university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark self...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Self Test Series - 1

ARK Self-Test Series

~ Test 1

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Pink D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 1: PHYSICAL QUANTITIES AND UNITS

Unit 2: FORCES

CHEMISTRY Unit 1A: FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS

Unit 2A: STATES OF MATTER

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 1: INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY

Unit 2: CELL BIOLOGY

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS Q.1 Since 1983 the standard meter has been defined in terms of which of the following?

A) Specific alloy bar housed at Sevres, France B) Wavelength of light emitted by krypton-86 C) Distance from the Earth’s equator to the North Pole D) The distance light travels in a certain fraction of a second

Q.2 Since 1967 the standard definition for the second has been based on which of the

following? A) Characteristic frequency of the cesium-133 atom B) Sidereal day C) Average solar day D) Greenwich Civil Time

Q.3 In mechanics, physicists use three basic quantities to derive additional quantities. Mass

is one of the three quantities. What are the other two? A) Length and force C) Length and time B) Power and force D) Force and time

Q.4 The prefixes which are abbreviated p, n, and G represent which of the following?

A) 10-2, 10-6, and 1015 C) 10-12, 10-9, and 109 B) 10-9, 106, and 1010 D) 10-15, 10-6, and 1012

Q.5 The ratio M/m of the prefixes M and m has what value?

A) 103 C) 109 B) 106 D) 1018

Q.6 One year is about ________ seconds while one day is exactly ________ seconds.

A) 3.16 × 107, 86400 C) 3.16 × 107, 8640 B) 5.26 × 105, 86400 D) 1.04 × 106, 36000

Q.7 Physics is ________ science.

A) Theoretical C) Theoretical and experimental B) Experimental D) None of these

Q.8 The branch of physics related to the objects moving with the speed nearly equal to

speed of light is A) Nuclear Physics C) Relativistic mechanics B) Plasma Physics D) None of these

Q.9 The number of system of units used in physics

A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

Q.10 The characteristics of an ideal standard

A) Accessible C) In variable B) Measurable D) All

Q.11 The standard alloy of platinum and iridium have diameter

A) 2 cm C) 3 cm B) 2.9 cm D) 3.9 cm

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.12 Which of the following is not a base quantity? A) Temperature C) Intensity of light B) Length D) Electric charge

Q.13 In which system of units Prefixes are used?

A) MKSA C) CGS B) MKS D) FPS

Q.14 Which Physical quantity have same unit in all the system of units

A) Length C) Time B) Mass D) Power

Q.15 One light year is equal to______________

A) 31.5 x 106 sec C) 9.5 x 1015 m B) 365 days D) 365 Km

Q.16 ___________ is required to measure the value of the physical quantity as compared to

the standard unit A) Time C) System of unit B) Numerical value D) None of these

Q.17 SI unit for the surface tension is

A) N m C) N m-2 B) N m-1 D) Erg

Q.18 Density of water in the CGS system of units is

A) 10 kgm-3 C) 1 kgm-3 B) 1000 gcm-3 D) 1 gcm-3

Q.19 The ratio between the SI unit and CGS unit of the Gravitational constant “G” is

A) 10 C) 1000 B) 100 D) 10000

Q.20 The SI unit of the Plank constant are same as unit of

A) Force C) Impulse B) Angular momentum D) Kinetic energy

Q.21 Which quantity have the different units from the other three

A) Density x Volume x velocity C) Young’s modulus B) Force D) Weight

Q.22 A mass of liquid of density ρ is thoroughly mixed with an equal mass of another liquid

of density 2ρ. If no change of the volume occurs. What is the density of the liquid mixture?

A) 4

3 ρ C)

5

3 ρ

B) 3

2 ρ D) 3ρ

Q.23 Which of the following can be measured in same unit as force?

