university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark self...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Self Test Series - 5

ARK Self-Test Series

~ Test 5

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Pink D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 6: DEFORMATION IN SOLIDS

CHEMISTRY Unit 1B: PERIODS

Unit 2B: GROUPS

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 6C: EXCRETION AND OSMOREGULATION

Unit 6D: NERVOUS SYSTEM

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS Q.1 Which of the following substances possesses their highest elasticity?

A) Rubber C) Glass B) Steel D) Copper

Q.2 What is the SI unit of modulus of elasticity of a substance?

A) Nm-2 C) Nm-1 B) Jm-2 D) Being a number it has no unit

Q.3 What are the dimensions of stress?

A) [MLT-2] C) [ML-1T-2] B) [ML-2T-1] D) [ML0T-1]

Q.4 Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimension of force per unit area? A) Stress C) Young’s modulus B) Strain D) Pressure

Q.5 A wire, suspended vertically from one end, is stretched by attaching a weight of 20 N

to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. How much energy is gained by the wire? A) 0.01 J C) 0.04 J B) 0.02 J D) 1.0 J

Q.6 A uniform steel wire of length 4 m and are cross-section 3 x 10-6 m2 is extended by 1mm

by the application of a force if the young’s modulus of steel is 2 x 1011 Nm-2 the energy stored in the wire is A) 0.025 J C) 0.075 J B) 0.050 J D) 0.100 J

Q.7 Materials the undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called

A) Brittle C) Amorphous B) Ductile D) Polymers

Q.8 Any alternation produced in shapes, length or volume when a body is subjected to some

external force is called A) Stiffness C) –ve energy state B) Toughness D) Deformation

Q.9 The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called

A) Energy state C) –ve energy state B) Valence band D) Conduction hand

Q.10 The curie temperature is that at which

A) Semi-conductor becomes conductors B) Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic C) Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic D) Metals become super conductor

Q.11 Coercive force is the force which opposes

A) Demagnetization C) Extension B) Breakage D) Surface cracking

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.12 The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal A) Isotropy C) Homogeneity B) Cleavage D) The external symmetry form

Q.13 The braking of crystal along definite direction is called

A) Cleavage C) Isotropy B) Symmetry D) Homogeneity

Q.14 In simple cube, one atom or molecule lies at its

A) Four corners C) Eight corners B) Nine corners D) Six corners

Q.15 A vacant or partially filled band is called

A) Conduction band C) Forbidden band B) Valence band D) Empty band

Q.16 The electrons in conductor band are free to

A) Transport vibration C) Transport charge B) Transport signals D) Transport impulse

Q.17 Many of the semi-conductors are crystals of the type

A) Face centered cubic C) Simple cubic B) Body centered D) All of the above

Q.18 Energy stored by stretch force is

A) 1

2 ΔlF2 C)

1

2 Δl2F

B) 1

2 lΔF D)

1

2 ΔlF

Q.19 On applying force tangential to a face of body, the face is drifted by 0.1 cm. If the

distance of this face from the stationary face of the body is 10 cm, Shear strain in the body will be A) 0.010 C) 10 B) 0.100 D) None of these

Q.20 Which of the following is more elastic?

A) Rubber C) Steel B) Aluminum D) Brass

Q.21 If a wire is stretched to twice of its length hen its radius will become

A) Half C) One Fourth

B) Double D) √2 times

Q.22 A copper wire having original length 5 m is extended by 2.2 m by a stress of 20 Pa along

the length of wire. The energy stored in the wire per unit volume of the wire will be A) 2.5 J/m3 C) 7.5 J/m3 B) 5 J/m3 D) 10 J/m3

Q.23 If the stress in the wire is 2 x 107 Pa and strain is 10-2, then energy per unit volume is

A) 104 J/m3 C) 106 J/m3 B) 105 J/m3 D) 107 J/m3

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.24 SI unit of the stress are same as unit of A) Viscosity per second C) Force per second B) Momentum per second D) none of these

