate of unemployment. It is a historical inverse

relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of

inflation in an economy. Lower unemployment in an economy is

correlated with a higher rate of inflation.

52. (d) The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 has made the following

provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar

defectors from holding public offices and to strengthen the

anti-defection law under Article 75. The total number of minister,

including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers

shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. But

the anti-defection law doesn’t give any constitutional status to

political parties.

53. (d) Grass eating animals quickly swallow the grass and store it

in a separate part of the stomach called ‘rumen’. Here, the food

gets partially digested and is called cud. But later the cud

returns to the mouth in small lumps and the animal chews it.

This process is called rumination. These animals are called

ruminants. The grass is rich in cellulose, a type of

carbohydrate. Many animals including humans, cannot

digest cellulose. Ruminants have a large sac-like structure

between the small intestine and large intestine. The cellulose

of the food is digested here by the action of certain bacteria

which are not present in humans.

54. (b) Indian Nationalist Army or Azad Hind Fauj was founded

by captain Mohan Singh with the help of Japanese in 1942 in

Singapore. In December 1941, the Japanese defeated the

British at Malaya and captain Mohan Singh was requested by

Japanese to form an Indian Army comprising the captured

Indian soldiers. Subhash Chandra Bose who silently left

Calcutta on 17th January, 1941 and arrived in Germany,

formed on Indian Government in exile. Indians in Germany

gave him the title of Netaji and the slogan of Jai Hind was

imitiated him during that time.

55. (b) People’s participation has a long history in India the

Bishnoi community is known for its peaceful co-existence with

nature. A Bishnoi woman Amrita Devi showed exemplary

courage by hugging a tree and daring king’s men to cut her

first before cutting the tree. The Government of India has

recently instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection

Award for individuals or communities from rural areas that

have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in

protecting wildlife.

56. (c) Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on 25th

December, 2014 launched Mission Indradhanush to

achieve full immunisation coverage for all children by 2020. It

aims to cover all those children who are either unvaccinated

or are partially vaccinated against seven preventable

diseases.

57. (b) Non-cooperation movement filled Indians with

enthusiasm and they started to believe that Independence is

a matter of time. They started declining Britishers at every

level. In order to it, they surrendered titles, boycotted courts,

foreign clothes and refuged to pay taxes. They also boycotted

government affiliated educational institutions but, they did not

boycotted English education.

58. (a) Gupta Period is considered as the golden age of ancient

India. This was mainly in the context that use of gold was

maximum and art and culture flourished most widely.

In economic field, many towns of North India show their

downfall in this period. So, in economic context term ‘golden

period’ can’t be justified. Guptas possessed a large quantity

of gold and issued the largest number of gold coins, but they

were not the purest coins. Purest coins were issued by

Kushans. In this period, art was largely inspired by religions.

The typical Hindu Gods like Vishnu, Shiva and others got

place for the first time in images and architecture.

59. (d) The high temperature, high rainfall and annual flood-silts

which provide natural fertiliser are the reasons behind West

Bengal being the largest producer of Jute. Highest

concentration of Jute mills is the result of high Jute

production and the seaport location is the reason behind

development of Jute industry.

24 Practice Set 1

60. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect as the only prohibition on retired

Supreme Court Judges is on practicing of law and they are free

to hold other public offices, like e.g. Chairman of National

Human Right Commission (NHRC). Statement 2 is correct as

the expenses of Supreme Court including the salaries and

administrative expenses of Supreme Court judges are charged

on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Statement 3 is also correct as it is provided in Article 146 of the

Constitution. Statement 4 is also correct and Parliament can

only extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and cannot

curtail it. Thus, the right answer is (c).

61. (b) Provincial Autonomy by the Act of 1935, replaced dyarchy.

Provinces were granted autonomy and separate legal identity.

Provinces were freed from the superintendence, direction of the

Secretary of State and Governor-General. Provinces,

henceforth derived their legal authority directly from the British

crown. Provinces were given independent financial powers and

resources. Provincial Governments could borrow money on their

own security. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect and all other

statements are correct.

62. (d) All the statements except 2 are correct. Women tend to have

a lower mortality rate at every age. In the womb, male fetuses

have a higher mortality rate (babies are conceived in a ratio

estimated to be from 107 males to 100 females, but the ratio at

birth in the United States is only 105 males to 100 females).

