xi foundation revision - test-08 (pcb) - 22.04goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image313.pdf · 2020. 4....

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67

XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 1 ]

01. Time period T of a simple pendulum may depend

upon mass of the bob m; length of simple

pendulum and ‘g’ the acceleration due to gravity.

Then the value of a, b and c are :

(1)1 1

, 0,2 2

(2)1 1

, 0,2 2

(3)1 1

0, ,2 2

(4)1 1

0, ,2 2

02. The length of the second’s pendulum on the

surface of earth is 1m. The length of second’s

pendulum on the surface of moon, where g is

1th

6 value of earth surface, is :

(1)1

m6

(2) 6m (3)1

m36

(4) 36m

03. When a particle is projected at an angle to the

horizontal, it’s range R and time of flight t1. It

the same projectile is projected with the same

speed at another angle to have the same range

and time of flight t2 then,

(1) 1 22R

t tg

(2) 1 22R

t /tg

(3) 1 22R

t tg

(4) 1 22R

t tg

04. The following four wires are made of the same

material. Which of these will have the largest

extension. When the same tension is applied?

(1) = 1m, D = 1mm

(2) = 2m, d = 2mm(3) = 2m, d = 2mm

(4) = = 0.5m, D = 0.5 mm05. A particle of mass m is attached to M via a

massless string passing through a hole O in the

horizontal table as shown. Mass M is kept

stationary whereas mass m is rotating in a circle

of radius r with angular speed .

mOr

M

(1) Mg = mr2 (2) Mg > mr2

(3) Mg < mr2 (4) Mg mr2

06. If the two vectors ˆ ˆ ˆA 2i 3j 4k

and

ˆ ˆ ˆB i 2j nk

are perpendicular, then the value

of n is :

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 5

07. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant

pressure to that at constant volume is , thechange in internal energy of a mass of a gas,

when the volume changes from V to 2V at

constant pressure P is :

(1)R

1 (2) PV

(3)PV

1 (4)PV

1

08. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 0.2 m

and time period 24 sec. The time require for it

to move from mean position to a point 0.1 m from

the mean position is :

(1) 12 sec (2) 3 sec

(3) 2 sec (4) B sec

09. A mono atomic gas at a pressure p, having a

volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V

and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final

pressure of the gas is 5

3

:

(1) 64 p (2) 32 p (3)p

64(4) 16 p

10. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 are connected

to a rigid massless rod of length r to constitute a

dumb bell which is free to move in the plane.

The moment of inertia of the dumb bell about

an axis perpendicular to the plane passing

through the centre of mass is :

(1)21 2

1 2

m mr

m m (2) (m1 + m2)r2

(3)21 2

1 2

m mr

m m (4) (m1 – m2)r2

[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720

XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-08 (PCB) - 22.04.2020



11. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under

three different processes, as shown in the figure.

Process 1 is isobaric process, process 2 is

isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let U1,U2 and U3 be the change in internal energiesof these three processes, then :

(1) U1 > U2 > U3

(2) U2 < U1 < U3

P0

P

VV0 2V0

1

2

3(3) U1 < U2 < U3

(4) U2 < U3 < U1

12. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses

3kg and 5 kg initially at rest. The ratio of time

required to acquire same final velocity is :

(1) 5 : 3 (2) 25 : 9 (3) 9 : 25 (4) 3 : 5

13. A string of length L and mass M is laying on a

horizontal table. A force F is applied at one of its

ends. Tension in the string at a distance y from

the end at which the force applied is :

(1) Zero (2) F

(3) F L y

L

(4)

F L yM

14. A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly

inside a long cylinder closed at one end,

enclosing a certain mass of gas. The cylinder is

kept with its axis horizontal. If the piston is

disturbed from its equilibrium position, it

oscillates simple harmonically period of

oscillation will be :

MAP

h

(1)Mh

T 2PA

(2)MA

T 2Ph

(3)M

T 2PAh

(4) T 2 MPhA

15. A girl jumps down from a moving bus, along the

direction of motion of the bus, tilting slightly

forward. She falls on (a) a sheet of ice (b) a patch

of glue.

(1) In case (a) she falls backward and in case (b)

she falls forward

(2) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls forward

(3) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls backward

(4) In case (a) she falls forward and in case (b)

she falls backward

16. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a

tower with a speed of 20 m/s. After 4 sec the

displacement of the body is :

(1) 40 m (2) 80 m (3) 80 2m (4)80

m2

17. The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.1 × 108 N/m2.

To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a lake

so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?

(1) 25 m (2) 93 m (3) 200 m (4) 500 m

18. A particle originally at rest at the highest point

of a smooth vertical circle is slightly displaced.

