university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Self Test Series - 4

ARK Self-Test Series

~ Test 4

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Pink D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 5: WAVES

CHEMISTRY Unit 8A: CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Unit 9A: REACTION KINETICS

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 6A: DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

Unit 6B: GAS EXCHANGE AND TRANSPORTATION

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS Q.1 In SHM the direction of acceleration and displacement is:

A) In opposite direction B) In opposite direction of increasing value of displacement C) In opposite direction of decreasing value of displacement D) In same direction

Q.2 If the position of oscillating object is given by the equation y = t8

cos2

then its

displacement after two seconds is: A) 3 m C) 1 m B) 2 m D) 0 m

Q.3 The body oscillates due to:

A) Gravitational force C) Restoring force B) Frictional force D) Deforming force

Q.4 The oscillatory motion which does not repeat after regular interval of time is called:

A) Periodic motion C) Non-periodic motion B) Circular motion D) Orbital motion

Q.5 In an isolated spring mass system, total energy is:

A) Variable C) Low B) Constant D) High

Q.6 The formula T = 2π √l

g of a simple pendulum holds only if:

A) Amplitude of the motion should be small C) Length of pendulum is large B) Length of pendulum is small D) Mass of pendulum is small

Q.7 A quantity which indicates the state and direction of motion of a vibrating body is

known as: A) Amplitude C) Phase angle B) Displacement D) Time period

Q.8 If force F= 0.4 N and displacement x = 2 cm then spring constant k =________:

A) 10 N/m C) 3 N/m B) 20 N/m D) 30 N/m

Q.9 The force responsible for oscillation of pendulum:

A) mg cosθ C) mg tanθ

B) mg sinθ D) mg

Q.10 When the amplitude of a SHM becomes double its total energy becomes:

A) Double C) One half B) Four times D) Six times

Q.11 If the position of oscillating object is given by the equation x =√2 cos π

8t then its time

period is: A) 1/16 C) 1/8 B) 16 D) 8

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.12 A simple pendulum has time period 1 second when displaced at an angle of 60. If the angle is tripled, then time period becomes: A) 0.25 C) 0.75 B) 3 D) 1

Q.13 If amplitude of simple pendulum be infinity then its instantaneous velocity will be equal to: A) Zero C) Maximum velocity B) Minimum velocity D) Cannot predict

Q.14 If instantaneous displacement of mass spring system be 5 m and its maximum displacement be 8.333 m then ratio of its instantaneous velocity to maximum velocity is: A) 0.8 C) 1 B) 0.9 D) 1.5

Q.15 At resonance, the transfer of energy is: A) Zero C) Maximum B) Minimum D) Infinity

Q.16 Shock absorber of a car provides a force to prevent excessive oscillating system is: A) Applied force C) Damping force B) Restoring force D) All of them

Q.17 P.E and K.E of SHM is equal at: A) x = 0.7x0 C) x = 0.5x0 B) x = x0 D) x = 0.3x0

Q.18 How far away is a lightning strike if you hear the thunderclap 3.00 s after you see the

lightning bolt strike? (vsound

= 340 m/s, vlight

= 3 × 108 m/s)

A) 113 m C) 680 m B) 340 m D) 1020 m

Q.19 The velocity of sound in air would double than its velocity at 20 oC is: A) 3131 K C) 899 K B) 586 K D) 1172 K

Q.20 Stars moving towards earth show: A) Red shift C) Blue shift B) Green shift D) Yellow shift

Q.21 A Stretched wire with clamed ends has a fundamental frequency of 1000 Hz. What will new fundamental frequency if the tension in the same wire increases by 2 times? A) 980 Hz C) 1010 Hz B) 1020 Hz D) 1410 Hz

Q.22 Velocity of wave in a stretched medium is ____________ if T, m and l be tension in string, mass of string and length of string respectively:

A) v = √T × m

l C) v = √

T

l × m

B) v = √T × l

m D) v = √Tml

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.23 The velocity of sound in a gas in which two waves of lengths 0.1 and 0.2 m produce 10 beats per second is: A) 1 ms-1 C) 3 ms-1 B) 2 ms-1 D) 4 ms-1