Among the smallest premature babies (those under 2 pounds

or 900 g) females again have a higher survival rate. At the other

extreme, about 90% individuals aged 110 are female.

Life expectancy used when determining value of life

settlement, life insurance policy and development.

Human Development and Human Development Index a

composite statistic of life expectancy, education and income

index used to rank countries into four tier human development.

Lindy effect is a theory of the life expectancy of non-perishable

things that posits for a certain class of non-perishables, like

technology, idea , every additional day may imply a longer life

expectancy.

Glasgow effect refers to the unexplained poor health and low

life expectancy of Glaswegians compared to the rest of United

Kingdom and Europe.

63. (b) The country produces about 11% cereals of the world and

ranks third in production after China and US. India contributes

21.6% of rice production in the world and ranked second after

China in 2008-09. India is a leading producer of pulses and

accounts for about one-fifth of the total production of the pulses

in the world.

64. (d) Natural gas is obtained along with oil in all the oil fields but

exclusive reserves have been located along the Eastern coasts

as well as Tripura, Rajasthan and offshore wells in Gujarat and

Maharashtra.

65. (d) Xylem The water conducting tissue of vascular plants,

which consists of dead hollow cells (like wood) in the form of

fibers and sclereids which transport water and nutrients.

Arteries bring oxygenated blood to the tissue (except

pulmonary arteries) and veins bring deoxygenated blood back

to heart (except pulmonary veins).

Veins have thin walls. Since, blood flow is rapid and at a high

pressure, the arteries have thick and elastic walls.

66. (d) The chief instrument through which Lord Dalhousie

implemented his policy of annexation was the ‘Doctrine of

Lapse’. Under this doctrine, when the ruler of a protected

state died without a natural heir, his state was not to pass to

an adopted heir as sanctioned by the old traditions, but it was

to be annexed to British India, unless the adoption has been

approved by the British. Most of the Indian states, including

Satara in 1848, Jhansi in 1853 and Nagpur in 1854 were

annexed by applying this doctrine.

67. (d) The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about

1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and

convert it into food energy. When green plants are eaten by

primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to

the environment. Some amount goes into digestion and in

doing work and the rest goes towards growth and

reproduction. An average of 10% of the food eaten is turned

into its own body and made available for the next level of

consumers. There are generally a greater number of

individuals at the lower trophic levels of an ecosystem, the

greatest number is of the producers.

68. (b) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN,

was established on 8th August, 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand,

with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok

Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely

Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.

At present there are 10 members namely, Brunei Darussalam,

Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines,

Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. The motto of ASEAN is

“One Vision, One Identity, One Community.”

69. (d) The Union Government on 18th November, 2014

relaunched Kisan Vikas Patra Scheme in New Delhi to

encourage the habit of small savings among the citizen.The

scheme will provide facility of unlimited investment by way of

purchase of certificate from post office in various

denominations.

70. (c) Scheduled areas and tribal areas are mentioned in

Schedules 5 and 6 of the Constitution respectively. While, the

5th Schedule deals with scheduled areas and scheduled

tribes in all parts of India except Asom, Meghalaya, Tripura

and Mizoram, the 6th Schedule deals only with tribal areas in

Asom, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

This distinction is made not on the basis of forest non-forest

tribes, but for certain other anthropological reasons. Thus,

Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct and the 5th

Schedule empowers the Governor to exclude any law made

by Parliament from being applied to a scheduled area.

71. (b) Gram Nyayalayas in India have been set up under the

Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008. Under this act, Gram

Nyayalayas have the powers of both Civil and Criminal courts.

These are mobile courts and try to deliver justice at the

doorsteps of the citizens. The act also provides for appeal of

decisions of the Gram Nyayalayas to Sessions court and

District court. Plea bargaining has been enabled in the Gram

Nyayalayas and persons can make application for this

purpose to the Gram Nyayalayas.

25Stage 1 Know the Trend

72. (d) With the arrival of Vaishnavism, the popular Radha Krishan

theme of Rasleela evolved in Manipuri. The main characters of

Rasleela are Radha Krishan and Gopis.

The Kirtan form of singing accompanies the dances of

Manipuri. The masculine aspect of the dance is called

choloms. Also the male dances perform a martial art named

Thang– Ta, to represent the abilities of men to defend

themselves from wild animals.