It will leave the circle at a vertical distance ‘h’

below the highest point, such that :

(1) h = R (2)R

h2

h

R

(3)R

h3

(4) h = 2R

19. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves

in straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates

at a later time are 3, 3 . The path of theparticle makes with the x-axis an angle of :

(1)4

(2)

6

(3)

3

(4) 0°

20. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from

(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done

is 3 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of

the liquid is :

(1) 8 N/m (2) 0.250 N/m

(3) 0.125 N/m (4) 0.2 N/m

21. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v block

strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M. If

the block rises to a height h. The initial velocity

of the block will be :

(1) 2gh (2)M m

ghm

(3) m 2ghm M

(4)M m

2ghM

22. The height vertically above the earth’s surface

at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes

1% of its value at the surface is :

(1) 8R (2) 9R (3) 10R (4) 20R

23. The ratio of velocity of sound in Hydrogen and

oxygen at STP is :

(1) 16 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1



24. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown in figure. If the net heat suppliedto the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work done by

the gas in the process C A is :

(1) –5 J

(2) –10 J

A

BC

1

2

V(m )3

P(N/m )2

10

(3) –15 J

(4) –20 J

25. A police jeep is chasing with velocity of 45 km/h,

a theif in another jeep moving with velocity

153 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle

velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity with which it will

strike the car of the theif is :

(1) 150 m/s (2) 27 m/s

(3) 450 m/s (4) 250 m/s

26. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth

of radius R at a height x from its surface. If “g” is

the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of

the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is :

(1) gR (2)2gR

R x(3)

3gR

R x(4)

gR

g x

27. A body of mass 2kg is thrown up vertically with

kinetic energy of 490 J. If g = 10 m/s2, the

height at which the kinetic energy of the body

becomes half of the original value is :

(1) 50 m (2) 25 m

(3) 12.5 m (4) 19.6 m

28. For a certain mass of gas, the isothermal curves

between P and V at T1 and T2 temperatures are

1 and 2 as shown in figure. Then

(1) T1 = T2

(2) T1 > T2

P

V

12

T1

T2

(3) T2 > T1

(4) Can’t predicted

29. A block is pushed momentarily on a horizontal

surface with initial ve locity ‘v’. If µ is the

coefficient of sliding friction between the block

and surface, the block will come to rest after time.

(1)v

g (2)g

v

(3)

v

g

(4)

g

v

30. When a system is taken from state i to state f

along the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and

W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. W along

the path ibf is :

(1) 14 cal

(2) 6 cala f

bi

(3) 16 cal

(4) 66 cal

31. In the figure shown, the tension in the

horizontal cord is 30 N. Find the weight of the

body B.

(1) 40 N

(2) 30 N

45°

30N

B

(3) 20 N

(4) 10 N

32. A wooden ball of density is immersed in waterof density to a depth h and then released. Theheight H above the surface of water upto which

the ball will jump out of water is :

(1)h (2)

1 h

(3) h (4) 1 h

33. If 1 = 100 cm, 2 = 90 cm and ve locity ofsound = 396 m/s. The number of beats (in Hz) are:

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 44 (4) 0

34. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when

given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in

10s. Then the coefficient of friction is :

(1) 0.02 (2) 0.03 (3) 0.06 (4) 0.01

35. The equation of a transverse wave is given by

y = 20 sin(0.02x – 2t) where y and x are in cmand t in sec. The wavelength in cm will be :

(1) 50 (2) 200 (3) 5 (4) 100

36. A body cools from 80°C to 70°C in 6 minutes.

Under identical external condition to cool from

60ºC to 50°C, it will take :

(1) < 6 minutes (2) 6 minutes

(3) > 6 minutes (4) None

37. Stationary waves are set up in an air column. If

velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and frequecny

is 165 Hz, the distance between the nodes is :

(1) 2 m (2) 0.5 m (3) 1 m (4) 4 m

38. Number of beats heard for the super position of

y = a sin 320 t and y = a sin 326 t is :(1) 6 (2) 12

(3) 3 (4) 4

39. Frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe

of length c is equal to that of the second

overtone of an open pipe of length 0 . Then the

ratio c 0 is equal to :

(1) 1/2 (2) 3

(3) 1 (4) 2



40. The disc of a siren has n holes and the frequency

of its rotation is 300 rpm. It produces a note of

wavelength 2.4 m, when the velocity of sound in

air is 360 m/s. Then value of n is :

(1) 36 (2) 30 (3) 5 (4) 24

41. If a three block each of mass 4 kg. The table is

smooth, the pulley is light and smooth, the string

is light and inextensible. The tension in the

string connecting B and C is :

C

B

A

(1) 4 g (2) 4g/3 (3) 4g/3 (4) 8g/3

42. A body moving along a straight line with uniform

acceleration ‘a’ it covers a distance S1 in the

first t seconds and a distance S2 in the next t

seconds, a is then given by :

(1)1 2

2

S S

t

(2)

1 2

2

3S S

t

(3)2 1

2

S S

t

(4)

1 2

2

3S S

t

43. A vessel has a height of 50 cm. What is the

maximum distance at which water can fall from

a hole on its side :

(1) 25 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 33.3 cm(4) 50 cm

44. Acceleration due to gravity become g

2

[where g = acceleration due to gravity on the

surface of the earth] at a height equal to :

(1) 4R (2)R

2 1(3)

R

2(4) 2R

45. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the

pressure is found to be the inversely proportional

to the fourth power of the volume. Then the ratio

of specific heat is :

(1) 1 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.67 (4) 1.4

46. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two

fragments whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3.