Q.25 A wire whose young’s modulus is 2 x 1011 Nm-2 have length 1 m and cross sectional area

1 mm2 the work required to increase the length by 2 mm A) 0.2 J C) 0.8 J B) 0.4 J D) None of these

Q.26 If 3 x 10-3 J of work is done in stretching the wire through 1 mm, the work done in

stretching it through 3 mm is A) 9 x 10-6 J C) 81 x 10-1 J B) 27 x 10-3 J D) None of these

Q.27 If Force is on the X-Axis and extension in length is on the Y-axis, then strain energy will

be A) Area b/w the graph and y-axis C) Slope of the graph B) Area b/w the graph and x-axis D) None of these

Q.28 A long wire hang vertically with its upper end clamped. A torque of 8 N m is applied to

the free end and twisted it through 450. The Potential energy in the twisted wire is

A) π Joule C) π

4 Joule

B) π

2 Joule D) None of these

Q.29 Two wires of the same material and radius but having lengths in the ratio 1:2 are

stretched with the same force. The ratio of the work done of the two cases will be? A) 1:1 C) 1:4 B) 1:2 D) 2:1

Q.30 A wire is stretched 1 mm by a force of 1 KN. A wire of the same material and length but

of four times that diameter is stretched by the same force? Calculate the work done in the two wires: A) 0 J, 0 J C) 0.5 J, 8 J B) 0.5 J, 0.03 J D) None of these

Q.31 Which state of matter is associated with the very highest of temperatures?

A) Liquid C) Gas B) Plasma D) Solid

Q.32 A copper wire of length 2.0 m, cross sectional area 7.1 × 10−6

m2

and Young’s modulus

11 × 1010

N/m2

has a 200-kg load hung on it. What is its increase in length? (g = 9.8

m/s2)

A) 0.50 mm C) 2.5 mm B) 1.0 mm D) 5.0 mm

Q.33 In an elastic solid there is a direct proportionality between strain and:

A) Elastic modulus. C) Cross-sectional area B) Temperature. D) Stress

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.34 The bulk modulus of a material, as a meaningful physical property, is applicable to which of the following? A) Only solids C) Only gases B) Only liquids D) Solids, liquids and gases

Q.35 The quantity “Modulus of Rigidity” expressed in terms of the fundamental quantities

(mass, length, time) is equivalent to:

A) [MLT−1

] C) [M2L

−1T

−3]

B) [ML−1

T−2

] D) A dimensionless quantity. Q.36 The quantity “strain” expressed in terms of the fundamental quantities (mass, length,

time) is equivalent to:

A) [MLT−1

] C) [M2L

−1T

−3]

B) [ML−1

T−2

] D) A dimensionless quantity. Q.37 Bar One has a Young’s modulus that is bigger than that of Bar Two. This indicates Bar

One: A) Is longer than Bar Two. B) Has a greater cross-sectional area than Bar Two. C) Has a greater elastic limit than Bar Two. D) Is made of material that is different from Bar Two.

Q.38 Consider two steel rods, A and B. B has three times the area and twice the length of A,

so Young’s modulus for B will be what factor times Young’s modulus for A? A) 3.0 C) 1.5 B) 0.5 D) 1.0

Q.39 A tire stops a car by use of friction. What modulus should we use to calculate the stress

and strain on the tire? A) Young’s modulus C) Shear modulus B) Compression modulus D) Bulk modulus

Q.40 Increase in temperature of gas is due to increase in

A) Translational K.E C) Rotational K.E B) Gravitational K.E D) Vibrational K.E

PART II - CHEMISTRY

Q.41 Which of the following oxides is unlikely to dissolve in aqueous NaOH? A) Al2O3 C) P4O10

B) MgO D) SiO2 Q.42 In which of the following pairs is the radius of second atoms greater than that of the

first atom? A) Na, Mg C) P, N B) Sr, Ca D) Cl, Br

Q.43 An element Q has a low proton number. It forms an amphoteric oxide and a chloride

which, when anhydrous, is readily hydrolyzed by water. Which group in the periodic table might contain Q? A) I-A C) V-A B) III-A D) IV-A

UNIT WISE TESTS 6


Q.44 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ are isoelectronic (have same number of electrons). In what order do their radii increase. (Smallest → Largest)

A) Ar, Ca2+, K+ C) Ca2+, Ar, K+ B) Ar, K+, Ca+2 D) Ca2+, K+, Ar

Q.45 Which one of the following methods is the most suitable for the extraction of Barium?