73. (c) UNFCCC is an lnternational environment treaty negotiated

at the United Nation Conference on Environmental and

Development (UNCED) known as Earth Summit held in Rio de

Janerio. CITES is a Convention on International Trade in

Endangered Species of wild flora and fauna. International

agreement between governments held in Washington. The

Convention on Biological Diversity (CDB) is formally known as

Biodiversity convention. Its objective is to develop national

strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of

biological diversity. The convention was opened for signature

at the Earth summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5th June, 1992. The

convention on Nuclear safety is a 1994 International Atomic

Energy Agency (IAEA) treaty that governs safety rules at

nuclear power plants in state parties to the convention.

The convention was adopted in Vienna, Australia, at an IAEA

diplomatic conference on 17th June, 1994.

74. (c) Protectionism is the economic policy of restraining trade

between states (countries) through methods such as tariffs on

imported goods, restrictive quotas and a variety of other

government regulations designed to allow (according to

proponents) fair competition between imports and goods and

service produced domestically. This policy contrasts with free

trade, where government barriers to trade are kept to a

minimum. In recent years, it has become closely aligned with

anti-globalisation.The options 3 and 5 are not protectionist

measures.

75. (a) India’s three-stage nuclear power programme was

formulated by Dr Homi Bhabha in the 1950s to secure the

country’s long-term energy independence, through the use of

uranium and thorium reserves found in the monazite sands of

coastal regions of South India especially on Kerala coast. The

ultimate focus of the programme is on enabling the thorium

reserves of India to be utilised in meeting the country’s energy

requirements.

As of 2012, the first stage consisting of the PHWRs is near

completion of its planned goals, the second stage consisting

of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs)is poised to go into operation

within 1 years and the third stage consisting of AHWRs (one

among several technology options) is slated to begin

construction, so that its commissioning can be done by 2020.

76. (c) Crimean Peninsula is washed by Sea of Azov and Black

Sea. Crimean Peninsula borders with Ukraine in the North and

separated from Russia by Kerch strait in the East. The Black

Sea parts of Crimea provide quick access to the Eastern

Mediterranean Balkans and Middle East. Sevastopal port is

the base of Russian Navy Black Sea fleet.

77. (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru was a liberal who broke openly with

Congress over non-violent civil disobedience. He opposed

CDM and salt satyagraha. He participated in First Round Table

Conference and also participated in central and provincial

legislatures set up by British. He mediated between Gandhi

and viceroy Irwin for Gandhi Irwin Pact.

78. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect, because the only qualification

prescribed in the Constitution to be appointed as Finance

Commission Chairman is to have experience in public affairs.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because Finance Commission

recommendations are not binding on the government although

a tradition has developed, whereby the Union Government

accepts all Finance Commission recommendations. Statement

3 is also incorrect because the terms of reference of Finance

Commission are not exhaustively listed in the Constitution and

these are provided by the Union Government, while

constituting the Finance Commission through the President.

Statement 4 is the only correct statement.

79. (d) Factors affecting surface air temperature are

A. Latitude High latitudes receive lower Sun angles, thus,

they have less total insolation than low latitudes. Less

insolation means lower temperature

B. Altitude On average temperature decreases with

increasing altitude called normal lapse rate.

● Thin atmosphere emits less long wave, so the mountain

receives less.

● Normal Lapse Rate recall that air temperature drops with

increasing altitude.

C. Cloud Cover

● Day Clouds Insolation blocked results in lower maximum

temperatures i.e. it doesn’t get as hot as a clear day.

● Night Clouds Clouds radiate increased long wave

toward Earth; results in higher minimum temperatures i.e.

it doesn’t get as cold as a clear night.

● Daily Temperature Range Difference between the

maximum and minimum is low in a cloudy situation.

D. Land/Water Heating Differences Water has certain

properties as compared to land. It heats and cools more

slowly than land.

80. (b) No-tillage farming is a way of growing crops from year to

year without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till is an

agricultural technique, which increases the amount of water

and organic matter (nutrients) in the soil and decreases

erosion. Minimum tillage farming is shallow ploughing only to

the depth needed to ensure quick seed germination and

leaving crop residues.

81. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect, the hill temple of Lord Ayyappa in

Shabarimala is situated in Western ghats of Kerala. Statement

2 is correct, the temple is open to all devotees irrespective of

caste, creed, religion or social status. Statement 3 is also

correct, girls and women between 10 and 50 years of age are

not allowed to visit the temple.

26 Practice Set 1

82. (d) CEL holds a unique position among the family of public

sector enterprises in electronics, with its emphasis on

indigenous technology inducted both from its in-house

development and from the national laboratories, for its

production programme in diverse high-technology areas of

national importance.

83. (c) Out of various music forms of carnatic music, Gitam is the

simplest type of composition and is taught to the beginners of

music. The Gitam is very simple in construction, with an easy

and melodious flow of music.

A notable feature of the Gitam is the existence of Gitalankara

phrases like a iya, a iyam va iya etc called Matrika Padas,

reminiscent of similar syllables occurring in sama gana.

84. (b) Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by biological

enrichment of its water. In a young lake the water is cold and

clear, supporting little life. With time, streams draining into the

lake introduce nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus

encourage the growth of aquatic organisms. As the lake’s

fertility increases, plant and animal life burgeons, and organic

remains begin to be deposited on the lake bottom.

85. (c) Gross primary productivity is the total amount of production

of chemical energy in organic compounds by primary

producers i.e. autotrophs. Certain portion of this biomass is

used by the producer for its own survival and only 10% energy is

transferred to the next trophic level. Eutrophication is the

process of excessive nutrition load in an aquatic ecosystem.

Primary succession is one of two types of biological and

ecological succession of plant life, occurring in an environment

in which new substrate devoid of vegetation and usually lacking

soil.

86. (d) All the given statements are correct. Solar water heater is

based on the principles of surface absorption and greenhouse

effect. The copper pipes are used for heating and are in the

spiral shape. The pipes are painted with black colour to absorb

maximum heat.

87. (b) Saudi Arabia has the largest oil reserves in the world. While

USA has the largest coal reserves. Russia has the largest

natural gas reserves.

88. (d) Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted

directly into the blood, which carries them to organs and tissues

of the body to exert their functions. Hormones are classifed into

all the above three groups Polypeptide, Steroid and Amino-acid

derivative. Hormones are classified based on their chemical

structures. Peptide hormones are chain of amino-acid. Steroid

hormones are lipids (fat like molecules) whose structures are

derived from cholesterol.

89. (d) Strachey Commission is related to famine, Hartog

Committee is related to education and Fraser Commission is

related to police reforms. Strachey Commission was set up in

1877. Hartog Committee was set up in 1929. Fraser

Commission was set up in 1902.

90. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect, according to Article 258A, the

Governor of a state may give to the Union Government any of

the administrative functions of that state with the consent of the

Union Government. The union on the other hand can

delegate functions on to a state even without the consent of

the concerned state by making such a provision in a law

passed by the Union Parliament. Thus, Statement 2 is

correct.

Statement 3 is also correct since the President can entrust

any union function on a State Government without any

sanction from the Union Parliament by taking the consent

from the State Government as provided in Article 258(1).

Thus, the right answer is (b).

91. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect as the Constitution only provides

for who is a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution

and leaves other matters relating to citizenship to be

determined by Parliament by law. Statement 2 is also

incorrect as renunciation of citizenship by Indian citizens can

only be done, after they have acquired the citizenship of

another country. Statement 3 is correct, as such a provision

has been provided for in the Citizenship Act of 1955. Some

other reasons of taking away of citizenship by the Central

Government can be disloyalty to the Constitution, reason

during a war etc. Statement 4 is incorrect, as questions

relating to determination of citizenship have been completely

left to the Central Government, under the Citizenship Act of

1955. Thus, the right answer is (c).

92. (a) Basel convention does not talk about the nuclear waste.

The agreement on Transboundary Movements of hazardous

wastes and their disposal, is known as Basel Convention.

93. (b) Kajri is a folk song sung by women from Uttar Pradesh

during rainy seasons. On the 3rd day in the 2nd half of the

bhadra, women sing kajri songs all through the night.

Chhakri is a group song of Kashmir. It is sung to the

accompaniment of the ‘noot’ (Earthen pot) rababs, sarangi

and tumbaknari (an Earthen pot with high neck).