Q.24 Progressive wave of frequency 300 Hz are superposed to produce a system of stationary

waves in which adjacent nodes are 1.5 m apart. What is the speed of progressive waves? A) 100 m/sec C) 450 m/sec B) 200 m/sec D) 900 m/sec

Q.25 When a wave reflects from denser medium, it suffers a phase change of:

A) Zero C) 2π

B) π D) π/2 Q.26 The frequency of third harmonic is 300 Hz. The frequency of 1st overtone will be:

A) 100 Hz C) 200 Hz B) 300 Hz D) 900 Hz

Q.27 The correct relation is:

A) vLaplace = vNewton C) vLaplace = γ (vNewton)1/2

B) vLaplace = γ vNewton D) vLaplace = (γ)1/2 vNewton

Q.28 The Laplace formula for speed of sound is based on the process called: A) Adiabatic C) Isochoric B) Isothermal D) All above

Q.29 When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because:

A) Frequency of the wave increases C) Both the frequency and wavelength increases B) Only wavelength increases D) Density of air increases

Q.30 A spectator watching a cricket match sees the bat strikes the ball and hears the sound

of this about half a second later. This is because light waves and sounds waves have a different__________. A) Amplitude C) Intensity B) Frequency D) Speed

Q.31 In a transverse arrangement, a stretched string vibrates in two loops. If the same

string under the same tension vibrates in one loop, the frequency in later case divided by the frequency in former case will be__________. A) 1 C) 2

B) 1/2 D) √2

Q.32 A source of sound wave moves away with the velocity of sound from a stationary

observer. The frequency of the note is __________. A) Unchanged C) Halved B) Doubled D) Squared

Q.33 The frequency of a man’s voice is 200 cps and its wavelength is 2 m. If the

wavelength of a child’s voice is 4 m, then the frequency of the child’s voice in the same medium is__________. A) 200 C) 100 B) 25 D) 400

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.34 A mass-spring system on a horizontal frictionless surface is set in simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. The mass is then doubled and the system is again set into simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude. Which of the following is true about the total mechanical energy of the system due to doubling the mass? A) It has doubled C) It has halved B) It has quadrupled D) It has not changed

Q.35 A pendulum on the Earth has a period T. The acceleration of due to gravity on Mars is

less than that on the Earth, and the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is even less. Where would the period of an identical pendulum be the least? A) On the Earth B) On the Moon C) On Mars D) The period of a pendulum would be the same on the Earth, Moon, and Mars since the period depends on the pendulum’s length which is the same for identical pendula

Q.36 Tripling the weight suspended vertically from a coil spring will result in a change in the

displacement of the spring’s lower end by what factor? A) 0.33 C) 3.0 B) 1.0 D) 9.0

Q.37 Suppose there is an object for which F = +kx. What will happen if the object is moved

away from equilibrium (x = 0) and released? A) It will return to the equilibrium position. B) It will move further away with constant velocity. C) It will move further away with constant acceleration. D) It will move further away with increasing acceleration.

Q.38 Suppose a 0.3-kg mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.10 m has elastic

potential energy of 1 J. What is the spring constant? A) 10 N/m C) 200 N/m B) 20 N/m D) 300 N/m

Q.39 A simple pendulum of length 1.00 m has a mass of 100 g attached It is drawn back

30.0° and then released. What is the maximum speed of the mass? A) 1.14 m/s C) 2.21 m/s B) 3.13 m/s D) 1.62 m/s

Q.40 Which of the following ranges corresponds to the longest wavelengths?