A) Electrolyzing aqueous barium chloride B) Electrolyzing molten barium chloride C) Roasting barium sulphide in air D) Reducing barium oxide with carbon

Q.46 The solubilities of Group II-A metal sulphates decrease as the proton number of the

metal increases. Which factor affects this trend? A) The atomic radius of the metal atom B) The enthalpy change of of formation of the sulphates C) the enthalpy change of hydration of the metal ion D) the first ionization energy of the metal

Q.47 Which of the following elements forms largest size of ion with a noble gas

configuration? A) Al C) P B) Cl D) S

Q.48 Which group of the element has maximum M.P and B.P

A) I-A C) IV-A B) II-A D) III-A

Q.49 Which of the element has lowest M.P and B.P

A) B C) Mg B) Ca D) Sr

Q.50 Which property of 1st six elements of period 3 (Na to S) continuously increase

numerically? A) Atomic radius C) Oxidation state B) 1st Ionization energy D) Melting point

Q.51 In the periodic table the electronegativity of the elements in

A) Period 3 increases from Na to Cl C) Group III increase from I to F B) Group-2 increases from Ba to Be D) All of above

Q.52 Mark the correct statement

A) All the lanthanides are present in the same group B) All the metals are good conductor of heat C) All the alkali metals are present in the same group D) All the noble gases are present in the same period

Q.53 In the periodic table all the non-metals are placed under which of the block

A) s C) d B) p D) f

Q.54 Which of the following has both members from the same period of the periodic table

A) Cl, Br C) Na, Ca

B) Na, Cl D) Ca, Cl

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.55 Which of the following is not a periodic property?

A) Ionization Energy C) Atomic radius

B) Density D) Mass number

Q.56 The element placed extreme right of the periodic table

A) Transition elements C) Non-metals

B) Metalloid D) Metals

Q.57 The first Ionization Energy of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order

A) Na > Mg > Al < Si C) Na < Mg > Al < Si

B) Na < Mg < Al > Si D) Na < Mg < Al < Si

Q.58 Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent

A) Cl-1 C) Ca+2

B) Ar D) K+

Q.59 The chloride of ‘J’ does not react with water or dissolve in it. Which one of the following

element ‘J’ could be

A) Al C) P

B) C D) Mg

Q.60 Which of the following oxides will produce the strongest acid when treated with water?

A) N2O5 C) P2O5

B) SO3 D) Cl2O7

Q.61 Which of the following element has an oxide with a giant structure and a chloride which

is readily hydrolyzed

A) Ba C) P

B) C D) Si

Q.62 Coloured glasses are used in windows require three oxides, one macromolecule and

ionic and one of the transition metal. Which combination is likely to produce coloured

glasses

A) Al2O3, MgO, SnO C) SiO2, CaO, PbO

B) P4O10, CaO, CuO D) SiO2, PbO, CoO

Q.63 An element with atomic number 20 is placed in which period of the periodic table?

A) 1 C) 3

B) 2 D) 4

Q.64 Which of the following has smallest radius?

A) Cl- C) Ca+2

B) K+ D) S-2

Q.65 Which of the following groups contains metals, non-metals as well as metalloids

A) I-A C) IV-A

B) II-A D) III-A

Q.66 Which of the following oxide has maximum solubility?

A) BeO C) CaO B) MgO D) SrO

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.67 Which of the following SO4-2 are soluble in water?

A) MgSO4 C) SrSO4

B) CaSO4 D) BaSO4 Q.68 Which of the following element form peroxide?