Mando is the finest of goan song and is a slow verse and

refrain composition dealing with love, tragedy and social

injustice. Pankhida is sung by the peasants of Rajasthan

while doing work in the fields, the peasants sing and speak

while playing algoza and manjira.

94. (c) Increasing interest rates and Introduction of Inflation-

Indexed National Saving Securities (IINSSs) for retail

investors are the steps taken by RBI.

RBI on consultation with the government plans to launch a 10

year savings instrument ‘Inflation-lndexed National Saving

Securities (IINSSs) for retail investors’ that will offer

inflation-linked returns to small investors as an alternative to

investing in gold.

IINSS will be linked to the new (combined) Consumer Price

Index (CPI). The interest on these securities would comprise

a fixed rate plus inflation. Interest would be compounded

half-yearly and paid cumulatively at redemption. These

securities will be distributed through banks to reach out to the

masses (Eligible investors individuals, Hindu undivided

families, trusts and charitable institutions). Increasing or

decreasing taxes, duties permitting FDI in retail are the steps

taken by the Finance Ministry (not RBI)to curb inflation.

27Stage 1 Know the Trend

95. (d) Spectrum management is the process of regulating the

use of radio frequencies to promote efficient use and gain a

net social benefit. The term radio spectrum typically refers to

the full frequency range from 3 KHz to 300 GHz that may be

used for wireless communication.

96. (d) The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not

constitutional) bodies and are established by States

Reorganisation Act of 1956. All of the statements given are

correct, some of the other objectives are to help in arresting

the growth of acute state-consciousness, regionalism,

linguism and particularistic trends.

To help in removing the after-effects of separation in some

cases so that the process of reorganisation, integration and

economic advancement may synchronise. To cooperate

with each other in the successful and speedy execution of

major development projects. So, correct option is (d).

97. (b) The narrowly utilitarian arguements for conserving

biodiversity are obvious; humans derive countless direct

economic benefits from nature — food, firewood, fibre

construction material, industrial products and products of

medicinal importance with increasing resources put into

bioprospecting nations endowed with rich biodiversity can

expect to reap enormous benefits.

98. (c) Primary and Secondary Pollutant A primary pollutant is

an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary

pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when

other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere.

Primary Pollutants Sulphur dioxide (SO )2 produced from

burning of coal mainly in thermal power plants. It causes

smog and acid rain. Nitrogen Oxide (NO )2 causes smog and

acid rain. It is produced from burning fuels including petrol,

diesel and coal.

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a product by incomplete

combustion of fuel such as natural gas, coal or wood.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released mainly from

refrigeration.

These gases combine with few other gases, which leads to a

reduction of the ozone layer that protects the Earth from the

harmful ultraviolet rays of the Sun. Carbon dioxide (CO )2 , a

greenhouse gas, emitted from combustion. Suspended

Particulate Matter (SPM), include smoke, dust and vapour that

can remain suspended for extended periods and can be

introduced in the environment as primary as well as secondary

pollutants. Toxic metals, such as lead, cadmium and copper can

enter in the environment through petrol, hair dye products,

paints, batteries etc. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC), such

as hydrocarbon fuel vapours and solvents, ammonia (NH )3

emitted from agricultural processes. Odours from garbage,

sewage and industrial processes. Radioactive pollutants

produced by nuclear explosions and war explosives and natural

processes such as radon.

Secondary Pollutants Particulate matter formed from gaseous

primary pollutants and compounds in photochemical smog,

such as nitrogen dioxide. Ground level ozone (O )3 formed from

NO and VOCs, Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) similarly formed from

NO2 and VOCs.

99. (c) For giving assistance to nations to boost. Exports, loans from

any regional development bank can be taken like the Asian

development bank. The IMF does not provide such a service.

The world bank can provide a loan, but the conditions attached

with the loan do not qualify for the case (c) in the question. It is

for general development work.

100. (d) The time bound goals in the 12th Five Year Plan for India’s

population are as follow

● Reducing Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 1 per 1000

livebirths.

● Reducing Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 25 per 1000 livebirths.

● Reducing Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) to 950 by the end of the

plan.

● Reducing Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1 by the end of the

plan.

● Reducing under-nutrition among children aged 0-3 years to

half of the NFHS-3 level by the end of the plan.

28 Practice Set 1