A) Infrasonic C) Ultrasonic B) Audible D) All have the same wavelengths

PART II - CHEMISTRY

Q.41 The unit of Kc for reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇋ 2NH3 are A) moldm-3 C) mol-2dm+6 B) mol2dm-6 D) mol-1dm-3

Q.42 Which is incorrect about Kc

A) May or may not have units C) Associated with activation energy B) Independent from initial concentration D) Only temperature changes its value

UNIT WISE TESTS 6


Q.43 If number of moles of product is greater than reactant, then Kp and Kc are related as A) Kp > Kc C) Kp < Kc B) Kp = Kc D) Cannot be related

Q.44 A catalyst increase the rate of reaction because it

A) Lower activation energy C) Increase activation energy B) Consumes in the reaction D) Does not involve in a reaction

Q.45 If Kc has every small value, the extent of reaction in the forward direction is

A) Very small C) Equal to backward reaction B) Reaction does not move in reverse direction D) Very large

Q.46 Ionic product of H2O at 40 °C is

A) 10-14 C) Grater than 10-14 B) Small than 10–14 D) equal to 1

Q.47 The pH of human blood is

A) 7.35 C) 7.0 B) 8.0 D) 6.4

Q.48 The pH of 0.05 M H2SO4 is

A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

Q.49 If concentration of CH3COOH and CH3COONa is equal then what is pH of buffer solution

when pKa is 3.74 A) 7 C) 4.74 B) 3. 74 D) 5.74

Q.50 Which of the following is application of common-ion effect

A) Purification of table salt C) Salt analysis B) Buffer solution D) All of these

Q.51 The sum of pH and pOH is

A) 1 C) 2 B) 7 D) 14

Q.52 Which of the following statement is incorrect about catalysis

A) ∆H of catalyzed and uncatalyzed reaction is same B) Decrease energy of activation C) Changes the rate of reaction and specific rate of reaction D) Changes mechanism of the reaction

Q.53 The strength of weak acid is determined by

A) pKa C) pKb B) pOH D) pKw

Q.54 Which one of the following aqueous solutions has the lowest pH:

A) 0.1M NaOH C) 0.1M KOH B) 0.1M HCl D) 0.1M Ba(OH)2

Q.55 Which of the following is least soluble in water:

A) AgCl C) AgBr B) Agl D) Ag2CO3

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.56 For which system does the equilibrium constant, Kc has units of [concentration]-1

A) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 C) H2 + I2 2HI

B) 2NO2 N2O4 D) 2HF H2 + F2

Q.57 When solid NH4Cl is added to the saturated solution of NH4OH. It causes:

A) Increase in concentration of NH4+ ions

B) Increase in concentration of OH− ions C) Decrease in concentration of OH− ions (decrease in ionization of NH4OH) D) Increases the evolution of NH3 gas.

Q.58 All are uses of NH3 except one

A) Fertilizers C) Explosive B) Acidification D) Polymers

Q.59 Buffer capacity is maximum when both components have

A) High concentrations C) Equal concentrations B) High and equal concentrations D) None

Q.60 Henderson’s equation is

A) pH = pKa + log [salt] / [acid] C) pH = pKa - log [salt] / [acid] B) pH = pKa + log [salt] / [acid]-1 D) pOH = pKb + log [salt] / [base]-1

Q.61 Nearly _______ of all nitrogen fixation on earth is accomplished industrially through

Haber’s Process. A) 13% C) 31% B) 33% D) 39%

Q.62 The unit of Kc for the reaction N2 + O2 ⇋ 2NO willbe A) mol dm-3 C) mol-1dm+3

B) mol-2 dm+6 D) No unit Q.63 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding equilibrium constant?

A) Its value does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactants B) Its value does not depend upon the initial concentration of products C) Its value does not depend upon the nature of reactants D) Its value does not depend upon the presence of catalyst

Q.64 The oxidation of SO2 by O2 to SO3 is an endothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will be

maximum A) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased B) Temperature is increased and pressure is reduced C) Both temperature and pressure is increased D) Both temperature and pressure reduced

Q.65 Which of the following is the strong base?