The smaller fragment moves with a velocity of 6

ms–1. The kinetic energy of larger fragment will

be :

(1) 96 J (2) 216 J (3) 149 J (4) 360 J

47. A 130 m long train is moving in upward direction

with speed 72 km/hr. Another train of 120 m

long is moving in downward direction with speed

of 108 km/hr. The time in which second train

crosses the first train will be :

(1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 12 s (4) 15 s

48. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the

horizontal with momentum P. At its highest

point the magnitude of the momentum is :

(1)3P

2(2)

2P

3(3) P (4)

P

2

49. A body projected with velocity u at projection

angle has horizontal Range R. For the samevelocity and projection angle its range on the

moon surface will be :

(1) 36 R (2)R

36(3)

R

16(4) 6R

50. Two stones having different masses m1 and m2are projected at an angle and (90 – ) with samespeed from same point. The ratio of their

maximum heights is :

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : tan

(3) tan : 1 (4) tan2 : 1

51. Displacement of particles in a string stretched

in the x-direction is represented by y. Among

the following expressions for y, those describing

wave motion are :

(1) Cos kx Sint (2) Cos (kx + t)

(3) k2x2 –2t2 (4) Cos (k2x2 – 2t2)

52. A transverse wave is described by the equation

0x

Y Y Sin2 ft

. The maximum particle

velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if:

(1)0Y

4

(2) = Y0 (3)

0Y

2

(4) = 2Y0

53. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produced 10

beats per sec when sounded with a vibrating

sonometer string. What must have been the

frequency of string if slight increase in tension

produces fever beats per sec than before :

(1) 460 Hz (2) 470 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 490 Hz

54. A stone released with zero velocity from the top

of the tower reaches the ground in 4 sec. The

height of the tower is about :

(1) 40 m (2) 20 m (3) 160 m (4) 80 m

55. A body is projected vertically upwards from the

surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity

equal to half the escape velocity for that planet.

The maximum height attained by the body is :

(1)R

2(2)

R

3(3)

R

4(4)

R

5



56. A stone is fastened to one end of a string and is

whirled in a vertical circle of radius R. Find the

minimum speed the stone can have at the

highest point of the circle :

(1) gR (2)2R

g(3)

R

g(4) 2Rg

57. A cylinder of fixed capacity (of 44.8 Ltr) contains

2 moles of He gas at STP. What is the amount of

heat needed to raise the gas temperature by 20°C

[R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1]:

(1) 996 J (2) 498 J (3) 831 J (4) 374 J

58. A uniform metal chain is placed on a rough table

such that one end of chain hangs down over the

edge of the table. When one-third of its length

hangs over the edge, the chain starts sliding.

Then, the coefficient of static friction is

(1) 3/4 (2) 1/4 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/2

59. A cylinder of radius R and mass M rolls without

slipping down a plane inclined at an angle .Coefficient of friction between the cylinder and

the plane is µ. For what maximum inclination the cylinder rolls without slipping ?

(1)1 4tan

3

(2) = tan–1 [2µ]

(3) = tan–1 [3µ] (4)1 3tan

2

60. If gravitational attraction between two points

masses be given by 1 2n

Gm mF

r . Then period of

a satellite in a circular orbit will be proportional

to :

(1)

(n 1)

2r

(2)

n 1

2r

(3)

n

2r (4) n0

61. The correct IUPAC name of compound

CH –CH –C–CH–CHO3 2||O

|CN

is

(1) 2-cyano-3-oxopentanal

(2) 2-formly-3-oxopentanentitrile

(3) 2-cyano-1, 3-pentanedione

(4) 1, 3-dioxo-2-cyanopentane

62. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane

CH2 is C13H12.

How many structural isomers are possible when

one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine

atom?

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

63.

NMe3

Z

HH

H

H

O

Above Gauche form is stable when Z is

(1) –CH3 (2) –Et (3) –C–OEt

O||

(4)–Ph

64. Most stable resonating structure of given cation

is

CH2

NH2

O

(1)

CH2

NH2

O

(2)

CH2

NH2

O

(3)

CH2

NH2

(4)

CH2

NH2

O

65. Which of the following is the most stable cation ?

(1)O

CH C=CH3 2 (2)O

CH –CH=C3

(3)O

CH –C3

CH3| (4)

O

CH C–CH3 3

CH3

66. Which of the followoing has highest resonance

energy?

(1)

O

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

67. Arrange the following radical in their decreasing

order of stability.