A) Mg C) Sr B) Ca D) Li

Q.69 Which of the following react with hot water?

A) Ca C) Mg B) Sr D) Ba

Q.70 Which of the following hydroxide is more basic in nature?

A) Be(OH)2 C) Ca(OH)2

B) Mg(OH)2 D) Sr(OH)2 Q.71 Which of the following oxide of group II-A element is amphoteric ion nature?

A) BeO C) BaO B) MgO D) CaO

Q.72 Which of the following elements carbonate do not decompose on heating?

A) CaCO3 C) Na2CO3

B) MgCO3 D) SrCO3 Q.73 Generally the alkali and alkaline earth metals can form metal oxides, peroxides and

super oxides but one metal can form peroxide (other than normal oxide) in drastic conditions only: A) Li C) Sr B) Ba D) Na

Q.74 Indicate the correct statement about alkali metals (I-A):

A) Alkali metals don not react with water B) Alkali metals possess the smallest atomic radii C) Brine (NaCl aq.) on electrolysis give chlorine at cathode and hydrogen at anode D) Cesium is used in photoelectric cells

Q.75 There are two metals A and B and these metals can form oxides but the metal B can

also form nitride. The metals A and B are A) Mg and Ca C) Na and Li B) Li and K D) K and Mg

Q.76 A mixture of the oxide of two elements of the third period is dissolved in water. The

solution is approximately neutral. What could be the constituents of the mixture. A) Al2O3 and MgO C) Na2O and MgO B) Na2O and P4O10 D) SO3 and P4O10

Q.77 With the increase in the oxidation state of the metal of metallic oxide ______ character

is increased A) Acidic C) Basic B) Amphoteric D) Neutral

Q.78 Which of the following elements can form neutral oxide?

A) Lithium C) Calcium B) Hydrogen D) Carbon

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.79 Mixture of NaHCO3 and citric acid is called A) Fehling solution C) Tollen’s reagent B) Health salt D) Soda ash

Q.80 The correct order of the size of chloride species is

A) Clo > Cl- > Cl+ C) Clo > Cl+> Cl- B) Cl- > Clo > Cl+ D) Cl+> Cl- > Clo

Q.81 Quartz has all of the following properties except

A) Transparent C) Silica is a network solid B) Colourless varieties are used as gems D) Colourless

Q.82 CO has which of the following property

A) Turns moist litmus paper red C) 1.5 times heavier than air B) Acidic in nature D) Burns with pale blue flame

Q.83 Neon has all the following uses except

A) Acts as an anesthetic C) Neon sign B) fluorescent tube D) Photography

Q.84 Halogens show all the following property except?

A) All the halogens show common oxidation state -1 B) Chlorine does not show +1 oxidation state C) Halogen can show both odd and even oxidation state D) Halogen combine with metal to form ionic halides

Q.85 Which of the following is not a use of chlorine

A) Sterilization of water C) Manufacturing of bleaching powder B) Flame retardant D) Used for swimming pools

Q.86 Deficiency of which of the following halogen is the main cause of goiter and dwarfism

A) Iodine C) Chlorine B) Fluorine D) Bromine

Q.87 The group which shows highest electrical conductance

A) I-A C) I-B B) IV-A D) V-A

Q.88 Which of the following cannot be decomposed by heating

A) NaHCO3 C) Ca(HCO3)2

B) Sr(HCO3)2 D) None of these Q.89 LiCl is soluble in in organic solvent while NaCl is not because

A) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl B) Li+ has more value of hydration energy than Na+

C) LiCl is more covalent than NaCl D) Li+ has more value of hydration energy than Na+

Q.90 Which of the following is likely to have an electronegativity similar to that of Aluminum? A) Ba C) Ca B) Be D) Mg

UNIT WISE TESTS 10


PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 The lives of thousands of birds are in _____ as a result of the oil spillage.

A) Captivity C) Synergy

B) Alacrity D) Jeopardy

Q.92 She believes strongly in the _____ goodness of all people.