A) ClO− C) ClO3_

B) ClO4−1 D) ClO2

− Q.66 For the reaction, the value of K increases with increase in temperature. The ∆H for the

reaction for the reaction would be A) +ve C) −ve B) Zero D) Cannot be predicted

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.67 Which one of the following aqueous solution will be basic? A) NaCl C) Na2SO4 B) Na2CO3 D) FeCl3

Q.68 The pH of the solution is 4. The [OH−] of the solution

A) 10-4 mol dm-3 C) 10-10 mol dm-3 B) 1010 mol dm-3 D) 104 mol dm-3

Q.69 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A) pH of pure water is always 7 B) Conjugate base of strong acid is weak base C) Conjugate base of HSO4

− is SO4−2

D) Degree of dissociation of weak acid decreases with increase in dilution Q.70 Ka < 10-3 favours

A) Very strong base C) Very weak base B) Very strong acid D) Strong salt

Q.71 The compound that doesn’t act as Lewis Acid

A) AlCl3 C) BF3

B) NH3 D) FeCl3 Q.72 The pKb value for the aqueous ammonia at 25 ˚C is 4.8. What is the correct pKa value

for the ammonium ions at this temperature? A) −4.8 C) 2.2 B) 4.8 D) 9.2

Q.73 The pH of soft

A) >7 C) 10 B) <7 D) 7

Q.74 The activation energy of a reaction is usually

A) Unaffected by the presence of catalyst B) Different for forward and back relation for exothermic process C) Low for a reaction that takes place slowly D) All of these

Q.75 The rate equation for a reaction is given by: rate = k[A] [B]. If the concentration units

are mol dm-3, what are the possible units of the rate constant, k? A) mol dm-3 s-1 C) mol-2 dm3 s-1 B) mol-1 dm3 s-1 D) mol-1 s-1

Q.76 Anything which increases rate of reaction without involving in the rate of the reaction

A) Auto-catalyst C) Promoter B) Catalyst D) Inhibitor

Q.77 For the gaseous reaction 2X (g) + Y (g) Z (g), the rate equation is:

rate = k[X]2 [Y]0

If the pressure in the reaction vessel is doubled the temperature remains constant by what factor does the rate of reaction increase? A) 2 C) 4 B) 3 D) 8

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.78 If the reaction is at equilibrium then which of the following statement is incorrect? A) an increase in pressure favors the reaction to that cell which has less number of moles B) an increase in temperature which favors endothermic process C) Li-Chatlier principle is not valid for solid - solid heterogeneous system D) common ion effect is a study of effect of increase concentration of reactant

Q.79 Photo chemical reaction are

A) Zero order C) 1st order B) Pseudu 1st order D) 2nd order

Q.80 Half-life period does not depend upon initial concentration of reactant for reaction

A) 1st order C) 3rd order B) 2nd order D) Zero order

Q.81 The rate of reaction between two specific time interval is

A) Average rate C) Specific rate B) Instantaneous rate D) Constant rate

Q.82 During chemical reaction

A) Concentration of reactant decreases B) Concentrate of product increases C) Concentration of reactant and products are constant D) Both A and B

Q.83 A finely divided catalyst is more effective because it

A) Has more surface area C) Can easily be removed B) Can consume in a reaction D) All

Q.84 The decolourization of KMnO4 by acid is catalyzed by Mn2+, in this reaction Mn+2 acts as

A) Auto-catalysis C) Poisoning of catalyst B) Inhibitor D) Negative catalysis

Q.85 Arrhenius equation describe the effect of temperature on reaction

A) Rate C) Molecularity B) Order D) Catalysis

Q.86 Generally rate of reaction increases with the rise of temperature

A) Increase of effective collisions C) Decrease of potential energy B) Decrease of effective collision D) Increase of kinetic energy

Q.87 The unit of rate constant depends upon:

A) Order of reaction C) Molecularity of reaction B) Concentration items D) Number of reactions

Q.88 aA + bB products if a = 1 and b = 2, what will be the rate of reaction of this gaseous

system when you increase the partial pressure two times of A and B A) 2 times C) 4 times B) 8 times D) 16 times

Q.89 Carbohydrates are synthesized in plants by photosynthesis the order of reaction

followed is A) 1st C) 2nd

B) 3rd D) zero

UNIT WISE TESTS 10


Q.90 What is the correct expression which relates the half-life and order of reaction A) t0.5 α 1/an C) t0.5 α 1/an+1

B) t0.5 α 1/an-2 D) t0.5 α 1/an-1

PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 You can browse the ______ of these sections for past newsletter articles.

A) Chronicles C) Annuls

B) Archives D) Library

Q.92 It was a(n) ______ more than a reprimand.