(I) (II)

(III)

(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III

(3) I > III > II (4) II > III > I



68.Br2 Na

hv Dry ether(A) (B) product (B) is :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. Which of the following has the lowest boiling

point?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2) CH –CH –CH –CH–CH3 2 2 3|CH3

(3)CH –CH–CH–CH3 3

|CH3

|CH3

(4) CH –CH –CH–CH –CH3 2 2 3|CH3

70. Alkene (X) KMnO4

O +

O

OH

alkene (X) is :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

71. Which of the following reactant is more reactive

towards electrophilic additon reaction with HBr

(1)Ph Ph

(2) OCH3

(3)Ph

Ph(4) OCH3

72. The major product of the following reaaction is :

CH –CH –C CH3 2 (i) NaNH /NH ( )2 3 l

(ii) CH –CH –Br2 2

(1) CH3–CH2–C C–CH2–CH3

(2) CH –CH–C CH3 |CH –CH2 3

(3) CH –CH –CH–CH3 2 3|NH2

(4) CH3–CH2–C C–NH2

73. Whcih of the following is aromatic ?

(1)

O||

(2)

O||

(3)

O||

O

(4)

O

74. CH –CH=CH3 2NBS HBr Mg

hv ROOR (A) (B) (C)

product (C) is :

(1) (2)

(3)

CH3|

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–MgBr

75. Compare Rate of electrophil ic aromatic

substitution Reaction

Cl C–O–CH3 O–C–CH3

(I) (III) (IV)(II)

O||

O||

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > III > IV

(3) IV > II > III > I (4) IV > II > I > III

76.

O

O O–

O OH O–

x%2+

O OH

O OH

y%

O OH

z%

The correct order of enol contents x, y, z is :

(1) x > y > z (2) z > y > x

(3) y > x > z (4) x > z > y

77. In which pair second ion is more stable than

first.

O

O

O

(I) (II) (III)

OH CH3O O

(IV)

(1) I and II (2) II and III

(3) II and IV (4) III and IV



78. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have

the following magnetic nature ?

(1) Diamagnetic (2)Paramagnetic

(3) Ferromagnetic (4)Anti ferromagnetic

79. Compare heat of combustion.

I II III

(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III

(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I

80. Decreasing order of Heat of Hydrogenation?

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > III > II (2) II > I > III

(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I

81. Elements A, B and C belong to the same period

in the long form of the periodic table. The nature

of the oxides of A, B and C is amphoteric, Basic

and acidic respectively. The correct order of the

atomic numbers of these elements is

(1) C > B > A (2)C > A > B

(3) A > B > C (4)B > A > C

82. For the properties mentioned, the correct trend

for the different species is in

(1) strength as Lewis acid-BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3

(2) inert pair effect-Al > Ga > In

(3) Oxidising property-Al3+ > In3+ > Tl3+

(4) First ionisation enthalpy - B > Tl > Al

83. Which of the following order is wrong ?

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3-Acidic

(2) Li < Be < B < C -1st I.P

(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O - Basic

(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ - Ionic radius

84. The correct order of increasing bond length of

C-H, C-O, C-C and C=C is

(1) C-H < C-O < C-C < C=C

(2) C-H < C=C < C–O < C–C

(3) C=C < C–H < C–O < C–C

(4) C–O < C–H < C–C < C=C

85. Out of – –2 3 3 3 2 2N O,SO ,I ,I ,H O,NO and

3N the

linear species are :

(1) 2 3 2NO ,I ,H O (2)

–2 3 3N O,I ,N

(3) – –2 3 3N O,I ,N (4)

–3 3 2N ,I ,SO

86. Which of the following is polar ?

(1) –3I (2)

2–

3CO

(3) XeF4 (4) PF3

87. Molecular orbital electronic configuration for X

ion is 1s2, 1s2, 2s2, 2s2 (2Px2 = 2py2),2Pz2, 2Px1. The ion X is

(1) –2N (2)

2O

(3) 2–2N (4)

2–

2O

88. A mixture of Boron trichloride and hydrogen is

subjected to silent electric discharge to form A

and HCl. A is mixed with NH3 and heated to 200°C

to form B. The formula of B is :

(1) H3BO3 (2)B2O3

(3) B3N3H6 (4)B2H6

89. Product of the following reaction is

4 3 2

Al C D O

(1) Al(OD)3 + CD4 (2)Al(OD)2 + CD4

(3) Al(OD)4 + CD4 (4)Al(OD)3 + CD

90. Consider the oxides B2O3, Al2O3, Ga2O3 and

In2O3. The basic character of these oxides

increases as :

(1) In2O3 < Ga2O3 < Al2O3 < B2O2

(2) Al2O3 < B2O3 < In2O3 < Ga2O3

(3) B2O3 < Al2O3 < Ga2O3 < In2O3

(4) Ga2O3 < B2O3 < In2O3 < Al2O3

91. Among the following substituted silanes the one

which will give rise to cross-linked silicone

polymer on hydrolysis is :