A) Energy x time C) Momentum x torque B) Momentum x distance D) Energy x distance

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.24 An equation which is homogenous is A) Correct C) May correct or may incorrect B) Incorrect D) All of these

Q.25 Dimension of the physical quantity show its _______ nature

A) Qualitative C) Both B) Quantitative nature D) None of these

Q.26 Light takes the time to reach earth from sun is

A) 8 min 20 s C) 1 min 10 s B) 10 min 5s D) 5 h 20 s

Q.27 Which of the following is dimensionless quantity

A) Elasticity Modulus C) Impulse B) Refractive index D) Permittivity of space

Q.28 Which relation could be correct for the velocity of ocean waves

A) √gλ C) √ρgh

B) √g

h D) √

g

ρ

Q.29 Energy corresponding to 1 kg mass is

A) 1 J C) 3 x 1016 eV B) 1 eV D) 9 x 1016 J

Q.30 Which of the following is the fundamental quantity in MKS system A) Mass C) Intensity of light B) Temperature D) All of these

Q.31 The quantity (h)(s)

(t)(λ) have same dimension as (where h is plank constant and s is

distance) A) Force C) Momentum B) Torque D) None of these

Q.32 The dimensions of the plane angle radian is

A) [L] C) [LT-1] B) [T-1] D) None of these

Q.33 In the relation ‘vt = vo + 0.61t’ the unit of 0.61t are

A) m

sec2 C) N

℃

B) m

sec℃ D) No unit

Q.34 Dimensional formula of any relation is usually expressed in term of

A) Base units C) Derived units B) Fundamental units D) All of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.35 A woman of 50 kg mass is standing in an elevator. Suddenly, the cable of the elevator breaks and the elevator begins to fall freely. The force exerted by the floor of the elevator on the woman is

A) 0 kg C) 100 kg B) 50 kg D) 50 x 9.8 kg

Q.36 The apparent weight of a person of mass m in an elevator is 2 mg. the elevator is moving

A) Up with an acceleration of g

2 C) Up with an acceleration of 2g

B) Up with an acceleration of g D) Down with an acceleration g

Q.37 A balloon has 5 g of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air escapes at a uniform rate

with a velocity of 4 cms-1. If the balloon shrinks completely in 2.5 second, then the average force acting on the balloon is

A) 2 dyne C) 8 dyne B) 50 dyne D) 8 N

Q.38 A 1000 kg lift is supported by a cable that can support 2000 kg. the shortest distance

in which the lift can be stopped when it is descending with a speed of 2.5 ms-1 is [Take g = 10ms-2]

A) 1 m C) 5

32 m

B) 2 m D) 5

16 m

Q.39 Average density of the earth A) Is inversely proportional to g C) Is a complex function of g B) Is directly proportional to g D) Does not depend of g

Q.40 Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger

than the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g, then

A) g’ = 3g C) g’ = 21g

B) g’ = 9g D) g’ = 9

g

PART II - CHEMISTRY Q.41 27 g of Aluminium will react completely with how much mass of oxygen to produce

Al2O3 A) 8g of oxygen C) 16g of oxygen B) 32g of oxygen D) 24g of oxygen

Q.42 Which of the following unit cell has lattice point in the center of each face and at the

corner of the unit cell A) Primitive unit cell C) Body centered unit cell B) Face centered unit cell D) End centered unit cell

Q.43 Which of the following substance shows tetragonal crystal system

A) BaSO4 C) SnO2

B) ZnO D) H3BO3

UNIT WISE TESTS 6


Q.44 The coordination of a metal crystallizing in a hexagonal close packed structure is A) 12 C) 6 B) 4 D) 8

Q.45 Atomic number does not present

A) The no of protons in the nucleus B) The no of electrons in the neutral atom C) The order in which the element appears in the periodic table D) The sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom

Q.46 What volume of oxygen is required for the complete combustion of a mixture of 10 cm3

of CH4 and 10.0 cm3 of C2H4 A) 20 cm3 C) 40 cm3 B) 30 cm3 D) 50 cm3

Q.47 Diamond is a pure carbon. A ring has 18 g diamond in it what is the number of atom in

it A) 1 NA C) 1.4 NA B) 1.2 NA D) 1.5 NA

Q.48 Which of the following reagents is used to absorb water in combustion analysis of

organic compound A) CaCl2 C) P2O5 B) Conc.H2SO4 D) Mg(ClO4)2

Q.49 The mass of chlorine atom is 35.5 amu. Which of the following proper terms is used for

this mass? A) Mass number C) Relative isotopic mass B) Relative atomic mass D) All of the above

Q.50 Avogadro’s number may represent.