A) Appreciation C) Adulation

B) Premonition D) Admonition

Q.93 The article recommends several things you can do to prevent the ________ of the

disease.

A) Hiatus C) Diagnosis

B) Onslaught D) Remedy

Q.94 The general commands absolute _________.

A) Volley C) Obeisance

B) Ploy D) Dissension

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 Neither Bradley, nor more recent critics who have written on Shakespeare's tragedies, has been A) B) C) able to give a convincing explanation for the timing of events in Othello.

D)

Q.96 Many of the events that lead up to the revolution took place in the capital. A) B) C) D)

Q.97 It is the type of a book that no one but us likes.

A) B) C) D) Q.98 As other forms of energy, natural gas may be used to heat homes, cook food, and even run

A) B) C) D) automobiles.

Q.99 Indigenous equipments can produce bigger, faster, better and cheaper results.

A) B) C) D) Q.100 Because they played by the rules, the members of the team were given a standing ovation even

A) B) C) though it did not win the match.

D)

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101

A) The disease which claims million’s life needs to be eradicated.

B) The disease which claims millions of lives need to be eradicated.

C) The disease which claims millions of lives needs to be eradicated.

D) Diseases which claims millions of lives needs to be eradicated.

Q.102

A) The answers are in the back of the book.

B) The answers are at the back of the book.

C) The answers are to the back of the book.

D) The answers are over the back of the book.

Q.103

A) My brother drove the car by a broken windshield to the shop.

B) My brother drove the car to the shop with a broken windshield.

C) With a broken windshield, my brother drove the car to the shop.

D) My brother drove the car with the broken windshield to the shop.

Q.104

A) By this time next year Samana will begin classes in the University of Punjab.

B) By this time next year Samana will have begun classes at the University of Punjab.

C) By this time next year Samana should begin classes over the University of Punjab.

D) By this time next year Samana would have begun classes at University of Punjab.

Q.105

A) Can you tell me for how long have you been working in sales?

B) Can you tell me how long you have been working in sales?

C) Can you tell me for how long have you been working in sales?

D) Can you tell me how long have you been working in sales?

Q.106

A) Your taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

B) Your’s taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

C) Yours taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

D) You taking a loan to buy a car annoyed Father.

Q.107

A) Buy a new car, but you should bargain with the salesperson for a good price.

B) Buy new car, but should bargain with the salesperson for good price.

C) Buy a new car, therefore, bargain with the salesperson for a good price.

D) Buy a new car, but bargain with the salesperson for a good price.

Q.108

A) It was really Chaucer that turned English into the literary language.

B) It was Chaucer who had really turned English into literary language.

C) It was Chaucer who really turned English into a literary language.

D) It was Chaucer who really turned the English into a literary language.

UNIT WISE TESTS 12


Q.109 A) If you would eat all of your vegetables, you will grow strong. B) If you eat all of your vegetables, you would grow strong. C) If you eat all of your vegetables, you will grow strong. D) If you will eat all of your vegetables, you will grow strong.

Q.110

A) Whom should I ask about the luggage’s situation? B) Whom shall I ask about the luggage situation? C) Who shall I ask about the luggage situation? D) Who should I ask about the luggage situation?

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 GAMBIT

A) Risk C) Maneuver

B) Volley D) Shred

Q.112 FLAUNT

A) Parade C) Aspire

B) Denounce D) Stumble

Q.113 GREEN

A) Veteran C) Enviable

B) Untrained D) Fecund

Q.114 FASCIA

A) Muscles C) Connective tissue

B) Organ D) Bone marrow

Q.115 HERCULEAN

A) Facile C) Bullying

B) Sisyphean D) Onerous

Q.116 FABRICATE

A) Corroborate C) Counterfeit

B) Fumble D) Authenticate

Q.117 GLIB

A) Taciturn C) Scrupulous

B) Voluble D) Discriminating

Q.118 FISTMELE

A) Punch C) Euphoria

B) Brace height D) Long distance

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.119 GUILELESS

A) Spiritless C) Uncompromising

B) Merciless D) Unsophisticated

Q.120 EVOCATIVE

A) Occupational C) Freethinking

B) Reminiscent D) Heretical

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 Digestion of starch is carried out in human gut at __________ sites.