(1) R4Si (2)RSiCl3

(3) R2SiCl2 (4)R3SiCl

92. In silicon dioxide

(1) There are double bonds between silicon and

oxygen atoms

(2) Silicon is bonded to two silicon atoms

(3) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two

oxygen atom and each oxygen atom is bonded

to two silicon atoms

(4) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four

oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is

bounded to two silicon atom

93. The correct match is :

(1) SnO, PbO-Amphoteric

(2)3B(OH) Basic

(3) PbO2-only acidic

(4) GeO2-Basic



94. When zeolite is treated with hard water the

hardness is reduced due to exchange of

(1) 2Ca ions of water with Na+ ions

(2) Ca2+ ions of water with H+ ions

(3) Cl– ions of water with OH– ions

(4) 24SO ions of water with OH

– ions

95. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Al reacts with excess of NaOH to give Al(OH)3

(2) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3

(3) Pure Na-metal dissolves in liq. NH3 to give

blue solutions

(4) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium

silicates.

96. CO2 + NH3 + H2O X

X + NaCl Y + NH4Cl

2Y Heat Z + H2O + CO2for the above reaction Z is

(1) Na2CO3 (2) (NH4)2CO3

(3) NH4HCO3 (4)NaHCO3

97. Consider the following statement :

I. Cs+ ion is more highly hydrated than other

alkali metal ions.

II. Among the alkali metal Li, Na, K and Rb. Li

has the higher melting point

III. Among the alkali metals only Li form a stable

nitride by direct combination

(1) I and III are correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) I, II and III are correct

(4) I and II are correct

98. Which of the following statements is/are correct

for H3BO3 ?

I. It has a layer structure in which BO3 units

are joined by hydrogen bonds.

II. It is obtained by treating borax with

concentrated H2SO4

III. It is mainly monobasic acid and a Lewis acid.

IV. It does not act as a proton donor but acts as

an acid by accepting hydroxyl ions

(1) I, II, III (2) II, III, IV

(3) I, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV

99. Which one of the following arrangements

represents the increasing bond order of the given

species ?

(1) – –2NO O NO NO

(2) – –2O NO NO NO(3) – –2NO NO NO O(4) – –2O NO NO NO

100. Correct order of Dipole moment is

OH

OH

I

Cl CH3Cl CH3

II III

(1) I = II = III (2) III < II < I

(3) I < II < III (4) II < III < I

101. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon

monoxide are –393.5 and – 283.5 kJ mol–1,

respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of

carbon monoxide per mole is :

(1) 676.5 (2) –676.5 (3) –110 (4)110

102. Which of the following compounds possesses the

C-H bond with the lowest bond dissociation

energy ?

(1) Toluene

(2) Benzene

(3) n-Pentane

(4) 2, 2-dimethylpropane

103. Which of the following is the energy of a possible

excited state of hydrogen ?

(1) +13.6 eV (2) –6.8 eV

(3) –3.4 eV (4)+6.8 eV

104. The following reaction is performed at 298 K

2 22NO(g) O (g) 2NO (g)

The standard free energy of formation of NO (g)

is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard

free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ? (Kp= 1.6 × 1012)

(1) R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012) – 86600

(2) 86600 + R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012)

(3) 86600 – 12ln (1.6 10 )

R(298)

(4) 0.5 [2 × 86600 – R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012)]

105. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the

valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is

(1) 5, 0, 0, + 1

2(2) 5, 1, 0, +

1

2

(3) 5, 1, 1, + 1

2(4) 5, 0, 1, +

1

2



106. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waal’s

equation at low pressure can be written as

(1) RT

Z 1pb

(2) a

Z 1VRT

(3) pb

Z 1RT

(4)Z = 1 + pb

RT

107. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4g of an organic

compound was digested by Kjeldahl’s method and

the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of

M

10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required

20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete

neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the

compound is :

(1) 6% (2) 10% (3)3% (4) 5%

108. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing

750 mL of 0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M) HCl

will be

(1) 0.875 M (2)1.00 M

(3) 1.75 M (4)0.0975 M

109. A piston filled with 0.04 mole of an ideal gas

expands irreversibility from 50.0 mL to 375 mL

at a constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does

so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and

W for the process will be

(R = 8.314 J/mol K, ln 7.5 = 2.01)

(1) q = + 208 J, W = –208 J

(2) q = –208 J, W = –208 J

(3) q = –208 J, W = +208 J

(4) q = +208 J, W = +208 J

110. Energy of an electron is given by

2–18

2E 2.178 10 J

n

Wavelength of light required to excite an electron

in an hydrogen atom from level

n = 1 to n = 2 will be

(h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 1.214 × 10–7 m (2)2.816 × 10–7 m

(3) 6.6500 × 10–7 m (4)8.500 × 10–7 m

111. How many litres of water must be added to

1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1

to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?