A) Volume of particles C) Mass of particles B) Number of particles D) All of the above

Q.51 Combustion analysis is performed in order to determine

A) Number of ions C) Empirical formula of organic compound B) Structural formula D) Isotopes of an element

Q.52 In the mass spectrometry ions are separated on the basis of

A) Mass only C) Mass to charge ratio B) Charges only D) Change to mass ratio

Q.53 The Avogadro’s constant is for the number of

A) Atoms in 1 g of helium gas C) Electrons needed to deposit 24 g Mg B) Molecules in 35.5 g chlorine gas D) Atoms in 24 g of Mg.

Q.54 The no. of moles of CO2 which contains 16 g of oxygen is

A) 0.25 C) 1.0 B) 0.50 D) 1.50

Q.55 %age of calcium in calcium carbonate is

A) 20% C) 40% B) 30% D) 50%

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.56 392 g H2SO4 has number of moles A) 4 C) 2 B) 1 D) 3

Q.57 Dempster’s mass spectrometer is used to determine

A) Relative abundance C) Both a and b B) Mass number D) None of these

Q.58 All of the following statement is correct except

A) Formation of uni-negative ion is exothermic B) Number of cations molecular ion is less than that of anionic C) Number of cations having group of atoms is less than that of anions D) Loss of electrons is called oxidation

Q.59 0.1 mole of H3PO4 is completely ionized in water, the no of total ions produced during

its ionization are A) 6.02 x 10 23 C) 0.1 x 6.02 x 10 23

B) 2.408 x 10 23 D) 0.1 x 2.408 x 10 23 Q.60 Molecules of air do not settle down. This is due to

A) non-polar nature of gas C) elastic collisions of gas molecules B) different molar mass D) pressure of dust particles

Q.61 Which of the following liquid has maximum boiling point?

A) acetic acid C) naphthalene B) phenol D) water

Q.62 London dispersion forces are present in all types of molecules but they are very

significant in the elements of groups. A) V A and VII A C) VI A and VIII A B) V, VI, VIII D) VII A, VIII A

Q.63 The evidence of the existence of Vander Waal's forces

A) non- ideal behaviour of gases C) Joule Thomson effect B) liquefication of gases D) all of the above

Q.64 The most volatile halogen acid is

A) HF C) HCl B) HBr D) HI

Q.65 With the increase of C-atoms in the organic compound which property always decreases

A) boiling point C) density B) strength of intermolecular forces D) vapour pressure

Q.66 Which of the following substances has maximum value of ΔHvap?

A) NH3 C) SO2 B) I2 D) HCl

Q.67 Which of the following statements is incorrect

A) ionic solids are brittle but metallic solids are malleable and ductile B) covalent solids are very hard but molecular solids are soft C) properties of isomorphism and polymorphism is shown by ionic crystals D) molecular solids have H-bonding and dipole dipole interaction.

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.68 The number of molecules in 1 dm3 of H2 at STP is. A) 2.7 x 1022 C) 4.9 x 1022 B) 5.9 x 1022 D) 5.4 x 1022

Q.69 Chlorine is a poisonous gas but used largely on the industrial scale. Which of the

following processes does not involve the use this gas? A) Table salt C) Bleaching B) HCl D) Water purification

Q.70 The value of R in General Gas Equation depends on

A) Mass of a gas C) pressure only B) Temperature D) unit of pressure and volume

Q.71 All of the following relationships are correct according to General Gas Equation except

A) PVm T C) PM dT B) P CT D) πC T

Q.72 A liquid gets the shape of container because

A) liquids do not have definite shape C) liquids are compressible B) liquids do not have definite value D) liquid molecules, can slide past over each other

Q.73 Which of the following is the value of absolute zero

A) – 273.15 °C C) 0 K B) – 459 °F D) All

Q.74 According to the vandar Waal’s equation which of the following is incorrect

A) Ideal pressure is greater than observed pressure B) Constant ‘a’ is a measure of strength of intermolecular forces C) Effective volume ‘b’ is four times greater than actual volume D) In SI unit of ‘a’ is Nm+4mol-1

Q.75 Which of the following postulate of KMT is the cause for deviation from ideality?