A) 1 C) 2 B) 3 D) 4

Q.122 Digestion of polypeptide, in human gut is carried out at how many sites?

A) 1 C) 2 B) 3 D) 4

Q.123 Human oral cavity is laterally bound by

A) tongue and teeth C) Palate B) Cheeks D) All of these

Q.124 Which part of our gut performs a role analogous to teeth

A) Esophagus C) Pharynx B) Stomach D) Duodenum

Q.125 Which one of the following does not secrete starch digestive enzyme

A) Salivary glands C) Sublingual glands B) Sub maxillary Glands D) Parotid Glands

Q.126 Sodium bicarbonate and other salts present in saliva performs ________ functions

A) 1 C) 2 B) 3 D) 4

Q.127 Cartilage round the top of windpipe is called

A) Epiglottis C) Glottis B) Larynx D) Pharynx

Q.128 Which one is not true about peristalsis

A) It is sufficiently forceful to allow a person to swallow, even while doing a headstand B) Remain absolutely unaffected by gravity C) It is assisted by gravity, especially when swallowing liquid D) Can be carried out against gravity

Q.129 Peristaltic contractions increased by low blood glucose level is called.

A) Peristalsis C) Swallowing B) Hunger pangs D) Antiperistalsis

Q.130 It consists of connective tissue with many glands, possessing numerous tubular gastric

glands; A) Outer layer of the wall of stomach C) Inner layer of the wall of stomach B) Middle layer of the wall of stomach D) Both A and B

UNIT WISE TESTS 14


Q.131 Digestion of protein is accomplished in A) Oral cavity C) Stomach B) Duodenum D) Jejunum

Q.132 Which one is secreted in concentrated form

A) Mucous C) Pepsinogen B) Hydrochloric Acid D) Saliva

Q.133 The secretion of gastric juice will be more, if;

A) Lipid content in food is more C) Protein content in food is more B) Carbohydrate content in food is more D) Starch content in food is more

Q.134 Secretion in duodenum is made from

A) Pancreas C) Liver B) Duodenal cells D) All of these

Q.135 It is secreted by liver, stored in gall bladder and poured in duodenum. It is

A) A green watery fluid C) A whitish watery fluid B) A green semi solid D) A whitish semi solid

Q.136 The vulnerabilities of liver are added by

A) Its large size C) Its fixed position B) It fragile tissue D) All of these

Q.137 The release of bile may be blocked by

A) Precipitation of cholesterol C) Precipitation bile pigment B) Precipitation bile salts D) Precipitation of entire bile

Q.138 It extends form duodenum to ileum.

A) Caecum C) Colon B) Ileum D) Jejunum

Q.139 The activity of digestion is accomplished by

A) Duodenal juices C) Pancreatic juice B) Intestinal juices D) Gastric juices

Q.140 The condensation of fatty acids and glycerol takes place in

A) SER C) Epithelial cells of villi B) Both A and B D) Lacteals

Q.141 During the journey from the lumen of the gut to the cells of the body; lipids are

A) First condensed, then hydrolyzed B) First hydrolyzed, then condensed, then hydrolyzed again C) First hydrolyzed, then condensed D) First condensed, then hydrolyzed, then condensed again.

Q.142 A microbial activity can be encouraged in which part of gut.

A) Oral cavity C) Stomach B) Duodenum D) Caecum

Q.143 Over compaction of fecal matter may result in

A) Appendicitis C) Diarrhea B) Constipation D) Jaundice

UNIT WISE TESTS 15


Q.144 Each nasal cavity leads into throat by

A) Common opening C) Independent opening

B) Many opening D) Oral cavity

Q.145 It is a commonly held belief that during swallowing

A) Epiglottis acquires more or less horizontal position

C) Epiglottis closes downward upon the larynx

B) Epiglottis closes downward upon the glottis

D) Epiglottis closes downward upon pharynx

Q.146 To prevent entry of food into the nasal cavity and trachea, the soft palate and epiglottis