(1) 0.1 L (2)0.9 L

(3) 2.0 L (4)9.0 L

112. The first ionisation potential of Na is

5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of

Na+ will be

(1) –2.55 eV (2) –5.1 eV

(3) –10.2 eV (4)+2.55 eV

113. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving

120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of

water is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution

is

(1) 0.50 M (2)1.78 M

(3) 1.02 M (4)2.05 M

114. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction,

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 ×10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction NO(g)

1

2N2(g) +

1

2O2(g) at the same temperature is

(1) 0.02 (2)2.5 × 102

(3) 4 × 10–4 (4) 50.0

115. The electrons identified by quantum numbers

n and l

(a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0

(c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3, l = 1

Can be placed in order of increasing energy as

(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)

(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)

116. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is

3. The value of the ionisation constant, Ka of

the acid is

(1) 3 × 10–1 (2) 1 × 103

(3) 1 × 106 (4) 1 × 10–5

117. The entropy change involved in the isothermal

reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas

from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3

at 27°C is

(1) 38.3 J mol–1 K–1 (2) 35.8 J mol–1 K–1

(3) 32.3 J mol–1 K–1 (4) 42.3 J mol–1K–1

118. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –

46.0 kJ mol–1 if the enthalpy of formation of H2from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of N2 is

–712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of N—

H bond in NH3 is :

(1) –964 kJ mol–1 (2) +352 kJ mol–1

(2) +1056 kJ mol–1 (4) –1102 kJ mol–1

119. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1.

The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of

Li2+ is

(1) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1

(2) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1

(3) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1

(4) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1



120. For a particular reversible reaction at

temperature T, H and S were found to be both+ ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium,the reaction would be spontaneous when

(1) Te > T (2)T > Te

(3) Te is 5 times T (4)T = Te

121. Which of the following is/are primary

meristem(s) ?

(a) Apical meristem

(b) Cork-cambium

(c) Inter-fascicular cambium

(d) Intercalary meristem

(1) a & c (2) b & c

(3) a & d (4) b & d

122. Which one of the following meristems is not

responsible for producing the secondary tissues?

(1) Cork-cambium

(2) Fascicular vascular cambium

(3) Interfascicular cambium

(4) Intercalary meristems

123. Match the following and select the right option.

(a) Tracheids (i) Inner layers of cell

wall have thickening

(b) Vessel (ii) Absent in gymnosperms

(c) Xylem fibres (iii) Radial conduction of

water

(d) Xylem parenchyma (iv)Obliterated central

lumen

(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)

(4) (a-i); (b-iv); (c-ii); (d-iii)

124. Which of the following characteristic

differentiates monocot root from a dicot root ?

(1) Radial vascular bundle

(2) Well-developed large pith

(3) Scattered vascular bundles

(4) Xylem exarch

125. The root hairs and trichomes are common in :

(1) Being unicellular

(2) Being multicellular

(3) Being branched

(4) Being epidermal in origin

126. Why diffusion is very important to plants ?

(1) Their is no requirement of energy

(2) It is the only means for gaseous movement

within the plant body

(3) Diffusion rates are affected by the gradient

of concentration

(4) Diffusion is not dependent on a living system

127. Bulk flow can be achieved

(1) Through a positive hydrostatic pressure

gradient

(2) Through a negative hydrostatic pressure

gradient

(3) Either through positive hydrostatic pressure

gradient or negative hydrostatic pressure

gradient

(4) Neither through positive hydrostatic

pressure gradient nor a negative hydrostatic

pressure gradient

128. How many molar teeth are there in the lower

Jaw of human being ?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Six (4) Twelve

129. Which one of the following parts of human

intestine is different from the others ?

(1) Caecum (2) Ileum

(3) Colon (4) Rectum

130. Which of the following characters is exclusive

to mammalian respiratory system ?

(1) Presence of nose

(2) Presence of glottis

(3) Respiration by Lungs

(4) None of the above

131. Match the following in regard with the thoracic

chamber and select the right option.

(a) Vertebral column (i) Ventral side

(b) Sternum (ii) Dorsal side

(c) Ribs (iii) Lower side

(d) Diaphragm (iv)Lateral side

(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(2) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iii); (d-iv)

(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(4) (a-iii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-ii)

132. The partial pressures of oxygen and carbon

dioxide in alveoli respectively are :

(1) 40 and 45 mmHg

(2) 95 and 40 mmHg

(3) 95 and 45 mmHg

(4) 104 and 40 mmHg



133. Which of the following is/are helpful in

generation of pressure gradient for expiration

and inspiration ?

(a) Diaphragm

(b) External intercostals

(c) Internal intercostal

(1) a & c (2) b & c (3) only a (4) a, b & c

134. What is the percentage of oxygen, which is carried

in a dissolved state through the plasma ?

(1) 97% (2) 7% (3) 3% (4) 20–25%

135. Lymph compared to tissue fluid contains.

(1) Large amount of nutrients

(2) Large amount of oxygen

(3) Large amount of CO2 and metabolic wastes

(4) Some platelets

136. A person having blood group A possesses.

(1) Antigen A on RBCs and antibody, anti-A in

plasma

(2) Antigen B on RBCs and antibody anti-B in

plasma

(3) Antigen A on RBCs and antibody anti-B in

plasma

(4) Antigen B on RBCs and antibody anti-A in

plasma

137. The ions of which one play a very important role

in clotting of blood.