A) Contrived C) Mercenary

B) Inherent D) Imperious

Q.93 I blame myself one day; I _____ myself the next, only to curse myself again on the third

day.

A) Galvanize C) Denounce

B) Insinuate D) Exonerate

Q.94 She spoke to Frank who guided her to what is eternal and _____ in life.

A) Lucrative C) Evanescent

B) Celestial D) Persnickety

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 The softness of the fabric was like silk.

A) B) C) D)

Q.96 Whiskers are very sensitive, so animals can use them to avoid from obstacles in the dark.

A) B) C) D)

Q.97 The most important skill I had learned in my two years of senior high school is to direct the

A) B) C)

of my own studies.

D)

Q.98 Although I'm a pacifist, I'm against all wars.

A) B) C) D)

Q.99 Irregardless of where people live toady, they can obtain some fresh fruits, meats and vegetables

A) B) C)

throughout the year.

D)

Q.100 The dog wagged its tail as if it was saying, “Welcome back!”

A) B) C) D)

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101

A) After clearing his throat, his voice sounded much better to me. B) After clearing his throat, his voice sounded more better to me. C) After clearing his throat, Ali sounded very better to me. D) After Ali cleared his throat, his voice sounded much better to me.

Q.102

A) Everyone on the committee is welcome to express his or her ideas. B) Everyone in the committee is welcome to express one’s ideas. C) Everyone in the committee are welcome to express their ideas. D) Everyone in the committee is welcome to express his ideas.

Q.103

A) There was hair on the microscope lens. B) There were hairs on microscope lens. C) There was a hair on the microscope lens. D) There were hair on the microscope lens.

Q.104

A) Walking along the stream, looking for wild flowers; and watching for birds fascinated me. B) Walking along the stream, looking for wild flowers, and watching for birds fascinated me. C) To walk along the stream, to look for wild flowers, and watching for birds fascinated me. D) To walk along the stream, looking for wild flowers, and to watch for birds fascinated me.

Q.105

A) We could have won the game, if we played a little better. B) We would have won the game, if we played a little better. C) We would win the game, if we had played a little better. D) We could have won the game if we had played a little better.

Q.106

A) The mayor along with the governor hope that the bill will soon become a law. B) The mayor as well as the governor hope that the bill will soon become a law. C) Mayor and governor hope that bill will soon become law. D) The mayor as well as the governor hopes that the bill will soon become a law.

Q.107

A) I sleep with the window open unless it's really cold. B) I sleep with the window openly unless it's really cold. C) I sleep with the window open unless it isn’t really cold. D) I sleep with the window open unless it isn’t real cold.

Q.108

A) The manager looked at me with some alarm. B) The manager looked at me in some alarm. C) The manager looked at me at some alarm. D) The manager looked at me from some alarm.

UNIT WISE TESTS 12


Q.109 A) The group released a new CD today, however, it will not be available for a month. B) The group released a new CD today; however, it will not be available for a month. C) The group released a new CD today; However it will not be available for a month. D) The group released a new CD today: however, it will not be available for a month.

Q.110

A) No sooner had we sat down on the table when the phone rang. B) No sooner we sat down at the table than the phone rang. C) No sooner had we sat down at the table than the phone rang. D) We had no sooner sat down on the table when the phone had rung.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 INIQUITY

A) Disquiet C) Inquisitiveness

B) Indifference D) Injustice

Q.112 INTRANSIGENT

A) Amenable C) Short-lived

B) Relentless D) Unwieldy

Q.113 IMPENDING

A) Looming C) Improbable

B) Impoverished D) Belated

Q.114 JINGOISM

A) Pandemonium C) Orthodoxy

B) Conservatism D) Chauvinism

Q.115 JIG

A) Caper C) Paralyze

B) Contain D) Curdle

Q.116 LACERATING

A) Tormenting C) Soothing

B) Augmenting D) Sprawling

Q.117 IMPRECATION

A) Curse C) Brevity

B) Glorification D) Review

Q.118 LACUNA

A) Tissue C) Cavity

B) Tumor D) Ligament

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.119 INTER A) Unearth C) Sepulcher B) Mediate D) Centralized

Q.120 JUNKET

A) Twitch C) Feast B) Diminish D) Drain

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 Blood leaves each kidney via.