A) The molecules of a gas have no forces of attraction for each other. B) The gas molecules have random motion C) There is no influence of force of gravity D) The gas molecules are widely separated.

Q.76 The temperature above, which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure,

is applied is called A) Critical temperature C) Transition temperature B) Optimum temperature D) All

Q.77 Three gases A, B and C are taken in separate container having equal volumes under

same condition of temperature and pressure. Which one of the following statement is correct for them A) They have same velocities C) They have same masses B) They have equal number of molecules D) They have equal density

Q.78 Molar heat of vaporization of water is 40.7 kJ mol-1. It is due to

A) Hydrogen bonding C) Dipole interaction B) London dispersion forces D) Both A and B

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.79 Which of the following substance does not have allotropic forms

A) Sulphur C) Oxygen

B) Phosphorous D) Nitrogen

Q.80 The boiling point of Kr is higher (-152.23 °C) than that of the He (-268.8 °C).

A) Kr forms greater no of covalent bonds C) Kr has lowest freezing point

B) Greater polarizability of Kr than He D) Kr is a liquid state at ordinary temperature

Q.81 The units of gas constant R is expressed in terms of

A) Energy K mol-1 C) Energy K-1 mol-1

B) Energy K mol–1 D) Energy K-1 mol

Q.82 A pressure Cooker reduces cooking time because

A) Heat is more evenly distributed B) Boiling point of water is increased

C) High pressure softens the food D) system is closed

Q.83 All of the following factors does not affect the vapor pressure of a liquid except?

A) Volume of container C) Surface area

B) Nature of liquid D) Amount of liquid

Q.84 At higher temperature isotherm moves away from both the axes because of increase in

A) Pressure C) Volume

B) No of moles D) All

Q.85 Equal volume of H2 and He are inserted in the same vessel. The pressure exerted by H2

and He are in the ratio

A) 1:1 C) 2:1

B) 1:2 D) All

Q.86 The most ideal gas at room temperature is

A) CO2 C) NH3

B) SO2 D) N2

Q.87 Isomorphic crystals show

A) Same chemical properties C) Same physical properties

B) Same melting point D) Same crystalline form

Q.88 NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among the hydrides of 5th group element due to

A) Very small size of nitrogen C) Lone pair of electrons present on nitrogen

B) Pyramidal structure of NH3 D) Enhanced electronegative character of nitrogen

Q.89 Which of the following metal show face centered cubic structure?

A) Zn C) Mg

B) Na D) Cu

Q.90 Covalent solid shows all the following property except

A) Very high MP and BP C) Have layered and network structure

B) All of them are non-conductor D) More soluble in non-polar solvent

UNIT WISE TESTS 10


PART III – ENGLISH Q.91 Her inner emotions are clearly at odds with her _____, audacious exterior.

A) Torpid C) Brassy

B) Uber D) Tranquil

Q.92 He joined words together to create _____.

A) Syllogisms C) Aphorisms

B) Euphemisms D) Neologisms

Q.93 She _____herself for being a bad mother.

A) Prided C) Lamented

B) Berated D) Apologized

Q.94 He answered openly and honestly without hesitation or _____.

A) Emancipation C) Veracity

B) Equivocation D) Manifestation

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 Medicines can be harmful to young children. Make sure you keep them locked in the bathroom

A) B) C) D)

cabinet.

Q.96 Christopher spent hours bathing in a little pool shaded by trees, or laying on the cool grass beside

A) B) C) D)

the pool.