(1) Calcium ions (2) Magnesium ions

(3) Potassium ions (4) Sodium ions

138. In fishes the heart pumps out :

(1) Oxygenated blood

(2) Deoxygenated blood

(3) Either oxygenated or deoxygenated blood

(4) Oxygenated blood but occasionally

deoxygenated blood

139. Cardiac arrest occurs when :

(1) The heart stops beating

(2) The heart muscle is suddently damaged by

an inadequate blood supply

(3) Either the heart stops beating or the heart

muscle is suddenly damaged by an

inadequate blood supply

(4) The heart is not pumping blood effectively

enough to meet the needs of the body.

140. Which is not correctly matched ?

(1) Structural element — Hydrogen

(2) Found in chlorophyll — Magnesium

(3) Present in ATP — Phosphorous

(4) Activator for RuBisco — Zinc

141. Activity of nitrogenase enzyme depends on :

(1) non-availability of ATP

(2) availability of nitric acid

(3) availability of ATP

(4) non-availability of nitric acid

142. Photosynthesis is important due to :

(a) It is the primary source of all food on earth

(b) It is responsible for the release of oxygen into

the atmosphere

(c) It reduces carbondioxide in the atmosphere

(1) a & c (2) b & c (3) only a (4) a, b & c

143.

400 500 600 700Wavelength of light in

nanometres (nm)

The above diagram showing action spectrum of

photosynthesis superimposed on :

(1) Action spectrum of chlorophyll b

(2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

(3) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b

(4) Absorption spectrum of carotenoids

144. The steps of dark reactions are :

(1) Regeneration carboxylation reduction(2) Reduction oxidation hydrogenation(3) Carboxylation reduction regeneration(4) Reduction carboxylation regeneration

145. Which one of the following statements is not true ?

(1) There are two discrete photochemical light

harvesting complexes in green plants

(2) Pigments in light harvesting complexes are

bound to proteins

(3) Each photosystem has all the pigments

forming a light harvesting system called

antennae

(4) These pigments help to make photosynthesis

more efficient by absorbing different

wavelengths of light

146. The number of substrate level phosphorylation

reactions in glycolysis is :

(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Zero



147. The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the

stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms,

which :

(a) leaving three molecules of CO2

(b) takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria

Which option is true.

(1) Both (a) and (b) are true

(2) Both (a) and (b) are false

(3) (a) is true but (b) is false

(4) (b) is true but (a) is false


(a) Flame cells (i) Planaria

(b) Nephridia (ii) Earthworm

(c) Malpighian tubule (iii) Prawn

(d) Antennal gland (iv)Cockroach

(1) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)

(2) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(4) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-i)

149. All the following statements are false except

(1) Loop of Henle is very long in majority of

nephrons

(2) Very few nephrons are cortical nephrons

(3) Juxta medullary nephrons are large in

number

(4) Loop of Henle runs deep into the medulla in

some of the nephrons

150. All the following statements are true regarding

vasa recta, except.

(1) It is the part of peritubular capillaries

(2) This is highly elaborated in cortical nephrons

(3) Having ‘U’-shaped structure

(4) Runs parallel to the Henle’s loop

151. What is not involved in the process of urine

formation ?

(1) Reabsorption (2) Secretion

(3) Osmoregulation (4) Glomerular filtration

152. Which one of the following is different from the

others.

(1) The functional unit of contraction

(2) The portion of the myofibril between two

successive ‘z’ lines

(3) A sarcomere

(4) The portion of the myofibril of H zone.

153. What is/are true regarding the globular head of

meromyosin.

(a) This is an active ATPase enzyme

(b) It has binding sites for ATP

(c) It has active sites for actin.

(1) a & c (2) b & c

(3) a, b & c (4) only c

154. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body

fluid is the characteristic feature of :

(1) Tetany (2) Muscular dystrophy

(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Osteoporosis


(a) Saddle joint (i) Between carpal and

metacarpal of thumb

(b) Gliding joint (ii) Between the carpals

(c) Pivot joint (iii) Between atlas and

axis

(d) Hinge joint (iv)Knee joint

(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iii); (d-iv)

(2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)

(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)

(4) (a-iv); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-i)

156. The cup-shaped structure of pelvic girdle, the

acetabulum in man is formed by :

(1) Ilium ischium and pubis

(2) Ilium, ischium and cotyloid

(3) Ilium and ischium

(4) Ilium and cotyloid

157. Which of the following is incorrectly matched.

(1) Monographs — Contains information of

distribution of plants of a

given area

(2) Flora — Contains the actual account

of habitat

(3) Manuals — Useful in providing

information for identification

of names of species found in

an area

(4) Catalogues — Important taxonomical aid

158. Which one of the following is correctly matched.

(1) Vibrium — Spiral

(2) Bacillus — Comma shaped

(3) Spirillum — Rod shaped

(4) Cocci — Spherical



159. Which one of the following groups of spores are

sexual spores of fungi.