move respectively

A) Downward and upward C) Upward and downward

B) Downward and downward D) upward and upward

Q.147 Pick the correct one

A) Windpipe lies ventral to the vertebral column

C) Windpipe lies dorsal to the vertebral column

B) Windpipe lies ventral to the esophagus

D) Windpipe lies ventral to the both vertebral column and esophagus

Q.148 The bronchioles continue to divide and sub-divide deep into lungs and finally open into

large number of

A) Air sacs C) Alveoli

B) Open spaces D) Blood capillaries

Q.149 Double layered, thin membranous sacs which cover the lungs are

A) Air sacs C) Alveoli

B) Thoracic cavity D) Pleura

Q.150 During inspiration the diaphragm moves

A) Towards chest cavity C) towards thoracic cavity

B) Towards abdominal cavity D) towards ribs

Q.151 Normally where we are at rest or asleep the exchange is only about

A) One liter C) half a liter

B) One and half a liter D) Three and half a liter

Q.152 When pressure from the lungs is removed

A) Expiration occurs C) Exhalation occurs

B) Inspiration occurs D) None of these

Q.153 Which one is true about inspiration

A) The air with low oxygen and high carbon dioxide is inspired

B) Active contraction of lungs takes place

C) The muscles of diaphragm relax.

D) The muscles between the ribs contract

Q.154 The ribs settle down inward and downward during

A) Removal of O2 rich air C) Removal of CO2 rich air

B) Exhalation D) Both B and C

UNIT WISE TESTS 16


Q.155 During inspiration, air rushes from outside due to A) Open nostrils C) Open air passageways B) Lower atmospheric pressure D) Higher atmospheric pressure

Q.156 Blood constitutes the ___________of our body weight

A) 1/10th C) 1/12th B) 1/4th D) 3/4th

Q.157 More than 2/3rd of the ______percent of the human blood plasma is sodium

A) 0.9 C) 9 B) 7-8 D) 7.4

Q.158 Blood plasma may contain

A) Nitrogenous wastes C) Small amount of uric acid B) Urea D) All of these

Q.159 RBCs are synthesized in the bone marrow of

A) Sternum C) Ribs B) Vertebrae D) All of these

Q.160 A temporary seal used to prevent bleeding, until the damaged tissue can be repaired is

A) Thrombus C) Blood clot B) embolus D) Atheroma

Q.161 The flow of lymph is maintained by

A) Activity of skeletal muscles C) Movement of viscera B) Breathing movements D) All of these

Q.162 The lymph nodes are certain points, along the pathway of lymph vessels, which are

A) Masses of secretary tissues where lymphocytes are present B) present in the neck region, axilla and groin of humans B) Are drained by a single afferent vessel D) Both B and C

Q.163 Lymphoid masses

A) Are present in the walls of digestive tract B) Are present in the mucosa and sub mucosa C) Produce lymphocytes D) All of these

Q.164 Which one of the following is wrong about human heart

A) Have two upper chambers with oxygenated blood and two lower chambers with deoxygenated B) Have two right chambers with oxygenated blood and two left chambers with deoxygenated blood C) Have the wall of right ventricle three times thicker than that of left ventricle D) All of these

Q.165 When the blood passes through the lungs it loses

A) Oxygen C) Wastes B) food D) Carbon dioxide

Q.166 Main vein which returns the blood to the right atrium is

A) Pulmonary trunk C) Venae cave B) Aorta D) Aortic arch

UNIT WISE TESTS 17


Q.167 Every single beat of the heart involves A) Four major stages C) Five major stages B) Three major stages D) Six major stages

Q.168 Throughout the cardiac cycle the blood pressure

A) Increases C) Decreases and increases B) Decreases D) Increases and decreases

Q.169 Major amount of oxygen is carried by blood in form of

A) Oxyhemoglobin C) Bicarbonate B) Dissolved in plasma D) Carboxyhemoglobin

Q.170 When carbon dioxide tension increases

A) The oxygen tension increases B) The capacity of hemoglobin to carry oxygen increases C) It favors the liberation of oxygen from the blood D) All of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 18


MCQs Response Form

university of health sciences (uhs), lahore – ark...

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