Q.97 The antagonism he felt toward his old enemies were still very strong.

A) B) C) D)

Q.98 Diseased coronary arteries are often surgically bypassed, however half of all bypass grafts fail within

A) B) C) D)

ten years.

Q.99 Her grandmother sees remarkable well considering that she has endured four operations on her

A) B)

eyes and suffered from vitamin deficiency during her childhood.

C) D)

Q.100 The union insisted on an increase in their members’ starting pay, and threatened to call a strike if

A) B) C)

the company refused to meet the demand.

D)

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101 A) The argument between Bill and her lasted twenty years. B) Argument between Bill and her had lasted twenty year. C) The argument between Bill and she lasted twenty years. D) The argument between Bill and she lasted for twenty years.

Q.102

A) Susie not only needs attention but also many compliments. B) Susie not only needs attention but also needs many compliments. C) Susie not only needs attention but also needs many compliments. D) Susie not only needs attention but also many compliments.

Q.103

A) He is not as bright a student as Saria or her. D) He is not so bright a student as Saria or her. B) He is not so bright student as Saria or she. C) He is not as bright a student as Saria or she.

Q.104

A) Both overeating and skipping meals can cause adverse effects. B) Overeating and skipping meals both can cause adverse effects. C) Overeating and skipping meals both can cause adverse affects. D) Both overeating and to skip meals can cause adverse effects.

Q.105

A) Number of smokers has been dropping steadily for twenty years. B) The number of smokers have dropped steadily for twenty years. C) The number of smokers have been dropping steadily for twenty years. D) The number of smokers has been dropping steadily for twenty years.

Q.106

A) By the time, you finish this project, we will grow very old. B) By the time, you finished this project, we will have grown very old. C) By the time, you finish this project, we would have grown very old. D) By the time, you finish this project, we will have grown very old.

Q.107

A) Stone struck her at the forehead. B) The stone struck her on the forehead. C) The stone struck her on her forehead. D) Stone struck her on her forehead.

Q.108

A) To struggle for freedom is not as rewarding as achieving it. B) Struggling for freedom is not as rewarding as achieving it. C) The struggle for freedom is not as rewarding as achieving it. D) Struggling for freedom is not as rewarding as to achieve it.

UNIT WISE TESTS 12


Q.109 A) Our being abandoned by our friends is the cause of great sorrow. B) Being abandoned by our friends, we feel great sorrow. C) Abandoned by our friends, sorrow is the result. D) We feel great sorrow when our friends abandon us.

Q.110

A) We live in a clean and quite neighborhood. B) We live in clean and quite neighborhood. C) We live in a clean and quiet neighborhood. D) We live among clean and quiet neighborhood.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 ADDLED A) Elongated C) Superfluous B) Putrid D) Fresh

Q.112 APPREHENSION

A) Detention C) Reprisal B) Scrutiny D) Elucidation

Q.113 BEGUILE

A) Justify C) Shroud B) Dupe D) Insinuate

Q.114 ARMADA

A) Fleet of ships C) Detachment of soldiers B) Small boat D) Denouement

Q.115 ARCANE

A) Above-board C) Massive B) Rebellious D) Mysterious

Q.116 BENEDICTION

A) Execration C) Blessing B) Accountability D) Articulation

Q.117 ARTIFICE

A) Prosody C) Genius B) Ingenuousness D) Ploy

Q.118 ARCANE

A) Roundish C) Naïve B) Cryptic D) Wily

Q.119 BATTER

A) Sustain C) Ameliorate B) Bruise D) Cringe

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.120 AFFLATUS A) Equipment C) Impulse B) Equilibrium D) Lethargy

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 Enlarged breasts, male phenotype, obesity, small testes with no sperms are symptoms

of A) Edward syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome B) Patau syndrome D) Down syndrome

Q.122 During late telophase of mitosis, actin and myosin are activated to form contractile ring,

due to the signals sent by A) Astral microtubules C) Pole fibers B) Kinetochore fibers D) Centriole