(1) Sporangiospores, Ascospores, Basidospores

(2) Basidiospores, Oospores, Ascospores

(3) Ascospores, Zoospores, Conidia

(4) Oospores, Sporangiospores, Basidiospores

160. In ‘Reductionist Biology’ we study living

phenomena.

(1) On molecular basis

(2) On cellular basis

(3) On organ system basis

(4) On organismic basis

161. What do you mean by “Omnis cellula-e cellula”

(1) Cells are structural basis of organisms

(2) Cells are behavioural basis of life

(3) All organisms are composed of cells

(4) new cells are formed from pre existing cells

162. Which one of the following is not correctly

matched.

(1) Inclusion bodies — Reserve material

are stored

(2) Polysome — Translate the mRNA

into proteins

(3) Mesosome — Help in cell wall

formation

(4) Capsule — Glycocalyx in the

form of a loose sheath

163. Which one of the following organelles is not the

part of endomembrane system.

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Golgi apparatus

(3) Lysosomes

(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

164. In cilia and flagella central sheath is connected

to peripheral tubules by means of :

(1) Central microtubules

(2) Interdoublet bridges

(3) Microtubule doublets

(4) Radial spokes

165. Semiautonomic genome system is present in :

(1) Ribosome and Chloroplast

(2) Mitochondria and Chloroplast

(3) Mitochondria and Ribosome

(4) Mitochondria and Golgi body

166. Closely related species were separated in the

artificial system of classification because.

(1) They classified living organisms on the

scientific basis

(2) They were based on natural affinities among

the organisms

(3) They were based on a few characteristics

(4) The vegetative characters are more easily

affected by environment

167. Match the following and select the right option

(a) Chlamydomonas (i) Colonial

(b) Volvox (ii) M i c r o s c o p i c

unicellular

(c) Ulothrix (ii i) Form massive

plant bodies

(d) Kelps (iv)Filamentous

(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

(2) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv

(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

168. Algae are characterised by the

(a) Lack of vascular tissues

(b) Lack of seeds

(c) Lack of embryo

(d) Lack of differentiated plant body

(1) a & b (2) only a

(3) only d (4) a, b, c & d

169. Which one of the following is correctly expressed

regarding funaria.

(1) Capsule and Seta – Sporophyte

(2) Rhizoids, Capsule and Seta– Sporophyte

(3) Leaves, Rhizoids and Seta–Sporophytes

(4) Capsule, Leaves and Main axis-sporophyte

170. In which of the following male and female

gametophytes do not have an independent free

living existence.

(1) Dryopteris (2) Funaria

(3) Cedrus (4) Lycopodium

171. On the basis of organisation of body, which one

of the following is true regarding jelly fish.

(1) The ce lls are arranged as loose ce ll

aggregates

(2) The cells performing the same function are

arranged into tissues

(3) Tissues are grouped together to form organ

(4) Organs have associated to form functional

systems



172. Which two statements of the following are true

regarding open type of circulatory system.

(a) The blood is circulated through a series of

vessels

(b) The blood is pumped out of the heart

(c) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in

it

(d) Vessels are of varying diameters.

(1) a & c (2) a & d (3) b & c (4) b & d

173. Match the following and select the right option

(a) Living fossil (i) Bombyx

(b) Silkworm (ii) King crab

(c) Gregarious pest (iii) Culex

(d) Vector (iv)Locust

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

174. Which of the following sets of animals share a

four chambered heart.

(1) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds

(2) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals

(3) Crocodiles, Lizards Turtles

(4) Lizards, Mammals, Birds

175. Help in secretion and absorption and are found

in the lining of stomach and intestine. Their

nuclei are located at the base. These are the

features of

(1) Ciliated epithilium

(2) Columnar epithelium

(3) squamous epithelium

(4) Cuboidal epithilium

176. Two or more organs together form organ system.

They perform a common function by

(1) Their physical interaction

(2) Their chemical interaction

(3) Their physical and/or chemical interaction

(4) Their enzymatic interaction

177. Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split

up the work in a way that.

(1) Exhibits division of labour

(2) Contribute to the survival of the body as a

whole

(3) Exhibits division of labour and contribute to

the survival of the body as a whole

(4) Exhibits similar function and contribute to

the survial of the body as a whole

178. In each segment of cockroach, exoskeleton has

hardened plates called.

(1) Arthrodial membrane

(2) Tergites

(3) Sclerites

(4) Sternites

179. All the following are examples of connective

tissue except.

(1) Tendons (2) Ligaments

(3) Muscle (4) Adipose tissue.

180. Main excretory product of cockroach is

(1) Ammonia (2) Urea

(3) Uric acid (4) Guanine



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XI - Foundation Revision Test - 8th

PCB - 22.04.2020

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xi foundation revision - test-08 (pcb) - 22.04goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image313.pdf · 2020. 4....

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