A) Renal vein C) Afferent arteriole B) Renal artery D) Efferent arteriole

Q.122 A central cavity of the kidney in which urine is collected, following the filtration of blood

and further processing through tubular system. A) Renal Pelvis C) Renal corpuscle B) Renal hilus D) Renal pyramid

Q.123 Which one is wrong about urethra

A) It is a tube, through which urine leaves the body B) During urination, it receives urine from urinary bladder C) It empties in the vagina in females. D) It empties through the penis in males.

Q.124 In human adults, urination is voluntarily controlled by

A) Sphincter at the base of urethra C) Sphincter at the distal end of urethra B) Sphincter at the base of ureter D) Sphincter at the proximal end of ureter

Q.125 Cortical nephrons are arranged along

A) Cortex C) Cortex and medulla B) Medulla D) Either cortex and medulla

Q.126 A nephron finally empties into

A) Renal Pelvis C) Urinary bladder B) Urine collecting tubule D) Ureter

Q.127 Network of capillaries, which intermingle with proximal and distal tubules of the

nephron is A) Vasa recta C) Glomerulus. B) Peritubular capillaries D) All of these

Q.128 Pick up the choice which is incorrect about vasa recta

A) Is network of vessels C) Present in juxtamedullary nephrons only B) Located in the loop of Henle D) Both A and B

Q.129 The collecting tubule of a kidney is located between.

A) DCT and PCT C) PCT and renal pelvis B) Loop of Henle and PCT D) DCT and renal pelvis

Q.130 Glomerular filterate does not contains numerous useful substances such as

A) Glucose C) Salts B) Amino acids D) Plasma proteins

UNIT WISE TESTS 14


Q.131 Reabsorption of all the constituents of glomerular filtrate takes place in A) Proximal tubules C) Loop of Henle B) Distal tubules D) None of these

Q.132 During urine formation, tubular secretion occurs from

A) Tubular epithelium into the lumen C) Capillary epithelium into the lumen B) Tubular lumen into the epithelium D) Capillary lumen into the epithelium

Q.133 The pH value of the filtrate passing through the tubule is balanced by

A) Tubular secretion C) Both A and B B) Hydrogen ions D) Hydroxyl ions

Q.134 In restricted supply of water, the principal function of the body is

A) Conservation of water C) Counter current multiplier B) Secretion of aldosterone D) All of these

Q.135 In the sufficient supply of water, reabsorption of water from the filtrate is reduced by

A) Conservation of water C) Secretion of vasopressin B) Counter current multiplier D) Secretion of aldosterone

Q.136 When ADH is secreted

A) Conservation of water takes place C) Concentrated urine is produced B) Volume is urine is reduce D) More frequent urination occurs

Q.137 Counter-current multiplier results in

A) Gradual concentration of the interstitial fluid B) Gradual concentration of the urine C) Gradual dilution of the urine D) Gradual dilution of the interstitial fluid

Q.138 A person produces hypertonic urine, when

A) Water supply is sufficient C) ADH is not secreted B) Water is supply is restricted D) Aldosterone is secreted

Q.139 Active reabsorption occurs in

A) Descending loop of Henle C) Urine collecting tubule B) Ascending loop of Henle D) Both B and C

Q.140 Kidney as osmoregulatory organ is assisted

A) Posterior pituitary C) Anterior pituitary B) Adrenal medulla D) Adrenal cortex

Q.141 Diuresis occurs under the influence of

A) ADH C) Overdrinking B) Vasopressin D) All of these

Q.142 High levels of circulating calcium in blood is called.