Q.123 Which one of the following is not true about benign tumors

A) Its cells behave like normal cells C) Its cells interfere with normal cells B) Its cells have little deleterious effect D) None of these

Q.124 Pick up the correct sequence of events of cell death by apoptosis

A) Mild convolutions, chromatin compaction and segregation, condensation of cytoplasm, nuclear fragmentation, blebbing, cell fragmentation, and phagocytosis

B) Mild convolutions, condensation of cytoplasm, chromatin compaction and segregation, nuclear fragmentation, blebbing, cell fragmentation, and phagocytosis

C) Condensation of cytoplasm, mild convolutions, chromatin compaction and segregation, nuclear fragmentation, blebbing, cell fragmentation, and phagocytosis

D) Mild convolutions, chromatin compaction and segregation, nuclear fragmentation, condensation of cytoplasm, blebbing, cell fragmentation, and phagocytosis

Q.125 Interactions of community do not include

A) Predation C) Parasitism B) Competition D) None of these

Q.126 Which one of the following does not exist at species level?

A) Gene frequency C) Age distribution B) Gene flow D) All of these

Q.127 Which one of the following is not associated with cloning?

A) It provides multiple copies of valuable organisms of known pedigree B) It is a technology of achieving eugenic aims C) It is unlikely to be adopted for commercial production of valuable animals. D) Both A and B

Q.128 Traditional pest control does not include

A) Poses toxicity problem C) Increases resistance in pests B) Causes environmental problems D) None of these

Q.129 The term vaccine was coined by

A) Eduard Jenner C) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Koch D) None of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 14


Q.130 ____________formation has selective value because this leads to an accomplishment of their function both qualitatively and quantitatively. A) Organelle C) Organ B) Tissue D) Organ system

Q.131 Combination of micro and macro biological molecules in enormous number and variety

forms cells and organelles A) Organelles C) Tissues B) Cells D) Organelles and cells

Q.132 In organisms ___________ usually do not occurs in isolated forms.

A) Molecules C) Elements B) Atoms D) Biomolecules

Q.133 Study of nature of Parenchyma and epithelium is carried out in

A) Physiology C) Molecular biology B) Histology D) Biotechnology

Q.134 A community with its nonliving environment gives rise to

A) An ecosystem C) A biosphere B) A biome D) Dynamic community

Q.135 AIDS is caused through

A) HIV C) Free sexual contact B) Blood transfusion D) All of these

Q.136 Pasteurization is a technique for

A) Food preservation C) Pasteurization B) Fermentation D) Both A and C

Q.137 Most plant cells lack

A) Lysosome and centriole C) Flagellum and microtubules B) Centriole and Flagellum D) All of these

Q.138 The study of the process of protein synthesis is carried out in

A) Physiology C) Molecular biology B) Histology D) Ribosomes

Q.139 Amoeba engulfs solid food particles through cell membrane and the process is called;

A) Endocytosis C) Pinocytosis B) Phagocytosis D) Both A and B

Q.140 Harmful drugs are detoxified by

A) Mitochondria C) Subcellular structure B) Golgi body D) Vesicles

Q.141 The route of newly synthesized proteins is

A) Ribosomes to ER to Golgi apparatus C) ER, Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus B) Ribosomes, Golgi, ER, D) Ribosomes, Golgi, ER

Q.142 Conversion of _________ is carried out in Golgi apparatus

A) Glycogens into glucose C) Proteins into glycoproteins C) Glycoprotein into protein D) Lipids into carbohydrates

UNIT WISE TESTS 15


Q.143 After initiation of cell division a cell contains ___________microtubules associated with centrioles A) 9 C) 18 B) 36 D) 27

Q.144 Under compound microscope mitochondria appear to be;

A) Vesicles C) Rods B) Filaments D) All of these

Q.145 Genes will not be found in gene pairs in

A) Muscle cell of worm C) Sperm cell of frog B) Uterine cell of dog D) Guard cells of leaf