A) Kidney stones C) Both A and B B) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperoxaluria

Q.143 High levels of circulating oxalates in blood is consequence of

A) Kidney stones C) Both A and B B) Hyperoxaluria D) Hypercalcemia

UNIT WISE TESTS 15


Q.144 Excessive use of green vegetables & tomatoes may become the immediate cause of A) Kidney stones C) Both A and B B) Hyperoxaluria D) Hypercalcemia

Q.145 Pick up the correct sequence of events

A) Factors of pathological and chemical nature progressive destruction of the nephron Renal

failure

B) Progressive destruction of the nephron Renal failure factors of pathological and chemical

nature

C) Progressive destruction of the nephron factors of pathological and chemical nature Renal

Failure

D) Renal failure factors of pathological and chemical nature progressive destruction of the

nephron

Q.146 Receptors in the hypothalamus are

A) Chemoreceptors C) Photoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors D) Both B and C

Q.147 Meissner’s corpuscles do not

A) Situated deep in the body C) Consist of twisted endings B) Consist of spiral endings D) End in a knob

Q.148 Pacinian corpuscles

A) Lie in papillae C) Receive pressure stimulus B) Are also non-encapsulated neuron endings D) Are touch receptors

Q.149 The intensity of stimulus is increased by

A) Repeated impulses C) Both A and B B) Involving more fibers D) Force of impulse

Q.150 Pick up the modality of sensation from the following

A) Pain and touch C) Touch and sight B) Sight and sound D) All of these

Q.151 Pick up the true choice

A) Pain receptors are nearly more abundant than cold receptors B) Cold receptors are nearly more abundant than pain receptors C) The heat or temperature receptors are more abundant than cold receptors D) Both A and C

Q.152 Arrange the following receptors in abundance order

A) Heat, Cold, Pain C) Pain, Cold, Heat B) Cold, Heat, pain D) Pain, Heat, Cold

Q.153 ____________Are the chief structural and functional unit of nervous system

A) Neurons C) Glial Cells B) Neuroglia D) All of these

Q.154 Once divide do not mature any further is true about

A) Nerve cells C) Skin cells B) Glial cells D) None of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 16


Q.155 Arising from the cell body are/is A) Axons C) Dendrites B) Dendron D) All of these

Q.156 Are the structures which are stimulated by impulse coming via motor neuron.

A) Receptors C) Muscles B) Glands D) Both B and C

Q.157 Nerve Impulse/action potential

A) Is a wave of chemical changes C) Travels along the length of neuron B) Is a wave of electrical changes D) All of these

Q.158 PNS nerve includes

A) Interneurons C) Associative neurons B) Motor neurons D) All of these

Q.159 It takes input from sense organs and conveys output to skeletal muscles

A) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system B) Somatic nervous system D) Autonomic nervous system

Q.160 Stimulus for relaxing responses are conveyed by

A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

Q.161 Rumination is controlled by


Q.162 Protection against bumps and jolts to CNS is provided by

A) Cranium and vertebral column C) Meninges B) CSF D) All of these

Q.163 Which one of the following is not hollow?

A) Brain C) CNS B) Spinal cord D) None of these

Q.164 A cluster of neurons produce sensation of pleasure in

A) Amygdala C) Cerebrum B) Hippocampus D) Hypothalamus

Q.165 It is involved in storage of memory, fear, rage tranquility and hunger

A) Amygdala C) Hypothalamus B) Hippocampus D) Limbic system

Q.166 Memory storage for behaviors is carried out by

A) Hippocampus C) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum D) All of these

Q.167 It prepares the body for highly energetic activity


UNIT WISE TESTS 17


Q.168 It slows down digestion A) Somatic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system

Q.169 Thy longest axon is held by

A) Motor neurons C) Associative neuron B) Sensory neuron D) Interneuron

Q.170 The dendrites and axons of relay neurons can be identified by

A) Dendron C) Long axon B) Synaptic knobs D) Axonal dendrites

UNIT WISE TESTS 18


MCQs Response Form

university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark self...

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