Q.146 Individuals with this condition often do not survive pregnancy and are aborted and

those who survive have female appearance, is being said about A) Mongolism C) Klinefelter’s syndrome B) Turner’s syndrome D) Jacobs

Q.147 They proliferate, unlimitedly, without considering the checks and the programs of the

body A) Benign tumor C) Invasive cells B) Metastatic cells D) Malignant tumor

Q.148 Long term regulation of activities occurs in

A) Both in animals and plants C) In plants only B) In animals, only D) In animals always but in plants rarely

Q.149 A community together with its non-living surroundings is

A) Biodiversity C) Ecological niche B) Ecosystem D) All of these

Q.150 ___________ is/are present in all cells whether prokaryotic or eukaryotic.

A) Cell membrane C) Ribosomes B) Cell wall D) Both A and C

Q.151 An aphid that attacks walnut tree is being controlled biologically by a wasp that

parasitizes this aphid. In this case, which one is biopest? A) Aphid C) Wasp B) Walnut tree D) None of these

Q.152 Integrated disease management

A) Is combating disease using all methods

B) Requires awareness of community

C) Effective program for eliminating and control of dangerous diseases

D) All of these

Q.153 Cisternae break up into vesicles from the

A) Maturing face C) Forming face B) Convex face D) None of these

Q.154 Which type of proteins is found in centrioles?

A) Actin C) Tubulin B) Myosin D) none of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 16


Q.155 Centrioles are found in all of the following except A) Animal cells C) Lower plant cells B) Some microorganisms D) Fungal cells

Q.156 Mitochondria contain

A) Cristae C) Ribosomes B) DNA D) All of these

Q.157 Blebs from tips of SER fuse with

A) Golgi apparatus at maturation face C) Golgi apparatus at concave face B) Golgi apparatus at forming face D) Both A and C

Q.158 The maturation face of Golgi apparatus gives rise to

A) Transport vesicles C) Blebs B) Secretary granules D) Both A and C

Q.159 Small knob like structures are present on/in

A) Inner surface of cristae C) Inner mitochondrial membrane B) Mitochondrial matrix D) All of these

Q.160 Pick up the correct one

A) The initiation of polypeptides occurs at 5’ end of mRNA B) The initiation of polypeptides occurs at 3’ end of mRNA C) The completion of polypeptides occurs at 5’ end of mRNA D) The completion of polypeptides occurs at both 5’ and 3’ end of mRNA

Q.161 Which one of the following is true about mitosis?

A) It can take place in haploid cells B) It can take place in diploid cells C) It can occur in nearly all parts of the body D) All of these

Q.162 The continuity of similar information is ensured from parent to the daughter cells

through A) Mitosis C) Both mitosis and cloning B) Meiosis D) Both meiosis and cloning

Q.163 Chromosomes of a homologous pair are

A) Similar C) Necessarily not identical B) Necessarily identical D) Both A and C

Q.164 _______________can last only for few hours

A) Pachytene C) Zygotene B) Leptotene D) Leptotene and zygotene

Q.165 Which one of the following indicate Anaphase-I

A) Kinetochore fibers elongate B) Spindle or pole fibers contract C) Individual chromosomes are pulled towards the respective poles D) All of these

Q.166 Chromosomes may de-condense during this stage, the stage is

A) Anaphase-I C) Anaphase-II B) Telophase-I D) Metaphase-II

UNIT WISE TESTS 17


Q.167 The two significant happenings of meiosis are A) Crossing over C) Chiasma formation B) Independent assortment of chromosomes D) All of the above

Q.168 Out of six thousand live births, one is produced as

A) Edward syndrome C) Turner syndrome B) Patau syndrome D) Down syndrome

Q.169 The chances of production of abnormal babies are highest in

A) Teenager mothers C) Forty-five year old mothers B) Forty-year old mothers D) Later years of reproductive age

Q.170 Non-disjunction of autosomes, in your text book, have been marked by

A) Hollow cells C) Cells with two chromatids B) Asterisks D) Cells with two homologues

UNIT WISE TESTS 18


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